Unit 1 CDC 2a654

100 Questions

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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the awarded specialty in witch an airman is most highly qualified to preform duty?
    • A. 

      Primary AFSC

    • B. 

      2AFSC

    • C. 

      Duty AFSC

    • D. 

      Control AFSC

  • 2. 
    A control Air Force Specialty code (CAFSC) is used to identify an 
    • A. 

      Awarded AFSC other than a primary AFSC.

    • B. 

      Authorized manning position to which an airman is assigned.

    • C. 

      Airman's highest usable skill in terms of total Air Force requirements.

    • D. 

      Awarded specialty in which an airman is qualified to preform all duties.

  • 3. 
    What source provides the career knowledge training required for upgrade to the 5-skill level?
    • A. 

      Job proficiency.

    • B. 

      Technical orders.

    • C. 

      Specialty training standard.

    • D. 

      Career development course.

  • 4. 
    Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of a specialty training standard (STS)?
    • A. 

      Core tasks only.

    • B. 

      All tasks listed on the STS.

    • C. 

      Only mission-critical tasks.

    • D. 

      Only those tasks that are performed frequently

  • 5. 
    As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, what are your duties regarding hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      None. You are not authorized to get involved with hazardous materials.

    • B. 

      Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environment standards.

    • C. 

      Handle and label them only according to environment standards.

    • D. 

      Dispose of them according to applicable Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFSH) standards.

  • 6. 
    Responsibility and accountability for mission results rest with which commander?
    • A. 

      Base.

    • B. 

      Wing

    • C. 

      Group.

    • D. 

      Squadron

  • 7. 
    What are the three types of wings?
    • A. 

      Operational, air base, and specialized mission.

    • B. 

      Operational, objective, and home based.

    • C. 

      Composite, operational, and objective.

    • D. 

      Specialized mission, air base, and home based.

  • 8. 
    Which type group is responsible for operating the primary mission equipment?
    • A. 

      Operations.

    • B. 

      Maintenance.

    • C. 

      Accessories flight.

    • D. 

      Mission Support.

  • 9. 
    Which organizational group is concerned with the maintenance of air and space weapons systems?
    • A. 

      Operations.

    • B. 

      Weapons.

    • C. 

      Logistics.

    • D. 

      Maintenance.

  • 10. 
    To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander responsible to for overall squadron management?
    • A. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • B. 

      Combat wing commander.

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force.

  • 11. 
    Precision measurement equipment laboratory (PMEL) personnel are assigned to  which flight?
    • A. 

      Aerospace group equipment.

    • B. 

      Test measurement and diagnostic equipment.

    • C. 

      Munitions.

    • D. 

      Fabrication.

  • 12. 
    Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by which flight?
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment.

    • B. 

      Fuels.

    • C. 

      Pneudraulics.

    • D. 

      Electro-environmental.

  • 13. 
    Who is responsible to make sure there is a balance between sortie production and fleet management?
    • A. 

      Logistics group commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • C. 

      Maintenance squadron commander.

    • D. 

      Maintenance personnel.

  • 14. 
    Responsibility for establishing procedures to clear repeat and recurring discrepancies rests with the maintenance
    • A. 

      Flight chief.

    • B. 

      Section chief.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Squadron commander.

  • 15. 
    Responsibility for enforcing sound maintenance practices rest with the
    • A. 

      Flight chief.

    • B. 

      Section chief.

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Squadron commander.

  • 16. 
    Who ensures there is an orientation program developed for all newly assigned personnel?
    • A. 

      Operation group commander.

    • B. 

      Maintenance group commander.

    • C. 

      Supply technician.

    • D. 

      Fuels journeyman.

  • 17. 
    Who advises maintenance managers of support problems and recommends corrective actions?
    • A. 

      Maintenance flight chief.

    • B. 

      Maintenance training flight chief.

    • C. 

      Maintenance supply liaison.

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations control center superintendent.

  • 18. 
    Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status if resources is a function of the
    • A. 

      Weapons and tactics flight.

    • B. 

      Civil engineering squadron.

    • C. 

      Logistics readiness squadron.

    • D. 

      Maintenance and operations flight

  • 19. 
    An over-the-shoulder evaluation of a technician or supervisor accomplishing a maintenance action is a
    • A. 

      Technical inspection.

    • B. 

      Personnel inspection.

    • C. 

      Supplemental inspection.

    • D. 

      Quality inspection.

  • 20. 
    The product improvement program emphasizes and promotes
    • A. 

