2A652 CDC EOC Practice Test

317 Questions | Total Attempts: 127

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Risk management principles should be applied to
    • A. 

      Only duty-related activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.

    • B. 

      On- and off-duty activities to enhance the safety and well being of yourself and others.

    • C. 

      Only duty-related activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

    • D. 

      On-and off-duty activities to protect yourself and other Airmen from imminent harm.

  • 2. 
    What situations does not warrant prompt reporting to your supervisor?
    • A. 

      Using personal protective equipment.

    • B. 

      Unsafe working conditions.

    • C. 

      Known pregnancies.

    • D. 

      Personal injury.

  • 3. 
    Before removing a component from an air compressor, you must ensure
    • A. 

      The air compressor is grounded.

    • B. 

      The air strainer is in place.

    • C. 

      The battery is disconnected.

    • D. 

      All air pressure is drained.

  • 4. 
    Why should the frame of an electrical motor be grounded?
    • A. 

      To prevent the energized windings from touching the frame.

    • B. 

      To prevent current from following the path of least resistance.

    • C. 

      To prevent you from receiving an electrical shock if the energized windings touch the frame.

    • D. 

      To prevent current from flowing directly to ground if the energized windings touch the frame.

  • 5. 
    Which type of hammer should you use to avoid damaging driving materials?
    • A. 

      Claw.

    • B. 

      Sledge.

    • C. 

      Soft face.

    • D. 

      Ball-peen

  • 6. 
    Which type of screwdriver has blades designed to lessen the possibility of the screwdriver slipping from the screw head?
    • A. 

      Cross-point.

    • B. 

      Flat-blade.

    • C. 

      Cross-tip.

    • D. 

      Offset.

  • 7. 
    Which pliers should be used to hold odd-shaped objects?
    • A. 

      Snap ring.

    • B. 

      Diagonal cutting.

    • C. 

      Multiple slip-joint.

    • D. 

      Combination slip-joint.

  • 8. 
    Which pliers have a locking device to hold materials securely?
    • A. 

      Snap ring.

    • B. 

      Vice grips.

    • C. 

      Water pump.

    • D. 

      Diagonal cutters.

  • 9. 
    Diagonal cutting pliers are designed to cut
    • A. 

      Bolts.

    • B. 

      Rivets.

    • C. 

      Hard steel.

    • D. 

      Small wire.

  • 10. 
    Before operating the pneumatic impact wrench, you must
    • A. 

      Inspect it.

    • B. 

      Lubricate it.

    • C. 

      Blow out the airhose.

    • D. 

      Ensure that its use is necessary.

  • 11. 
    Replacement hardware decisions on support equipment must be governed by
    • A. 

      Supervisor's preference.

    • B. 

      Serviceability criteria.

    • C. 

      Cosmetic appearance.

    • D. 

      Availability.

  • 12. 
    What type of bolt is typically used to connect accessories to an engine?
    • A. 

      Stud.

    • B. 

      Fine thread bolt.

    • C. 

      Coarse thread bolt.

    • D. 

      General purpose bolt.

  • 13. 
    What type of nut should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees Fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

    • B. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts.

    • C. 

      Castellated nuts.

    • D. 

      Plain nuts.

  • 14. 
    What color code is used to pre-insulated terminal lugs for wire sizes 18 through 22?
    • A. 

      Red.

    • B. 

      Blue.

    • C. 

      Green.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 15. 
    What are the three different types of terminal lugs?
    • A. 

      Red, blue, and yellow.

    • B. 

      Straight, right angle, and flat.

    • C. 

      Copper, aluminum, and plastic.

    • D. 

      Pre-insulated, uninsulated, and reinsulated.

  • 16. 
    What does the "-4" identify in fitting part number MS20822-4D?
    • A. 

      Military specification.

    • B. 

      Type of fitting.

    • C. 

      Air Force/Navy.

    • D. 

      Fitting size.

  • 17. 
    What type of damage greatly reduces the ability of tubing to withstand internal pressure and vibration?
    • A. 

      Scratches.

    • B. 

      Chafing.

    • C. 

      Dents.

    • D. 

