CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz

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CDC 2F071 : Air Force Specialty Code Exam! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Welcome to this in-depth CDC 2f071: air force specialty code exam! It is perfect for helping you review just how much you know about the codes. Think you are up for the challenge? How about you give it a shot and get to see how much practice you will need in the end. All the best as you tackle it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?

    • A.

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent.

    • B.

      Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • C.

      Fuels maintenance supervisor.

    • D.

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent. These individuals are responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures. They oversee the management and maintenance of the vehicle fleet, which includes ensuring that tools are properly accounted for and procedures are in place to track their usage and maintenance.

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  • 2. 

    The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except

    • A.

      Initial issue.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semi-annually.

    • D.

      When responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly.
    Explanation
    The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all occurrences except quarterly. This means that the POC does not need to update and perform inventories on a quarterly basis. Instead, they are required to do so on all other occasions such as the initial issue, semi-annually, and when a responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

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  • 3. 

    Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?

    • A.

      Vehicle maintenance superintendent.

    • B.

      Vehicle management flight materiel control section.

    • C.

      Vehicle fleet manager.

    • D.

      Technician assigned to CTK.

    Correct Answer
    B. Vehicle management flight materiel control section.
    Explanation
    The Vehicle management flight materiel control section is responsible for ensuring that tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification. They oversee the maintenance and management of these tools and equipment to ensure they are accurate and reliable for use. The other options, such as the vehicle maintenance superintendent, vehicle fleet manager, and technician assigned to CTK, may have other responsibilities related to vehicle maintenance and management but are not specifically responsible for calibration and certification of tools and equipment.

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  • 4. 

    Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly. Type III, IV, and V hydrant systems are required to be flushed on a regular basis to ensure their proper functioning. Flushing helps remove any accumulated sediments or debris in the system, which can hinder water flow during emergencies. Monthly flushing ensures that the hydrant systems are always in optimal condition and ready for immediate use if needed. Flushing them less frequently, such as quarterly, semiannually, or annually, may increase the risk of clogging or malfunctioning during critical situations.

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  • 5. 

    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

    • A.

      With a minimum of twice the line volume.

    • B.

      Using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.

    • C.

      Until a sump sample is obtained.

    • D.

      For at least 30 minutes.

    Correct Answer
    A. With a minimum of twice the line volume.
    Explanation
    During a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to flush the loop with a minimum of twice the line volume. This means that the amount of water used for flushing should be at least double the volume of the water in the lines. Flushing the loop with an adequate amount of water helps to remove any sediment or debris that may have accumulated in the lines, ensuring that the water is clean and safe for use. Using less than twice the line volume may not effectively clean the lines and could leave behind contaminants.

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  • 6. 

    When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?

    • A.

      ESC.

    • B.

      NEXT.

    • C.

      TANK.

    • D.

      ENTER.

    Correct Answer
    C. TANK.
    Explanation
    To obtain quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, you must first press the TANK key when switching between tanks. This key is likely used to select the specific tank for which you want to obtain the quantity reading. By pressing the TANK key first, you can ensure that the ATG is set to the correct tank before proceeding with obtaining the quantity reading.

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  • 7. 

    Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?

    • A.

      One week.

    • B.

      One month.

    • C.

      Three months.

    • D.

      Six months.

    Correct Answer
    B. One month.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one month. This means that when the nitrogen supply drops below 200 psi, it is estimated to last for approximately one month.

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  • 8. 

    When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?

    • A.

      All items.

    • B.

      All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

    • C.

      All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.

    • D.

      All items followed by an ampersand (&).

    Correct Answer
    B. All items preceded by an asterisk (*).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All items preceded by an asterisk (*)." This means that when performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, you should complete all the items that are listed in the Technical Order (TO) 37C2-8-1-116WC-1 and are preceded by an asterisk. The asterisk serves as a marker to indicate which items should be completed during the inspection.

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  • 9. 

    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

    • A.

      No action is required.

    • B.

      Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.

    • C.

      Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

    • D.

      Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.
    Explanation
    If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the appropriate action would be to inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance. This is because the FSC is responsible for managing fuel operations and can provide instructions on how to proceed without the required form.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?

    • A.

      Vent valve.

    • B.

      Service valve.

    • C.

      Fill/drain valve.

    • D.

