CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. At a minimum, underground storage tanks should be monitored to detect releases every

Explanation

Underground storage tanks should be monitored every 30 days to detect any releases. This frequent monitoring is necessary to ensure that any leaks or spills are promptly detected and addressed, minimizing the potential environmental and health risks associated with underground storage tanks. Monitoring at shorter intervals allows for early detection and intervention, reducing the likelihood of significant contamination or damage.

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CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Welcome to this in-depth CDC 2f071: air force specialty code exam! It is perfect for helping you review just how much you know about the codes. Think you are up for the challenge? How about you give it a shot and get to see how much practice you will need... see morein the end. All the best as you tackle it! see less

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2. When entering an order into the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, what agencies receive fuel request e-mails from after you have placed the ground products order?

Explanation

After placing the ground products order in the PORTS system, fuel request e-mails are received by the vendor and DLA–Energy.

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3. How often should dikes be checked for deterioration?

Explanation

Dikes should be checked for deterioration on a weekly basis to ensure their structural integrity and prevent any potential damage or failure. Weekly inspections allow for early detection of any signs of deterioration such as cracks, erosion, or leaks, which can then be promptly addressed and repaired. Regular monitoring is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of dikes in protecting against flooding and ensuring the safety of surrounding areas.

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4. When encoding a vehicle identification link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, what information should be entered in the vehicle identification field?

Explanation

The correct answer is the vehicle license plate number. When encoding a Vehicle Identification Link (VIL) key for a rental vehicle, the information that should be entered in the vehicle identification field is the license plate number. This is because the license plate number uniquely identifies a specific vehicle and is commonly used for tracking and identification purposes.

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5. If your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF–2 that is received during

Explanation

The correct answer is October through March. This is because the question states that if your base has experienced cold weather problems or anticipates cold weather problems, you should perform a cloud point test on all DF-2 that is received during this time period. The cloud point test is used to determine the lowest temperature at which a fuel will flow freely. Therefore, performing this test during the colder months of October through March ensures that the fuel will not have any issues with cold weather.

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6. How often do you test a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant for odor and purity if a LOX production run will exceed 24 hours?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 24 hours. This is because testing the odor and purity of a liquid oxygen (LOX) generating plant is crucial to ensure its safety and effectiveness. However, since a LOX production run is expected to exceed 24 hours, testing it every 3, 6, or 12 hours would not be sufficient. Testing it every 24 hours ensures that any potential issues with odor or purity can be detected and addressed in a timely manner.

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7. Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?

Explanation

A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating the delivery and distribution of fuel to aircraft. This includes ensuring that the correct type and quantity of fuel is delivered, monitoring fuel levels, and coordinating with fueling personnel. Aircraft fueling specifically involves the actual process of refueling an aircraft, which requires the presence and assistance of a fuels expediter to ensure a safe and efficient operation. Ground fuel servicing involves fueling ground vehicles and equipment, while return-to-bulk (RTB) refers to the process of transferring unused fuel back to storage tanks. Fillstand refers to a location where fuel is stored and dispensed.

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8. When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), what information is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block?

Explanation

When entering sample information in FuelsManager Defense (FMD), the information that is automatically prefilled in the SAMPLE block is the next sequential sample number. This means that the system will automatically assign a unique sample number to each new sample entered, ensuring that there are no duplicates and making it easier to track and manage the samples in the system. The other options listed - the type of sample taken, the kind of sample equipment used, and the amount of fuel obtained - are not automatically prefilled and would need to be entered manually.

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9. What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield?

Explanation

The simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield is to use the same source of supply used by the host airfield. This means that the fuel can be obtained directly from the host airfield's fuel supply, eliminating the need for additional transportation or logistics. This method is efficient and convenient as it allows for a seamless integration with the existing fuel infrastructure at the host airfield.

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10. When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

Explanation

If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a maintenance issue or a problem with the tank that needs to be addressed. Filling the tank with liquid nitrogen could potentially worsen the issue or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take in this situation is to not fill the receiving tank.

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11. What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie?

Explanation

The maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie is 30,000.

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12. Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

Explanation

The correct answer is monthly. Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are required to be flushed on a regular basis to ensure their proper functioning. Flushing helps remove any accumulated sediments or debris in the system, which can hinder water flow during emergencies. Monthly flushing ensures that the hydrant systems are always in optimal condition and ready for immediate use if needed. Flushing them less frequently, such as quarterly, semiannually, or annually, may increase the risk of clogging or malfunctioning during critical situations.

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13. Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?

Explanation

If a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test, the appropriate step to take is to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is because the failure of the odor test indicates a potential issue with the storage tank, and conducting an odor test on the tank will help identify if there is any contamination or problem with the tank that could have caused the failure. This step is necessary to ensure the safety and quality of the liquid oxygen being used.

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14. When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

Explanation

During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least double the volume of the water in the lines. Flushing the loop with an adequate amount of water helps to remove any sediment or debris that may have accumulated in the lines, ensuring that the water is clean and safe for use. Using less than twice the line volume may not effectively clean the lines and could leave behind contaminants.

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15. Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?

Explanation

The correct answer is 200 ml. When conducting an odor test, it is important to take a sample size that is representative of the overall odor. A sample size of 200 ml is considered to be a good balance between capturing enough odor molecules to be detectable and avoiding an overwhelming concentration of odor. This size is commonly used in odor testing to ensure accurate results.

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16. What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

Explanation

If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action would be to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing fuel operations and can provide instructions on how to proceed without the required form.

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17. Who is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program?

Explanation

The NCOIC (Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge) of the Fuels Laboratory is responsible for administering the Caution Tag program. This implies that they oversee and manage the implementation and maintenance of the program, ensuring that proper caution tags are used and procedures are followed in the Fuels Laboratory.

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18. Who should maintain the keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box?

Explanation

The keys to the Quality Control (QC) hold box should be maintained by laboratory personnel. This is because the QC hold box contains samples that need to be held for further analysis or investigation. Laboratory personnel are responsible for conducting quality control tests and ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the fuel samples. Therefore, they should have control over the keys to the QC hold box to ensure proper handling and security of the samples.

