Z3d053 CDC UREs

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1. 5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all accidents?
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2. 8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?
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3. 24. (210) How often should communications security (COMSEC) access lists be reviewed for accuracy?
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4. 48. (220) Sign the communication security (COMSEC) material destruction record
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5. 7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a second layer surrounded by glass or plastic?
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6. 9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with another device on the network send a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes?
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7. 18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as
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8. 26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure point-to-point communication?
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9. 39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to sign an enlisted performance report (EPR)?
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10. 41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a contractor employee’s need to obtain a government public key infrastructure (PKI) certificate?
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11. 46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered
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12. 58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information assurance officers (IAO) in an organization?
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13. 19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
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14. 20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?
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15. 21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
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16. 23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
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17. 30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely available?
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18. 37. (014) The definition of integrity as it’s applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
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19. 47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing a UNIX system?
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20. 52. (019) The two fundamental concepts of network security are
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21. 23. (210) Which type of security clearance is not valid for personnel on a communications security (COMSEC) access list?
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22. 44. (219) Who may destroy communications security (COMSEC) material?
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23. 54. (223) When you are performing courier duties and transporting bulky communication security (COMSEC) material through the airlines, when is it acceptable to leave the COMSEC material unattended?
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24. 55. (224) How many times do you wrap communications security (COMSEC) material prior to transportation?
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25. 4. (002) What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?
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26. 14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP) that are used to identify the network portion of an IP address is called a
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27. 17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard designed to reduce the administration burden and complexity of configuring hosts on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) based network?
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28. 40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to sign e-mail provide?
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29. 42. (015) Which of the following represents a strong password?
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30. 51. (019) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is called a
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31. 74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which classified information is processed?
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32. 83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization ensure individual information system user actions can be traced to the user?
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33. 86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN) connection approval can be delegated to?
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34. 90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information technology (IT) Lean reengineering process?
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35. 19. (209) Which of the following requirements would make a person ineligible for the cryptographic access program (CAP)?
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36. 39. (217) When you are sealing a package containing communications security (COMSEC) material where do you place your initials?
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37. 41. (218) Changes that must be made to material in communication security (COMSEC) publications are called
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38. 52. (222) How many people must unwrap the inner wrapper of a top secret (TS) crypto package?
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39. 79. (235) Comm kits are normally contained in
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40. 2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs standard voice, data, video network, and cryptographic client devices in fixed and deployed environments?
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41. 16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by hypertext transfer protocol
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42. 38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with at least what type of secure socket layer?
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43. 43. (016) Which category of information must be stored on removable media?
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44. 44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or system reviews are given which type of access?
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45. 78. (029) Who is the installation’s focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters?
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46. 26. (211) At a minimum, how often must you review the communications security (COMSEC) access list?
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47. 43. (219) Who requests disposition instructions for communications security (COMSEC) material?
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48. 50. (221) Two-person integrity (TPI) is the storage and handling system that prohibits access by any single person to what classification of communications security (COMSEC) material?
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49. 51. (221) What provides the special protection of Top Secret (TS) communications security (COMSEC) material that is needed to help prevent otherwise avoidable problems from happening?
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50. 64. (229) The front of the KOK–22A device fill connector allows interface with which type of file devices?
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51. 65. (229) On the back of the KOK–22A, which interface allows you to connect the serial input/output (I/O) port of the key processor (KP) to the serial I/O port of the controlling computer?
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52. 1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety journeyman?
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53. 12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used for experimental purposes?
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54. 13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited broadcasts?
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55. 15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the “language” computers use to find and connect with each other?
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56. 34. (013) Which of the following is not a result of initial information assurance (IA) awareness training for all network users?
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57. 49. (018) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows operating system and other products, Microsoft releases
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58. 50. (019) A companion file virus is one that
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59. 59. (024) What is the minimum grade requirement for an information assurance assessment and assistance program (IAAP) team chief?
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60. 63. (025) Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges sent for sanitization?
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61. 64. (025) How many times should you wipe each active surface of the media being degaussed when using a degaussing wand?
