Z3d053 CDC UREs

179 Questions | Attempts: 415
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?

    • A.

      Sustain cryptographic equipment.

    • B.

      Install and maintain servers or other computer systems.

    • C.

      Manage data, information, and knowledge sharing services.

    • D.

      Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Detection activities, including real-time intrusion detection and firewall protection.
  • 2. 

    2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?

    • A.

      Client Systems (3D1X1).

    • B.

      Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • C.

      Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    Correct Answer
    A. Client Systems (3D1X1).
  • 3. 

    3. (002) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    B. 5
  • 4. 

    4. (002) What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?

    • A.

      Assets hazards.

    • B.

      Implement controls.

    • C.

      Supervise and evaluate.

    • D.

      Develop controls and make decisions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Develop controls and make decisions.
  • 5. 

    5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      95

    Correct Answer
    D. 95
  • 6. 

    6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?

    • A.

      Global network.

    • B.

      Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • C.

      Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    • D.

      Wireless metropolitan area network (WMAN).

    Correct Answer
    C. Wireless wide area network (WWAN).
  • 7. 

    7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?

    • A.

      CAT–6.

    • B.

      Coaxial.

    • C.

      Fiber optic.

    • D.

      Twisted pair.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fiber optic.
  • 8. 

    8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?

    • A.

      Fiber optic.

    • B.

      Terrestrial.

    • C.

      Radio frequency.

    • D.

      Satellite microwave.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber optic.
  • 9. 

    9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?

    • A.

      Bus.

    • B.

      Star.

    • C.

      Ring.

    • D.

      Tree.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bus.
  • 10. 

    10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
  • 11. 

    11. (006) How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      128

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
  • 12. 

    12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?

    • A.

      B.

    • B.

      C.

    • C.

      D.

    • D.

      E.

    Correct Answer
    D. E.
  • 13. 

    13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?

    • A.

      X.x.x.0.

    • B.

      X.x.x.255.

    • C.

      127.x.x.x.

    • D.

      255.255.255.255.

    Correct Answer
    D. 255.255.255.255.
  • 14. 

    14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a

    • A.

      Mask.

    • B.

      Subnet.

    • C.

      Hierarchy.

    • D.

      Routing prefix.

    Correct Answer
    D. Routing prefix.
  • 15. 

    15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the “language” computers use to find and connect with each other?

    • A.

      User datagram protocol (UDP).

    • B.

      B. Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • C.

      C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    • D.

      D. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
  • 16. 

    16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      B. 80.

    • C.

      C. 5050.

    • D.

      D. 8080.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 80.
  • 17. 

    17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?

    • A.

      Internet protocol (IP).

    • B.

      Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).

    • C.

      Transmission control protocol (TCP).

    • D.

      Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
  • 18. 

    18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as

    • A.

      A port.

    • B.

      A protocol.

    • C.

      A service point.

    • D.

      An entrance point.

    Correct Answer
    A. A port.
  • 19. 

    19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

    • A.

      0 to 1023

    • B.

      1024 to 23535.

    • C.

      23536 to 49151.

    • D.

      49152 to 65535.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 to 1023
  • 20. 

    20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      23

    • D.

      53

    Correct Answer
    C. 23
  • 21. 

    21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

    • A.

      21

    • B.

      22

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      80

    Correct Answer
    D. 80
  • 22. 

    22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?

    • A.

      Strobe scan.

    • B.

      Sweep scan.

    • C.

      Fragment packet scan.

    • D.

      File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sweep scan.
  • 23. 

    23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?

    • A.

      Fragment packets.

    • B.

      Synchronous (SYN) scan.

    • C.

      User datagram protocol (UDP) scan.

    • D.

      Transmission control protocol (TCP) scan.

    Correct Answer
    B. Synchronous (SYN) scan.
  • 24. 

    24. (008) Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols and services (PPS) policies and procedures?

    • A.

      Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps).

    • B.

      Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Air Force Information, Services and Integration Directorate (SAF/XCIA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC).
  • 25. 

    25. (009) How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?

    • A.

      Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.

    • B.

      Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.

    • C.

      Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.

    • D.

      Four groups of eight hexadecimal numbers, separated by periods.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eight groups of four hexadecimal numbers, separated by colons.
  • 26. 

    26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?

    • A.

      Tunneling.

    • B.

      Dual layer.

    • C.

      Dual stack.

    • D.

      Peer-to-peer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling.
  • 27. 

    27. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while

    • A.

      Installing all applicable security patches.

    • B.

      Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • C.

      Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • D.

      Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.
  • 28. 

    28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?

    • A.

      Installing all applicable security patches.

    • B.

      Creating continuity throughout the network.

    • C.

      Minimizing risks posed by various cyberspace threats.

    • D.

      Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Keeping complete and accurate documentation for all configuration changes.
  • 29. 

    29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?

    • A.

      802.11a.

    • B.

      802.11b.

    • C.

