2A652 CDC EOC Practice Test

1. Risk management principles should be applied to

Only duty-related activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.

On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.

Only duty-related activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

On-and off-duty activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

2. What situations does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor?

Using personal protective equipment.

Unsafe working conditions.

Known pregnancies.

Personal injury.

3. Before removing a component from an air compressor, you must ensure

The air compressor is grounded.

The air strainer is in place.

The battery is disconnected.

All air pressure is drained.

4. Which type of hammer should you use to avoid damaging driving materials?

Claw.

Sledge.

Soft face.

Ball-peen

5. Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?

Snap ring.

Vice grips.

Water pump.

Diagonal cutters.

6. Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut

Bolts.

Rivets.

Hard steel.

Small wire.

7. Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must

Inspect it.

Lubricate it.

Blow out the airhose.

Ensure that its use is necessary.

8. Replacement hardware decisions on support equipment must be governed by

Supervisor's preference.

Serviceability criteria.

Cosmetic appearance.

Availability.

9. What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?

Stud.

Fine thread bolt.

Coarse thread bolt.

General purpose bolt.

10. What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit?

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

Metallic self-locking nuts.

Castellated nuts.

Plain nuts.

11. What color code is used to pre-insulated terminal lugs for wire sizes 18 through 22?

Red.

Blue.

Green.

Yellow.

Blue 14 through 16, Yellow 10 through 12

Explanation

Blue 14 through 16, Yellow 10 through 12

12. What are the three different types of terminal lugs?

Red, blue, and yellow.

Straight, right angle, and flat.

Copper, aluminum, and plastic.

Pre-insulated, uninsulated, and reinsulated.

13. What type of damage greatly reduces the ability of tubing to withstand internal pressure and vibration?

Scratches.

Chafing.

Dents.

Nicks.

14. A flexible hose in a 3,000 psi system must be pressure tested to

3,000 psi without bursting.

9,000 psi without bursting.

12,000 psi without bursting.

15,000 psi without bursting.

15. When installing a flexible house, you must provide slack or bend in the hose to

Prevent twisting of the hose.

Compensate for change in length.

Place a mechanical load on the hose.

Protect it from a hot pipe or manifold.

16. How can people best prevent FOD?

Look for loose objects (stone, paper, or trash), pick them up when discovered and encourage others to do the same.

Learn the basic classes of FOD, recognize its causes, and account for tools and hardware used during maintenance.

Look for loose objects discarded on the flightline during maintenance activities.

Periodically participate in "FOD walks" on taxiways and runways.

17. You need to find all of the TOs for a specific weapon system or piece of equipment. What type of index should you use?

TO catalog.

Alphabetical index.

Cross-reference table.

LOAPs.

18. Which TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that, in not corrected, could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?

Safety.

Urgent action.

Routine action.

Immediate action.

19. The main advantage of using abbreviated TOs is they

Cover safety in more detail.

Serve as supplemental material.

Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic TOs.

Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.

20. Which abbreviated TO provides guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes?

Lubrication charts.

Illustrated parts breakdown.

Service inspection workcards.

Periodic inspection workcards.

21. An example of TO deficiency is

Improper sequencing of pages.

Insufficient information.

Typographical errors.

Misspelled words.

22. Which form should you submit to correct a TO deficiency?

AFTO Form 1000, Deficiency Report.

AFTO Form 601A, Change Recommendation.

AFTO Form 95, Support Equipment Record.

AFTO Form 22, Technical Manuel (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

23. What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?

Pamphlets and manuals.

Departmental and field.

Instructions and manuals.

Supplements and instructions.

24. OIs are simliar to Air Force instructions, but they apply only to

Air Force wings.

Support personnel.

Maintenance personnel.

Personnel within the issuing organization.

25. What type of standard publication is used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication?

Supplements.

Visual aids.

Bulletins.

Manuals.

26. The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the

Broad area covered.

Specific area covered.

Specific title of the publication.

Specific military personnel affected.

27. Where do you access standard Air Force publications?

Air Force e-Publishing website.

LOAPs

Base-level functional publication library

AFI 33-360

28. What impact is made on the maintenance organization by ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training?

Increasing bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

Increasing bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

Eliminating bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

29. The main purpose of the inspection system is to

Get ahead of unscheduled maintenance.

Keep equipment operating and looking good.

Keep the mechanic working on minor problems.

Locate problems and repair equipment before total failure.

30. The maintenance symbol that represents the most serious operational condition for equipment is a

Red X.

Red dash.

Red diagonal.

Circle red X.

31. Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?

Red X.

Red dash.

Red diagonal.

Circled red X.

32. Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to record a forms review?