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19. When an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation, which information is not provided?

Explanation

The question asks which information is not provided when an operator is dispatched to complete a fueling operation. The options provided include the name of the requester (crew chief), grade of fuel, authorized delivery point, and refueling vehicle/equipment registration number. The correct answer is the name of the requester (crew chief). This means that when an operator is dispatched for a fueling operation, they are not required to provide the name of the requester.

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20. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As either 'FAIL' or 'PASS' in column D." This is because when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either a failure ("FAIL") or a pass ("PASS") in column D. This helps to clearly indicate whether the odor test was successful or not for the LOX cart.

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21. When you are performing fuels controller duties, how often should you reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects?

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, it is important to reconcile with the Fuels Enterprise Server (FES) and clear rejects daily. This ensures that any discrepancies or rejected transactions are addressed promptly, maintaining accurate and up-to-date fuel records. Reconciling and clearing rejects on a daily basis helps to minimize errors, prevent data inconsistencies, and ensure the smooth functioning of the fuels management system.

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22. How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

Explanation

Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This ensures that they are up to date with the latest safety procedures and regulations. Regular certification helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they can perform their duties safely and efficiently. It also allows for any necessary retraining or updates to be provided to personnel. By requiring annual certification, the organization can ensure that their hot refueling operations are conducted by competent and qualified individuals.

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23. The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near

Explanation

The API gravity test measures the density of petroleum liquids relative to water, and it is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near 60°F. This is because the API gravity scale is calibrated based on the assumption that the temperature of the fuel being tested is around 60°F. Deviations from this temperature can affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, to obtain the most accurate API gravity reading, the fuel temperature should be as close as possible to 60°F.

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24. Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

Explanation

The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 do not need to be inspected for overheating or excessive wear before refueling while the aircraft is still running.

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25. When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?

Explanation

A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel when the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that even if only one engine is running, it is still considered a hot defuel. The presence of any running engine poses a potential risk during the defueling process, making it necessary to follow specific safety protocols and procedures.

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26. Where is the correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The correct place to take the reading for the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is the horizontal plane surface of the liquid. This is because the API gravity test measures the density or specific gravity of petroleum liquids, and the reading should be taken at the level where the liquid surface is flat and horizontal to ensure an accurate measurement. Taking the reading at the bottom or top of the hydrometer or cylinder may result in an incorrect measurement due to uneven liquid surfaces.

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27. Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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28. Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?

Explanation

The Chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They are in charge of ensuring that all these operations are carried out efficiently and safely. The other options, such as the passenger compartment monitor, fuels servicing supervisor, and refueling panel monitor, may have specific roles within the servicing process but do not have the overall responsibility for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing operations.

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29. How often are the printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test replaced?

Explanation

The printed standards for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) test are replaced annually. This suggests that the standards are updated and renewed on a yearly basis. It is important to replace the standards regularly to ensure accuracy and reliability in the testing process. Replacing the standards annually allows for any changes or advancements in technology to be incorporated into the testing procedures.

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30. Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?

Explanation

Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to a maximum of 4 operations per duty day. This limitation is put in place to ensure the safety of the crew members and the aircraft. Conducting in-shelter refueling with the doors closed can pose risks such as fuel vapors accumulating in the shelter, which can lead to a hazardous environment. By limiting the number of operations, the crew members can minimize their exposure to potential risks and ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

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31. A conductivity probe is not required to be cleaned before use when the

Explanation

The conductivity probe does not need to be cleaned before use when the meter can be zeroed. This implies that the meter has the capability to adjust the readings to zero, regardless of any contamination on the probe. Therefore, even if the probe is new or has been stored in a sealed container, it does not affect the need for cleaning. The ability to zero the meter ensures accurate readings regardless of the probe's condition.

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32. When determining authorizations for cash sales, you know that cash sales are only authorized when

Explanation

The correct answer is "sales support by equipment and/or personnel do not interfere with military operations." This means that cash sales can only be authorized if the support provided by equipment and/or personnel does not disrupt or hinder military operations. It is important to ensure that the sales process does not cause any disruptions or conflicts with the military's primary objectives and activities.

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33. During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

Explanation

If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is crucial to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can be dangerous and potentially cause damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation will prevent any further backflow and mitigate the risk of any potential accidents or damage.

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34. When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle

Explanation

When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks. By requiring the vehicles to remain in position and bonded, it ensures that the fueling process is completed properly and reduces the risk of any mishaps during refueling.

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35. What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can pass between the time a sample is obtained and the time a conductivity reading is taken is 24 hours. Conductivity is a measure of how well a substance conducts electricity, and it can change over time due to various factors such as temperature and chemical reactions. Therefore, it is important to take the conductivity reading as soon as possible after obtaining the sample to ensure accurate results. Waiting longer than 24 hours may result in significant changes in conductivity, leading to unreliable data.

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36. At no time will money that is collected for cash sales of aviation products be safeguarded by

Explanation

Off-duty personnel refers to employees who are not currently working or on duty. Since they are not actively involved in the operations of the Fuels service center (FSC) or responsible for the collection and safeguarding of money, it is not appropriate for money collected for cash sales of aviation products to be entrusted to them. It is important to have proper security measures in place and ensure that only authorized personnel handle and safeguard the collected money.

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37. Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?

Explanation

A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge indicates that the filter elements are still functioning effectively and have not yet reached the point where they need to be replaced. The DP gauge measures the pressure difference across the filter elements, and a reading of 16 psid suggests that there is still sufficient capacity for the filter to continue operating efficiently. Therefore, there is no immediate need for replacement of the filter elements in this condition.

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38. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you determine an excessive variance was caused by a pipeline rupture. This variance should fall into what category?

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Peacetime losses." In this scenario, the excessive variance in fuel gains and losses is attributed to a pipeline rupture. Since the rupture occurred during a period of peace, it falls under the category of peacetime losses. This term is used to describe losses or damages incurred during non-combat situations or times of peace.