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62. 67. (026) How many years are the records of destruction of a hard drive maintained?
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63. 4. (201) Who assists the communications security account manager (CAM) with day-to-day administration and maintenance of accounting records for communications security (COMSEC) material?
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64. Match the following
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65. 71. (233) Who provides formal classroom training to instruct aircrews on how to establish and maintain communications?
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66. 72. (233) What squadron are Combat Crew Communications (CCC) units assigned to?
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67. 73. (234) Combat Crew Communications (CCC) Level 2 certification ensures personnel are qualified to support
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68. 75. (234) Which code helps the Air Force identify special experience and training?
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69. 29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?
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70. 32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach for establishing
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71. 55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through unclassified e-mail it is considered
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72. 65. (025) How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2 years of operation?
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73. 70. (027) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon and prohibit the use of government owned removable information systems storage media for classified systems or networks?
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74. 79. (029) An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC assessment on
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75. 2. (201) What allows one electronic key management system (EKMS) element to pass required information to another EKMS element enabling both elements to generate the same key session?
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76. 28. (212) What term is used to describe a communication security (COMSEC) security lapse with a potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material if it is allowed to continue?
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77. 36. (215) A communications security account manager (CAM) submits an amplifying report every how many days until the final report is submitted?
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78. 38. (217) When you create a communication security physical inventory (CPI), you will need to include all of the following information except
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79. 57. (225) What local communications security management software (LCMS) desktop function provides a user with the ability to securely pass information and/or transfer Electronic Key Management System (EKMS) messages/keys directly to other EKMS accounts?
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80. 6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband data services?
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81. 10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet Protocol (IP) address has how many positions?
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82. 22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the same port on more than one machine?
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83. 31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a wireless security platform that would perform as securely as a traditional wired network by providing data encryption?
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84. 57. (022) Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are not used in which of the following situations?
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85. 66. (026) When destroying DVD storage devices, what is the maximum particle size allowable on the normal edge dimensions?
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86. 71. (027) Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and closing of security containers?
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87. 73. (027) An installation commander can authorize keeping which classification types on the flight line for in-transit storage?
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88. 29. (213) When an error or anomaly is detected upon receipt/inspection of communications security (COMSEC) material, who sends a message to DIRNSA/I31132?
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89. 34. (215) The rank requirement for an inquiry officer includes all of these except
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90. Which one do you like?
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91. 58. (226) Which statement is not accurate regarding firefly credentials?
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92. 76. (235) Who is responsible for building, issuing, and recovering comm kits?
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93. 28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it possible for replacement administrators to accomplish the same tasks as their predecessors?
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94. 48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?
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95. 1. (201) What is a collection of interoperable systems developed for the services and government agencies to automate handling and management of communications security (COMSEC) material?
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96. 11. (205) Who performs the semiannual inspections and audits on the base communications security (COMSEC) account?
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97. 35. (215) Who completes an initial report for each communications security (COMSEC) incident?
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98. 37. (216) When removing material from a communication security physical inventory (CPI), always annotate it by
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99. 84. (236) What type of change notice is not scheduled and is only published as required to provide amendments for safety and flight information?
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100. 11. (006) How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
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101. 33. (012) What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD) information systems that is directly associated with the importance of the information contained relative to achieving DOD goals and objectives?
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102. 45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a network?
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103. Which one do you like?
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104. 13. (206) Qualified personnel perform preventative maintenance and security inspections on safes and vaults every
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105. 59. (226) The simple key loader (SKL) is the replacement for which device?
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106. 81. (236) Flight Information Publications (FLIP) are divided into how many geographical regions?
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107. 25. (009) How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address written?
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108. Which one do you like?
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109. 72. (027) Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use
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110. 82. (030) What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) could be expected to have a serious adverse effect on organizational operations, organizational assets, or people?
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111. 88. (032) Integrated Network Operations Security Centers (I-NOSC) use security and network monitoring tools to do all of the following except
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112. 6. (202) Who requires that the communications security account manager (CAM) be formally trained to certify the training of local management device/key processor (LMD/KP) platform users?