      802.11g.

    • D.

      802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    B. 802.11b.
  • 30. 

    30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?

    • A.

      802.11a.

    • B.

      802.11b.

    • C.

      802.11g.

    • D.

      802.11n.

    Correct Answer
    D. 802.11n.
  • 31. 

    31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?

    • A.

      WiFi protected access (WPA).

    • B.

      Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).

    • C.

      Wireless local area network (WLAN).

    • D.

      Wireless wide area network (WWAN).

    Correct Answer
    B. Wired equivalency privacy (WEP).
  • 32. 

    32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing

    • A.

      An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.

    • B.

      An adequate IA posture in the AF environment.

    • C.

      A federal desktop configuration.

    • D.

      A federal server configuration.

    Correct Answer
    A. An adequate information assurance (IA) posture in a shared-risk environment.
  • 33. 

    33. (012) What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD) information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?

    • A.

      Secure location.

    • B.

      System classification.

    • C.

      Defense-in-depth code.

    • D.

      Mission assurance category.

    Correct Answer
    D. Mission assurance category.
  • 34. 

    34. (013) Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?

    • A.

      Users are aware of their role in IA.

    • B.

      Users are trained on network security.

    • C.

      Users have met investigative requirements.

    • D.

      Users have satisfied network access requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Users have met investigative requirements.
  • 35. 

    35. (013) Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems?

    • A.

      Wing commander.

    • B.

      Wing information assurance officer (WIAO).

    • C.

      AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.

    • D.

      AF Network Operations Center (AFNOC) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Network Operations (AFNETOPS) commander.
  • 36. 

    36. (013) Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing volunteers access to the AF network?

    • A.

      Unit commander.

    • B.

      Unit security manager.

    • C.

      Information system security officer (ISSO).

    • D.

      Wing information system security office (WISSO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit security manager.
  • 37. 

    37. (014) The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

    • A.

      Having information ready when needed.

    • B.

      Not being able to deny who performed network actions.

    • C.

      The protection of the network from those not authorized access.

    • D.

      The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

    Correct Answer
    D. The assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
  • 38. 

    38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?

    • A.

      32-bit.

    • B.

      64-bit.

    • C.

      128-bit.

    • D.

      256-bit.

    Correct Answer
    C. 128-bit.
  • 39. 

    39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?

    • A.

      Digital.

    • B.

      Biometric.

    • C.

      Encryption.

    • D.

      Identification.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identification.
  • 40. 

    40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?

    • A.

      Integrity.

    • B.

      Availability.

    • C.

      Confidentiality.

    • D.

      Non-repudiation.

    Correct Answer
    D. Non-repudiation.
  • 41. 

    41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?

    • A.

      Wing (WG).

    • B.

      Air Force (AF).

    • C.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • D.

      Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Local Registration Authority/Trusted Agent (LRA/TA).
  • 42. 

    42. (015) Which of the following represents a strong password?

    • A.

      1234!@#$asAShi.

    • B.

      P@ssw0rd123456.

    • C.

      Wsob^@49fg91*hd.

    • D.

      GwL18!np*Z&fB3q.

    Correct Answer
    D. GwL18!np*Z&fB3q.
  • 43. 

    43. (016) Which category of information must be stored on removable media?

    • A.

      Classified.

    • B.

      Unclassified.

    • C.

      Sensitive but unclassified.

    • D.

      For official use only (FOUO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Classified.
  • 44. 

    44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?

    • A.

      End-user.

    • B.

      Remote user.

    • C.

      Administrative.

    • D.

      Limited (general).

    Correct Answer
    C. Administrative.
  • 45. 

    45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?

    • A.

      Router.

    • B.

      Firewall.

    • C.

      Proxy server.

    • D.

      Network access server.

    Correct Answer
    D. Network access server.
  • 46. 

    46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered

    • A.

      Threats.

    • B.

      Exploits.

    • C.

      Vulnerabilities.

    • D.

      Breaches of security.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vulnerabilities.
  • 47. 

    47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?

    • A.

      Shutting down ports.

    • B.

      Using strong passwords.

    • C.

      Ensuring remote access.

    • D.

      Disabling unused/unneeded services.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensuring remote access.
  • 48. 

    48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?

    • A.

      Rsh.

    • B.

      Telnet.

    • C.

      Finger.

    • D.

      File transfer protocol (FTP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Telnet.
  • 49. 

    49. (018) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases

    • A.

      Notices.

    • B.

      Postings.

    • C.

      Bulletins.

    • D.

      Announcements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Bulletins.
  • 50. 

    50. (019) A companion file virus is one that

    • A.

      Writes itself before the original file.

    • B.

      Writes itself to the end of the original file.

    • C.

      Writes itself between file sections of 32-bit file.

    • D.

      Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.

    Correct Answer
    D. Renames the original file and writes itself with the original file’s name.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 05, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    CDCs4dayz
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