CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/150 Questions

    Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

    • Monthly.
    • Quarterly.
    • Semiannually.
    • Annually.
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About This Quiz

Welcome to this in-depth CDC 2f071: air force specialty code exam! It is perfect for helping you review just how much you know about the codes. Think you are up for the challenge? How about you give it a shot and get to see how much practice you will need in the end. All the best as you tackle it!

CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

    • With a minimum of twice the line volume.

    • Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.

    • Until a sump sample is obtained.

    • For at least 30 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. With a minimum of twice the line volume.
    Explanation
    During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least double the volume of the water in the lines. Flushing the loop with an adequate amount of water helps to remove any sediment or debris that may have accumulated in the lines, ensuring that the water is clean and safe for use. Using less than twice the line volume may not effectively clean the lines and could leave behind contaminants.

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  • 3. 

    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

    • No action is required.

    • Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.

    • Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

    • Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.
    Explanation
    If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action would be to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing fuel operations and can provide instructions on how to proceed without the required form.

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  • 4. 

    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

    • No action is required.

    • Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.

    • Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not fill the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a maintenance issue or a problem with the tank that needs to be addressed. Filling the tank with liquid nitrogen could potentially worsen the issue or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take in this situation is to not fill the receiving tank.

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  • 5. 

    Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?

    • Conduct another odor test.

    • Inform aircraftmaintenance.

    • Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

    • Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.
    Explanation
    If a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test, the appropriate step to take is to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is because the failure of the odor test indicates a potential issue with the storage tank, and conducting an odor test on the tank will help identify if there is any contamination or problem with the tank that could have caused the failure. This step is necessary to ensure the safety and quality of the liquid oxygen being used.

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  • 6. 

    Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?

    • 100 ml.

    • 200 ml.

    • 300 ml.

    • 400 ml.

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 ml.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 200 ml. When conducting an odor test, it is important to take a sample size that is representative of the overall odor. A sample size of 200 ml is considered to be a good balance between capturing enough odor molecules to be detectable and avoiding an overwhelming concentration of odor. This size is commonly used in odor testing to ensure accurate results.

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  • 7. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?

    • As either “+” or “–” in column A.

    • As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.

    • As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

    Correct Answer
    A. As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As either 'FAIL' or 'PASS' in column D." This is because when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either a failure ("FAIL") or a pass ("PASS") in column D. This helps to clearly indicate whether the odor test was successful or not for the LOX cart.

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  • 8. 

    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This ensures that they are up to date with the latest safety procedures and regulations. Regular certification helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they can perform their duties safely and efficiently. It also allows for any necessary retraining or updates to be provided to personnel. By requiring annual certification, the organization can ensure that their hot refueling operations are conducted by competent and qualified individuals.

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  • 9. 

    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

    • B–1.

    • F–15.

    • F–16.

    • F–22.

    Correct Answer
    A. F–15.
    Explanation
    The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 do not need to be inspected for overheating or excessive wear before refueling while the aircraft is still running.

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  • 10. 

    When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?

    • Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.

    • Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

    • Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    • Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    Correct Answer
    A. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.
    Explanation
    A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel when the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that even if only one engine is running, it is still considered a hot defuel. The presence of any running engine poses a potential risk during the defueling process, making it necessary to follow specific safety protocols and procedures.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?

    • Passenger compartment monitor.

    • Fuels servicing supervisor.

    • Chief servicing supervisor.

    • Refueling panel monitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief servicing supervisor.
    Explanation
    The Chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They are in charge of ensuring that all these operations are carried out efficiently and safely. The other options, such as the passenger compartment monitor, fuels servicing supervisor, and refueling panel monitor, may have specific roles within the servicing process but do not have the overall responsibility for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing operations.

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  • 12. 

    Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    • 6.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
    Explanation
    Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to a maximum of 4 operations per duty day. This limitation is put in place to ensure the safety of the crew members and the aircraft. Conducting in-shelter refueling with the doors closed can pose risks such as fuel vapors accumulating in the shelter, which can lead to a hazardous environment. By limiting the number of operations, the crew members can minimize their exposure to potential risks and ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

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  • 13. 

    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

    • No action is required.

    • Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • Stop the operation immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the operation immediately.
    Explanation
    If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is crucial to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can be dangerous and potentially cause damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation will prevent any further backflow and mitigate the risk of any potential accidents or damage.

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  • 14. 

    When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle

    • Can begin fuel flow once positioned.

    • May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing.

    • Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft.

    • Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.
    Explanation
    When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks. By requiring the vehicles to remain in position and bonded, it ensures that the fueling process is completed properly and reduces the risk of any mishaps during refueling.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?