      Pressure build up valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vent valve.
    Explanation
    Before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt, the vent valve should be in the open position. This is because the vent valve allows the release of any excess pressure or gases that may build up inside the cryotainer during the receipt process. By opening the vent valve, it ensures that the cryotainer is properly vented and prevents any potential safety hazards or damage to the equipment.

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  • 11. 

    Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator

    • A.

      Reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy.

    • B.

      Performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer.

    • C.

      Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.

    • D.

      Signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.

    Correct Answer
    C. Purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants." This is because before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, it is important to remove any potential contaminants from the transfer hose. Purging the hose ensures that the LOX is not contaminated and maintains its purity. The other options mentioned in the question, such as reviewing AFTO Forms 244/245, performing an odor test, and signing the DD Form 250, are not directly related to removing potential contaminants from the transfer hose.

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  • 12. 

    When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

    • A.

      No action is required.

    • B.

      Do not service the receiving tank.

    • C.

      Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.

    • D.

      Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not service the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a review of a receiving tank's AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out, the correct action to take is to not service the receiving tank. This means that the tank should not be filled with liquid oxygen until the form is properly completed.

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  • 13. 

    To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?

    • A.

      10–15 psi.

    • B.

      15–20 psi.

    • C.

      20–30 psi.

    • D.

      30–40 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10–15 psi.
    Explanation
    The source tank pressure for cryogenic issuing should be set within the range of 10-15 psi. This range ensures that the pressure is sufficient to allow for the controlled release of the cryogenic substance, while also preventing any potential over-pressurization that could cause damage or safety hazards. Setting the pressure within this range helps to maintain the integrity of the cryogenic system and ensures safe and efficient operation.

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  • 14. 

    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

    • A.

      No action is required.

    • B.

      Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • C.

      Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.

    • D.

      Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Do not fill the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a receiving tank's AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a maintenance issue or a problem with the tank that needs to be addressed. Filling the tank with liquid nitrogen could potentially worsen the issue or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take in this situation is to not fill the receiving tank.

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  • 15. 

    Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?

    • A.

      Conduct another odor test.

    • B.

      Inform aircraftmaintenance.

    • C.

      Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

    • D.

      Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

    Correct Answer
    C. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.
    Explanation
    If a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test, the appropriate step to take is to perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart. This is because the failure of the odor test indicates a potential issue with the storage tank, and conducting an odor test on the tank will help identify if there is any contamination or problem with the tank that could have caused the failure. This step is necessary to ensure the safety and quality of the liquid oxygen being used.

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  • 16. 

    Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?

    • A.

      100 ml.

    • B.

      200 ml.

    • C.

      300 ml.

    • D.

      400 ml.

    Correct Answer
    B. 200 ml.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 200 ml. When conducting an odor test, it is important to take a sample size that is representative of the overall odor. A sample size of 200 ml is considered to be a good balance between capturing enough odor molecules to be detectable and avoiding an overwhelming concentration of odor. This size is commonly used in odor testing to ensure accurate results.

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  • 17. 

    What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

    • A.

      Red X.

    • B.

      Red dash.

    • C.

      Red cross.

    • D.

      Red diagonal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Red dash.
    Explanation
    If a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue, the symbol that should be entered on the AFTO Form 244/245 is a red dash. The red dash symbol indicates that the inspection was not completed within the required timeframe. This helps to ensure that the maintenance personnel are aware of the delay and can take appropriate action to address the issue.

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  • 18. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?

    • A.

      The date the cart was filled.

    • B.

      The quantity issued to the cart.

    • C.

      The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.

    • D.

      The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

    Correct Answer
    D. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.
    Explanation
    In block 4 of the AFTO Form 134, the information that should be entered is the initials of the individual who filled the cart. This is important for documentation purposes and to keep track of who performed the task. It helps in identifying the responsible person in case there are any issues or concerns related to the cryogenic product.

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  • 19. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?

    • A.

      As either “+” or “–” in column A.

    • B.

      As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.

    • C.

      As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.

    • D.

      As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

    Correct Answer
    D. As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As either 'FAIL' or 'PASS' in column D." This is because when documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, the odor test results should be annotated as either a failure ("FAIL") or a pass ("PASS") in column D. This helps to clearly indicate whether the odor test was successful or not for the LOX cart.

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  • 20. 

    When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?

    • A.

      DD Form 250.

    • B.

      DD Form 250–1.

    • C.

      DD Form 1348.

    • D.

      DD Form 1348–1.

