Opol Ure 2f071 2017

150 Questions

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Opol Ure 2f071 2017


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent.

    • B. 

      Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • C. 

      Fuels maintenance supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

  • 2. 
    The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except
    • A. 

      Initial issue.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semi-annually.

    • D. 

      When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

  • 3. 
    Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?
    • A. 

      Vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • B. 

      Vehicle management flight materiel control section.

    • C. 

      Vehicle fleet manager.

    • D. 

      Technician assigned to CTK.

  • 4. 
    Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 5. 
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed
    • A. 

      With a minimum of twice the line volume.

    • B. 

      Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.

    • C. 

      Until a sump sample is obtained.

    • D. 

      For at least 30 minutes.

  • 6. 
    When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?
    • A. 

      ESC.

    • B. 

      NEXT.

    • C. 

      TANK.

    • D. 

      ENTER.

  • 7. 
    Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?
    • A. 

      One week.

    • B. 

      One month.

    • C. 

      Three months.

    • D. 

      Six months.

  • 8. 
    When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?
    • A. 

      All items.

    • B. 

      All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

    • C. 

      All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.

    • D. 

      All items followed by an ampersand (&).

  • 9. 
    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.

    • C. 

      Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

    • D. 

      Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

  • 10. 
    Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?
    • A. 

      Vent valve.

    • B. 

      Service valve.

    • C. 

      Fill/drain valve.

    • D. 

      Pressure build up valve.

  • 11. 
    Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator
    • A. 

      Reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy.

    • B. 

      Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer.

    • C. 

      Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.

    • D. 

      Signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.

  • 12. 
    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not service the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

    • D. 

      Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.

  • 13. 
    To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?
    • A. 

      10–15 psi.

    • B. 

      15–20 psi.

    • C. 

      20–30 psi.

    • D. 

      30–40 psi.

  • 14. 
    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • C. 

      Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.

    • D. 

      Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

  • 15. 
    Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?
    • A. 

      Conduct another odor test.

    • B. 

      Inform aircraftmaintenance.

    • C. 

      Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

    • D. 

      Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

  • 16. 
    Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?
    • A. 

      100 ml.

    • B. 

      200 ml.

    • C. 

      300 ml.

    • D. 

      400 ml.

  • 17. 
    What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red cross.

    • D. 

      Red diagonal.

  • 18. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?
    • A. 

      The date the cart was filled.

    • B. 

      The quantity issued to the cart.

    • C. 

      The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.

    • D. 

      The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

  • 19. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?
    • A. 

      As either “+” or “–” in column A.

    • B. 

      As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.

    • C. 

      As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • D. 

      As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

  • 20. 
    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 250–1.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–1.

  • 21. 
    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 22. 
    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7).

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C. 

      Wing commander.

    • D. 

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

  • 23. 
    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?
    • A. 

      B–1.

    • B. 

      F–15.

    • C. 

      F–16.

    • D. 

      F–22.

  • 24. 
    When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first
    • A. 

      Minute of fuel flow.

    • B. 

      Two minutes of fuel flow.

    • C. 

      250 gallons defueled.

    • D. 

      500 gallons defueled.

  • 25. 
    When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?
    • A. 

      Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.

    • B. 

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

    • C. 

      Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    • D. 

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

  • 26. 
    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?
    • A. 

      A–10.

    • B. 

      B–2.

    • C. 

      F–15.

    • D. 

      F–22.

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?
    • A. 

      Concurrent servicing supervisor.

    • B. 

      Aircraft servicing supervisor.

    • C. 

      Chief servicing supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels operator.

  • 28. 
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      25.

    • D. 

      50.

  • 29. 
    Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?
    • A. 

      Passenger compartment monitor.

    • B. 

      Fuels servicing supervisor.

    • C. 

      Chief servicing supervisor.

    • D. 

      Refueling panel monitor.

  • 30. 
    During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?
    • A. 

      15.

    • B. 

      20.

    • C. 

      30.

    • D. 

      40.

  • 31. 
    Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 32. 
    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?
    • A. 

      No action is required.

    • B. 

      Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • C. 

      Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • D. 

