CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz

150 Questions | Total Attempts: 138

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CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz

Welcome to this in-depth CDC 2f071: air force specialty code exam! It is perfect for helping you review just how much you know about the codes. Think you are up for the challenge? How about you give it a shot and get to see how much practice you will need in the end. All the best as you tackle it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent.

    • B. 

      Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • C. 

      Fuels maintenance supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

  • 2. 
    The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except
    • A. 

      Initial issue.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

  • 3. 
    Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?
    • A. 

      Vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • B. 

      Vehicle management flight materiel control section.

    • C. 

      Vehicle fleet manager.

    • D. 

      Technician assigned to CTK.

  • 4. 
    Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 5. 
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed
    • A. 

      With a minimum of twice the line volume.

    • B. 

      Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.

    • C. 

      Until a sump sample is obtained.

    • D. 

      For at least 30 minutes.

  • 6. 
    When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?
    • A. 

      ESC.

    • B. 

      NEXT.

    • C. 

      TANK.

    • D. 

      ENTER.

  • 7. 
    Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      One week.

    • B. 

      One month.

    • C. 

      Three months.

    • D. 

      Six months.

  • 8. 
    When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?
    • A. 

      All items.

    • B. 

      All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

    • C. 

      All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.

    • D. 

      All items followed by an ampersand (&).

  • 9. 
    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.

    • C. 

      Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

    • D. 

      Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?
    • A. 

      Vent valve.

    • B. 

      Service valve.

    • C. 

      Fill/drain valve.

    • D. 

      Pressure build up valve.

  • 11. 
    Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator
    • A. 

      Reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy.

    • B. 

      Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer.

    • C. 

      Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.

    • D. 

      Signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.

  • 12. 
    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not service the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

    • D. 

      Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.

  • 13. 
    To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?
    • A. 

      10–15 psi.

    • B. 

      15–20 psi.

    • C. 

      20–30 psi.

    • D. 

      30–40 psi.

  • 14. 
    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.

    • D. 

      Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

  • 15. 
    Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?
    • A. 

      Conduct another odor test.

    • B. 

      Inform aircraftmaintenance.

    • C. 

      Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

    • D. 

      Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

  • 16. 
    Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?
    • A. 

      100 ml.

    • B. 

      200 ml.

    • C. 

      300 ml.

    • D. 

      400 ml.

  • 17. 
    What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red cross.

    • D. 

      Red diagonal.

  • 18. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?
    • A. 

      The date the cart was filled.

    • B. 

      The quantity issued to the cart.

    • C. 

      The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.

    • D. 

      The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

  • 19. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?
    • A. 

      As either “+” or “–” in column A.

    • B. 

      As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.

    • C. 

      As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • D. 

      As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

  • 20. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 250–1.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–1.

  • 21. 
    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 22. 
    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7).

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

  • 23. 
    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–16.

    • D. 

      F–22.

  • 24. 
    When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first
    • A. 

      Minute of fuel flow.

    • B. 

      Two minutes of fuel flow.

    • C. 

      250 gallons defueled.

    • D. 

      500 gallons defueled.

  • 25. 
    When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?
    • A. 

      Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.

    • B. 

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

    • C. 

      Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    • D. 

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.