Unit 1 CDC 2A654

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the awarded specialty in witch an airman is most highly qualified to preform duty?

    • Primary AFSC
    • 2AFSC
    • Duty AFSC
    • Control AFSC
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About This Quiz

Unit 1 CDC 2A654 quiz assesses knowledge in Air Force specialty codes, training standards, and hazardous material handling. It prepares airmen for higher skill levels and emphasizes accountability and responsibility in Air Force roles.

Unit 1 CDC 2A654 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A control Air Force Specialty code (CAFSC) is used to identify an 

    • Awarded AFSC other than a primary AFSC.

    • Authorized manning position to which an airman is assigned.

    • Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.

    • Awarded specialty in which an airman is qualified to preform all duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements." A control Air Force Specialty code (CAFSC) is a code used to identify an airman's highest usable skill in terms of the total requirements of the Air Force. It represents the skills and qualifications that an airman has beyond their primary AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code). This code helps the Air Force in assigning airmen to appropriate positions based on their highest skill level, ensuring that they are utilized effectively in meeting the overall requirements of the Air Force.

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  • 3. 

    What source provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to the 5-skill level?

    • Job proficiency.

    • Technical orders.

    • Specialty training standard.

    • Career development course.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course provides the necessary training for upgrading to the 5-skill level. This course focuses on enhancing career knowledge and skills, helping individuals to develop the necessary proficiency for their job. Technical orders may provide specific instructions for performing tasks, but they do not necessarily offer comprehensive career knowledge training. Similarly, specialty training standards may focus on specific skills but may not cover all the knowledge required for career advancement. Therefore, the most suitable source for the required career knowledge training is a career development course.

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  • 4. 

    Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of a specialty training standard (STS)?

    • Core tasks only.

    • All tasks listed on the STS.

    • Only mission-critical tasks.

    • Only those tasks that are performed frequently

    Correct Answer
    A. Core tasks only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Core tasks only." This means that only the tasks that are considered essential or fundamental to the specialty training standard (STS) require the initials of a certifying official in the last column. This indicates that these tasks have been reviewed and approved by the certifying official, ensuring their importance and adherence to the standards set by the STS.

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  • 5. 

    As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, what are your duties regarding hazardous materials?

    • None. You are not authorized to get involved with hazardous materials.

    • Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environment standards.

    • Handle and label them only according to environment standards.

    • Dispose of them according to applicable Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFSH) standards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environment standards.
    Explanation
    As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, your duties regarding hazardous materials include handling, labeling, and disposing of them according to environmental standards. This means that you are authorized to work with hazardous materials and must follow proper procedures to ensure their safe handling, labeling, and disposal. Additionally, it is important to adhere to environmental standards to minimize any negative impact on the environment.

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  • 6. 

    What are the three types of wings?

    • Operational, air base, and specialized mission.

    • Operational, objective, and home based.

    • Composite, operational, and objective.

    • Specialized mission, air base, and home based.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational, air base, and specialized mission.
    Explanation
    The three types of wings are operational, air base, and specialized mission. Operational wings are responsible for conducting combat operations and supporting the overall mission of the military. Air base wings are responsible for managing and maintaining the infrastructure and facilities of an air base. Specialized mission wings are focused on specific tasks or missions, such as intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance.

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  • 7. 

    Which organizational group is concerned with the maintenance of air and space weapons systems?

    • Operations.

    • Weapons.

    • Logistics.

    • Maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance.
    Explanation
    The organizational group concerned with the maintenance of air and space weapons systems is the Maintenance group. This group is responsible for ensuring that the weapons systems are properly maintained and in working condition. They handle repairs, inspections, and overall upkeep of the weapons systems to ensure their effectiveness and reliability. Operations may be involved in the deployment and use of the weapons systems, while Logistics may handle the procurement and distribution of resources needed for maintenance. However, it is the Maintenance group that specifically focuses on the upkeep of the weapons systems.

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  • 8. 

    To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander responsible to for overall squadron management?

    • Maintenance group commander.

    • Combat wing commander.

    • Major command (MAJCOM).

    • Headquarters Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The component maintenance squadron commander is responsible to the maintenance group commander for overall squadron management. This means that the squadron commander reports to and is accountable to the maintenance group commander, who is in charge of overseeing multiple squadrons within the maintenance group. The maintenance group commander is responsible for setting the overall direction and goals for the squadron and ensuring that it operates efficiently and effectively.