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39. When performing a fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) test, how long should you shake the fuel and water mixture in the separatory funnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is 5 minutes because shaking the fuel and water mixture for 5 minutes ensures a thorough mixing and allows for any potential separation to occur. This duration allows for a more accurate assessment of the effectiveness of the fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in preventing ice formation in the fuel system.

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40. When entering an order in the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, you can identify capitalized contracts as those listed in what color text?

Explanation

In the Paperless Ordering and Receipt Tracking Screens (PORTS) system, capitalized contracts are identified by the color purple.

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41. Who is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net?

Explanation

The correct answer is Fuels controller. The fuels controller is responsible for enforcing radio transmission discipline over the radio net. They ensure that proper communication protocols are followed and maintain order and clarity during radio transmissions. This helps to ensure effective communication and coordination among fuels personnel.

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42. When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, you must notify each element in the fuels management flight, the squadron commander and the

Explanation

When performing fuels controller duties, in the event of an emergency, it is necessary to notify the appropriate authorities. In this case, the correct answer is the wing command post. The wing command post is responsible for overseeing and coordinating operations within the entire wing, including the fuels management flight. Therefore, notifying the wing command post would ensure that the emergency situation is promptly addressed and appropriate actions are taken.

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43. While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?

Explanation

If you notice an unsafe fueling operation while performing expediter duties, the correct action to take is to immediately terminate the operation. This is the safest course of action to prevent any potential accidents or hazards. It is important to prioritize safety and stop the operation to avoid any further risks or damages.

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44. What agency serves as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) and its customers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) regions. The DLA–Energy regions serve as the link between the Defense Logistics Agency–Energy and its customers. These regions are responsible for managing and coordinating the supply and distribution of energy resources to various customers, including the military branches and other government agencies. They ensure that the customers' energy needs are met efficiently and effectively.

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45. When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3°. When selecting a site for bladder operations, it is important to choose a site with a slope of less than 3°. This is because a steeper slope can make the operation more difficult and increase the risk of complications. A slope of 3° or less provides a more stable and level surface for the operation, allowing for better control and precision during the procedure.

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46. With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

Explanation

Jet B should be handled with special precautions due to its high volatility. Jet B is a type of aviation fuel that contains a higher concentration of volatile components, making it more flammable and potentially dangerous to handle. Special precautions such as proper storage, handling, and transportation procedures should be followed to ensure the safe use of Jet B fuel.

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47. When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All items preceded by an asterisk (*)." This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items that are listed in the Technical Order (TO) 37C2-8-1-116WC-1 and are preceded by an asterisk. The asterisk serves as a marker to indicate which items should be completed during the inspection.

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48. When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?

Explanation

The vendor's invoice is obtained from DD Form 250, which is the Material Inspection and Receiving Report. This form is used to document the receipt of goods and services from vendors, including cryogenic products. It provides information about the quantity, condition, and other details of the received items, as well as the costs and payment terms specified in the vendor's invoice.

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49. What type of dye is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad?

Explanation

Sodium fluorescein is used for the Aeronautical Engine Laboratory (AEL) detector pad.

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50. What type of container must not be used when performing conductivity tests?

Explanation

Plastic containers must not be used when performing conductivity tests because plastic is an insulator and does not conduct electricity. Conductivity tests require a material that allows the flow of electric current, and plastic does not meet this requirement. Glass and metal containers, on the other hand, are conductive materials and can be used for conductivity tests. Insulated containers are also not suitable for conductivity tests as they are designed to prevent the flow of electricity.

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51. What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

Explanation

The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 psi. This is the correct answer because it is the only option provided that matches the recommended tire pressure setting for the specific equipment mentioned.

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52. How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

Explanation

The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure optimal performance and prevent any potential issues caused by the accumulation of sediment, water, or other contaminants. Regular drainage helps maintain the efficiency and longevity of the unit, ensuring that it operates effectively and avoids any potential damage or malfunctions.

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53. Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator

Explanation

The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants." This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to remove any potential contaminants from the transfer hose. Purging the hose ensures that the LOX is not contaminated and maintains its purity. The other options mentioned in the question, such as reviewing AFTO Forms 244/245, performing an odor test, and signing the DD Form 250, are not directly related to removing potential contaminants from the transfer hose.

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54. What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing?

Explanation

The mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement defines the basic mission that a unit type code (UTC) is capable of accomplishing. This statement outlines the specific tasks and objectives that the UTC is designed and trained to carry out. It provides a clear understanding of the capabilities and limitations of the UTC in terms of its mission requirements. The MISCAP statement is an essential component of the UTC as it helps to align the unit's resources and personnel with its intended mission.

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55. During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

Explanation

During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential hazards related to fuel venting. Being too close to the vent outlet could expose personnel to fuel vapors or other risks associated with fuel handling. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance of at least 25 feet to mitigate any potential dangers.

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56. How often should the Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

Explanation

The Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily to ensure accurate and reliable detection of water. Daily calibration helps to maintain the device's sensitivity and effectiveness in detecting water leaks or spills. Regular calibration is necessary to keep the detector in optimal working condition and minimize the risk of false alarms or missed detections.

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57. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is necessary to ensure that the system is ready to operate and can handle any potential surges or fluctuations in pressure that may occur during fueling. A lower pressure may indicate a potential issue with the system, while a higher pressure may cause damage or leaks in the system. Therefore, 90 psi is the correct pressure for the surge suppressor gauge in this situation.

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58. When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?

Explanation

When setting up the communication panel on an R-18, the first action to take is to turn off the panel power switch. This is important because it ensures that there is no power running through the panel while setting it up, which can prevent any accidental activation or interference. By turning off the panel power switch, it allows for a safe and controlled setup process.

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59. During a flash point test, apply heat to the sample so the temperature of the sample increases

Explanation

The correct answer is 9 to 11°F per minute. During a flash point test, heat is applied to the sample to increase its temperature. The rate at which the temperature increases is important to ensure accurate results. If the temperature increases too slowly, it may not reach the flash point within a reasonable time frame. On the other hand, if the temperature increases too quickly, it may cause the sample to ignite prematurely. Therefore, a rate of 9 to 11°F per minute is recommended to strike a balance between these factors and obtain reliable results.