      Nicks.

  • 18. 
    A flexible hose in a 3,000 psi system must be pressure tested to
    • A. 

      3,000 psi without bursting.

    • B. 

      9,000 psi without bursting.

    • C. 

      12,000 psi without bursting.

    • D. 

      15,000 psi without bursting.

  • 19. 
    When installing a flexible house, you must provide slack or bend in the hose to
    • A. 

      Prevent twisting of the hose.

    • B. 

      Compensate for change in length.

    • C. 

      Place a mechanical load on the hose.

    • D. 

      Protect it from a hot pipe or manifold.

  • 20. 
    How can people best prevent FOD?
    • A. 

      Look for loose objects (stone, paper, or trash), pick them up when discovered and encourage others to do the same.

    • B. 

      Learn the basic classes of FOD, recognize its causes, and account for tools and hardware used during maintenance.

    • C. 

      Look for loose objects discarded on the flightline during maintenance activities.

    • D. 

      Periodically participate in "FOD walks" on taxiways and runways.

  • 21. 
    You need to find all of the TOs for a specific weapon system or piece of equipment. What type of index should you use?
    • A. 

      TO catalog.

    • B. 

      Alphabetical index.

    • C. 

      Cross-reference table.

    • D. 

      LOAPs.

  • 22. 
    You need to find the part number for an item prior to ordering it from supply. You've obtained the appropriate IPB manual for the end-item. What section of the IPB should you use to find the major assembly to which the desired item belongs?
    • A. 

      Table of contents.

    • B. 

      Reference designator index.

    • C. 

      Appropriate figure/illustration.

    • D. 

      National stock number and reference number index.

  • 23. 
    Which TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that, in not corrected, could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Safety.

    • B. 

      Urgent action.

    • C. 

      Routine action.

    • D. 

      Immediate action.

  • 24. 
    What type of TCTO is often accomplished by contractors, modification centers, or specific Air Force activities higher than organizational\intermediate-level maintenance due to the complexity involved?
    • A. 

      Abbreviated TCTO.

    • B. 

      Inspection TCTO.

    • C. 

      Record TCTO.

    • D. 

      Interim TCTO.

  • 25. 
    The main advantage of using abbreviated TOs is they
    • A. 

      Cover safety in more detail.

    • B. 

      Serve as supplemental material.

    • C. 

      Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic TOs.

    • D. 

      Organize and simplify instructions in a condensed version.

  • 26. 
    Periodic inspection workcards are divided into three sections that cover the requirements for
    • A. 

      Periodic inspections, lubrication, and special inspections.

    • B. 

      Periodic inspections, special inspections, and safety.

    • C. 

      Periodic inspections, lubrication, and safety.

    • D. 

      Special inspections, lubrication, and safety.

  • 27. 
    Which abbreviated TO provides guidance for checking the general serviceability of a piece of equipment including applicable safety warnings, cautions, and notes?
    • A. 

      Lubrication charts.

    • B. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown.

    • C. 

      Service inspection workcards.

    • D. 

      Periodic inspection workcards.

  • 28. 
    An example of TO deficiency is
    • A. 

      Improper sequencing of pages.

    • B. 

      Insufficient information.

    • C. 

      Typographical errors.

    • D. 

      Misspelled words.

  • 29. 
    Which form should you submit to correct a TO deficiency?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 1000, Deficiency Report.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 601A, Change Recommendation.

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 95, Support Equipment Record.

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 22, Technical Manuel (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.

  • 30. 
    What are the two general classes of Air Force publications?
    • A. 

      Pamphlets and manuals.

    • B. 

      Departmental and field.

    • C. 

      Instructions and manuals.

    • D. 

      Supplements and instructions.

  • 31. 
    OIs are simliar to Air Force instructions, but they apply only to
    • A. 

      Air Force wings.

    • B. 

      Support personnel.

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel.

    • D. 

      Personnel within the issuing organization.

  • 32. 
    What type of standard publication is used by lower headquarters to implement, amplify, interpret, or clarify a higher level publication?
    • A. 

      Supplements.

    • B. 

      Visual aids.

    • C. 