    • Return-to-bulk (RTB).

    • Ground fuel servicing.

    • Aircraft fueling.

    • Fillstand.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft fueling.
    Explanation
    A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating the delivery and distribution of fuel to aircraft. This includes ensuring that the correct type and quantity of fuel is delivered, monitoring fuel levels, and coordinating with fueling personnel. Aircraft fueling specifically involves the actual process of refueling an aircraft, which requires the presence and assistance of a fuels expediter to ensure a safe and efficient operation. Ground fuel servicing involves fueling ground vehicles and equipment, while return-to-bulk (RTB) refers to the process of transferring unused fuel back to storage tanks. Fillstand refers to a location where fuel is stored and dispensed.

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  • 16. 

    Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

    • 1,000.

    • 1,500.

    • 3,000.

    • 4,500.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,500.
    Explanation
    Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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  • 17. 

    Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?

    • A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.

    • A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge.

    • Elements that have been in use for 36 months.

    • Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.
    Explanation
    A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge indicates that the filter elements are still functioning effectively and have not yet reached the point where they need to be replaced. The DP gauge measures the pressure difference across the filter elements, and a reading of 16 psid suggests that there is still sufficient capacity for the filter to continue operating efficiently. Therefore, there is no immediate need for replacement of the filter elements in this condition.

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  • 18. 

    What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield?

    • Ocean tanker or barge.

    • Inland petroleum distribution system or tank trucks.

    • Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery system.

    • The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

    Correct Answer
    A. The same source of supply used by the host airfield.
    Explanation
    The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield is to use the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the fuel can be obtained directly from the host airfield's fuel supply, eliminating the need for additional transportation or logistics. This method is efficient and convenient as it allows for a seamless integration with the existing fuel infrastructure at the host airfield.

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  • 19. 

    What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie?

    • 3,000.

    • 6,000.

    • 15,000.

    • 30,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30,000.
    Explanation
    The maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie is 30,000.

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  • 20. 

    At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every

    • 30 days.

    • 60 days.

    • 90 days.

    • 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days.
    Explanation
    Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect any releases. This frequent monitoring is necessary to ensure that any leaks or spills are promptly detected and addressed, minimizing the potential environmental and health risks associated with underground storage tanks. Monitoring at shorter intervals allows for early detection and intervention, reducing the likelihood of significant contamination or damage.

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  • 21. 

    How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weekly.
    Explanation
    Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential damage or failure. Weekly inspections allow for early detection of any signs of deterioration such as cracks, erosion, or leaks, which can then be promptly addressed and repaired. Regular monitoring is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of dikes in protecting against flooding and ensuring the safety of surrounding areas.

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  • 22. 

    When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided?

    • Name of requester (crew chief).

    • Grade of fuel.

    • Authorized delivery point.

    • Refueling vehicle/equipment registration number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Name of requester (crew chief).
    Explanation
    The question asks which information is not provided when an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation. The options provided include the name of the requester (crew chief), grade of fuel, authorized delivery point, and refueling vehicle/equipment registration number. The correct answer is the name of the requester (crew chief). This means that when an operator is dispatched for a fueling operation, they are not required to provide the name of the requester.

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  • 23. 

    When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects daily. This ensures that any discrepancies or rejected transactions are addressed promptly, maintaining accurate and up-to-date fuel records. Reconciling and clearing rejects on a daily basis helps to minimize errors, prevent data inconsistencies, and ensure the smooth functioning of the fuels management system.

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  • 24. 

    When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

    • Products are not normally stocked.

    • Military exchange facilities are available at the installation.

    • Adequate commercial facilities are available within reasonable distance.

    • Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the support provided by equipment and/or personnel does not disrupt or hinder military operations. It is important to ensure that the sales process does not cause any disruptions or conflicts with the military's primary objectives and activities.

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  • 25. 

    At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

    • Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

    • Shift supervisors.

    • Off-duty personnel.

    • Operations expeditors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Off-duty personnel.
    Explanation
    Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively involved in the operations of the Fuels service center (FSC) or responsible for the collection and safeguarding of money, it is not appropriate for money collected for cash sales of aviation products to be entrusted to them. It is important to have proper security measures in place and ensure that only authorized personnel handle and safeguard the collected money.

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  • 26. 

    When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

    • Major disaster.

    • Combat losses.

    • Peacetime losses.

    • Determinable losses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Peacetime losses.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Peacetime losses." In this scenario, the excessive variance in fuel gains and losses is attributed to a pipeline rupture. Since the rupture occurred during a period of peace, it falls under the category of peacetime losses. This term is used to describe losses or damages incurred during non-combat situations or times of peace.