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  • 9. 

    Precision measurement equipment laboratory (PMEL) personnel are assigned to  which flight?

    • Aerospace group equipment.

    • Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

    • Munitions.

    • Fabrication.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.
    Explanation
    PMEL personnel are assigned to the flight that deals with test measurement and diagnostic equipment. This means that their main responsibility is to handle and maintain the precision measurement equipment used for testing and diagnosing various systems and components. They are likely involved in calibrating, repairing, and troubleshooting this equipment to ensure accurate and reliable measurements. The other options, such as Aerospace group equipment, munitions, and fabrication, do not align with the specific role of PMEL personnel in handling test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

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  • 10. 

    Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by which flight?

    • Aerospace ground equipment.

    • Fuels.

    • Pneudraulics.

    • Electro-environmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electro-environmental.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Electro-environmental. Electro-environmental is responsible for the maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units. This flight is specifically trained and equipped to handle the electrical and environmental systems of aircraft, including gaseous and cryogenic systems.

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  • 11. 

    An over-the-shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is a

    • Technical inspection.

    • Personnel inspection.

    • Supplemental inspection.

    • Quality inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel inspection.
    Explanation
    An over-the-shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is referred to as a personnel inspection. This type of inspection focuses on the individual's performance, skills, and adherence to procedures while carrying out the maintenance task. It ensures that the technician or supervisor is following the correct protocols and performing the necessary actions accurately. The purpose of a personnel inspection is to assess and improve the individual's competency and proficiency in their role.

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  • 12. 

    What type of workcards may be authorized for use during contingencies?

    • Deployed workcards.

    • Periodic workcards.

    • Inspection decks.

    • Contingency decks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployed workcards.
    Explanation
    Deployed workcards may be authorized for use during contingencies. These workcards are specifically designed and prepared for deployment in emergency situations or contingencies. They contain detailed instructions and procedures that need to be followed during such situations to ensure the smooth execution of tasks. Deployed workcards are essential in maintaining safety and efficiency during contingencies and are therefore authorized for use in such circumstances.

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  • 13. 

    Which type inspection is a flight preparedness check?

    • Hourly post-flight.

    • Thru-flight

    • End-of-runway.

    • Pre-flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-flight.
    Explanation
    A pre-flight inspection is a flight preparedness check that is conducted before the aircraft takes off. It involves a thorough examination of the aircraft's systems, controls, and overall condition to ensure that it is safe and ready for flight. This inspection is crucial to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could affect the aircraft's performance or safety during the flight. Therefore, the correct answer is pre-flight.

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  • 14. 

    Which type inspection looks for cut tires, foreign object damage covers, and removal of safety pins?

    • Hourly post-flight.

    • Thru-flight.

    • End-of-runway.

    • Pre-flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. End-of-runway.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is End-of-runway. End-of-runway inspections are conducted after an aircraft lands and before it takes off again. These inspections focus on checking for any damage or issues that may have occurred during the landing or taxiing process. This includes looking for cut tires, foreign object damage covers, and ensuring that safety pins have been removed. This type of inspection is crucial to ensure the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft before it takes off again.

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  • 15. 

    Which type inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround?

    • Hourly post-flight

    • Thru-flight.

    • End-of-runway.

    • Pre-flight

    Correct Answer
    A. Thru-flight.
    Explanation
    Thru-flight inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround. Thru-flight inspections are conducted when an aircraft lands and is scheduled to depart again within a short period of time. These inspections focus on checking the aircraft for any damage or issues that may have occurred during the previous flight, ensuring that it is safe and ready for the next departure. Hourly post-flight inspections are conducted after a certain number of flight hours, end-of-runway inspections are performed before takeoff, and pre-flight inspections are conducted before the first flight of the day.

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  • 16. 

    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight?

    • Pre-flight.

    • Thru-flight.

    • End-of-runway.

    • Hourly post-flight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hourly post-flight.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hourly post-flight." This inspection is conducted on an hourly basis after each flight to ensure that the aircraft is still in a safe and operational condition. It allows for the detection of any potential issues or damages that may have occurred during the flight, which may not have been visible during the basic post-flight inspection. Conducting this inspection regularly helps to maintain the aircraft's airworthiness and prevent any potential safety hazards.