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60. When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?

Explanation

When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 revolutions per minute (rpm). This specific rpm setting is likely recommended for optimal fuel flow and efficiency during the servicing operations.

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61. How often do you sample cryotainers for purity, odor, and minor constituents?

Explanation

The correct answer is Every 90 days. This suggests that cryotainers are sampled for purity, odor, and minor constituents every 90 days. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the cryotainers' condition and contents, ensuring that they meet the required standards and are safe for use. Sampling at shorter intervals may be excessive, while longer intervals may increase the risk of potential issues going undetected.

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62. When recording test results, which FuelsManager Defense (FMD) application would you use to track sampling dates and store sample results?

Explanation

The Quality Control application in FuelsManager Defense (FMD) would be used to track sampling dates and store sample results. This application is specifically designed to monitor and manage the quality of fuel, which includes tracking the dates when samples were taken and storing the results obtained from those samples. The Reports, Dispatch, and Accounting applications do not have the specific functionality to track sampling dates and store sample results, making the Quality Control application the correct choice for this task.

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63. When reviewing test results in the FuelsManager Defense Quality Control application, how are results not within parameters identified?

Explanation

In the FuelsManager Defense Quality Control application, results that are not within parameters are identified by the "Failed status". This means that if a test result does not meet the specified parameters, it will be marked as "Failed" in the application. This helps in easily identifying and flagging any test results that are outside the acceptable range, allowing for further investigation or corrective actions to be taken.

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64. When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?

Explanation

To obtain quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, you must first press the TANK key when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which you want to obtain the quantity reading. By pressing the TANK key first, you can ensure that the ATG is set to the correct tank before proceeding with obtaining the quantity reading.

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65. Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?

Explanation

The correct answer is one month. This means that when the nitrogen supply drops below 200 psi, it is estimated to last for approximately one month.

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66. When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?

Explanation

In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual who filled the cart. This is important for documentation purposes and to keep track of who performed the task. It helps in identifying the responsible person in case there are any issues or concerns related to the cryogenic product.

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67. When you are inputting a transaction in the FMD Dispatch Module, what information should you enter in the Request Type when entering a defuel request?

Explanation

In the FMD Dispatch Module, when entering a defuel request, you should select "Defuel" in place of the defaulted "Refuel". This is because the default option is set to "Refuel" which means the system assumes that you are entering a request for refueling. By selecting "Defuel", you are indicating that you are requesting a defuel instead.

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68. Who is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements?

Explanation

The Fuels operations superintendent is responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirements. This role involves overseeing the operations and distribution of fuel, ensuring that there is enough fuel available to meet the needs of the aircraft. They are also responsible for coordinating with other departments and personnel to ensure smooth operations and efficient fuel distribution.

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69. At least how many days before the due date must flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel be scheduled?

Explanation

Flight physicals and physiological training for Forward Area Refueling Point (FARP) and Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) trained personnel must be scheduled at least 45 days before the due date.

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70. The fuels training supervisor should review all training records

Explanation

The correct answer is semiannually because reviewing training records on a semiannual basis ensures that the fuels training supervisor stays up to date with the progress and performance of the trainees. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and assessment of the training program, identifying any areas that may need improvement or additional training. It strikes a balance between reviewing too frequently, which may be time-consuming and unnecessary, and reviewing too infrequently, which may result in overlooking important information or delays in addressing any issues.

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71. What do you use to rinse new sample containers prior to use?

Explanation

Filtered turbine fuel is used to rinse new sample containers prior to use. This is because filtered turbine fuel is free from impurities and contaminants, making it suitable for cleaning and preparing the containers for sample collection. It ensures that the containers are clean and ready for accurate and reliable sample analysis. Petroleum ether, isopropyl alcohol, and demineralized water are not typically used for this purpose.

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72. The Tank Group window in the Fuels Manager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to how many tanks?

Explanation

The Tank Group window in the Fuels Manager Defense product movement tracker allows operators to create tabular lists of up to 20 tanks. This means that the operators can input data and track the movement of a maximum of 20 tanks at a time using this feature.

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73. When performing a fiber test on fixed vessels, what action would be necessary if two successive samples exceed 10 fibers per quart?

Explanation

If two successive samples exceed 10 fibers per quart during a fiber test on fixed vessels, it indicates that the filter elements are not effectively removing the fibers from the fluid. Therefore, the necessary action would be to replace the filter elements to ensure proper filtration and prevent the fibers from contaminating the fluid further.

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74. What is the preferable time after obtaining a sample to take a conductivity reading?

Explanation

The preferable time to take a conductivity reading after obtaining a sample is 2 minutes. This is because it allows enough time for the sample to stabilize and reach equilibrium, ensuring accurate and reliable conductivity measurements. Waiting longer than 2 minutes may lead to changes in the sample's temperature or chemical composition, which can affect the conductivity reading. Taking the reading too soon, such as after 1 minute, may not allow enough time for the sample to settle and may result in inaccurate measurements.

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75. What environmental regulation establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). RCRA is an environmental regulation that establishes "cradle to grave" control of hazardous substances. It sets the guidelines for the management of hazardous waste from the point of generation to its final disposal. This includes the proper handling, storage, transportation, and disposal of hazardous substances to ensure they do not pose a threat to human health or the environment. RCRA also promotes recycling and the reduction of hazardous waste generation.

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76. The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as

Explanation

The amount of petroleum war reserve requirements (PWRR) a defense fuel supply point (DFSP) is authorized to store is referred to as petroleum war reserve stock (PWRS). This term specifically refers to the stock of petroleum that is set aside for use during times of war or national emergency. It is different from operating stock, which is the amount of petroleum needed for day-to-day operations, and maximum inventory, which is the highest level of stock that can be stored at a DFSP. The minimum inventory level, on the other hand, represents the lowest acceptable level of stock that should be maintained at all times.

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77. When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

Explanation

If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This means that the tank should not be filled with liquid oxygen until the form is properly completed.

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78. To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?