Part II, Non-scheduled Inspection.

Part III, Scheduled Inspection.

Part IV, Supervisory review.

Part V, Maintenance/Delayed Discrepancy.

33. When closing out an AFTO Form 244, what is entered on the form to close out uncompleted inspections?

A red X and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.

A red X and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.

The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.

The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.

34. What is the condition of a component bearing a green equipment condition label?

Unserviceable (Condemned).

Unserviceable (Reparable).

Serviceable.

Suspended.

35. What color is the equipment condition tag attached to an item being held as an exhibit?

Brown.

Green.

White.

Yellow.

36. What maintenance supply form is used to order commonly stocked supplies or turn in excess or unserviceable property?

AF Form 2005.

AFTO Form 350.

DD Form 1348-6.

DD Form 1348-1A.

37. What MDD code identifies the system that was worked on?

Type maintenance.

Work unit code.

Category of labor.

Units.

38. Distinguished between "excess" and "surplus" as they apply to Air Force supply discipline.

Excess and surplus are the same.

Excess and surplus are the turn-in of property no long needed.

39. What is a major concept regarding "economic use" of supplies and equipment?

Use them only for their intended purposes.

Always order the least expensive item to do the job.

Protect items from hazards such as fire or corrosion.

Order only the minimum supplies necessary to do a job.

40. Who is responsible for ensuring that property records of supply transactions are kept accurately?

Commander.

Supervisor.

Person who signed for an account.

Person who has possession of the property.

41. What are you required to do with Air Force property you might find and believe it to be lost or misplaced?

Leave it where you found it.

Place it back into the supply system.

Take the item to the organizational commander.

Take it to the security forces lost and found section.

42. When the bench stock quantity level falls below 50 percent for an item, you should

Post a due-out list.

Place a red tag on the bin.

Notify supply that stock level is low.

Initial the initial supply stock listing.

43. The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage or government property caused by misuse or neglect is what kind of liability?

Property.

Personal.

Pecuniary.

Command.

44. How can a person be relieved from property responsibility other than by pecuniary liability?

Turn-in only.

Transfer only.

Turn-in or transfer.

Cash collection voucher or statement of charges.

45. A statement of charges would be prepared under which of these circumstances?

If a lost item is not expendable.

If you make a cash payment for a lost item.

If you signed a hand receipt for a lost item.

If you want to use payroll deduction to pay the cost of a lost item.

46. Who should AGE maintainers contact for submittal format of agenda items when preparing for the PIWG?

MAJCOM AGE functional managers.

Screening point within the originating activity.

Lead command (AFMC).

WR-ALC.

47. What marking is applied to AGE for night safety?

Informational.

Safety/Danger.

Reflectorization.

Caution/Warning.

48. Which of these items must be removed from test equipment before storage?

Wet and dry cell batteries.

Dry charge batteries.

Battery compartment.

Battery holder.

49. What AGE must have the fuel drained when preparing it for mobility?

Equipment with fuel levels that cannot be verified.

Self-propelled equipment required for immediate use at deployment sites.

Equipment that is not self-propelled and is required for immediate use at deployment sites.

All AGE must have fuel drained prior to deployment; there are no exceptions.

50. During a battery condition check, what is an acceptable voltage reading for a 12-volt battery?

8-2 volts.

10-12 volts.

12.4 volts or lower.

12.7 volts or higher.

51. After connecting a voltmeter across the starter terminals and clamping a current probe around the positive battery cable, what must be done prior to cranking the engine when performing a starting system check on AGE?

Estimate the temperature of the battery.

Prevent the engine from starting.

Perform a battery cable test.

Disconnect the voltmeter.

52. What should you do if your vehicle meets a moving aircraft at night?

Turn off your headlights and leave your parking lights on.

Dim your headlights and continue on.

Stop and change directions.

Turn all lights off.

53. Why should you apply silicone sealant to the valve stem area of a wheel?

To keep rims from flying apart.

To keep water from entering rims.

As a treatment for weather cracks.

As a treatment for severe corrosion.

54. What must you do before inflating the inner tube fully on a split rim tire?

Fully deflate the tire.

Torque wheel lug bolts.

Check tires for foreign objects.

Ensure rims are completely bolted together and torqued.

55. What component on the New Generation Heater activates the HCU?

Oil pressure switch.

Burner control unit.

Heat control switch.

Thermostatic sensor.

56. The HCU on the New Generation heater starts the main air fan for output air when

A heat setting is selected.

Constant flame is established.

The temperature gauge reads cool.

The inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F.

57. When should you use starting aids to start the New Generation Heater?

During the engine start up with the ignition switch in PREHEAT position.

Never, as it will result in serious engine damage.