      Stop the operation immediately.

  • 33. 
    When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle
    • A. 

      Can begin fuel flow once positioned.

    • B. 

      May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing.

    • C. 

      Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft.

    • D. 

      Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

  • 34. 
    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?
    • A. 

      PDA.

    • B. 

      Wireless.

    • C. 

      Device info.

    • D. 

      Base.

  • 35. 
    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?
    • A. 

      Basic configuration.

    • B. 

      Device configuration.

    • C. 

      Fuel point configuration.

    • D. 

      Meter configuration.

  • 36. 
    While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?
    • A. 

      Immediately terminate the operation.

    • B. 

      Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue.

    • C. 

      Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center.

    • D. 

      Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.

  • 37. 
    Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?
    • A. 

      Return-to-bulk (RTB).

    • B. 

      Ground fuel servicing.

    • C. 

      Aircraft fueling.

    • D. 

      Fillstand.

  • 38. 
    Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      1,500.

    • C. 

      3,000.

    • D. 

      4,500.

  • 39. 
    What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?
    • A. 

      4-inch hard hose.

    • B. 

      4-inch collapsible hose.

    • C. 

      6-inch hard hose.

    • D. 

      6-inch collapsible hose.

  • 40. 
    How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 41. 
    At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?
    • A. 

      Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

    • B. 

      Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

    • C. 

      Every 250 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

    • D. 

      Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

  • 42. 
    What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?
    • A. 

      30 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B. 

      65 psi.

    • C. 

      75 psi.

    • D. 

      100 psi.

  • 43. 
    How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 44. 
    Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?
    • A. 

      A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.

    • B. 

      A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge.

    • C. 

      Elements that have been in use for 36 months.

    • D. 

      Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.

  • 45. 
    What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?
    • A. 

      45 psi.

    • B. 

      75 psi.

    • C. 

      90 psi.

    • D. 

      150 psi.

  • 46. 
    The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds
    • A. 

      10 psid.

    • B. 

      15 psid.

    • C. 

      20 psid.

    • D. 

      25 psid.

  • 47. 
    When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?
    • A. 

      Turn off the panel power switch.

    • B. 

      Turn on the battery master switch.

    • C. 

      Set the station unit identification (ID) switch to the desired number.

    • D. 

      Place the manual/remote control switch in the MANUAL position.

  • 48. 
    When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      OFFLOAD.

    • D. 

      NO DEADMAN.

  • 49. 
    When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?
    • A. 

      25 ± 5 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B. 

      50 ± 10 psi.

    • C. 

      85 ± 5 psi.

    • D. 

      90 ± 10 psi.

  • 50. 
    When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?
    • A. 

      1,550.

    • B. 

      1,850.

    • C. 

      1,950.

    • D. 

      2,250.

  • 51. 
    When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–20multi-aircraft servicing platform, in what position should the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel be placed?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      REMOTE.

    • D. 

      MANUAL.

  • 52. 
    (020) When preparing an R–18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with
    • A. 

      Local environmental regulations.

    • B. 

      Local and federal environmental regulations.

    • C. 

      Federal environmental regulations.

    • D. 

      Local, federal and international environmental regulations.

  • 53. 
    When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, all rolling stock (e.g., R–18s, R–19s, and R–20s) should be drained in accordance with
    • A. 

      Local transportation guidelines.

    • B. 

      Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 23–221, Fuels Logistics Planning.

    • C. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24–203, Preparation and Movement of Air Force Cargo.

    • D. 

      Technical Order (TO) 37A9–3–5–61, Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE).

  • 54. 
    What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield?
    • A. 

      Ocean tanker or barge.

    • B. 

      Inland petroleum distribution system or tank trucks.

    • C. 

      Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery system.

    • D. 

      The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

  • 55. 
    What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components?
    • A. 

      US Army.

    • B. 

      US Air Force.

    • C. 

      Joint Petroleum Office (JPO).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

  • 56. 
    What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie?
    • A. 

      3,000.

    • B. 

      6,000.

    • C. 

      15,000.

    • D. 

      30,000.