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  • 17. 

    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce

    • Out of commission time.

    • Number of personnel conducting inspection.

    • Number of required inspections.

    • Number of hours between inspections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Out of commission time.
    Explanation
    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce the out of commission time. This means that the inspection is aimed at minimizing the amount of time that a particular system or equipment is taken out of service for maintenance or repairs. By conducting regular phase inspections, any necessary repairs or maintenance can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the downtime and ensuring that the system or equipment remains operational for longer periods. This ultimately leads to increased efficiency and productivity.

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  • 18. 

    Which inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive is scope?

    • Phase.

    • Minor.

    • Major.

    • Home station check.

    Correct Answer
    A. Major.
    Explanation
    A major inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the weapon system. It involves a comprehensive evaluation of each requirement and may be more extensive in scope compared to other inspections such as phase, minor, or home station check. It is a critical assessment that ensures the weapon system is in optimal condition and meets all necessary requirements.

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  • 19. 

    Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas, or systems to ensure no conditions exists that could result in failure before the next scheduled inspection?

    • Minor.

    • Thru-flight.

    • Phase.

    • Home station check.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minor.
    Explanation
    A minor inspection involves checking specific components, areas, or systems to ensure that there are no conditions present that could lead to failure before the next scheduled inspection. This type of inspection is focused on identifying and addressing any potential issues or problems before they become more serious. It is typically less comprehensive and time-consuming than other types of inspections, such as phase inspections or home station checks.

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  • 20. 

    What type inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?

    • Special.

    • Calendar.

    • Acceptance.

    • Time replacement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance.
    Explanation
    Acceptance inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft to ensure that they meet the required standards and specifications before they are put into service. This inspection is crucial as it ensures that the aircraft is safe and ready for operation. It involves a thorough examination of various components, systems, and documentation to verify their compliance with regulations and guidelines. The acceptance inspection helps in identifying any potential issues or discrepancies that need to be addressed before the aircraft is put into service.

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  • 21. 

    What type inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents?

    • Time replacement.

    • Acceptance.

    • Calendar.

    • Special.

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance.
    Explanation
    Acceptance inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents. This type of inspection is typically done when an aircraft is being accepted into service or after major repairs or modifications have been completed. It ensures that the aircraft meets all necessary requirements and is safe to fly.

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  • 22. 

    Which inspection is outlined in the -6 technical order and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item is inspection?

    • Special.

    • Calendar.

    • Acceptance.

    • Time replacement.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special.
    Explanation
    The -6 technical order outlines the Special inspection, which differs from other types of inspections because it only focuses on inspecting one specific part of the aircraft or item. This type of inspection is conducted to ensure the proper functioning and condition of that particular component, rather than inspecting the entire aircraft or item as a whole.

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  • 23. 

    During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?

    • Fix phase.

    • Look phase.

    • Post inspection phase.

    • Pre-inspection phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Look phase.
    Explanation
    During the "Look phase" of an inspection, all write-ups are found and documented. This phase involves carefully examining the area or object being inspected to identify any issues or problems that need to be addressed. It is during this phase that inspectors thoroughly inspect the area and document any findings or observations, including any necessary write-ups. The look phase is an essential part of the inspection process as it ensures that all issues are identified and documented accurately.

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  • 24. 

    When you clear a discrepancy on an AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781, what will be placed over the symbol?

    • First name initial.

    • First and last name initial.

    • Last name initial.

    • Minimum signature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Last name initial.
    Explanation
    When clearing a discrepancy on an AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781, the last name initial will be placed over the symbol. This signifies the individual who resolved the issue and provides accountability for the action taken.

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  • 25. 

    What type of entry on AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document, dose not require a symbol?

    • Functional check flight due.

    • Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot.

    • Informational note not affecting flight safety.

    • Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Informational note not affecting flight safety.
    Explanation
    An entry on AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document, that does not require a symbol is an informational note not affecting flight safety. This means that if there is a note or comment that is informational in nature and does not have any impact on the safety of the flight, it does not need to be marked with a symbol on the AFTO 781A form. The other options mentioned in the question, such as functional check flight due, discrepancy corrected on-the-spot, and inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem, would typically require symbols to be marked on the form to indicate the nature of the entry.

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  • 26. 

    On the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what formant?

    • Minimum signature (first initial and last name).