      Bulletins.

    • D. 

      Manuals.

  • 33. 
    The first number of a standard Air Force publication number is referred to as the "series" and represents the
    • A. 

      Broad area covered.

    • B. 

      Specific area covered.

    • C. 

      Specific title of the publication.

    • D. 

      Specific military personnel affected.

  • 34. 
    Where do you access standard Air Force publications?
    • A. 

      Air Force e-Publishing website.

    • B. 

      LOAPs

    • C. 

      Base-level functional publication library

    • D. 

      AFI 33-360

  • 35. 
    What impact is made on the maintenance organization by ensuring availability of adequate parts, equipment, and training?
    • A. 

      Increasing bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

    • B. 

      Increasing bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

    • C. 

      Eliminating bottlenecks and minimizing repair cycle time.

    • D. 

      Eliminating bottlenecks and maximizing repair cycle time.

  • 36. 
    Which maintenance levels are considered together as "field maintenance"?
    • A. 

      Centralized and depot.

    • B. 

      Depot and provisional.

    • C. 

      Provisional and centralized.

    • D. 

      Organizational and intermediate.

  • 37. 
    Organizational maintenance consists of
    • A. 

      On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location.

    • B. 

      On-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of a supporting command or intermediate repair facility.

    • C. 

      Off-equipment tasks normally performed using the resources of an operating command at an operating location or intermediate repair facility.

    • D. 

      On- and off-equipment tasks that require highly specialized skills, sophisticated shop equipment, and/or special facilities of a supporting command.

  • 38. 
    The main purpose of the inspection system is to
    • A. 

      Get ahead of unscheduled maintenance.

    • B. 

      Keep equipment operating and looking good.

    • C. 

      Keep the mechanic working on minor problems.

    • D. 

      Locate problems and repair equipment before total failure.

  • 39. 
    The maintenance symbol that represents the most serious operational condition for equipment is a
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red diagonal.

    • D. 

      Circle red X.

  • 40. 
    Which symbol indicates an operational check is overdue?
    • A. 

      Red X.

    • B. 

      Red dash.

    • C. 

      Red diagonal.

    • D. 

      Circled red X.

  • 41. 
    Which section of the AFTO Form 244 is used to record a forms review?
    • A. 

      Part II, Non-scheduled Inspection.

    • B. 

      Part III, Scheduled Inspection.

    • C. 

      Part IV, Supervisory review.

    • D. 

      Part V, Maintenance/Delayed Discrepancy.

  • 42. 
    When closing out an AFTO Form 244, what is entered on the form to close out uncompleted inspections?
    • A. 

      A red X and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.

    • B. 

      A red X and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.

    • C. 

      The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part IV, Supervisory Review.

    • D. 

      The letters "CF" (for carried forward) and your initials in Part III, Scheduled Inspections.

  • 43. 
    What is the condition of a component bearing a green equipment condition label?
    • A. 

      Unserviceable (Condemned).

    • B. 

      Unserviceable (Reparable).

    • C. 

      Serviceable.

    • D. 

      Suspended.

  • 44. 
    What color is the equipment condition tag attached to an item being held as an exhibit?
    • A. 

      Brown.

    • B. 

      Green.

    • C. 

      White.

    • D. 

      Yellow.

  • 45. 
    What maintenance supply form is used to order commonly stocked supplies or turn in excess or unserviceable property?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2005.

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 350.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348-6.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1A.

  • 46. 
    What MDD code identifies the system that was worked on?
    • A. 

      Type maintenance.

    • B. 

      Work unit code.

    • C. 

      Category of labor.

    • D. 

      Units.

  • 47. 
    Distinguished between "excess" and "surplus" as they apply to Air Force supply discipline.
    • A. 

      Excess and surplus are the same.

    • B. 

      Excess and surplus are the turn-in of property no long needed.

    • C. 

      Surplus is property no longer needed at your base, and excess is property no longer needed by another military service or Federal agency.

    • D. 

      Excess is property no longer needed at your base, and surplus is property no longer needed by another military service or Federal agency

  • 48. 
    What is a major concept regarding "economic use" of supplies and equipment?
    • A. 