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  • 27. 

    When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

    • Fuels service center (FSC) and the fuels management team (FMT).

    • FSC and the vendor.

    • Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and major command (MAJCOM).

    • The vendor and DLA–Energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. The vendor and DLA–Energy.
    Explanation
    After placing the ground products order in the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are received by the vendor and DLA–Energy.

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  • 28. 

    When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

    • The word “Rental”.

    • The payment office DOD activity address code (DODAAC).

    • The vehicle license plate number.

    • The ORG code for the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) issuing the VIL key.

    Correct Answer
    A. The vehicle license plate number.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the vehicle license plate number. When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, the information that should be entered in the vehicle identification field is the license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies a specific vehicle and is commonly used for tracking and identification purposes.

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  • 29. 

    How often do you test a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

    • Every 3 hours.

    • Every 6 hours.

    • Every 12 hours.

    • Every 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 24 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Every 24 hours. This is because testing the odor and purity of a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant is crucial to ensure its safety and effectiveness. However, since a LOX production run is expected to exceed 24 hours, testing it every 3, 6, or 12 hours would not be sufficient. Testing it every 24 hours ensures that any potential issues with odor or purity can be detected and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 30. 

    The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near

    • 30°F.

    • 50°F.

    • 60°F.

    • 90°F.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60°F.
    Explanation
    The API gravity test measures the density of petroleum liquids relative to water, and it is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near 60°F. This is because the API gravity scale is calibrated based on the assumption that the temperature of the fuel being tested is around 60°F. Deviations from this temperature can affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, to obtain the most accurate API gravity reading, the fuel temperature should be as close as possible to 60°F.

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  • 31. 

    Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

    • Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.

    • Bottom of the hydrometer.

    • Top of the hydrometer.

    • Top of the cylinder.

    Correct Answer
    A. Horizontal plane surface of the liquid.
    Explanation
    The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and the reading should be taken at the level where the liquid surface is flat and horizontal to ensure an accurate measurement. Taking the reading at the bottom or top of the hydrometer or cylinder may result in an incorrect measurement due to uneven liquid surfaces.

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  • 32. 

    How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This suggests that the standards are updated and renewed on a yearly basis. It is important to replace the standards regularly to ensure accuracy and reliability in the testing process. Replacing the standards annually allows for any changes or advancements in technology to be incorporated into the testing procedures.

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  • 33. 

    A conductivity probe is not required to be cleaned before use when the

    • Probe is new.

    • Meter can be zeroed.

    • Probe has been stored in a sealed container.

    • Calibration data has been stamped on the probe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Meter can be zeroed.
    Explanation
    The conductivity probe does not need to be cleaned before use when the meter can be zeroed. This implies that the meter has the capability to adjust the readings to zero, regardless of any contamination on the probe. Therefore, even if the probe is new or has been stored in a sealed container, it does not affect the need for cleaning. The ability to zero the meter ensures accurate readings regardless of the probe's condition.

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  • 34. 

    What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

    • 1 hour.

    • 6 hours.

    • 12 hours.

    • 24 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. Conductivity is a measure of how well a substance conducts electricity, and it can change over time due to various factors such as temperature and chemical reactions. Therefore, it is important to take the conductivity reading as soon as possible after obtaining the sample to ensure accurate results. Waiting longer than 24 hours may result in significant changes in conductivity, leading to unreliable data.

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  • 35. 

    When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test, how long should you shake the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel?

    • Until you get a good separation.

    • 1 minute.

    • 3 minutes.

    • 5 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 minutes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5 minutes because shaking the fuel and water mixture for 5 minutes ensures a thorough mixing and allows for any potential separation to occur. This duration allows for a more accurate assessment of the effectiveness of the fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in preventing ice formation in the fuel system.

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  • 36. 

    If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

    • January through April.

    • October through December.

    • October through March.

    • November through January.

    Correct Answer
    A. October through March.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is October through March. This is because the question states that if your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF-2 that is received during this time period. The cloud point test is used to determine the lowest temperature at which a fuel will flow freely. Therefore, performing this test during the colder months of October through March ensures that the fuel will not have any issues with cold weather.

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  • 37. 

    When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), what information is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block?

    • The type of sample taken.

    • The next sequential sample number.

    • The kind of sample equipment used.