  • 57. 
    What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Joint Petroleum Office (JPO).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

  • 58. 
    When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?
    • A. 

      2°.

    • B. 

      3°.

    • C. 

      4°.

    • D. 

      5°.

  • 59. 
    When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should be your first source of information for infrastructure availability?
    • A. 

      Responsible major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

    • D. 

      National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA).

  • 60. 
    With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?
    • A. 

      JP–5.

    • B. 

      JP–8.

    • C. 

      Jet A–1.

    • D. 

      Jet B.

  • 61. 
    What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing?
    • A. 

      Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement.

    • B. 

      Manpower force element listing (MFEL).

    • C. 

      Logistics detail (LOGDET).

    • D. 

      Title.

  • 62. 
    What software database is used to identify a unit type code’s (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages?
    • A. 

      AEF reporting tool (ART).

    • B. 

      Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

  • 63. 
    When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      As directed by major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      At the discretion of the technical order (TO) manager.

    • D. 

      When changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs.

  • 64. 
    When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of work days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      7.

    • D. 

      10.

  • 65. 
    What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?
    • A. 

      Technical Order (TO) 42B–1–23.

    • B. 

      40 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 280.

    • C. 

      Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) Directive 4140.25M.

  • 66. 
    At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      60 days.

    • C. 

      90 days.

    • D. 

      120 days.

  • 67. 
    How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 68. 
    When conducting internal inspections, at a minimum, the Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office inspects each fuels element at least once
    • A. 

      A month.

    • B. 

      Every three months.

    • C. 

      Each six months.

    • D. 

      A year.

  • 69. 
    All spot-checks are rated as
    • A. 

      Positive or Negative.

    • B. 

      Pass or Fail.

    • C. 

      Satisfactory or Unsatisfactory.

    • D. 

      Satisfactory, Marginal, or Unsatisfactory.

  • 70. 
    When reporting monthly assessments results, what form do Quality Control evaluators use?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2419, Routing and Review of Quality Control Reports.

    • B. 

      AF Form 2420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.

    • C. 

      AF Form 4420, Quality Control Inspection Summary.

    • D. 

      AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form.

  • 71. 
    What organization may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?
    • A. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B. 

      Parent major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Air Force petroleum agency (AFPA).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

  • 72. 
    What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?
    • A. 

      Base environmental manager.

    • B. 

      Base bioenvironmental engineer.

    • C. 

      Group environmental coordinator.

    • D. 

      Environmental protection committee.

  • 73. 
    What outside agency collects, analyzes, and publishes base fuel mishap reports and develops trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D. 

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

  • 74. 
    What agency acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services?
    • A. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B. 

      Air Force Logistics Management Agency (AFLMA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D. 

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

  • 75. 
    What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and its customers?
    • A. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.

    • D. 

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

  • 76. 
    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs?
    • A. 

      Technical Division.

    • B. 

      Plans and Programs Division.

    • C. 

      Resource Management Division.

    • D. 

      Science and Technology Division.

  • 77. 
    Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology?
    • A. 

      Technical Division.

    • B. 

      Laboratory Division.

    • C. 

      Resource Management Division.

    • D. 

      Science and Technology Division.

  • 78. 
    What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA–Energy policy or command policies?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office.

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D. 

      Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

  • 79. 
    Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base?
    • A. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • B. 

      Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

  • 80. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA–Energy policies?
    • A. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D. 

      Fuels service center (FSC).

  • 81. 
    When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided?
    • A. 

      Name of requester (crew chief).

    • B. 

      Grade of fuel.

    • C. 

      Authorized delivery point.

    • D. 

      Refueling vehicle/equipment registration number.

  • 82. 
    When you are inputting a transaction in the FMD Dispatch Module, what information should you enter in the Request Type when entering a defuel request?
    • A. 

      Select “Y” in place of the defaulted “N” in the field.

    • B. 

      Enter the reason for the defuel request.

    • C. 

      Select “Defuel” in place of the defaulted “Refuel”.

    • D. 

      Enter the estimated gallon amount of the defuel.

  • 83. 
    When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 84. 
    When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?
    • A. 