    • Printed first and last name.

    • Last name only.

    • First name only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum signature (first initial and last name).
    Explanation
    On the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H, the person who performs or supervises the refueling operation is required to put their name in block 14 using the minimum signature format, which consists of their first initial and last name. This format ensures that the identity of the individual responsible for the refueling is recorded accurately and efficiently.

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  • 27. 

    What part of the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a means to document a quality control review of the form?

    • Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • Part III, SCHEDUKED INSPECTIONS.

    • Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.

    • Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.
    Explanation
    Part IV of the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244, which is the SUPERVISORY REVIEW section, provides a means to document a quality control review of the form. This section allows supervisors to review the completed form and ensure that all necessary inspections and maintenance procedures have been properly documented. It serves as a final check to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the form before it is filed and archived.

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  • 28. 

    Which section of AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes?

    • Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • Part III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.

    • Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.
    Explanation
    Part V of the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes. This section specifically focuses on recording information related to industrial/support equipment records. It is the appropriate section to document any issues or changes related to industrial/support equipment, including delays in addressing discrepancies and overdue time changes.

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  • 29. 

    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is

    • Cleared.

    • Destroyed.

    • Maintained as historical data.

    • Re-accomplished.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintained as historical data.
    Explanation
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is maintained as historical data. This means that the form is kept for record-keeping purposes to document the repair that was done on the fuel tank. It serves as a reference for future maintenance and inspections, providing a historical record of the repair work that was performed. This helps to ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for the fuel tank's maintenance and repair history.

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  • 30. 

    What percentage of all accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?

    • Two.

    • Four.

    • Six.

    • Eight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is two because the question is asking for the percentage of accidents due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods. Out of the given options, two is the only percentage value provided.

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  • 31. 

    What may be considered to be the direct cause of any accident?

    • Inattentiveness.

    • Lack of adequate training.

    • Unsafe acts and conditions.

    • Unchangeable circumstances.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unsafe acts and conditions.
    Explanation
    Unsafe acts and conditions can be considered the direct cause of any accident. Inattentiveness and lack of adequate training can contribute to unsafe acts, while unchangeable circumstances may create unsafe conditions. However, it is the combination of unsafe acts and conditions that directly lead to accidents. These can include actions such as not following safety protocols or using faulty equipment, as well as conditions like poor lighting or slippery surfaces. By addressing and eliminating unsafe acts and conditions, the risk of accidents can be significantly reduced.

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  • 32. 

    The first rule of good housekeeping is?

    • Clean floors.

    • Personal cleanliness.

    • A neat and orderly workbench.

    • A regularly scheduled cleanup time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal cleanliness.
    Explanation
    The first rule of good housekeeping is personal cleanliness because it is important to maintain personal hygiene in order to prevent the spread of germs and maintain a healthy living environment. Keeping oneself clean and practicing good personal hygiene habits such as regular handwashing and grooming helps to reduce the risk of illness and maintain a clean and healthy living space.

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  • 33. 

    All of these are examples of internal distracters except

    • Thinking about problems.

    • Daydreaming.

    • Boredom.

    • Noise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise.
    Explanation
    Internal distracters refer to distractions that arise from within an individual's mind or thoughts. Thinking about problems, daydreaming, and boredom are all examples of internal distracters because they involve mental processes or states that divert attention from the task at hand. However, noise is not an internal distracter because it originates from the external environment and can disrupt concentration and focus.

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  • 34. 

    The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to

    • Establish the cause to determine financial responsibility.

    • Determine if non-Air Force personnel or property was involved.

    • Establish the circumstances so that accidents can be properly classified.

    • Identify the circumstances or causes so that future accidents can be prevented.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the circumstances or causes so that future accidents can be prevented.
    Explanation
    The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to identify the circumstances or causes so that future accidents can be prevented. By reporting and analyzing ground mishaps, the Air Force can gather valuable information about the factors that contributed to the accidents. This information can then be used to implement safety measures and training programs to mitigate the risks and prevent similar accidents from happening in the future. It is not primarily focused on determining financial responsibility, involvement of non-Air Force personnel or property, or classifying accidents, although these may be secondary outcomes of the reporting process.

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  • 35. 

    An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. What kind of mishap would this be considered?

    • Class A.

    • Class B.

    • Class C.