      Use them only for their intended purposes.

    • B. 

      Always order the least expensive item to do the job.

    • C. 

      Protect items from hazards such as fire or corrosion.

    • D. 

      Order only the minimum supplies necessary to do a job.

  • 49. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that property records of supply transactions are kept accurately?
    • A. 

      Commander.

    • B. 

      Supervisor.

    • C. 

      Person who signed for an account.

    • D. 

      Person who has possession of the property.

  • 50. 
    To be held responsible for property, you must
    • A. 

      Possess it.

    • B. 

      Sign for it.

    • C. 

      Be a 5 level.

    • D. 

      Be a supervisor.

  • 51. 
    What are you required to do with Air Force property you might find and believe it to be lost or misplaced?
    • A. 

      Leave it where you found it.

    • B. 

      Place it back into the supply system.

    • C. 

      Take the item to the organizational commander.

    • D. 

      Take it to the security forces lost and found section.

  • 52. 
    What equipment does not require an AFTO Form 375?
    • A. 

      Items less than $2,500.

    • B. 

      Items less than $25,000.

    • C. 

      Items more than $2,500.

    • D. 

      Items more than $25,000.

  • 53. 
    Items that retain their identity throughout the period of their use and may be turned in and reissued for use by others are considered
    • A. 

      DIFM.

    • B. 

      Excess.

    • C. 

      Expendable.

    • D. 

      Nonexpendable.

  • 54. 
    When the bench stock quantity level falls below 50 percent for an item, you should
    • A. 

      Post a due-out list.

    • B. 

      Place a red tag on the bin.

    • C. 

      Notify supply that stock level is low.

    • D. 

      Initial the initial supply stock listing.

  • 55. 
    The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage or government property caused by misuse or neglect is what kind of liability?
    • A. 

      Property.

    • B. 

      Personal.

    • C. 

      Pecuniary.

    • D. 

      Command.

  • 56. 
    How can a person be relieved from property responsibility other than by pecuniary liability?
    • A. 

      Turn-in only.

    • B. 

      Transfer only.

    • C. 

      Turn-in or transfer.

    • D. 

      Cash collection voucher or statement of charges.

  • 57. 
    A statement of charges would be prepared under which of these circumstances?
    • A. 

      If a lost item is not expendable.

    • B. 

      If you make a cash payment for a lost item.

    • C. 

      If you signed a hand receipt for a lost item.

    • D. 

      If you want to use payroll deduction to pay the cost of a lost item.

  • 58. 
    What must be done if SSgt Ortiz refuses to admit pecuniary liability for the loss of a $275 lawn mower for which he has custodial responsibility?
    • A. 

      A report of survey must be initiated.

    • B. 

      A statement of charges must be prepared.

    • C. 

      Charges must be made on a military pay order.

    • D. 

      The mower must be replaced by on of equivalent value.

  • 59. 
    After a deficiency has been discovered, when must a category II PQDR be submitted to the screening point?
    • A. 

      24 hours.

    • B. 

      2 calendar days.

    • C. 

      5 calendar days.

    • D. 

      10 calendar days.

  • 60. 
    Within the deficiency reporting system, who is responsible for the resolution of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      Originating point.

    • B. 

      Screening point.

    • C. 

      Action point.

    • D. 

      Support point.

  • 61. 
    Within the deficiency reporting system, who assigns a report control number and ensures proper marking and handling of exhibits?
    • A. 

      Originating point.

    • B. 

      Screening point.

    • C. 

      Action point.

    • D. 

      Support point.

  • 62. 
    Who should AGE maintainers contact for submittal format of agenda items when preparing for the PIWG?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM AGE functional managers.

    • B. 

      Screening point within the originating activity.

    • C. 

      Lead command (AFMC).

    • D. 

      WR-ALC.

  • 63. 
    What marking is applied to AGE for night safety?
    • A. 

      Informational.

    • B. 

      Safety/Danger.

    • C. 

      Reflectorization.

    • D. 

      Caution/Warning.

  • 64. 
    Guidelines for storing AGE are in
    • A. 

      TO 35-1-3.

    • B. 