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113. 25. (210) At the base level, who initials the communications security (COMSEC) access list?
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114. 33. (215) Within how many hours from the time a communications security (COMSEC) incident is discovered must a commander appoint an inquiry officer?
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115. 40. (217) How often must a communications security account manager (CAM) review the communications security (COMSEC) physical inventory?
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116. 42. (218) How many people are required to complete page replacements in unclassified communication security (COMSEC) publications?
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117. 63. (228) How often must local communications management software (LCMS) audit data be reviewed?
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118. 77. (235) Of the four types of comm kits you can build, which one includes the coverage period of the mission plus 3 days?
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119. 69. (027) Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor label?
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120. 8. (203) Who assists the communications security account manager (CAM) in his or her day-to-day duties?
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121. 31. (214) What type of communications security (COMSEC) incident is any loss of control, theft, capture, recovery by salvage, tampering, unauthorized viewing, access, or photographing that has the potential to jeopardize COMSEC material?
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122. 53. (222) How many people are required to transport Top Secret (TS) keying material (KEYMAT) sealed in National Security Agency (NSA) protective packaging?
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123. 74. (234) Once entered into Combat Crew Communications (CCC) Level 1 certification training, how long does an active duty technician have to complete certification?
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124. 82. (236) Which documents are designed to provide aircrews with information on radio navigation, departure, airway structure, approach and landing information?
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125. 83. (236) Flight Information Handbooks (FIH) are issued every
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126. 62. (025) When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, what percentage of the overwritten information should be randomly reread to confirm only the overwritten characters are recovered?
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127. 77. (029) What type of equipment is used for acquisition, storage and manipulation of voice and data?
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128. 22. (209) Who is responsible for overseeing the cryptographic access program (CAP) and providing written local procedures to the CAP administrator?
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129. 56. (224) Which method is not used to complete a bulk encrypted transaction (BET)?
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130. 3. (002) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
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131. 75. (028) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters is considered to be in facility zone
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132. 32. (215) Report communications security (COMSEC) deviations and incidents immediately to all of these personnel except
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133. 46. (219) Which is not an authorized method to destroy key tapes?
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134. 61. (227) The local management device (LMD) supports or utilizes all of the following except
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135. 78. (235) What comm kit type do you build for emergency war orders (EWO)?
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136. 85. (236) Which squadron commander must be notified before outdated Flight Information Publications (FLIP) information is issued?
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137. 85. (031) In which phase of the Department of Defense information assurance certification and accreditation process (DIACAP) do you initiate and plan for certification and accreditation (C&A)?
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138. 18. (208) Which form do you use to record the arrival or departure of all personnel not named on the facility authorized access list?
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139. 20. (209) Those not eligible to be enrolled in the cryptographic access program (CAP) are personnel
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140. 45. (219) Which is not an authorized method for routinely destroying paper communications security (COMSEC) aids?
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141. 47. (220) What form serves as the destruction certificate for communication security (COMSEC) material?
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142. 5. (201) Who is responsible for identifying cryptonet members?
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143. 10. (204) When a unit receives an unsatisfactory rating on a communications security (COMSEC) inspection, the wing will reassess the unit within how many days?
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144. 54. (020) An incident in which an Air Force computer, information system, or network was denied use due to an overwhelming volume of unauthorized network traffic is category
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145. 7. (202) Who must sign all communications security manager (CAM) waivers?
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146. 61. (025) Which form is used to annotate that storage media from an information system has been cleared?
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147. 80. (029) Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security Assessments/Emission Security Countermeasures, is considered
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148. 9. (204) Wing information assurance (IA) assessments are generally conducted every
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149. 15. (207) For accountability purposes, store short-term keyed devices in an approved container and account for the devices on a
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150. 60. (227) What classification of communication security (COMSEC) material is the local management device (LMD) designed to support and process?
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151. 66. (230) What is the classification of magnetic media used to transport encrypted key?
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152. 60. (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information assurance (IA) programs using an AF Form 4170 every two years or sooner?
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153. 12. (205) How often does the communications security account manager (CAM) perform an assessment on the communications security responsible officer (CRO) communication security (COMSEC) account?