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A.
    Explanation
    This mishap would be considered a Class A mishap because it resulted in the death of a civilian worker. Class A mishaps are the most severe category and involve fatalities or permanent total disability, and they also include property damage of $2 million or more.

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  • 36. 

    An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. What kind of mishap would this be classified as?

    • Class A.

    • Class B.

    • Class C.

    • Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class B.
    Explanation
    This accident would be classified as Class B because it has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. Class B accidents are defined as incidents that cause severe injuries or illnesses requiring hospitalization, but they are not life-threatening or permanently disabling.

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  • 37. 

    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a Class C mishap?

    • A fatality.

    • One ore more days away from work.

    • Permanent partial disability.

    • Property damage totaling $5,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. One ore more days away from work.
    Explanation
    An accident would be categorized as a Class C mishap if it results in one or more days away from work. This means that the accident caused injuries or conditions that required the affected individual(s) to be absent from work for at least one day. This classification does not necessarily indicate the severity of the accident or the extent of the injuries, but rather focuses on the impact it has on work attendance.

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  • 38. 

    Which of these phrases best describes effective grounding?

    • Bonding an aircraft to a static ground.

    • Providing static discharge plates on equipment.

    • Providing a path for static electricity to dissipate between units.

    • Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.

    Correct Answer
    A. Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.
    Explanation
    Effective grounding refers to the process of providing a pathway for static electricity to flow to a grounding point. This helps in dissipating static electricity and preventing the buildup of electrical charges, which can be dangerous and lead to electrical hazards. By creating a path for the static electricity to flow to a grounding point, the risk of electrical shocks and damage to equipment is minimized. Bonding an aircraft to a static ground and providing static discharge plates on equipment are related to grounding but do not fully capture the concept of providing a pathway for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.

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  • 39. 

    The purpose of bonding is to eliminate

    • Static electricity.

    • Differential in electrical charges between a component and aircraft.

    • Electrical charge by splitting it between two components.

    • Static differential in an aircraft by providing a path to ground.

    Correct Answer
    A. Differential in electrical charges between a component and aircraft.
    Explanation
    The purpose of bonding is to eliminate the differential in electrical charges between a component and an aircraft. Bonding ensures that there is an equal distribution of electrical charges, preventing any potential difference that could lead to static discharge or electrical damage. By bonding the component and the aircraft together, any difference in charges is equalized, ensuring the safety and proper functioning of the electrical system.

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  • 40. 

    What should you use to prevent other maintainers of inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces?

    • Red tags.

    • Warning tags.

    • Danger tags.

    • Red streamers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Warning tags.
    Explanation
    To prevent other maintainers from inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces, warning tags should be used. These tags serve as a visual reminder and cautionary measure, alerting individuals to the potential danger associated with operating these devices. By using warning tags, the risk of accidental operation can be minimized, ensuring the safety of both personnel and equipment. Red tags, danger tags, and red streamers may also be used in certain contexts, but in this specific scenario, warning tags are the most appropriate choice.

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  • 41. 

    What type of communication may be used during ground refueling operations?

    • The aircraft radio system.

    • The aircraft intercommunications system.

    • Battery-powered radios only.

    • Hand-held walkie-talkies.

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircraft intercommunications system.
    Explanation
    During ground refueling operations, the aircraft intercommunications system may be used for communication. This system allows communication between different individuals and departments involved in the refueling process, such as the ground crew, fueling personnel, and pilots. It ensures effective and clear communication, enhancing safety and coordination during this critical operation. The system is specifically designed for aircraft use and provides reliable and secure communication, making it the most suitable option for ground refueling operations.

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  • 42. 

    Two major contributors of foreign object damage are poor

    • Planning and work habits.

    • Organization and planning.

    • Work habits and housekeeping.

    • Housekeeping and organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work habits and housekeeping.
    Explanation
    Foreign object damage refers to any damage caused to equipment or machinery by foreign objects such as debris, tools, or loose materials. Poor work habits, such as not properly securing tools or materials, can lead to these objects becoming loose and causing damage. Similarly, poor housekeeping practices, such as not regularly cleaning up debris or clutter, can also contribute to foreign object damage. Therefore, work habits and housekeeping are the major contributors to foreign object damage.

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  • 43. 

    The three general classes of foreign object damage are

    • Metal, cloth, and organic.

    • Cloth, stone, and miscellaneous.