Explanation

The source tank pressure for cryogenic issuing should be set within the range of 10-15 psi. This range ensures that the pressure is sufficient to allow for the controlled release of the cryogenic substance, while also preventing any potential over-pressurization that could cause damage or safety hazards. Setting the pressure within this range helps to maintain the integrity of the cryogenic system and ensures safe and efficient operation.

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79. What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

Explanation

If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the AFTO Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not completed within the required timeframe. This helps to ensure that the maintenance personnel are aware of the delay and can take appropriate action to address the issue.

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80. Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?

Explanation

Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows the release of any excess pressure or gases that may build up inside the cryotainer during the receipt process. By opening the vent valve, it ensures that the cryotainer is properly vented and prevents any potential safety hazards or damage to the equipment.

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81. Which method of payment is not authorized for a cash sale purchase?

Explanation

The method of payment that is not authorized for a cash sale purchase is credit card. This means that when making a cash sale, credit cards are not accepted as a form of payment. Cash, check, and money order can be used for this type of purchase, but credit cards cannot.

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82. When encoding vehicle identification link (VIL) keys, how long should you maintain copies of a VIL key request in the defense fuel supply point (DSFP) document control file?

Explanation

The correct answer is 36 months. This means that copies of a VIL key request should be maintained in the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) document control file for a period of 36 months. This is likely done for record-keeping and auditing purposes, as it allows for easy access to past VIL key requests and ensures that there is a sufficient record of these requests for a significant period of time.

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83. All spot-checks are rated as

Explanation

The given correct answer is "Pass or Fail." This suggests that spot-checks are evaluated based on whether they meet the required standards or not. The evaluation is binary, indicating that the spot-check either passes or fails. This approach simplifies the assessment process by providing a clear distinction between satisfactory and unsatisfactory outcomes.

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84. Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures. They oversee the management and maintenance of the vehicle fleet, which includes ensuring that tools are properly accounted for and procedures are in place to track their usage and maintenance.

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85. What is the normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel?

Explanation

The normal range of use limits for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) in turbine fuel is 0.04 to 0.20 percent. This means that the acceptable concentration of FSII in turbine fuel can range from 0.04 percent to 0.20 percent.

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86. The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except

Explanation

The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all occurrences except quarterly. This means that the POC does not need to update and perform inventories on a quarterly basis. Instead, they are required to do so on all other occasions such as the initial issue, semi-annually, and when a responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

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87. What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components?

Explanation

The US Army is the organization that normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components. This includes coordinating the transportation, storage, and distribution of petroleum products to support military operations on land. The US Army plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary fuel and resources are available for the military forces to carry out their missions effectively.

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88. When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should be your first source of information for infrastructure availability?

Explanation

The responsible major command (MAJCOM) should be the first source of information for infrastructure availability when performing fuels mobility site planning. MAJCOMs are responsible for overseeing specific operational areas within the Air Force and have the knowledge and resources to provide accurate information on infrastructure availability. The Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy may also have relevant information, but the MAJCOM would be the primary organization to consult. The National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA) is not directly involved in infrastructure availability for fuels mobility site planning.

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89. When you are reconciling accounts, what is the allowable tolerance for motor (automotive) gasoline (MOGAS)?

Explanation

When reconciling accounts, the allowable tolerance for motor gasoline (MOGAS) is .005. This means that there can be a difference of up to .005 in the recorded amount of MOGAS and the actual amount. Any difference within this tolerance is considered acceptable and does not require further investigation or adjustment.

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90. How often should fuel correlation samples be submitted to the area laboratory to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level?

Explanation

Fuel correlation samples should be submitted to the area laboratory every 180 days to check the accuracy of tests performed at base level. This time frame allows for regular monitoring and ensures that any discrepancies or inaccuracies in the fuel testing process can be identified and addressed in a timely manner. By submitting samples every 180 days, any potential issues can be detected and corrected before they have a significant impact on the overall fuel quality and performance.

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91. When shipping a fuel sample, what Supply Priority should be used for correlation samples?

Explanation

In shipping a fuel sample, Supply Priority 09 should be used for correlation samples. This indicates that the sample is being sent for the purpose of comparing and correlating it with other samples. It suggests that the sample is not urgently needed for immediate analysis or action, but rather for reference and comparison purposes.

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92. Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. The MAJCOM commander has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational matters within their command, including approving exceptions to standard procedures in order to ensure mission success and safety.

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93. When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first

Explanation

The high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first minute of fuel flow during rapid defueling operations. This is important to ensure that the valve is functioning properly and can effectively shut off the fuel flow when the desired level is reached. Testing the valve within this timeframe allows for immediate detection and resolution of any issues, minimizing the risk of fuel spills or overfilling.

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94. Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on the B-2 aircraft. This means that simultaneous maintenance and operations activities, specifically related to generating sorties, are not allowed on the B-2. This could be due to specific operational or maintenance requirements of the aircraft, or limitations in its design or capabilities.

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95. Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?

Explanation

The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). They oversee the servicing operations and ensure that all tasks are carried out efficiently and safely. They coordinate with other supervisors and operators to ensure that the aircraft servicing is completed on time and meets all requirements. The concurrent servicing supervisor plays a crucial role in the smooth execution of combat sortie generation operations.

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96. How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?

Explanation

The question asks about the number of fillstand assemblies included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system. The correct answer is 2. This means that there are two fillstand assemblies included in the FORCE system.

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97. During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?

Explanation

During in-shelter refueling, it is important to ensure that fuel servicing vehicle engines do not operate for an extended period of time to minimize the risk of fire or explosion. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that the maximum duration for fuel servicing vehicle engines to operate during in-shelter refueling is 20 minutes. This time limit helps to maintain safety and prevent potential hazards associated with fueling operations in enclosed spaces.

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98. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Base." The base tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned. This tab is specifically designed to store and manage information related to the base or location where the Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) is being used. It helps in organizing and tracking the equipment's assignment and usage within the fuels management flight.

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99. When posting changes to publications, when, if ever, are "List of Effective Pages" checks mandatory?