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 250.
    Explanation
    The vendor's invoice is obtained from DD Form 250, which is the Material Inspection and Receiving Report. This form is used to document the receipt of goods and services from vendors, including cryogenic products. It provides information about the quantity, condition, and other details of the received items, as well as the costs and payment terms specified in the vendor's invoice.

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  • 21. 

    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

    • A.

      Monthly.

    • B.

      Quarterly.

    • C.

      Semiannually.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually.
    Explanation
    Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This ensures that they are up to date with the latest safety procedures and regulations. Regular certification helps to maintain their skills and knowledge, ensuring that they can perform their duties safely and efficiently. It also allows for any necessary retraining or updates to be provided to personnel. By requiring annual certification, the organization can ensure that their hot refueling operations are conducted by competent and qualified individuals.

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  • 22. 

    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

    • A.

      HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7).

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • C.

      Wing commander.

    • D.

      Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) commander may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling. The MAJCOM commander has the authority and responsibility to make decisions regarding operational matters within their command, including approving exceptions to standard procedures in order to ensure mission success and safety.

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  • 23. 

    Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

    • A.

      B–1.

    • B.

      F–15.

    • C.

      F–16.

    • D.

      F–22.

    Correct Answer
    B. F–15.
    Explanation
    The F-15 aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad. This means that the brakes of the F-15 do not need to be inspected for overheating or excessive wear before refueling while the aircraft is still running.

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  • 24. 

    When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first

    • A.

      Minute of fuel flow.

    • B.

      Two minutes of fuel flow.

    • C.

      250 gallons defueled.

    • D.

      500 gallons defueled.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minute of fuel flow.
    Explanation
    The high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first minute of fuel flow during rapid defueling operations. This is important to ensure that the valve is functioning properly and can effectively shut off the fuel flow when the desired level is reached. Testing the valve within this timeframe allows for immediate detection and resolution of any issues, minimizing the risk of fuel spills or overfilling.

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  • 25. 

    When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?

    • A.

      Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.

    • B.

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

    • C.

      Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    • D.

      Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

    Correct Answer
    B. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.
    Explanation
    A rapid defuel operation is considered a hot defuel when the source or provider aircraft has any engine running. This means that even if only one engine is running, it is still considered a hot defuel. The presence of any running engine poses a potential risk during the defueling process, making it necessary to follow specific safety protocols and procedures.

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  • 26. 

    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?

    • A.

      A–10.

    • B.

      B–2.

    • C.

      F–15.

    • D.

      F–22.

    Correct Answer
    B. B–2.
    Explanation
    Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on the B-2 aircraft. This means that simultaneous maintenance and operations activities, specifically related to generating sorties, are not allowed on the B-2. This could be due to specific operational or maintenance requirements of the aircraft, or limitations in its design or capabilities.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?

    • A.

      Concurrent servicing supervisor.

    • B.

      Aircraft servicing supervisor.

    • C.

      Chief servicing supervisor.

    • D.

      Fuels operator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent servicing supervisor.
    Explanation
    The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG). They oversee the servicing operations and ensure that all tasks are carried out efficiently and safely. They coordinate with other supervisors and operators to ensure that the aircraft servicing is completed on time and meets all requirements. The concurrent servicing supervisor plays a crucial role in the smooth execution of combat sortie generation operations.

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  • 28. 

    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

    • A.

      10.

    • B.

      20.

    • C.

      25.

    • D.

      50.

    Correct Answer
    C. 25.
    Explanation
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come within a minimum of 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential hazards related to fuel venting. Being too close to the vent outlet could expose personnel to fuel vapors or other risks associated with fuel handling. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance of at least 25 feet to mitigate any potential dangers.

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  • 29. 

    Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?

    • A.

      Passenger compartment monitor.

    • B.

      Fuels servicing supervisor.

    • C.

      Chief servicing supervisor.

    • D.

      Refueling panel monitor.

    Correct Answer
    C. Chief servicing supervisor.
    Explanation
    The Chief servicing supervisor is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations. This includes overseeing cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing. They are in charge of ensuring that all these operations are carried out efficiently and safely. The other options, such as the passenger compartment monitor, fuels servicing supervisor, and refueling panel monitor, may have specific roles within the servicing process but do not have the overall responsibility for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing operations.

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  • 30. 

    During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?

    • A.

      15.

    • B.

      20.

    • C.

      30.

    • D.

      40.