When the temperature gauge reads COOL.

When ambient temperature is below 32 degrees F.

58. Repair of ground heater equipment should never be attempted

Without first talking with the operator.

Without first consulting your supervisor.

Unless accurate technical data is available.

Unless in the presence of an experienced mechanic.

59. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance on degree Fahrenheit is known as

British thermal unit.

Sensible unit.

Specific heat.

Latent heat.

60. Heat added to a gaseous substance is known as

Sensible heat.

Specific heat.

Super heat.

Latent heat.

61. The factors that have the greatest bearing on the temperature of a refrigerant are the boiling of a liquid and the amount of heat applied and the

Temperature of the vapor.

Type of heat transfer.

Moisture in the air.

Pressure applied.

62. What type of solution is used in the MA-3D aftercooler system to carry heat away from the conditioned air stream?

Liquid refrigerant.

Gaseous refrigerant.

Pure water solution.

Ethylene glycol/water solution.

63. When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, hold the safety override switch until

30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge.

You release the start switch.

The engine warms up.

The engine starts.

64. What component on the MA-3D air conditioner receives input from sensors for suction pressure and leaving air temperature?

Air cooler fan.

Air volume controller.

Temperature controller.

Temperature control knob.

65. What component on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressor when the suction pressure drops below 5 psi?

Low pressure cutout.

High pressure cutout.

Temperature controller.

Temperature control switch.

66. What type of refrigeration system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure?

Inward leaks.

Vacuum leaks.

Pressure leaks.

Outward leaks.

67. When performing refrigerant recovery, be sure

To use vacuum pumps.

To use the HCU.

The output air is between 150°F – 185°F.

The refrigerant has become a low-pressure vapor for compressor use.

68. The air cycle machine of an A/M32C–10D air conditioner consists of

A air compressor fan only.

An expansion turbine only.

A heat exchanger and an expansion turbine.

An expansion turbine and a compressor fan.

69. The component of a A/M32C–10D air conditioner that extracts energy from the bleed air on the air cycle machine is the

Compressor.

Heat exchanger.

Expansion turbine.

Temperature controller.

70. What action occurs in the evaporator of the ACE 802S air conditioner?

Condensing refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

Boiling refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

Condensing refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

Boiling refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

71. What must be accomplished to avoid damage prior to operating the ACE 802S air conditioner in the HEATING mode after COOLING mode operation?

Permit refrigerant pressure to equalize.

Perform maximum refrigerant pump down.

Place heating/cooling switch in HEATING position.

Place the reversing valve lever in the HEATING position.

72. In troubleshooting, what is the first step that must be completed when a unit comes in with a write-up in the forms?

Isolate the problem.

Perform a service inspection.

Perform an operational check.

Recognize the write-up as a malfunction.

73. How can a restriction in a refrigerant system be identified?

Frosting at the outlet.

Sweating of the outlet.

Increased suction pressure.

Loosen fittings to check flow.

74. Oil in the rotary vane compressor

Lubricates the connecting rods.

Has high viscosity and is very inflammable.

Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator.

Permits it to be typed as a high pressure unit.

75. The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by

Atmospheric pressure.

Electrical input.

Oil pressure.

Pushrods.

76. Oil-moisture traps are required on a multi-stage reciprocating compressor to

Cool the compressed air.

Ensure even compression of the air.

Introduce moisture to the compressed air.

Remove moisture from the compressed air.

77. During an inspection on an LN2 cart, you should look at all of the following except the

Brake assembly.

Engine oil level.

Unit for cleanliness.

Front end alignment.

78. When LOX carts are being transported, what position should the vent valve be in?

Tow.

Closed.

Opened.

Transport.

79. How is the air compressor in the SGNSC categorized?

High-pressure.

Low-pressure.

High volume.

Low volume.

80. What component on the SGNSC removes nitrogen from the ambient air?

Filters.

Carbon absorber.

Booster compressor.

Separation membrane.

81. At what storage cylinder pressure, in psig, should the SGNSC nitrogen booster compressor stop?

2400 psig.

4100 psig.

4400 psig.

6400 psig.

82. What is important to keep in mind when performing maintenance on the SGNSC?

Weather conditions.

Wind direction.

Ventilation.

Safety.

83. When filling and bleeding the hydraulic system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the

Open position.

Stand position.

Aircraft position.

External position.

84. The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the

Relief valves.

Aircraft pumps.

Low pressure filters.

High pressure pump.

85. If the position of the reservoir selector valve is changed in the hydraulic test stand during operation, the operator may cause the

Flowmeter to be damaged.

Aircraft reservoir to overfill.

Flow control valve seals to rupture.