Explanation

"List of Effective Pages" checks are mandatory when changes and revisions are posted to paper TOs. This means that whenever updates are made to the technical orders in paper format, it is necessary to conduct a "List of Effective Pages" check to ensure that all the changes have been properly incorporated and documented. This process helps to maintain the accuracy and completeness of the technical orders and ensures that the correct information is available to users.

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100. When should you calibrate a refractometer that is used for fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests?

Explanation

A refractometer is a device used to measure the concentration of a solution. In the context of fuel system icing inhibitor (FSII) tests, it is important to calibrate the refractometer daily or when changing the test water. This is necessary to ensure accurate and reliable measurements of the FSII concentration in the fuel. Daily calibration helps to account for any drift or changes in the refractometer's readings, while calibrating when changing test water ensures that the instrument is properly adjusted for different water samples. By calibrating regularly, the refractometer can provide precise and consistent results for FSII testing.

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101. The temperature of the fuel in the aircraft tank normally decreases during flight depending on all of these factors except

Explanation

The temperature of the fuel in the aircraft tank normally decreases during flight due to factors such as speed, altitude, and flight duration. However, the type of aircraft does not directly affect the temperature of the fuel in the tank. Different aircraft types may have different fuel systems or insulation, but these factors do not play a significant role in determining the temperature change of the fuel during flight.

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102. When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, all rolling stock (e.g., R–18s, R–19s, and R–20s) should be drained in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is "local transportation guidelines" because when reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, it is important to follow the specific guidelines set by the local transportation authority. This ensures that the draining process is carried out in a manner that is compliant with local regulations and standards. The other options, Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 23–221 and Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24–203, may provide general guidance on fuels logistics planning and preparation and movement of Air Force cargo, but they may not specifically address the draining of rolling stock in accordance with local transportation guidelines. The Technical Order (TO) 37A9–3–5–61 may provide specific instructions for FORCE equipment, but it does not necessarily address the draining process in relation to local transportation guidelines.

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103. When conducting internal inspections, at a minimum, the Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office inspects each fuels element at least once

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Office conducts internal inspections of each fuels element at least once every six months. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and evaluation of the fuels element's compliance with quality standards and regulations. It ensures that any issues or deficiencies can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, promoting the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the logistics readiness operations.

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104. Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for Jet A fuel?

Explanation

The correct answer is yellow clipboard with white stripes. The color coding requirement for Jet A fuel is a yellow clipboard with white stripes. This color combination is used to easily identify and differentiate vehicles carrying Jet A fuel.

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105. When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–20multi-aircraft servicing platform, in what position should the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel be placed?

Explanation

The correct answer is REMOTE. When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform, the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel should be placed in the REMOTE position. This allows for remote control of the platform during the fuel servicing operations.

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106. What agency should the fuels management team (FMT) consult with on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers?

Explanation

The fuels management team (FMT) should consult with the base bioenvironmental engineer on all matters regarding the provision of or changes to personal protective equipment (PPE) for workers. The base bioenvironmental engineer is responsible for assessing and managing occupational and environmental health risks, including the selection and use of PPE. They have the expertise to ensure that the appropriate PPE is provided to workers based on the specific hazards they may encounter in their work.

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107. Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?

Explanation

The Vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. They oversee the maintenance and management of these tools and equipment to ensure they are accurate and reliable for use. The other options, such as the vehicle maintenance superintendent, vehicle fleet manager, and technician assigned to CTK, may have other responsibilities related to vehicle maintenance and management but are not specifically responsible for calibration and certification of tools and equipment.

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108. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs?

Explanation

The Resource Management Division performs contracting support for all AFPA contracted and cost recovery programs. This division is responsible for managing the financial resources and ensuring efficient allocation of funds for various programs within the Air Force Petroleum Agency. They handle the contracting process, including soliciting bids, negotiating contracts, and monitoring contractor performance. This division plays a crucial role in ensuring that all contracted and cost recovery programs are executed effectively and in compliance with regulations.

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109. When performing lockout and tagout procedures, what form would you use to temporarily identify a condition that could result in a mishap that would cause death, disability, or a lost workday mishap?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 979, Danger Tag. When performing lockout and tagout procedures, a Danger Tag is used to temporarily identify a condition that could result in a mishap causing death, disability, or a lost workday mishap. This tag serves as a clear warning to individuals that the equipment or area is hazardous and should not be operated or accessed until the necessary safety measures have been taken.

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110. Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base?

Explanation

The Fuels Management Team (FMT) is responsible for ensuring complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum and missile fuels at each Air Force base. They are specifically trained and equipped to manage and oversee the storage, distribution, and maintenance of these fuels. The FMT works closely with other units and personnel to ensure that all safety protocols and regulations are followed, and that the fuels are handled and stored in a secure and efficient manner. Their primary role is to maintain the integrity and reliability of the fuel supply chain, ensuring that the Air Force has the necessary resources to support its missions.

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111. Which agency can initiate a Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint staff. The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) REPOL report can be initiated by the Joint staff. The Joint staff is responsible for providing strategic advice and support to the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the Secretary of Defense. They coordinate and integrate the efforts of the different military services and can initiate reports such as the REPOL report, which provides information on fuel and energy consumption and requirements. The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)–Energy, Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA), and Major command (MAJCOM) may have roles in fuel logistics and management, but they do not have the authority to initiate a JCS REPOL report.

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112. Which recoverable and waste (R&W) petroleum product category covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils?

Explanation

Category 3 covers motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils. This category is specifically designed for recoverable and waste petroleum products that are not used as a fuel and are not contaminated with hazardous substances. Motor crankcase oils and reciprocating aircraft engine oils fall under this category as they can be recovered and recycled for further use.

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113. What size graduated cylinder is used to perform the American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test?

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) gravity test is used to measure the density of petroleum liquids. A graduated cylinder is used for this test, and the size of the cylinder needed depends on the volume of the liquid being measured. In this case, the correct answer is 1,000 ml, which means that a 1,000 ml graduated cylinder is required to perform the API gravity test.

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114. What software database is used to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages?