    • The amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. The next sequential sample number.
    Explanation
    When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), the information that is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block is the next sequential sample number. This means that the system will automatically assign a unique sample number to each new sample entered, ensuring that there are no duplicates and making it easier to track and manage the samples in the system. The other options listed - the type of sample taken, the kind of sample equipment used, and the amount of fuel obtained - are not automatically prefilled and would need to be entered manually.

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  • 38. 

    Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

    • Fuels environmental safety office.

    • NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.

    • Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • Fuels service center (FSC) personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. NCOIC Fuels Laboratory.
    Explanation
    The NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of the Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they oversee and manage the implementation and maintenance of the program, ensuring that proper caution tags are used and procedures are followed in the Fuels Laboratory.

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  • 39. 

    Who should maintain the keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box?

    • Fuels Information Service Center (FISC) superintendent.

    • Laboratory personnel.

    • Fuels Management Team.

    • Fuels environmental safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Laboratory personnel.
    Explanation
    The keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box should be maintained by laboratory personnel. This is because the QC hold box contains samples that need to be held for further analysis or investigation. Laboratory personnel are responsible for conducting quality control tests and ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the fuel samples. Therefore, they should have control over the keys to the QC hold box to ensure proper handling and security of the samples.

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  • 40. 

    When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?

    • All items.

    • All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

    • All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.

    • All items followed by an ampersand (&).

    Correct Answer
    A. All items preceded by an asterisk (*).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All items preceded by an asterisk (*)." This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items that are listed in the Technical Order (TO) 37C2-8-1-116WC-1 and are preceded by an asterisk. The asterisk serves as a marker to indicate which items should be completed during the inspection.

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  • 41. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?

    • DD Form 250.

    • DD Form 250–1.

    • DD Form 1348.

    • DD Form 1348–1.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 250.
    Explanation
    The vendor's invoice is obtained from DD Form 250, which is the Material Inspection and Receiving Report. This form is used to document the receipt of goods and services from vendors, including cryogenic products. It provides information about the quantity, condition, and other details of the received items, as well as the costs and payment terms specified in the vendor's invoice.

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  • 42. 

    While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?

    • Immediately terminate the operation.

    • Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue.

    • Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center.

    • Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately terminate the operation.
    Explanation
    If you notice an unsafe fueling operation while performing expediter duties, the correct action to take is to immediately terminate the operation. This is the safest course of action to prevent any potential accidents or hazards. It is important to prioritize safety and stop the operation to avoid any further risks or damages.

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  • 43. 

    What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

    • 30 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • 65 psi.

    • 75 psi.

    • 100 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 75 psi.
    Explanation
    The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 psi. This is the correct answer because it is the only option provided that matches the recommended tire pressure setting for the specific equipment mentioned.

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  • 44. 

    How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

    • Daily.

    • Weekly.

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure optimal performance and prevent any potential issues caused by the accumulation of sediment, water, or other contaminants. Regular drainage helps maintain the efficiency and longevity of the unit, ensuring that it operates effectively and avoids any potential damage or malfunctions.

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  • 45. 

    When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

    • 2°.

    • 3°.

    • 4°.

    • 5°.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3°.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3°. When selecting a site for bladder operations, it is important to choose a site with a slope of less than 3°. This is because a steeper slope can make the operation more difficult and increase the risk of complications. A slope of 3° or less provides a more stable and level surface for the operation, allowing for better control and precision during the procedure.

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  • 46. 

    With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

    • JP–5.

    • JP–8.

    • Jet A–1.

    • Jet B.

    Correct Answer
    A. Jet B.
    Explanation
    Jet B should be handled with special precautions due to its high volatility. Jet B is a type of aviation fuel that contains a higher concentration of volatile components, making it more flammable and potentially dangerous to handle. Special precautions such as proper storage, handling, and transportation procedures should be followed to ensure the safe use of Jet B fuel.

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  • 47. 

    What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and its customers?

    • Fuels management team (FMT).

    • Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).

    • Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.

    • Headquarters (HQ) USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions. The DLA–Energy regions serve as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy and its customers. These regions are responsible for managing and coordinating the supply and distribution of energy resources to various customers, including the military branches and other government agencies. They ensure that the customers' energy needs are met efficiently and effectively.

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  • 48. 

    When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text?

    • Blue.

    • Black.

    • Green.

    • Purple.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple.
    Explanation
    In the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, capitalized contracts are identified by the color purple.

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  • 49. 

    Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

    • Fuels controller.

    • Fuels information service center (FISC) superintendent.

    • Fuels management team (FMT).

    • All fuels personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuels controller.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fuels controller. The fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. They ensure that proper communication protocols are followed and maintain order and clarity during radio transmissions. This helps to ensure effective communication and coordination among fuels personnel.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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