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154. 16. (208) Which form do you use to document and annotate opening, closing, and checking of any GSA-approved security container?
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155. 30. (214) What type of incident includes the unauthorized disclosure of communications security (COMSEC) information or material?
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156. 80. (236) Which is not a flight phase that Flight Information Publications (FLIP) are aligned with?
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157. 27. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and controlled to ensure access to the network while
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158. 68. (026) When overwriting hard drives, you must examine no less than what percentage of all overwritten hard drives to verify the overwriting process?
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159. 81. (030) How many steps are in the risk management framework process?
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160. 87. (031) Who is the connection approval authority for mission assurance category I (MAC I) systems?
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161. 27. (212) What is the term used to identify the highest level of security lapse in handling communications security (COMSEC)?
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162. 49. (220) What is the classification of the Standard Form (SF) 153 when the disposition record card (DRC) is attached?
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163. 67. (231) Which communication security (COMSEC) management software is used in conjunction with the key processor (KP) to generate electronic keys as well as transfer physical and electronic keys to other COMSEC accounts?
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164. 56. (021) Who tracks Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status to ensure directed actions are accomplished in a timely manner?
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165. 84. (030) How many steps are in the system development life cycle?
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166. 24. (008) Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force ports, protocols and services (PPS) policies and procedures?
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167. 36. (013) Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing volunteers access to the AF network?
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168. 69. (232) Which communications security (COMSEC) management software uses menus and submenus for necessary tasks?
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169. 76. (028) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters is considered to be in equipment zone considered to be in facility zone
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170. 89. (032) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts are controlled and are only released with approval of the
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171. 17. (208) Which form do you use to document when a safe or vault is put into use?
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172. 35. (013) Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to access unclassified systems?
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173. 68. (231) Which communication security (COMSEC) management software allows a user to view the exact location of any COMSEC item held by the local account or a local element?
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174. 70. (232) Which communications security (COMSEC) management software does not allow an account to perform a semiannual inventory?
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175. 53. (020) An incident in which an unauthorized person gained user-level privileges on an Air Force computer, information system, or network device is considered category
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176. 3. (201) Who appoints a communications security responsible officer (CRO) to support a unit’s communications security (COMSEC) mission?
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177. 62. (228) Which type of National Security Agency (NSA)-approved encryption device does the local management device (LMD) use to communicate over a communications link?
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178. 21. (209) Who appoints a cryptographic access program (CAP) administrator?
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179. 14. (206) Which form is used to document the highest level classification of a security container?
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5. (002) Human error causes approximately what percentage of all...
8. (004) Which of the following is not an example of unbound media?
24. (210) How often should communications security (COMSEC) access...
48. (220) Sign the communication security (COMSEC) material...
7. (004) Which bound media has a core surrounded by cladding and a...
9. (005) In which topology does a device wanting to communicate with...
18. (008) A logical connection point for the transmission of...
26. (009) Which type of transition technology is used to set up secure...
39. (014) Which common access card (CAC) certificate would be used to...
41. (014) The contract manager must use what agency to validate a...
46. (018) Weaknesses or holes in a security system are considered
58. (023) What determines the number of alternate information...
19. (008) Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
20. (008) Which port is used for telnet?
21. (008) Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
23. (008) Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
30. (011) What is the newest WiFi networking standard that is widely...
37. (014) The definition of integrity as it’s applied to...
47. (018) Which of the following options is not involved when securing...
52. (019) The two fundamental concepts of network security are
23. (210) Which type of security clearance is not valid for personnel...
44. (219) Who may destroy communications security (COMSEC) material?
54. (223) When you are performing courier duties and transporting...
55. (224) How many times do you wrap communications security (COMSEC)...
4. (002) What is the third step in the risk management (RM) process?
14. (006) The sequence of leading bits in an internet protocol (IP)...
17. (007) Which protocol is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)...
40. (014) What does the common access card (CAC) certificate used to...
42. (015) Which of the following represents a strong password?
51. (019) A program that contains or installs a malicious program is...