Return system pressure to decrease.

86. What engine system safety device on the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand sounds the warning horn in the event of an engine system malfunction?

Water level switch.

Oil pressure switch.

Fuel level indicator.

Fuel pressure switch.

87. When setting the controls for operation of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, what control must you set in the OPEN position?

Compensator control valve.

Return system bypass valve.

Supply shut-off valve.

System selector valve.

88. When filling and bleeding the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the system should be pressurized and bled until

A solid line of fluid can be seen in the sight tube.

The sight tube is filled with bubbles.

Sight tube fluid turns a milky color.

Sight tube fluid is blue in color.

89. What is the most important logical step in troubleshooting a malfunction?

Analysis.

Isolation.

Recognition.

Verification.

90. What valve on the MJ-1B bomblift prevents collapsing of the cantilever lifting arms in the event of hydraulic pressure failure?

Air bleed.

Rotary by-pass.

Counterbalance.

Over pressurization.

91. As soon as the engine of the MJ-1B starts, you should check for sufficient

Hydraulic pressure.

Battery charging.

Fuel pressure.

Oil pressure.

92. During an operational check of the MJ-1B bomblift, all hydraulic components should exhibit

A smooth movement with no binding or no jumping.

Fast steady movements with minimal jumping.

Some settling once the actuator is released.

Small amounts of residue.

93. What is the purpose of the rear control shutoff valve on the MHU-83C/E bomblift?

Isolates the brake valve.

Isolates the counterbalance valve.

Cuts off fluid through the hydrostatic drive.

Cuts off fluid through the rear control valves.

94. What component on the MHU-83C/E bomblift supplies the brake valve and calipers with fluid?

System pump.

Steering pump.

Transmission pump.

Hydraulic system control valve.

95. When verifying the proper operation of the centering mechanism on the MHU-83C/E bomblift, the unit should

Start in reverse.

Move in neutral.

Not start in reverse.

Not move in neutral.

96. You check the backup hydraulic system on the MHU-83C/E bomblift by

Closing the shutoff valve.

Operating the hand pump.

Closing the air bleed valve.

Operating the system pump.

97. If there is a discrepancy between the workcards and TO, you should refer to

The TO.

The workcards.

Your supervisor.

Both the TO and workcards.

98. When troubleshooting the electrical system on the MJ-1B bomblift, what component will give you a visual indication that the alternator is charging?

Ammeter.

Voltmeter.

Head light.

Control panel light.

99. What must you do prior to raising or lowering the mast from the vertical or horizontal position on the FL-1D?

Secure all doors.

Warm-up the engine.

Set the master control switch to ON.

Position the towbar to the left or right.

100. When a unit comes in with a write-up, how do you verify a malfunction exists?

Operate the unit.

Analyze the problem.

Perform a service inspection.

Give several probable causes.

101. On the outriggers of the split deck maintenance platform, what prevents accidental loss of cylinder extension?

Electric solenoids.

Pressure switches.

Pilot check valve.

Limit switch.

102. What are the two lifting capacities of the davit (lift pulley) on the maintenance platform?

150 lbs or 550 lbs.

250 lbs or 500 lbs.

550 lbs or 2000 lbs.

1000 lbs or 2000 lbs.

103. When troubleshooting the split deck maintenance platform, how do you bypass the long scissors control cable and operate the control console while observing the test meter?

Plug the control console directly into the hydraulic control module.

Disconnect the control console from the hydraulic control module.

Energize the malfunctioning system.

Cut the scissors control cable.

104. While operating the split deck maintenance platform you realize the platform will not lower, the probable cause could be

Corroded battery cables.

A defective control cable.

The main disconnect switch is ON.

The engine switch is in RUN position.

105. What component provides manual speed adjustment on the AF/M32T-1 cabin leakage tester?

Tachometer.

Diesel engine.

Throttle assembly.

Fuel system relief valve.

106. What is the reservoir fluid capacity and system pressure of the hydraulic pump on the B-6, 10-ton hydraulic tripod jack?

2.1 gallons at 2250 psi.

1.5 gallons at 2200 psi.

1.1 gallons at 2235 psi.

1.0 gallons at 1135 psi.

107. What component on the B-1 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform allows the work platform and steps to remain parallel to the base at any desired platform height?

Base assembly.

Upper platform.

Stair support linkage.

Hydraulic cylinder assembly.

108. What controls the speed of retraction of the hydraulic cylinder assembly on the B-1 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform?

Handle on the bypass valve.

Upper structure assembly.

Flow control valve.

Pump handle.

109. What type of mechanism does the B-4 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform utilize to raise and lower the platform?

Screw.

Scissor.

Ratchet.