      .0025

    • B. 

      .003

    • C. 

      .005

    • D. 

      .0075

  • 85. 
    Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?
    • A. 

      Fuels operations superintendent.

    • B. 

      NCOIC fuels distribution.

    • C. 

      Mobile refueling supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels expediter.

  • 86. 
    Which agency can initiate a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report?
    • A. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)–Energy.

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Joint staff.

  • 87. 
    The Tank Group window in the Fuels Manager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?
    • A. 

      5.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      20.

  • 88. 
    When viewing the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker alarm toolbar you see a flashing green color in the alarm indicator box. You know this indicates
    • A. 

      No alarm.

    • B. 

      An unacknowledged alarm.

    • C. 

      An active unacknowledged alarm.

    • D. 

      An unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal.

  • 89. 
    Which method of payment is not authorized for a cash sale purchase?
    • A. 

      Cash.

    • B. 

      Check.

    • C. 

      Credit card.

    • D. 

      Money order.

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Products are not normally stocked.

    • B. 

      Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.

    • C. 

      Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.

    • D. 

      Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

  • 91. 
    Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) Fuels Service Center (FSC).

    • B. 

      Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • C. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 92. 
    At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by
    • A. 

      Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

    • B. 

      Shift supervisors.

    • C. 

      Off-duty personnel.

    • D. 

      Operations expeditors.

  • 93. 
    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by any of the following conditions except
    • A. 

      Tank size.

    • B. 

      Temperature.

    • C. 

      Mode of delivery.

    • D. 

      Volume of the product.

  • 94. 
    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?
    • A. 

      Major disaster.

    • B. 

      Combat losses.

    • C. 

      Peacetime losses.

    • D. 

      Determinable losses.

  • 95. 
    The inventory management plan (IMP) is published
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Every two years.

  • 96. 
    The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as
    • A. 

      Operating stock.

    • B. 

      Maximum inventory.

    • C. 

      Minimum inventory level.

    • D. 

      Petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS).

  • 97. 
    The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 98. 
    What agency prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document?
    • A. 

      Air Staff.

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 99. 
    When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text?
    • A. 

      Blue.

    • B. 

      Black.

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      Purple.

  • 100. 
    When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?
    • A. 

      Fuels service center (FSC) and the fuels management team (FMT).

    • B. 

      FSC and the vendor.

    • C. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      The vendor and DLA–Energy.

  • 101. 
    When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 102. 
    When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the 12 monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?
    • A. 

      3 years.

    • B. 

      3 years and 6 months.

    • C. 

      6 years.

    • D. 

      6 years and 3 months.

  • 103. 
    When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by
    • A. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy).

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • C. 

      Defense Automatic Addressing System (DAASC).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 104. 
    While attempting to determine authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you are unable to verify an organization as a valid authorized customer after reviewing the customer validation listing. Who should your responsible officer/terminal manager (RO/TM) contact first for assistance?
    • A. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • B. 

      Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk.

    • C. 

      Parent major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) Operations Center.

  • 105. 
    When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a VIL key request in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?
    • A. 

      12 months.

    • B. 

      24 months.

    • C. 

      36 months.

    • D. 

      48 months.

  • 106. 
    When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?
    • A. 

      The word “Rental”.

    • B. 

      The payment office DOD activity address code (DODAAC).

    • C. 

      The vehicle license plate number.

    • D. 

      The ORG code for the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) issuing the VIL key.

  • 107. 
    Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for E85 Ethanol?
    • A. 

      Red clipboard with blue stripes.

    • B. 

      Yellow clipboard with blue stripes.

    • C. 

      Brown clipboard with green stripes.

    • D. 

      Green clipboard with yellow stripes.

  • 108. 
    Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for Jet A fuel?
    • A. 

      Red with yellow outer border clipboard with black stripes.

    • B. 

      Yellow clipboard with white stripes.

    • C. 

      Brown clipboard with white stripes.

    • D. 

      Red clipboard with blue stripes.

  • 109. 
    Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?
    • A. 

      Fuels controller.

    • B. 

      Fuels information service center (FISC) superintendent.