    Correct Answer
    B. 20.
    Explanation
    During in-shelter refueling, it is important to ensure that fuel servicing vehicle engines do not operate for an extended period of time to minimize the risk of fire or explosion. The correct answer of 20 minutes indicates that the maximum duration for fuel servicing vehicle engines to operate during in-shelter refueling is 20 minutes. This time limit helps to maintain safety and prevent potential hazards associated with fueling operations in enclosed spaces.

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  • 31. 

    Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    • D.

      6.

    Correct Answer
    C. 4.
    Explanation
    Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to a maximum of 4 operations per duty day. This limitation is put in place to ensure the safety of the crew members and the aircraft. Conducting in-shelter refueling with the doors closed can pose risks such as fuel vapors accumulating in the shelter, which can lead to a hazardous environment. By limiting the number of operations, the crew members can minimize their exposure to potential risks and ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

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  • 32. 

    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

    • A.

      No action is required.

    • B.

      Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM).

    • C.

      Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • D.

      Stop the operation immediately.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stop the operation immediately.
    Explanation
    If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is crucial to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can be dangerous and potentially cause damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation will prevent any further backflow and mitigate the risk of any potential accidents or damage.

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  • 33. 

    When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle

    • A.

      Can begin fuel flow once positioned.

    • B.

      May leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing.

    • C.

      Should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft.

    • D.

      Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. Must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.
    Explanation
    When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft. This is important to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or fuel leaks. By requiring the vehicles to remain in position and bonded, it ensures that the fueling process is completed properly and reduces the risk of any mishaps during refueling.

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  • 34. 

    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?

    • A.

      PDA.

    • B.

      Wireless.

    • C.

      Device info.

    • D.

      Base.

    Correct Answer
    D. Base.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Base." The base tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned. This tab is specifically designed to store and manage information related to the base or location where the Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) is being used. It helps in organizing and tracking the equipment's assignment and usage within the fuels management flight.

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  • 35. 

    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?

    • A.

      Basic configuration.

    • B.

      Device configuration.

    • C.

      Fuel point configuration.

    • D.

      Meter configuration.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fuel point configuration.
    Explanation
    When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), the settings screen that allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned is the Fuel point configuration. This screen specifically deals with the configuration of the fuel points, allowing you to input and modify details related to the fueling unit.

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  • 36. 

    While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?

    • A.

      Immediately terminate the operation.

    • B.

      Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue.

    • C.

      Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center.

    • D.

      Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately terminate the operation.
    Explanation
    If you notice an unsafe fueling operation while performing expediter duties, the correct action to take is to immediately terminate the operation. This is the safest course of action to prevent any potential accidents or hazards. It is important to prioritize safety and stop the operation to avoid any further risks or damages.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?

    • A.

      Return-to-bulk (RTB).

    • B.

      Ground fuel servicing.

    • C.

      Aircraft fueling.

    • D.

      Fillstand.

    Correct Answer
    C. Aircraft fueling.
    Explanation
    A fuels expediter is responsible for coordinating the delivery and distribution of fuel to aircraft. This includes ensuring that the correct type and quantity of fuel is delivered, monitoring fuel levels, and coordinating with fueling personnel. Aircraft fueling specifically involves the actual process of refueling an aircraft, which requires the presence and assistance of a fuels expediter to ensure a safe and efficient operation. Ground fuel servicing involves fueling ground vehicles and equipment, while return-to-bulk (RTB) refers to the process of transferring unused fuel back to storage tanks. Fillstand refers to a location where fuel is stored and dispensed.

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  • 38. 

    Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

    • A.

      1,000.

    • B.

      1,500.

    • C.

      3,000.

    • D.

      4,500.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1,500.
    Explanation
    Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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  • 39. 

    What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?

    • A.

      4-inch hard hose.

    • B.

      4-inch collapsible hose.

    • C.

      6-inch hard hose.

    • D.

      6-inch collapsible hose.

    Correct Answer
    D. 6-inch collapsible hose.
    Explanation
    A 6-inch collapsible hose should be used on the discharge side of the R-18 for transfer operations. This type of hose is preferred because it can easily be folded or rolled up when not in use, making it more convenient to store and transport. Additionally, the larger diameter of the 6-inch hose allows for a higher flow rate, which is beneficial for efficient transfer operations.

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  • 40. 

    How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the number of fillstand assemblies included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system. The correct answer is 2. This means that there are two fillstand assemblies included in the FORCE system.

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  • 41. 

    At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?