      Due in form maintenance deadlines.

    • B. 

      Deficiency analysis programs.

    • C. 

      Deficiency reporting programs.

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order deadlines.

  • 21. 
    What type of workcards may be authorized for use during contingencies?
    • A. 

      Deployed workcards.

    • B. 

      Periodic workcards.

    • C. 

      Inspection decks.

    • D. 

      Contingency decks.

  • 22. 
    Which type inspection is a flight preparedness check?
    • A. 

      Hourly post-flight.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight

    • C. 

      End-of-runway.

    • D. 

      Pre-flight.

  • 23. 
    Which type inspection looks for cut tires, foreign object damage covers, and removal of safety pins?
    • A. 

      Hourly post-flight.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      End-of-runway.

    • D. 

      Pre-flight.

  • 24. 
    Which type inspection is applicable to aircraft conducting an immediate turnaround?
    • A. 

      Hourly post-flight

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      End-of-runway.

    • D. 

      Pre-flight

  • 25. 
    Which inspection augments the basic post-flight?
    • A. 

      Pre-flight.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      End-of-runway.

    • D. 

      Hourly post-flight.

  • 26. 
    The main objective of the phase inspection is to reduce
    • A. 

      Out of commission time.

    • B. 

      Number of personnel conducting inspection.

    • C. 

      Number of required inspections.

    • D. 

      Number of hours between inspections.

  • 27. 
    Which inspection is a thorough and searching "look, see, and fix" of the weapon system and each of the requirements may be more extensive is scope?
    • A. 

      Phase.

    • B. 

      Minor.

    • C. 

      Major.

    • D. 

      Home station check.

  • 28. 
    Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas, or systems to ensure no conditions exists that could result in failure before the next scheduled inspection?
    • A. 

      Minor.

    • B. 

      Thru-flight.

    • C. 

      Phase.

    • D. 

      Home station check.

  • 29. 
    What type inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Calendar.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Time replacement.

  • 30. 
    What type inspection is conducted when an aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents?
    • A. 

      Time replacement.

    • B. 

      Acceptance.

    • C. 

      Calendar.

    • D. 

      Special.

  • 31. 
    Which inspection is outlined in the -6 technical order and differs from other types of inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item is inspection?
    • A. 

      Special.

    • B. 

      Calendar.

    • C. 

      Acceptance.

    • D. 

      Time replacement.

  • 32. 
    During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?
    • A. 

      Fix phase.

    • B. 

      Look phase.

    • C. 

      Post inspection phase.

    • D. 

      Pre-inspection phase.

  • 33. 
    During an inspection, when does the performance of operational checks and functional check flight begin?
    • A. 

      Fix phase.

    • B. 

      Past-inspection phase.

    • C. 

      Post-inspection phase.

    • D. 

      Special inspection phase.

  • 34. 
    When you clear a discrepancy on an AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781, what will be placed over the symbol?
    • A. 

      First name initial.

    • B. 

      First and last name initial.

    • C. 

      Last name initial.

    • D. 

      Minimum signature.

  • 35. 
    What type of entry on AF Technical Order (AFTO) 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document, dose not require a symbol?
    • A. 

      Functional check flight due.

    • B. 

      Discrepancy which is corrected on-the-spot.

    • C. 

      Informational note not affecting flight safety.

    • D. 

      Inspection of a noncritical system or subsystem.

  • 36. 
    Prior to performing maintenance, you review the AF technical Order (AFTO) 781 's to ensure
    • A. 

      Air pressure in the tires is food prior to refueling.

    • B. 

      There are no open discrepancies.

    • C. 

      There are no open fuel tanks.

    • D. 

      There are no potential safety hazards.

  • 37. 
    On the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what formant?
    • A. 

      Minimum signature (first initial and last name).

    • B. 

      Printed first and last name.

    • C. 

      Last name only.

    • D. 

      First name only.

  • 38. 
    What part of the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a means to document a quality control review of the form?
    • A. 

      Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • B. 

      Part III, SCHEDUKED INSPECTIONS.

    • C. 

      Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.

    • D. 

      Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.

  • 39. 
    Which section of AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document delayed discrepancies and overdue time changes?
    • A. 

      Part II, NON-SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • B. 

      Part III, SCHEDULED INSPECTIONS.

    • C. 

      Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.

    • D. 

      Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.