    • C. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D. 

      All fuels personnel.

  • 110. 
    When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the
    • A. 

      Group commander.

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Group command post.

    • D. 

      Wing command post.

  • 111. 
    How often do you test a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?
    • A. 

      Every 3 hours.

    • B. 

      Every 6 hours.

    • C. 

      Every 12 hours.

    • D. 

      Every 24 hours.

  • 112. 
    How often do you sample cryotainers for purity, odor, and minor constituents?
    • A. 

      Every 30 days.

    • B. 

      Every 60 days.

    • C. 

      Every 90 days.

    • D. 

      Every 120 days.

  • 113. 
    How often should fuel correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?
    • A. 

      Every 365 days.

    • B. 

      Every 180 days.

    • C. 

      Every 60 days.

    • D. 

      Every 30 days.

  • 114. 
    When shipping a fuel sample, what Supply Priority should be used for correlation samples?
    • A. 

      01.

    • B. 

      02.

    • C. 

      03.

    • D. 

      09.

  • 115. 
    Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?
    • A. 

      Category 1.

    • B. 

      Category 2.

    • C. 

      Category 3.

    • D. 

      Category 4.

  • 116. 
    The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near
    • A. 

      30°F.

    • B. 

      50°F.

    • C. 

      60°F.

    • D. 

      90°F.

  • 117. 
    What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
    • A. 

      500 ml.

    • B. 

      1,000 ml.

    • C. 

      1,500 ml.

    • D. 

      2,000 ml.

  • 118. 
    Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?
    • A. 

      Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

    • B. 

      Bottom of the hydrometer.

    • C. 

      Top of the hydrometer.

    • D. 

      Top of the cylinder.

  • 119. 
    What do you use to rinse new sample containers prior to use?
    • A. 

      Petroleum ether.

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol.

    • C. 

      Filtered turbine fuel.

    • D. 

      Demineralized water.

  • 120. 
    When performing the bottle method test, the flow reducer ring is not used for testing what type of fuel?
    • A. 

      JP–8.

    • B. 

      JP–7.

    • C. 

      JP–5.

    • D. 

      JP–4.

  • 121. 
    To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of how many inches of mercury?
    • A. 

      20.

    • B. 

      25.

    • C. 

      27.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 122. 
    What step must you take if a sample fails either color or particle assessment?
    • A. 

      Take an immediate recheck sample using a single filter monitor.

    • B. 

      Obtain a one quart sample and conduct a bottle method analysis.

    • C. 

      Take an immediate recheck sample using a matched weight monitor.

    • D. 

      Obtain a one gallon correlation sample and forward to the area laboratory.

  • 123. 
    What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?
    • A. 

      Sodium hydroscein.

    • B. 

      Sodium fluorescein.

    • C. 

      Sodium phosgene.

    • D. 

      Food coloring.

  • 124. 
    How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 125. 
    How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 126. 
    When performing a fiber test on fixed vessels, what action would be necessary if two successive samples exceed 10 fibers per quart?
    • A. 

      Resample.

    • B. 

      No action required.

    • C. 

      Filter elements must be cleaned.

    • D. 

      Filter elements must be replaced.

  • 127. 
    A conductivity probe is not required to be cleaned before use when the
    • A. 

      Probe is new.

    • B. 

      Meter can be zeroed.

    • C. 

      Probe has been stored in a sealed container.

    • D. 

      Calibration data has been stamped on the probe.

  • 128. 
    What type of container must not be used when performing conductivity tests?
    • A. 

      Glass.

    • B. 

      Metal.

    • C. 

      Plastic.

    • D. 

      Insulated.

  • 129. 
    What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?
    • A. 

      1 minute.

    • B. 

      2 minutes.

    • C. 

      5 minutes.

    • D. 

      10 minutes.

  • 130. 
    What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?
    • A. 

      1 hour.

    • B. 

      6 hours.

    • C. 

      12 hours.

    • D. 

      24 hours.

  • 131. 
    When should you calibrate a refractometer that is used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests?
    • A. 

      Prior to first use.