Explanation

The AEF reporting tool (ART) is used as a software database to identify a unit type code's (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages. It allows for efficient reporting and analysis of unit capabilities and helps in identifying any gaps or deficiencies in mission capabilities.

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115. When viewing the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker alarm toolbar you see a flashing green color in the alarm indicator box. You know this indicates

Explanation

The flashing green color in the alarm indicator box in the FuelsManager Defense product movement tracker indicates that an unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal. This means that there was an alarm previously, but it has been resolved and no longer requires attention or action.

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116. Who must establish procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels?

Explanation

The Fuels Management Team (FMT) is responsible for establishing procedures for the collection, safekeeping, and deposit of funds received for cash sales of aviation fuels. They are specifically tasked with managing and overseeing the financial aspects of fuel sales, ensuring that proper protocols are in place to handle the funds securely and accurately. This includes establishing guidelines for cash handling, documenting transactions, and ensuring that funds are deposited in a timely manner. The FMT plays a crucial role in maintaining the financial integrity of the fuel sales process.

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117. When investigating fuel gains and losses, you know that variances in inventory levels may be caused by any of the following conditions except

Explanation

The question is asking about the possible causes of variances in inventory levels when investigating fuel gains and losses. The correct answer is "tank size" because the size of the tank does not directly affect the fuel gains and losses. The variances in inventory levels can be caused by factors such as temperature, mode of delivery, and volume of the product, as these factors can impact the amount of fuel that is gained or lost. However, the size of the tank itself does not directly contribute to these variances.

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118. When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, upon successful completion of end-of year closeout actions, how long should you retain the 12 monthly electronic backup disks as the fiscal year backup?

Explanation

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119. When reporting monthly assessments results, what form do Quality Control evaluators use?

Explanation

Quality Control evaluators use AF Form 4421, Logistics Readiness Squadron Quality Assurance Assessment Form when reporting monthly assessments results.

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120. When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?

Explanation

When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), the settings screen that allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned is the Fuel point configuration. This screen specifically deals with the configuration of the fuel points, allowing you to input and modify details related to the fueling unit.

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121. When performing the bottle method test, the flow reducer ring is not used for testing what type of fuel?

Explanation

The flow reducer ring is used in the bottle method test to ensure accurate measurement of fuel flow. It is not necessary to use the flow reducer ring when testing JP-5 fuel because this type of fuel has a higher viscosity compared to other fuels, which allows for accurate flow measurement without the need for the flow reducer ring.

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122. When posting changes and supplements to publications, within what maximum number of work days of receipt should you file technical order (TO) changes and supplements?

Explanation

When posting changes and supplements to publications, it is important to file technical order (TO) changes and supplements within a specific timeframe. The correct answer is 5, which means that you should file these changes and supplements within 5 work days of receipt. This ensures that the updates are implemented in a timely manner and that the publications remain accurate and up to date.

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123. While attempting to determine authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you are unable to verify an organization as a valid authorized customer after reviewing the customer validation listing. Who should your responsible officer/terminal manager (RO/TM) contact first for assistance?

Explanation

The Business Systems Modernization–Energy (BSM–E) help desk should be contacted first for assistance because they are responsible for providing support and assistance with business systems related to energy operations. They may have the necessary information or resources to help verify the organization as a valid authorized customer for sales to non-DOD aircraft. The other options, such as the Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA), Parent major command (MAJCOM), and Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) Operations Center, may not have the specific knowledge or authority to address this issue.

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124. What American Society for Testing and Material (ASTM) methods are used to determine freeze point of aviation fuel?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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125. Which Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) division develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology?

Explanation

The Laboratory Division of the Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) develops and evaluates emerging laboratory testing technology. This division is responsible for conducting research and development activities to enhance the testing capabilities of the agency. They work on implementing new technologies and methods to ensure accurate and efficient testing of petroleum products.

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126. The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5

Explanation

The war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) is derived from the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)–4 and WMP–5 quarterly. This means that the WCDO is updated and determined every three months based on the information and goals outlined in the WMP–4 and WMP–5. It is not updated on a weekly, monthly, or annual basis, but rather on a quarterly basis.

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127. When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

Explanation

The correct answer is "NO DEADMAN". This means that when performing off load operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should not be activated or used. This suggests that there is no need for a deadman switch during off load operations with the FORCE system.

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128. When determining authorizations for sales to non-DOD aircraft, you know that "T" Department of Defense address activity codes (DODAAC) are assigned to non-DOD organizations by

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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129. What organization may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420?

Explanation

The parent major command (MAJCOM) may authorize bases to use computer products in lieu of AF Forms 2419 and 2420.

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130. (020) When preparing an R–18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with

Explanation

When preparing an R–18 for shipment, it is important to dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with local and federal environmental regulations. This means that both the local regulations of the specific area and the federal regulations of the country must be followed. This ensures that the fuel is disposed of in a manner that is safe for the environment and compliant with all applicable laws and regulations.

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131. At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?

Explanation

The R-18 pumping unit oil filter should be changed every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. This means that if the unit has been in operation for 500 hours, the oil filter should be changed. Alternatively, if six months have passed since the last oil filter change, it should be replaced. This ensures that the oil filter is regularly maintained and replaced to maintain the efficiency and performance of the pumping unit.

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132. For a trend analysis, who defines what constitutes a negative trend and develops policies to isolate and correct them?

Explanation

The Fuels management team (FMT) is responsible for defining what constitutes a negative trend and developing policies to isolate and correct them in a trend analysis. They have the expertise and knowledge in fuel management to identify any negative trends and take appropriate actions to address them. The other options, such as the Fuels environmental safety office, Major command (MAJCOM), and Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA), may have roles related to fuel management but are not specifically responsible for defining negative trends and developing policies to correct them.

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133. To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of how many inches of mercury?

Explanation

To obtain meaningful results with the bottle method test, the vacuum must read in excess of 20 inches of mercury. This means that the vacuum must be able to create a pressure lower than 20 inches of mercury in order for the test to be effective. If the vacuum does not reach this level, the test may not accurately measure the desired parameters or provide reliable results.