  • 40. 
    In which AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95 block do you enter the manufacturer's name?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 41. 
    After a permanent repair on a fuel tank is accomplished, the AF Technical Order (AFTO) Form 427, Aircraft Integral Fuel Tank Repair Historical Data Document, is
    • A. 

      Cleared.

    • B. 

      Destroyed.

    • C. 

      Maintained as historical data.

    • D. 

      Re-accomplished.

  • 42. 
    What percentage of all accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 43. 
    What may be considered to be the direct cause of any accident?
    • A. 

      Inattentiveness.

    • B. 

      Lack of adequate training.

    • C. 

      Unsafe acts and conditions.

    • D. 

      Unchangeable circumstances.

  • 44. 
    The first rule of good housekeeping is?
    • A. 

      Clean floors.

    • B. 

      Personal cleanliness.

    • C. 

      A neat and orderly workbench.

    • D. 

      A regularly scheduled cleanup time.

  • 45. 
    Many accidents can be prevented by simply
    • A. 

      Keeping bench stock in place.

    • B. 

      Keeping your work area clean and orderly.

    • C. 

      Practicing good personal hygiene.

    • D. 

      Cleaning fuel spills at the end of the day.

  • 46. 
    All of these are examples of internal distracters except
    • A. 

      Thinking about problems.

    • B. 

      Daydreaming.

    • C. 

      Boredom.

    • D. 

      Noise.

  • 47. 
    The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to
    • A. 

      Establish the cause to determine financial responsibility.

    • B. 

      Determine if non-Air Force personnel or property was involved.

    • C. 

      Establish the circumstances so that accidents can be properly classified.

    • D. 

      Identify the circumstances or causes so that future accidents can be prevented.

  • 48. 
    An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. What kind of mishap would this be considered?
    • A. 

      Class A.

    • B. 

      Class B.

    • C. 

      Class C.

    • D. 

      Class D.

  • 49. 
    An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. What kind of mishap would this be classified as?
    • A. 

      Class A.

    • B. 

      Class B.

    • C. 

      Class C.

    • D. 

      Class D.

  • 50. 
    Which of these results would categorize an accident as a Class C mishap?
    • A. 

      A fatality.

    • B. 

      One ore more days away from work.

    • C. 

      Permanent partial disability.

    • D. 

      Property damage totaling $5,000.

  • 51. 
    Which of these phrases best describes effective grounding?
    • A. 

      Bonding an aircraft to a static ground.

    • B. 

      Providing static discharge plates on equipment.

    • C. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to dissipate between units.

    • D. 

      Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point.

  • 52. 
    The purpose of bonding is to eliminate
    • A. 

      Static electricity.

    • B. 

      Differential in electrical charges between a component and aircraft.

    • C. 

      Electrical charge by splitting it between two components.

    • D. 

      Static differential in an aircraft by providing a path to ground.

  • 53. 
    What should you use to prevent other maintainers of inadvertently operating devices such as landing gear and flight control surfaces?
    • A. 

      Red tags.

    • B. 

      Warning tags.

    • C. 

      Danger tags.

    • D. 

      Red streamers.

  • 54. 
    What type of communication may be used during ground refueling operations?
    • A. 

      The aircraft radio system.

    • B. 

      The aircraft intercommunications system.

    • C. 

      Battery-powered radios only.

    • D. 

      Hand-held walkie-talkies.

  • 55. 
    Two major contributors of foreign object damage are poor
    • A. 

      Planning and work habits.

    • B. 

      Organization and planning.

    • C. 

      Work habits and housekeeping.

    • D. 

      Housekeeping and organization.

  • 56. 
    The three general classes of foreign object damage are
    • A. 

      Metal, cloth, and organic.

    • B. 

      Cloth, stone, and miscellaneous.

    • C. 

      Metal, stone, and miscellaneous.

    • D. 

      Stone, organic, and miscellaneous.

  • 57. 
    What are two proven methods used to control foreign objet damage (FOD)?
    • A. 

      Trash detail and FOD walks.

    • B. 

      FOD walks and FOD bags.

    • C. 

      Tool control and Operation Clean Sweep.

    • D. 

      Tire checks and trash removal.

  • 58. 
    Volatility is the rate at which fuel
    • A. 

      Burns.

    • B. 

      Vaporizes.

    • C. 

      Evaporates.

    • D. 

      Produces combustion.

  • 59. 
    One of the most common signs of excessive fuel vapor inhalation is
    • A. 

      Euphoria.

    • B. 

      Skin irritation.

    • C. 