Pneumatic.

110. What section of the towbar has a screw actuated fork assembly that is used to engage or disengage the aircraft nose gear?

Head adapter assembly.

Main tube assembly.

Extension tubes.

Lift actuator.

111. The purpose of the lift mechanism on the towbar is to

Adjust the forks.

Stabilize the main tube assembly.

Raise and lower the wheel assemblies.

Engage or disengage the aircraft nose gear.

112. What position would you put the valve handle in to precharge the supply tank of the PMU-29/E oil cart?

BYPASS.

OPEN.

OFF.

ON.

113. When servicing the hydraulic cart, what prevents large particles in the fluid from entering the reservoir?

Line filter.

Check valve.

Mesh screen.

Relief valve.

114. To change electrical energy to mechanical energy is the purpose of a

Generator

Converter

Inverter

Motor

115. Electrical contact between the stationary and rotating parts of a motor is the function of the

Field windings.

Commutator.

Bearings.

Brushes.

116. Torque is defined as

Wattage.

Horsepower.

Rotational force.

Opposition to applied voltage.

117. In a series-wound direct current (DC) motor, speed is dependent on the

Load.

Torque.

Armature.

Field winding.

118. The three-phase induction motor does not require

Slip.

A rotor.

A stator.

A starting device.

119. The stator windings of a synchronous motor are spaced

20 degrees apart.

30 degrees apart.

90 degrees apart.

120 degrees apart.

120. During an inspection of a direct current (DC) motor, check the brushes for

Pitting.

Seating.

Coloration.

Brittleness.

121. When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?

Analysis.

Remedies.

Symptoms.

Probably causes.

122. Most troubleshooting on a motor can be done using a

Megger.

Growler.

Multimeter.

Clamp-on meter.

123. Perform an operational check of the unit

At the last minute.

With the defective part removed.

Before final reassembly of the enclosure.

As soon as you replace the defective part.

124. The component most likely to be damaged by poorly filtered fuel is the

Combustion chamber.

Transfer pump.

Fuel lines.

Injectors.

125. The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is

Spray.

Pintle.

Pressure.

Mechanical.

126. Aside from idle speed, the limiting speed governor through the use of flyweights and spring tension controls

Load speed.

Minimum speed.

Maximum speed.

Intermediate speed.

127. What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?

Radiator cap.

Thermostat.

Water pump.

Radiator.

128. Which liquid cooling system component circulates the coolant?

Vacuum valve.

Water pump.

Cooling fan.

Radiator.

129. One of the impellers within a blower on a diesel engine is normally driven

By the engine electrical system through a DC motor.

By the engine exhaust gases flowing across the turbine wheel.

From the engine crankshaft through a system of gears or a silent chain.

Through a solid shaft connected between the blower and the transmission.

130. The filtration stop protects the diesel engine fuel system from

Blockage of airflow.

Lube system malfunctions.

Slipping belts on the blower.

Abrasion by foreign particles.

131. The best step in preventing abnormal amounts of carbon moisture, and sludge buildup in a diesel engine, is to

Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load.

Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time.

Drain moisture from fuel system periodically.

Perform a preoperational check.

132. When performing a compression test, measuring pounds per square inch (psi), the maximum allowable deviation between cylinders is

25 psi.

50 psi.

75 psi.

100 psi.

133. If the drive shaft for the oil pump assembly in a gas turbine engine becomes sheared, what other component is rendered inoperative?

Alternating (AC) generator.

Tachometer generator.

Starter motor.

Cooling fan.

134. In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the

Cooling fan.

Starter motor.

Fuel pump and control unit.

Multiple centrifugal switch assembly.

135. During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the

Diffusers.

Exducers.

Impellers.

Deswirl ring.

136. During operation of a turbine engine, fuel and air are mixed and ignited in the

Fuel atomizer.

Combustor can.

Mixer assembly.

Plenum chamber.

137. In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the

Diffuser.

Exhaust flange.

Turbine wheel and exducer.

Exhaust gas thermocouple.

138. Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a

Flow check valve.

Filter bypass valve.

Pressure relief valve.

Temperature regulator.

139. Gas turbine compressor (GTC) operation with insufficient oil pressure is prevented by the

Oil pressure solenoid.

Oil pressure switch.

Oil drain switch.

Ignition coil.

140. During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the

Air-oil seals.

Oil tank baffles.

Exhaust vent line.

Pressure relief valve.

141. In the turbine engine, rupture of the rate diaphragm is prevented by the

Adjustment screw.

Actuator regulator.

Rate metering valve.

Rate diaphragm return spring.

142. During a preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for

Leakage.

Excess heat.

Hairline cracks.

Foreign objects.