      TO 35-1-4.

    • C. 

      TO 35-1-12.

    • D. 

      AFMAN 23-110.

  • 65. 
    Which of these items must be removed from test equipment before storage?
    • A. 

      Wet and dry cell batteries.

    • B. 

      Dry charge batteries.

    • C. 

      Battery compartment.

    • D. 

      Battery holder.

  • 66. 
    What AGE must have the fuel drained when preparing it for mobility?
    • A. 

      Equipment with fuel levels that cannot be verified.

    • B. 

      Self-propelled equipment required for immediate use at deployment sites.

    • C. 

      Equipment that is not self-propelled and is required for immediate use at deployment sites.

    • D. 

      All AGE must have fuel drained prior to deployment; there are no exceptions.

  • 67. 
    During a battery condition check, what is an acceptable voltage reading for a 12-volt battery?
    • A. 

      8-2 volts.

    • B. 

      10-12 volts.

    • C. 

      12.4 volts or lower.

    • D. 

      12.7 volts or higher.

  • 68. 
    After connecting a voltmeter across the starter terminals and clamping a current probe around the positive battery cable, what must be done prior to cranking the engine when performing a starting system check on AGE?
    • A. 

      Estimate the temperature of the battery.

    • B. 

      Prevent the engine from starting.

    • C. 

      Perform a battery cable test.

    • D. 

      Disconnect the voltmeter.

  • 69. 
    How should you approach a parked aircraft with your vehicle?
    • A. 

      Only when a guide is posted.

    • B. 

      Within 25 feet of an aircraft with engines running.

    • C. 

      With the driver's side of the vehicle toward the aircraft.

    • D. 

      With the driver's side of the vehicle away from the aircraft.

  • 70. 
    What should you do if your vehicle meets a moving aircraft at night?
    • A. 

      Turn off your headlights and leave your parking lights on.

    • B. 

      Dim your headlights and continue on.

    • C. 

      Stop and change directions.

    • D. 

      Turn all lights off.

  • 71. 
    Why should you apply silicone sealant to the valve stem area of a wheel?
    • A. 

      To keep rims from flying apart.

    • B. 

      To keep water from entering rims.

    • C. 

      As a treatment for weather cracks.

    • D. 

      As a treatment for severe corrosion.

  • 72. 
    What must you do before inflating the inner tube fully on a split rim tire?
    • A. 

      Fully deflate the tire.

    • B. 

      Torque wheel lug bolts.

    • C. 

      Check tires for foreign objects.

    • D. 

      Ensure rims are completely bolted together and torqued.

  • 73. 
    What component on the New Generation Heater activates the HCU?
    • A. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • B. 

      Burner control unit.

    • C. 

      Heat control switch.

    • D. 

      Thermostatic sensor.

  • 74. 
    The HCU on the New Generation heater starts the main air fan for output air when
    • A. 

      A heat setting is selected.

    • B. 

      Constant flame is established.

    • C. 

      The temperature gauge reads cool.

    • D. 

      The inside temperature reaches 140 degrees F.

  • 75. 
    Repair of ground heater equipment should never be attempted
    • A. 

      Without first talking with the operator.

    • B. 

      Without first consulting your supervisor.

    • C. 

      Unless accurate technical data is available.

    • D. 

      Unless in the presence of an experienced mechanic.

  • 76. 
    The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of a substance on degree Fahrenheit is known as
    • A. 

      British thermal unit.

    • B. 

      Sensible unit.

    • C. 

      Specific heat.

    • D. 

      Latent heat.

  • 77. 
    Heat that can be felt and added or subtracted to a substance without changing its state is called
    • A. 

      Super heat.

    • B. 

      Latent heat.

    • C. 

      Specific heat.

    • D. 

      Sensible heat.

  • 78. 
    Heat added to a gaseous substance is known as
    • A. 

      Sensible heat.

    • B. 

      Specific heat.

    • C. 

      Super heat.

    • D. 

      Latent heat.

  • 79. 
    The relationship between pressure and the boiling point of a liquid is seen when
    • A. 

      Pressure increases, it raises the boiling point.

    • B. 