      Hallucinations.

    • D. 

      Muscular incoordination.

  • 60. 
    What action must be taken regarding a Class I fuel spill on the flightline?
    • A. 

      Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.

    • B. 

      Monitor the spill until fire protection personnel arrive.

    • C. 

      Immediately notify fire protection and environmental services personnel.

    • D. 

      Post people as fire guards and immediately notify fire protection personnel.

  • 61. 
    Which class of fuel spill is considered a ground mishap, and requires response by the senior fire official on the installation?
    • A. 

      I.

    • B. 

      II.

    • C. 

      III.

    • D. 

      IV.

  • 62. 
    Nitrogen can be dangerous because it
    • A. 

      Is flammable.

    • B. 

      Is combustible.

    • C. 

      Dose not support life.

    • D. 

      Gives off toxic fumes.

  • 63. 
    At what percentage of oxygen is the atmosphere level considered to be oxygen deficient?
    • A. 

      Less than 19.5 percent.

    • B. 

      23.5 percent.

    • C. 

      19.5 percent to 23.5 percent.

    • D. 

      Anything greater than 23.5 percent.

  • 64. 
    Respirator training must be documented on what AF form?
    • A. 

      Form 55.

    • B. 

      Form 623.

    • C. 

      Form 1071.

    • D. 

      Form 1098.

  • 65. 
    How often should individually issued respirator be cleaned and sanitized?
    • A. 

      After each use.

    • B. 

      Before each use.

    • C. 

      At the end of the each day in which they are used.

    • D. 

      At the beginning of the day in which they will be used

  • 66. 
    How often must respirators stored for emergency or rescue use be inspected?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

  • 67. 
    Which footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
    • A. 

      Gym shoes.

    • B. 

      Static resistant or neoprene booties.

    • C. 

      Steel-toe boots with covers.

    • D. 

      Clean boots with or without covers.

  • 68. 
    Who determines the type of hearing protection required for all aspects of your job?
    • A. 

      Local bioenvironmental flight personnel.

    • B. 

      Fuel element shop chef.

    • C. 

      Ground safety personnel.

    • D. 

      Personnel in the flight surgeons office.

  • 69. 
    What type of index technical order is most frequently used?
    • A. 

      Cross reference.

    • B. 

      Alphabetical.

    • C. 

      Quick reference.

    • D. 

      Numerical.

  • 70. 
    Which is not listed by the index technical order?
    • A. 

      Basic date.

    • B. 

      Changes.

    • C. 

      Number of pages.

    • D. 

      Supplements.

  • 71. 
    Which is a complete listing of technical order's (TO) for a specific weapons system?
    • A. 

      List of applicable pages.

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index TO.

    • C. 

      Cross reference table.

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications.

  • 72. 
    What type of operation and maintenance (O&M) technical order ill give you detailed theories of operation?
    • A. 

      General systems.

    • B. 

      Job guide.

    • C. 

      Fault isolation.

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures.

  • 73. 
    What type of operation and maintenance technical order enables you to isolate a malfunctioning component?
    • A. 

      Job guide.

    • B. 

      Checklists.

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting.

    • D. 

      General vehicle.

  • 74. 
    What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for conditions that could result in a fatality if not corrected?
    • A. 

      Urgent action.

    • B. 

      Routine action.

    • C. 

      Immediate action.

    • D. 

      Emergency action.

  • 75. 
    Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) requires compliance within a specified time limit of one to ten days?
    • A. 

      Urgent action.

    • B. 

      Routine action.

    • C. 

      Immediate action.

    • D. 

      Emergency action.

  • 76. 
    Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) can be identified by a border of alternately spaced red diagonals and red Xs on the title page?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Routine.

    • C. 

      Immediate.

    • D. 

      Emergency.

  • 77. 
    What type of technical order (TCTO) are general in nature?
    • A. 

      Methods and procedures.

    • B. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M).

    • C. 

      Job guide (JG).

    • D. 

      Policy and procedure.

  • 78. 
    Which technical order (TO) will give you detailed information on how to correctly complete Air Force technical order forms?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-3

  • 79. 
    What type of technical order (TO) is mainly a work simplification device?
    • A. 

      Abbreviated.

    • B. 

      Directory.

    • C. 

      Time compliance technical order.

    • D. 

      Index.

  • 80. 
    Inspection requirements from the -6 inspection technical order is listed in
    • A. 

      Checklist (CL).

    • B. 

      Inspection sequence charts.