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134. When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, at a minimum, the defense fuel supply point (DFSP) inventory transaction documents and official records you store locally should consist of the current fiscal year documents plus documents from how many previous fiscal years?

Explanation

When maintaining Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) files, the minimum requirement is to store the current fiscal year documents plus documents from the previous fiscal year. This ensures that a sufficient record of inventory transaction documents and official records is maintained for reference and auditing purposes.

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135. When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 ± 10 psi. This indicates that the oil pressure gauge should read between 40 and 60 psi when the R-18 pumping unit is operating properly. The range allows for some variation in the pressure reading, but it should still fall within the specified range to ensure proper functioning of the unit.

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136. What form should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met?

Explanation

The AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action, should be completed for awarding skill levels when all upgrade training (UGT) requirements have been met. This form is specifically designed for documenting the classification and on-the-job training actions of an individual. It serves as a record of the individual's qualifications and certifications, making it the appropriate form for awarding skill levels once all UGT requirements have been fulfilled.

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137. What step must you take if a sample fails either color or particle assessment?

Explanation

If a sample fails either color or particle assessment, the correct step to take is to immediately recheck the sample using a matched weight monitor. This means that another sample should be taken and assessed using a monitor that measures the weight of particles in the sample. This is important in order to ensure accurate and reliable results, as the initial sample may have been contaminated or there may have been errors in the assessment process.

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138. Who is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA–Energy policies?

Explanation

The Fuels Service Center (FSC) is responsible for maintaining the fuels account as outlined according to DLA-Energy policies.

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139. Regarding vehicle clipboards, what is the color coding requirement for E85 Ethanol?

Explanation

The correct answer is Red clipboard with blue stripes. This color coding requirement ensures that vehicles running on E85 Ethanol can be easily identified and distinguished from other vehicles. The red color signifies that the vehicle uses alternative fuel, while the blue stripes indicate that the specific alternative fuel being used is E85 Ethanol. This color combination helps in promoting safety and awareness among drivers and emergency responders, allowing them to handle these vehicles appropriately.

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140. What outside agency collects, analyzes, and publishes base fuel mishap reports and develops trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) is responsible for collecting, analyzing, and publishing base fuel mishap reports and developing trend analysis on reports affecting fuel operations. This agency is specifically dedicated to managing and overseeing fuel operations within the Air Force. The other options, such as Major command (MAJCOM), Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy), and Headquarters (HQ) USAF, may have different roles and responsibilities within the Air Force, but they are not specifically responsible for collecting and analyzing fuel mishap reports.

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141. What agency acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services?

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) acts as the Department of Defense (DOD) central procurement agent for bulk petroleum, natural gas, coal, and associated services. This agency is responsible for ensuring that the DOD has a reliable and secure energy supply to support military operations. They work to acquire and manage energy resources efficiently and effectively, providing the necessary fuel and energy products to meet the DOD's requirements.

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142. The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds

Explanation

The micronic filter elements on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds 15 psid. This means that when the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the filter reaches or exceeds 15 pounds per square inch, it is an indication that the filter is becoming clogged and is no longer effectively filtering the air. Replacing the filter at this point ensures that the unit continues to operate efficiently and maintain the desired level of filtration.

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143. What agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and other directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA–Energy policy or command policies?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Major command (MAJCOM) fuels office. This agency is responsible for formulating and disseminating instructions and directives that cover operations not specified in detail in DLA-Energy policy or command policies. They handle fuel-related matters within the Air Force and ensure that proper procedures and guidelines are followed in areas not explicitly covered by higher-level policies.

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144. Maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI) is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The fuels mobility supervisor is responsible for maintaining a current listing of all personnel with special experience identifiers (SEI). This role ensures that the necessary information about personnel with specialized skills or experience is up to date and easily accessible. The fuels service center (FSC) may handle other administrative tasks related to fuels management, but the specific responsibility of maintaining the SEI listing falls under the fuels mobility supervisor. The fuels training supervisor focuses on training personnel in fuels operations, while the fuels operations superintendent oversees overall operations in the fuels department.

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145. Providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The responsibility of providing supply and equipment budget forecasts through the fuels management team (FMT) to the squadron commander lies with the Fuels support.

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146. The inventory management plan (IMP) is published

Explanation

The correct answer is annually. This means that the inventory management plan (IMP) is published once a year. This frequency allows for regular updates and adjustments to be made to the plan to ensure it remains effective and aligned with the organization's goals and objectives. Publishing the IMP annually also provides stakeholders with a clear and consistent timeline for reviewing and implementing inventory management strategies.

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147. What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?

Explanation

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations. They ensure that the necessary fuel supplies are available to support military operations. This organization works closely with various branches of the military, including the Air Force, to coordinate and manage the distribution of fuel. The DLA-Energy plays a critical role in ensuring that fuel is readily available to support military missions and operations around the world.

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148. Who is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment?

Explanation

The Fuels management team (FMT) is responsible for establishing a fuels mobility support element at locations storing or using mobility support equipment. The FMT is a specialized team that oversees and manages all aspects of fuel operations, including the establishment and maintenance of equipment and support systems. They ensure that the necessary resources and infrastructure are in place to support the mobility needs of the organization, including the storage and distribution of fuel. The FMT works closely with other stakeholders, such as the Fuels operations superintendent and Fuels mobility supervisor, to coordinate and execute these operations effectively.

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149. What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?

Explanation

A 6-inch collapsible hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations. This type of hose is preferred because it can easily be folded or rolled up when not in use, making it more convenient to store and transport. Additionally, the larger diameter of the 6-inch hose allows for a higher flow rate, which is beneficial for efficient transfer operations.

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150. What agency prepares the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for preparing the war consumables distribution objective (WCDO) document. This document outlines the distribution objectives for war consumables, which are essential supplies needed during wartime operations. The MAJCOM, as a major operational command within the military, has the necessary knowledge and expertise to determine the appropriate distribution objectives based on the specific requirements of the mission. The Air Staff, Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA), and Defense Logistics Agency–Energy (DLA–Energy) may be involved in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the MAJCOM.

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