74. (028) Which term identifies any equipment or area in which...
83. (030) In which information assurance control must an organization...
86. (031) What is the minimum rank the AF Information Network (AFIN)...
90. (033) Which of the following is not a phase in the information...
19. (209) Which of the following requirements would make a person...
39. (217) When you are sealing a package containing communications...
41. (218) Changes that must be made to material in communication...
52. (222) How many people must unwrap the inner wrapper of a top...
79. (235) Comm kits are normally contained in
2. (001) Which career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and...
16. (007) Which transmission control protocol (TCP) port is used by...
38. (014) Logon and password management screens must be encrypted with...
43. (016) Which category of information must be stored on removable...
44. (017) Users who perform troubleshooting, configuration changes, or...
78. (029) Who is the installation’s focal point for emission...
26. (211) At a minimum, how often must you review the communications...
43. (219) Who requests disposition instructions for communications...
50. (221) Two-person integrity (TPI) is the storage and handling...
51. (221) What provides the special protection of Top Secret (TS)...
64. (229) The front of the KOK–22A device fill connector allows...
65. (229) On the back of the KOK–22A, which interface allows you to...
1. (001) Which of the following is a duty performed by a cyber surety...
12. (006) Which class of internet protocol (IP) addresses is only used...
13. (006) Which internet protocol (IP) address is used for limited...
15. (007) Which protocol does the Internet support as the...
34. (013) Which of the following is not a result of initial...
49. (018) When vulnerabilities are discovered within the Windows...
50. (019) A companion file virus is one that
59. (024) What is the minimum grade requirement for an information...
63. (025) Where are thermal transfer and dye sublimation cartridges...
64. (025) How many times should you wipe each active surface of the...
67. (026) How many years are the records of destruction of a hard...
4. (201) Who assists the communications security account manager (CAM)...
Match the following
71. (233) Who provides formal classroom training to instruct aircrews...
72. (233) What squadron are Combat Crew Communications (CCC) units...
73. (234) Combat Crew Communications (CCC) Level 2 certification...
75. (234) Which code helps the Air Force identify special experience...
29. (011) Which is the slowest yet least expensive WiFi standard?
32. (012) Defense-in-depth is the Department of Defense (DOD) approach...
55. (020) When classified information is inadvertently sent through...
65. (025) How often must a degausser be recertified during its first 2...
70. (027) Who has the authority to impose restrictions upon and...
79. (029) An emission security (EMSEC) manager documents an EMSEC...
2. (201) What allows one electronic key management system (EKMS)...
28. (212) What term is used to describe a communication security...
36. (215) A communications security account manager (CAM) submits an...
38. (217) When you create a communication security physical inventory...
57. (225) What local communications security management software...
6. (003) Which type of network typically provides wireless broadband...
10. (006) When viewed in binary form, each octet within an Internet...
22. (008) In which type of port scan does the scanner connect to the...
31. (011) Which wireless standard was originally intended to create a...
57. (022) Continuity of operations plans (COOP) are not used in which...
66. (026) When destroying DVD storage devices, what is the maximum...
71. (027) Which standard form (SF) is used to record the opening and...
73. (027) An installation commander can authorize keeping which...
29. (213) When an error or anomaly is detected upon receipt/inspection...
34. (215) The rank requirement for an inquiry officer includes all of...
Which one do you like?
58. (226) Which statement is not accurate regarding firefly...
76. (235) Who is responsible for building, issuing, and recovering...
28. (010) Administrators must be in the habit of doing what to make it...
48. (018) Which UNIX command allows remote logins?
1. (201) What is a collection of interoperable systems developed for...
11. (205) Who performs the semiannual inspections and audits on the...
35. (215) Who completes an initial report for each communications...
37. (216) When removing material from a communication security...
84. (236) What type of change notice is not scheduled and is only...
11. (006) How many bits are within an internet protocol version 4...
33. (012) What is assigned to all Department of Defense (DOD)...
45. (017) Which device provides the initial entry point into a...
Which one do you like?
13. (206) Qualified personnel perform preventative maintenance and...