    • C. 

      Job guide (JG).

    • D. 

      Inspection work cards.

  • 81. 
    Which abbreviated technical order (TO) is meant to be followed step by step?
    • A. 

      Inspection work cards.

    • B. 

      Checklist (CL).

    • C. 

      Job guide (JG).

    • D. 

      Fault isolation (FL).

  • 82. 
    What dose the first number of a technical order (TO) number designate?
    • A. 

      Specific system.

    • B. 

      TO category.

    • C. 

      Component inspection requirements.

    • D. 

      Type of manual.

  • 83. 
    If the aircraft technical order (TO) number only has three parts, what dose the third part identify?
    • A. 

      Type.

    • B. 

      Category.

    • C. 

      Series.

    • D. 

      Volume.

  • 84. 
    What does the fourth part of a Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Type of aircraft.

    • B. 

      Type of manual.

    • C. 

      Aircraft model and series.

    • D. 

      Chapter number and subject matter.

  • 85. 
    What dose the fifth part of a Maintenance Integrated Data Access System (MIDAS) manual number identify?
    • A. 

      Subsystem.

    • B. 

      Type of manual.

    • C. 

      Chapter number.

    • D. 

      Supplemental manual.

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Immediate, urgent, and routine.

    • B. 

      Urgent, emergency, and routine.

    • C. 

      Emergency, interim, and urgent.

    • D. 

      Interim, immediate, and priority.

  • 87. 
    Work stoppage caused by a technical order (TO) deficiency is considered to be a basis for what kind of TO improvement report?
    • A. 

      Immediate.

    • B. 

      Emergency.

    • C. 

      Urgent.

    • D. 

      Routine.

  • 88. 
    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22 report requires a response within 45 calendar days after receipt?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Priority.

    • C. 

      Routine.

    • D. 

      Record.

  • 89. 
    The Air Force supply system
    • A. 

      Is continental United States (CONUS)-oriented.

    • B. 

      Is managed on a functional basis.

    • C. 

      Is consolidated for effective management.

    • D. 

      Contains a limited amount of items, all of high value.

  • 90. 
    Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures?
    • A. 

      Standard Base Supply.

    • B. 

      Bench Stock Management.

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Interface.

    • D. 

      Core Automated Maintenance.

  • 91. 
    Which supply element is the first point of contact in the process of obtaining materiel from supply?
    • A. 

      Retail sales.

    • B. 

      Customer service.

    • C. 

      Demand processing.

    • D. 

      Equipment management.

  • 92. 
    Who allocates the money used to buy Air Force property?
    • A. 

      Headquarters, US Air Force.

    • B. 

      Department of Defense.

    • C. 

      Major commands.

    • D. 

      Congress.

  • 93. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government property caused by misuse or negligence is know as what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Personal.

    • B. 

      Property.

    • C. 

      Command.

    • D. 

      Pecuniary.

  • 94. 
    Commanders must ensure that records of supply transactions are
    • A. 

      Kept accurate.

    • B. 

      Deposed of semiannually.

    • C. 

      Signed at the working level.

    • D. 

      Logged in the shop supply log.

  • 95. 
    The term "custodian" as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to a
    • A. 

      Janitor.

    • B. 

      Caretaker.

    • C. 

      Supervisor.

    • D. 

      Commander.

  • 96. 
    What procedures are used to relieve personnel of property responsibility?
    • A. 

      Report of survey and transfer.

    • B. 

      Turn-in and property transfer.

    • C. 

      Pecuniary liability and transfer.

    • D. 

      Pecuniary liability and report of survey.

  • 97. 
    Which element of base supply manages all due-in from maintenance (DIFM) material?
    • A. 

      Stock control.

    • B. 

      Demand processing.

    • C. 

      Pickup and delivery.

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support.

  • 98. 
    Which from is used to document a repair action that has been accomplished on a repair cycle item as a result of a maintenance turnaround?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) Form 1575.

    • B. 

      Air Force technical order(AFTO) Form 349.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1.

  • 99. 
    Category I, deficiency reports, must be submitted within
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      36 hours.

    • C. 

      2 workdays.

    • D. 

      5 workday.

  • 100. 
    Which condition would be reported using the deficiency reporting system?
    • A. 

      Medical supply item deficiency.

    • B. 

      A pricing error for a check valve.

    • C. 

      Shutoff valve defect caused by improper packaging.

    • D. 

      Boost pump deficiency due to nonconformance to specifications.