    • B. 

      Weekly, and prior to first use.

    • C. 

      Daily, or when changing test water.

    • D. 

      Monthly, or when changing test water.

  • 132. 
    When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test, how long should you shake the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel?
    • A. 

      Until you get a good separation.

    • B. 

      1 minute.

    • C. 

      3 minutes.

    • D. 

      5 minutes.

  • 133. 
    What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?
    • A. 

      0.05 to 0.07 percent.

    • B. 

      0.05 to 0.10 percent.

    • C. 

      0.04 to 0.10 percent.

    • D. 

      0.04 to 0.20 percent.

  • 134. 
    During a flash point test, apply heat to the sample so the temperature of the sample increases
    • A. 

      1 to 3°F per minute.

    • B. 

      4 to 6°F per minute.

    • C. 

      9 to 11°F per minute.

    • D. 

      12 to 14°F per minute.

  • 135. 
    If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during
    • A. 

      January through April.

    • B. 

      October through December.

    • C. 

      October through March.

    • D. 

      November through January.

  • 136. 
    The temperature of the fuel in the aircraft tank normally decreases during flight depending on all of these factors except
    • A. 

      Speed.

    • B. 

      Altitude.

    • C. 

      Aircraft type.

    • D. 

      Flight duration.

  • 137. 
    What American Society for Testing and Material (ASTM) methods are used to determine freeze point of aviation fuel?
    • A. 

      ASTM D2500 or ASTM D2572.

    • B. 

      ASTM D1250 or ASTM D1086.

    • C. 

      ASTM D2500 or ASTM D1250.

    • D. 

      ASTM D2386 or ASTM D5972.

  • 138. 
    When recording test results, which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) application would you use to track sampling dates and store sample results?
    • A. 

      Reports application.

    • B. 

      Dispatch application.

    • C. 

      Accounting application.

    • D. 

      Quality Control application.

  • 139. 
    When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), what information is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block?
    • A. 

      The type of sample taken.

    • B. 

      The next sequential sample number.

    • C. 

      The kind of sample equipment used.

    • D. 

      The amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample analysis.

  • 140. 
    When reviewing test results in the FuelsManager Defense Quality Control application, how are results not within parameters identified?
    • A. 

      Failed status.

    • B. 

      Red X status.

    • C. 

      Lockout status.

    • D. 

      Removed status.

  • 141. 
    When performing lockout and tagout procedures, what form would you use to temporarily identify a condition that could result in a mishap that would cause death, disability, or a lost workday mishap?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979, Danger Tag.

    • B. 

      AF Form 980, Caution Tag.

    • C. 

      AF Form 981, Out of Order Tag.

    • D. 

      AF Form 983, Equipment Lockout Tag.

  • 142. 
    Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?
    • A. 

      Fuels environmental safety office.

    • B. 

      NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

    • C. 

      Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • D. 

      Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

  • 143. 
    Who should maintain the keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box?
    • A. 

      Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • B. 

      Laboratory personnel.

    • C. 

      Fuels Management Team.

    • D. 

      Fuels environmental safety office.

  • 144. 
    For a trend analysis, who defines what constitutes a negative trend and develops policies to isolate and correct them?
    • A. 

      Fuels environmental safety office.

    • B. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

  • 145. 
    Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • B. 

      Mobile refueling supervisor.

    • C. 

      Fuels operations superintendent.

    • D. 

      Fuels support.

  • 146. 
    Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Fuels service center (FSC).

    • B. 

      Fuels training supervisor.

    • C. 

      Fuels mobility supervisor.

    • D. 

      Fuels operations superintendent.

  • 147. 
    At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?
    • A. 

      14.

    • B. 

      30.

    • C. 

      45.

    • D. 

      60.

  • 148. 
    Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment?
    • A. 

      Fuels operations superintendent.

    • B. 

      Fuels mobility supervisor.

    • C. 

      Fuels management team (FMT).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 149. 
    What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623, Individual Training Record Folder.

    • B. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • C. 

      AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.

    • D. 

      AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.

  • 150. 
    The fuels training supervisor should review all training records
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.