59. (226) The simple key loader (SKL) is the replacement for which...
81. (236) Flight Information Publications (FLIP) are divided into how...
25. (009) How is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address...
Which one do you like?
72. (027) Personnel removing top secret material from storage must use
82. (030) What type of impact occurs when the loss of confidentiality,...
88. (032) Integrated Network Operations Security Centers (I-NOSC) use...
6. (202) Who requires that the communications security account manager...
25. (210) At the base level, who initials the communications security...
33. (215) Within how many hours from the time a communications...
40. (217) How often must a communications security account manager...
42. (218) How many people are required to complete page replacements...
63. (228) How often must local communications management software...
77. (235) Of the four types of comm kits you can build, which one...
69. (027) Which standard form (SF) label is used as a data descriptor...
8. (203) Who assists the communications security account manager (CAM)...
31. (214) What type of communications security (COMSEC) incident is...
53. (222) How many people are required to transport Top Secret (TS)...
74. (234) Once entered into Combat Crew Communications (CCC) Level 1...
82. (236) Which documents are designed to provide aircrews with...
83. (236) Flight Information Handbooks (FIH) are issued every
62. (025) When sanitizing sealed disks with a degausser, what...
77. (029) What type of equipment is used for acquisition, storage and...
22. (209) Who is responsible for overseeing the cryptographic access...
56. (224) Which method is not used to complete a bulk encrypted...
3. (002) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
75. (028) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters,...
32. (215) Report communications security (COMSEC) deviations and...
46. (219) Which is not an authorized method to destroy key tapes?
61. (227) The local management device (LMD) supports or utilizes all...
78. (235) What comm kit type do you build for emergency war orders...
85. (236) Which squadron commander must be notified before outdated...
85. (031) In which phase of the Department of Defense information...
18. (208) Which form do you use to record the arrival or departure of...
20. (209) Those not eligible to be enrolled in the cryptographic...
45. (219) Which is not an authorized method for routinely destroying...
47. (220) What form serves as the destruction certificate for...
5. (201) Who is responsible for identifying cryptonet members?
10. (204) When a unit receives an unsatisfactory rating on a...
54. (020) An incident in which an Air Force computer, information...
7. (202) Who must sign all communications security manager (CAM)...
61. (025) Which form is used to annotate that storage media from an...
80. (029) Once it is filled out an AF Form 4170, Emission Security...
9. (204) Wing information assurance (IA) assessments are generally...
15. (207) For accountability purposes, store short-term keyed devices...
60. (227) What classification of communication security (COMSEC)...
66. (230) What is the classification of magnetic media used to...
60. (024) Which agency conducts assessments of wing information...
12. (205) How often does the communications security account manager...
16. (208) Which form do you use to document and annotate opening,...
30. (214) What type of incident includes the unauthorized disclosure...
80. (236) Which is not a flight phase that Flight Information...
27. (010) Networked resources must be consistently monitored and...
68. (026) When overwriting hard drives, you must examine no less than...
81. (030) How many steps are in the risk management framework process?
87. (031) Who is the connection approval authority for mission...
27. (212) What is the term used to identify the highest level of...
49. (220) What is the classification of the Standard Form (SF) 153...
67. (231) Which communication security (COMSEC) management software is...
56. (021) Who tracks Air Force information condition (INFOCON) status...
84. (030) How many steps are in the system development life cycle?
24. (008) Which organization is responsible for developing Air Force...
36. (013) Who initiates a local files check prior to allowing...
69. (232) Which communications security (COMSEC) management software...
76. (028) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of...
89. (032) Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) transcripts...
17. (208) Which form do you use to document when a safe or vault is...
35. (013) Who is the approval authority for foreign nationals to...
68. (231) Which communication security (COMSEC) management software...
70. (232) Which communications security (COMSEC) management software...
53. (020) An incident in which an unauthorized person gained...
3. (201) Who appoints a communications security responsible officer...
62. (228) Which type of National Security Agency (NSA)-approved...
21. (209) Who appoints a cryptographic access program (CAP)...
14. (206) Which form is used to document the highest level...
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