143. Normal acceleration characteristics of the gas turbine compressor (GTC) include

Sudden rumbling noises after 35 percent.

A decrease in vibration after 35 percent.

Smooth and quiet acceleration.

Burping.

144. Before you load and after you unload the gas turbine compressor (GTC), allow the engine to operate unloaded to

Decrease noise.

Allow for flameouts.

Reduce thermal stress.

Allow for positioning of the service hose.

145. Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?

Excessive engine revolutions per minute (rpm).

Excessive engine exhaust temperature.

Oil that enters the airflow system.

Fuel mixing with the airflow.

146. In the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if large amounts of oil are forced through the air-oil seals, the most probable cause is a defective

Main oil pump.

Scavenge pump.

Oil tank vent line.

Oil drain solenoid.

147. Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?

Load valve.

Hose relief valve.

Rate adjustment screw.

Pneumatic load thermostat.

148. Which three things are necessary to produce an electromotive force (EMF) mechanically?

EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field.

Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion.

Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.

Counter-electromotive force (CEMF), a conductor, and magnetic field.

149. What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple direct current (DC) generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?

Increased output and almost constant alternating current (AC).

Increased output and almost constant DC.

Decreased current and constant AC.

Decreased current and constant DC.

150. The rotor of an alternating current (AC) generator consists of the slip rings and

Armature.

Starter coil.

Stator windings.

Voltage regulator.

151. Control the output voltage of an alternating current (AC) generator is accomplished by varying the

Speed of rotation.

Size of the armature.

Amount of field current.

Size of the field windings.

152. In a three-phase alternating current (AC) generator, direct current (DC) is applied to the field windings through the brushes and

Diodes.

Rectifier.

Slip rings.

Commutator.

153. Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a

Direct current (DC) generator.

Single-phase generator.

Two-phase generator.

Three-phase generator.

154. The self-excited alternating current (AC) generator provides its own field current from a built-in

Direct current (DC) generator.

Selenium rectifier.

Battery source.

Regulator.

155. The A/M24T-8 electrical test est is capable of testing

Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator sets only.

Alternating current (AC) power supplies only.

Direct current (DC) power supplies only.

AC and DC power supplies.

156. What circuit on the A/M24T-8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?

Special checks.

Impedance load.

Aircraft servicing.

Jet engine servicing.

157. What occurs when the load selection switches on the A/M24T-8 load bank are closed?

Load elements are connected to neutral.

Blower motors begin operation.

Panel lights illuminate.

Link boards rearrange.

158. Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should

Make sure input power cables are energized.

Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position.

Close the direct current (DC) section cooling fan doors.

Place circuit breaker three-phase shock load to ON position.

159. When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlined in the

Generator technical order (TO) and career development course (CDC).

Load bank TO, generator TO, and CDC.

Generator TO and load bank TO.

Load bank TO and CDC.

160. When using an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, when should the frequency and voltage selector switch be positioned to match input power?

While applying power to the test set.

Before applying power to the test set.

After the ABC indicator is illuminated.

After the 28 volts direct current (VDC) control signal indicator illuminates.

161. What maximum alternating current (AC) resistive load can the portable load bank apply to a generator?

65 kilowatts.

70 kilowatts.

75 kilowatts.

80 kilowatts.

162. When performing a phase-one periodic inspection (PE), you are going to do a

Detailed annual inspection.

Relatively quick equipment condition check.

Special inspection accomplishing the lubrication requirements only.

Streamline inspection to ensure a unit is operational and serviceable.

163. The resistive elements on the A/M24T-8 test set are best cleaned by

Blowing off with 5 pounds per square inch (PSI) uncontaminated air.

Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air.

Scrubbing with soap and water.

Steam cleaning.

164. On an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?

Shorted fuses.

Defective wind switch.

CB1 stuck in the ON position.

Defective power supply rectifier.

165. The governor of the A/M32T-60A generator set is controlled directly by the

Engine speed.

Trim control motor.

Static frequency sensor.

Manual trim adjustment.

166. What is used as a reference for controlling A/M32A-60A engine speed?

Fuel pressure.

Control air pressure.

Governor flyweight pressure.

Alternating current (AC) generator output frequency.

167. If the oil pressure switch opens during operation of a A/M32A-60A, during which period does it stop operating?

From 0 to 35 percent.

From 35 to 95 percent.

From 95 to 100 percent.

Anytime during operation.

168. On the A/M32A-60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?

1 and 2.

2 and 3.

1 and 3.

2 and 4.

169. In the event of an overspeed condition, what component of the A/M32A-60A generator electrical system stops the engine?

Overspeed actuator.

Fuel shutoff switch.

35 percent centrifugal switch.