    • A.

      Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

    • B.

      Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

    • C.

      Every 250 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

    • D.

      Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

    Correct Answer
    B. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.
    Explanation
    The R-18 pumping unit oil filter should be changed every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first. This means that if the unit has been in operation for 500 hours, the oil filter should be changed. Alternatively, if six months have passed since the last oil filter change, it should be replaced. This ensures that the oil filter is regularly maintained and replaced to maintain the efficiency and performance of the pumping unit.

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  • 42. 

    What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

    • A.

      30 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B.

      65 psi.

    • C.

      75 psi.

    • D.

      100 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 75 psi.
    Explanation
    The proper tire pressure setting for the R-18 pumping unit is 75 psi. This is the correct answer because it is the only option provided that matches the recommended tire pressure setting for the specific equipment mentioned.

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  • 43. 

    How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    The sump tank on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily to ensure optimal performance and prevent any potential issues caused by the accumulation of sediment, water, or other contaminants. Regular drainage helps maintain the efficiency and longevity of the unit, ensuring that it operates effectively and avoids any potential damage or malfunctions.

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  • 44. 

    Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?

    • A.

      A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.

    • B.

      A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge.

    • C.

      Elements that have been in use for 36 months.

    • D.

      Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.
    Explanation
    A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge indicates that the filter elements are still functioning effectively and have not yet reached the point where they need to be replaced. The DP gauge measures the pressure difference across the filter elements, and a reading of 16 psid suggests that there is still sufficient capacity for the filter to continue operating efficiently. Therefore, there is no immediate need for replacement of the filter elements in this condition.

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  • 45. 

    What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

    • A.

      45 psi.

    • B.

      75 psi.

    • C.

      90 psi.

    • D.

      150 psi.

    Correct Answer
    C. 90 psi.
    Explanation
    The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is necessary to ensure that the system is ready to operate and can handle any potential surges or fluctuations in pressure that may occur during fueling. A lower pressure may indicate a potential issue with the system, while a higher pressure may cause damage or leaks in the system. Therefore, 90 psi is the correct pressure for the surge suppressor gauge in this situation.

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  • 46. 

    The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds

    • A.

      10 psid.

    • B.

      15 psid.

    • C.

      20 psid.

    • D.

      25 psid.

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 psid.
    Explanation
    The micronic filter elements on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds 15 psid. This means that when the pressure difference between the upstream and downstream sides of the filter reaches or exceeds 15 pounds per square inch, it is an indication that the filter is becoming clogged and is no longer effectively filtering the air. Replacing the filter at this point ensures that the unit continues to operate efficiently and maintain the desired level of filtration.

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  • 47. 

    When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?

    • A.

      Turn off the panel power switch.

    • B.

      Turn on the battery master switch.

    • C.

      Set the station unit identification (ID) switch to the desired number.

    • D.

      Place the manual/remote control switch in the MANUAL position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn off the panel power switch.
    Explanation
    When setting up the communication panel on an R-18, the first action to take is to turn off the panel power switch. This is important because it ensures that there is no power running through the panel while setting it up, which can prevent any accidental activation or interference. By turning off the panel power switch, it allows for a safe and controlled setup process.

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  • 48. 

    When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

    • A.

      ON.

    • B.

      OFF.

    • C.

      OFFLOAD.

    • D.

      NO DEADMAN.

    Correct Answer
    D. NO DEADMAN.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NO DEADMAN". This means that when performing off load operations with the FORCE system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R-18 pumping unit should not be activated or used. This suggests that there is no need for a deadman switch during off load operations with the FORCE system.

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  • 49. 

    When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?

    • A.

      25 ± 5 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • B.

      50 ± 10 psi.

    • C.

      85 ± 5 psi.

    • D.

      90 ± 10 psi.

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 ± 10 psi.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 ± 10 psi. This indicates that the oil pressure gauge should read between 40 and 60 psi when the R-18 pumping unit is operating properly. The range allows for some variation in the pressure reading, but it should still fall within the specified range to ensure proper functioning of the unit.

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  • 50. 

    When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?

    • A.

      1,550.

    • B.

      1,850.

    • C.

      1,950.

    • D.

      2,250.

    Correct Answer
    D. 2,250.
    Explanation
    When performing fuel servicing operations with an R-18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to 2,250 revolutions per minute (rpm). This specific rpm setting is likely recommended for optimal fuel flow and efficiency during the servicing operations.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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