    • Metal, stone, and miscellaneous.

    • Stone, organic, and miscellaneous.

    Correct Answer
    A. Metal, stone, and miscellaneous.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Metal, stone, and miscellaneous." Foreign object damage refers to any damage caused by foreign objects that enter or come into contact with a system or structure. The three general classes of foreign object damage are categorized as metal, stone, and miscellaneous. Metal objects can cause damage due to their hardness and potential for corrosion. Stone objects can cause damage due to their hardness and potential for abrasion. Miscellaneous objects can include various materials such as plastic, rubber, or any other foreign object that can cause damage.

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  • 44. 

    What are two proven methods used to control foreign objet damage (FOD)?

    • Trash detail and FOD walks.

    • FOD walks and FOD bags.

    • Tool control and Operation Clean Sweep.

    • Tire checks and trash removal.

    Correct Answer
    A. FOD walks and FOD bags.
    Explanation
    FOD walks involve inspecting the area for any foreign objects that could potentially cause damage. This method helps to identify and remove any potential hazards before they can cause harm. FOD bags, on the other hand, are used to collect and contain any foreign objects that are found during the FOD walks. This ensures that the objects are properly disposed of and prevents them from causing damage to aircraft or equipment. Together, FOD walks and FOD bags form a comprehensive approach to controlling foreign object damage.

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  • 45. 

    One of the most common signs of excessive fuel vapor inhalation is

    • Euphoria.

    • Skin irritation.

    • Hallucinations.

    • Muscular incoordination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscular incoordination.
    Explanation
    Excessive fuel vapor inhalation can lead to muscular incoordination. This is because inhaling fuel vapors can affect the central nervous system, causing impairment in motor function and coordination. This can result in difficulty controlling muscles and movements, leading to muscular incoordination. Euphoria, skin irritation, and hallucinations are not typically associated with excessive fuel vapor inhalation.

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  • 46. 

    What action must be taken regarding a Class I fuel spill on the flightline?

    • Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.

    • Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive.

    • Immediately notify fire protection and environmental services personnel.

    • Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.
    Explanation
    In the event of a Class I fuel spill on the flightline, the appropriate action is to monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved. This means keeping a close eye on the spill to ensure it does not spread or pose a greater risk. Once the aircraft is moved, further actions can be taken to address the spill and clean up any remaining fuel. This approach prioritizes the safety of personnel and the environment while also allowing for the efficient continuation of operations once the aircraft is cleared.

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  • 47. 

    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it

    • Is flammable.

    • Is combustible.

    • Dose not support life.

    • Gives off toxic fumes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dose not support life.
    Explanation
    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it does not support life. Nitrogen is an essential component of the Earth's atmosphere, but in high concentrations, it can displace oxygen and lead to asphyxiation. This is particularly dangerous in confined spaces where nitrogen gas can accumulate, such as underground mines or poorly ventilated areas. Breathing in pure nitrogen can cause dizziness, unconsciousness, and ultimately death due to lack of oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to be cautious and ensure proper ventilation in areas where nitrogen is present to prevent life-threatening situations.

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  • 48. 

    At what percentage of oxygen is the atmosphere level considered to be oxygen deficient?

    • Less than 19.5 percent.

    • 23.5 percent.

    • 19.5 percent to 23.5 percent.

    • Anything greater than 23.5 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 19.5 percent.
    Explanation
    When the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere falls below 19.5 percent, it is considered to be oxygen deficient. This means that there is not enough oxygen present to support normal human breathing and can lead to various health issues. Oxygen is essential for the body to function properly, and a deficiency can result in symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, and even loss of consciousness. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the oxygen level in the atmosphere remains above this threshold to maintain a healthy environment.

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  • 49. 

    Respirator training must be documented on what AF form?

    • Form 55.

    • Form 623.

    • Form 1071.

    • Form 1098.

    Correct Answer
    A. Form 55.
    Explanation
    Respirator training must be documented on Form 55. This form is specifically designed for recording and documenting respirator training. It ensures that all necessary information, such as the date of training, the type of respirator used, and the name of the individual being trained, is properly recorded and easily accessible. By using Form 55, organizations can maintain accurate and comprehensive records of respirator training, which is essential for ensuring the safety and well-being of employees working in hazardous environments.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 12, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 12, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Jordan Heinze
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