110 percent centrifugal switch.

170. The A/M32A-60A generator set cannot be loaded either electrically or pneumatically until after the

35 percent switch has closed.

95 percent switch has closed.

110 percent switch has opened.

BLEED AIR ON switch is closed.

171. The component of the A/M32A-60A that opens and closes the fuel transfer line is the fuel

Level switch, S20

Solenoid valve, L1

Level control relay, K26

Level solenoid valve, L4

172. When is 28 volts direct current (VDC) applied to E pin of the alternating current (AC) cable?

Never.

At all times.

When the AC cable switch is in the GEN position.

When the AC cable switch is in the ACFT position.

173. On the A/M32A-60A generator, what stops battery charging when the batteries are fully charged and prevents discharge when the unit is shut down?

Battery charging resistor.

Battery charging diode.

Voltage regulator.

Charging shunt.

174. How often are service inspections required?

After equipment is placed on the ready line.

After maintenance.

Once a week.

Once a day.

175. After the A/M32A-60A generator set has reached 95 percent of governed speed, the operator should

Reset the alternating current (AC) system.

Connect the power cables.

Adjust the governed speed.

Connect the bleed air duct.

176. When troubleshooting, the actual location of a terminal connection on the unit can best be found by using

The wiring diagram.

Your past experience.

The schematic diagram.

The reference designation.

177. To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the

Flow chart.

Wiring diagram.

Schematic diagram.

Reference designation list.

178. What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A-86D?

Protects the generator electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator.

Senses fault conditions, stopping the engine.

179. How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32-86D before letting it cool?

60 seconds.

30 seconds.

20 seconds.

10 seconds.

180. When troubleshooting any electrical system, you can locate a starting point by first finding the

Common ground bus.

Main circuit breaker.

External power source.

Last known source of power.

181. What position must the alarm switch on the EPU-6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?

ON.

OFF.

ACTIVATE.

INACTIVE.

182. What indicator on the EPU-6/E frequency converter indicates an undervoltage condition?

Overvoltage.

Out-of-phase.

Undervoltage.

Fault.

183. Before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the

Air inlets for blockage.

Wiring for secure mounting.

Maintenance panels for corrosion.

Interior air vents for secure mounting.

184. What problem is indicated by a flashing red over/undervoltage indicator light on the EPU-6/E frequency converter?

Out-of-phase relationship.

Output overvoltage.

Loss-of-input phase.

Input undervoltage.

185. What printed circuit (PC) card controls the cold-starting air on the B809A generator set?

Direct current (DC).

Annunciator.

Regulator.

Engine.

186. During high-voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?

High sense relay (HSR) energizes.

Interlock (INT) relay energizes.

INT relay deenergizes.

HSR deenergizes.

187. If you have a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, what should you do?

Connect TB4-11 to 14 VDC power source.

Check the Field Transformer.

Field flash the generator.

Check the fault display.

188. How many valence electrons are needed to make a good conductor?

3.

4.

5.

6.

189. "The flow or drift of electrons through a conductor" in the same direction at the same time is

Conductivity.

Voltage.

Current.

Valence.

190. The potential difference between two points in a circuit that exerts a force on free electrons is called

Conductivity.

Voltage.

Current.

Valence.

191. What is used to control current flow in a circuit?

Voltage.

Coulombs.

Resistance.

Conductivity.

192. The relationship of voltage, current, and resistance is expressed through

E, I, and C.

Power formulas.

Conductance.

Ohm's Law.

193. What is the wattage of a circuit with 28 volts applied and a total resistance of .2 ohms?

.14 watts (w)

.14 kilowatts (kw)

3.92 w.

3.92 kw.

194. In a parallel circuit, the total voltage is equal to the

Sum of the voltages across each branch.

Voltage across each resistor.

Voltage across each branch.

The reciprocal of the voltage across the resistances.

195. The area around a magnet where its influence can be felt is the definition of the

Saturation principle.

Magnetic theory.

Magnetic field.

Law of attraction and repulsion.

196. "The ability of a material to pass lines of force" is a definition of

Permeability.

Reluctance.

Electromagnetism.

Retentivity.

197. The magnetism that remains after the magnetizing force has been removed is known as

Electromagnetism.

Molecular magnetism.

Permeability.

Residual magnetism.

198. The electromechanical generation of a voltage requires a magnetic field, relative motion, and

A complete circuit.

A conductor.

An insulator.

A load.

199. The principle behind all electromechanical generation is

Conduction.

Commutation.

Rectification.

Electromagnetic induction.

200. The function of the commutator in a DC generator is to

Complete the circuit to the load.

Induce DC into the external circuit.

Rectify the input.

Change AC voltage to DC voltage.

2A652 CDC EOC Practice Test

1. Risk management principles should be applied to

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What situations does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor?

3. Before removing a component from an air compressor, you must ensure

4. Which type of hammer should you use to avoid damaging driving materials?

5. Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?

6. Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut

7. Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must

8. Replacement hardware decisions on support equipment must be governed by

9. What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?

10. What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit?

11. What color code is used to pre-insulated terminal lugs for wire sizes 18 through 22?

12. What are the three different types of terminal lugs?

13. What type of damage greatly reduces the ability of tubing to withstand internal pressure and vibration?

14. A flexible hose in a 3,000 psi system must be pressure tested to

15. When installing a flexible house, you must provide slack or bend in the hose to

16. How can people best prevent FOD?

17. You need to find all of the TOs for a specific weapon system or piece of equipment. What type of index should you use?

18. Which TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that, in not corrected, could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?

19. The main advantage of using abbreviated TOs is they

20. Which abbreviated TO provides guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes?

21. An example of TO deficiency is

22. Which form should you submit to correct a TO deficiency?

23. What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?

24. OIs are simliar to Air Force instructions, but they apply only to

25. What type of standard publication is used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication?

26. The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the

27. Where do you access standard Air Force publications?

28. What impact is made on the maintenance organization by ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training?

29. The main purpose of the inspection system is to

30. The maintenance symbol that represents the most serious operational condition for equipment is a

31. Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?

32. Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to record a forms review?

33. When closing out an AFTO Form 244, what is entered on the form to close out uncompleted inspections?

34. What is the condition of a component bearing a green equipment condition label?

35. What color is the equipment condition tag attached to an item being held as an exhibit?

36. What maintenance supply form is used to order commonly stocked supplies or turn in excess or unserviceable property?

37. What MDD code identifies the system that was worked on?

38. Distinguished between "excess" and "surplus" as they apply to Air Force supply discipline.

39. What is a major concept regarding "economic use" of supplies and equipment?

40. Who is responsible for ensuring that property records of supply transactions are kept accurately?

41. What are you required to do with Air Force property you might find and believe it to be lost or misplaced?

42. When the bench stock quantity level falls below 50 percent for an item, you should

43. The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage or government property caused by misuse or neglect is what kind of liability?

44. How can a person be relieved from property responsibility other than by pecuniary liability?

45. A statement of charges would be prepared under which of these circumstances?

46. Who should AGE maintainers contact for submittal format of agenda items when preparing for the PIWG?

47. What marking is applied to AGE for night safety?

48. Which of these items must be removed from test equipment before storage?

49. What AGE must have the fuel drained when preparing it for mobility?

50. During a battery condition check, what is an acceptable voltage reading for a 12-volt battery?

51. After connecting a voltmeter across the starter terminals and clamping a current probe around the positive battery cable, what must be done prior to cranking the engine when performing a starting system check on AGE?

52. What should you do if your vehicle meets a moving aircraft at night?

53. Why should you apply silicone sealant to the valve stem area of a wheel?

54. What must you do before inflating the inner tube fully on a split rim tire?

55. What component on the New Generation Heater activates the HCU?

56. The HCU on the New Generation heater starts the main air fan for output air when

57. When should you use starting aids to start the New Generation Heater?

58. Repair of ground heater equipment should never be attempted

59. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance on degree Fahrenheit is known as

60. Heat added to a gaseous substance is known as

61. The factors that have the greatest bearing on the temperature of a refrigerant are the boiling of a liquid and the amount of heat applied and the

62. What type of solution is used in the MA-3D aftercooler system to carry heat away from the conditioned air stream?

63. When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, hold the safety override switch until

64. What component on the MA-3D air conditioner receives input from sensors for suction pressure and leaving air temperature?

65. What component on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressor when the suction pressure drops below 5 psi?

66. What type of refrigeration system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure?

67. When performing refrigerant recovery, be sure

68. The air cycle machine of an A/M32C–10D air conditioner consists of

69. The component of a A/M32C–10D air conditioner that extracts energy from the bleed air on the air cycle machine is the

70. What action occurs in the evaporator of the ACE 802S air conditioner?

71. What must be accomplished to avoid damage prior to operating the ACE 802S air conditioner in the HEATING mode after COOLING mode operation?

72. In troubleshooting, what is the first step that must be completed when a unit comes in with a write-up in the forms?

73. How can a restriction in a refrigerant system be identified?

74. Oil in the rotary vane compressor

75. The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by

76. Oil-moisture traps are required on a multi-stage reciprocating compressor to

77. During an inspection on an LN2 cart, you should look at all of the following except the