      Pressure increases, it lowers the boiling point.

    • C. 

      The boiling point increases, it raises the pressure.

    • D. 

      The boiling point increases, it lowers the pressure.

  • 80. 
    The factors that have the greatest bearing on the temperature of a refrigerant are the boiling of a liquid and the amount of heat applied and the
    • A. 

      Temperature of the vapor.

    • B. 

      Type of heat transfer.

    • C. 

      Moisture in the air.

    • D. 

      Pressure applied.

  • 81. 
    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner allows the operator to control the overall volume of air leaving the unit?
    • A. 

      Blower control switch.

    • B. 

      Airflow control switch.

    • C. 

      Evaporator control switch.

    • D. 

      Temperature control switch.

  • 82. 
    What type of solution is used in the MA-3D aftercooler system to carry heat away from the conditioned air stream?
    • A. 

      Liquid refrigerant.

    • B. 

      Gaseous refrigerant.

    • C. 

      Pure water solution.

    • D. 

      Ethylene glycol/water solution.

  • 83. 
    Refrigerant that leaves the evaporator coil in the MA-3D air conditioner is further changed into a
    • A. 

      Low pressure gas.

    • B. 

      High pressure gas.

    • C. 

      Low pressure liquid.

    • D. 

      High pressure liquid.

  • 84. 
    After the refrigerant leaves the compressor on the MA-3D air conditioner, it passes through the oil separator and into the
    • A. 

      Heatsink coils.

    • B. 

      Condenser coils.

    • C. 

      Evaporator coils.

    • D. 

      Receiver inlet valve.

  • 85. 
    When starting the MA-3D air conditioner, hold the safety override switch until
    • A. 

      30 psi oil pressure is registered on the engine oil pressure gauge.

    • B. 

      You release the start switch.

    • C. 

      The engine warms up.

    • D. 

      The engine starts.

  • 86. 
    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner receives input from sensors for suction pressure and leaving air temperature?
    • A. 

      Air cooler fan.

    • B. 

      Air volume controller.

    • C. 

      Temperature controller.

    • D. 

      Temperature control knob.

  • 87. 
    What type of refrigeration system leak occurs when the pressure within the system is less than atmospheric pressure?
    • A. 

      Inward leaks.

    • B. 

      Vacuum leaks.

    • C. 

      Pressure leaks.

    • D. 

      Outward leaks.

  • 88. 
    When performing refrigerant recovery, be sure
    • A. 

      To use vacuum pumps.

    • B. 

      To use the HCU.

    • C. 

      The output air is between 150°F – 185°F.

    • D. 

      The refrigerant has become a low-pressure vapor for compressor use.

  • 89. 
    The air cycle machine of an A/M32C–10D air conditioner consists of
    • A. 

      A air compressor fan only.

    • B. 

      An expansion turbine only.

    • C. 

      A heat exchanger and an expansion turbine.

    • D. 

      An expansion turbine and a compressor fan.

  • 90. 
    The component of a A/M32C–10D air conditioner that extracts energy from the bleed air on the air cycle machine is the
    • A. 

      Compressor.

    • B. 

      Heat exchanger.

    • C. 

      Expansion turbine.

    • D. 

      Temperature controller.

  • 91. 
    The compressor switch on the ACE 802S must be held in the HOLD position when engaging the compressor in order to
    • A. 

      Ensure the engine is at governed speed before engaging compressor.

    • B. 

      Allow the oil and discharge pressures to stabilize.

    • C. 

      Defrost the evaporator.

    • D. 

      Build-up oil pressure.

  • 92. 
    What action occurs in the evaporator of the ACE 802S air conditioner?
    • A. 

      Condensing refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

    • B. 

      Boiling refrigerant absorbs heat from the air stream.

    • C. 

      Condensing refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

    • D. 

      Boiling refrigerant looses heat to the air stream.

  • 93. 
    What system on the ACE 802S air conditioner “supercharges” the compressor?
    • A. 

      Defrost.

    • B. 

      Heat boost.

    • C. 

      Vapor injection.

    • D. 

      Liquid injection.

  • 94. 
    What valve must be opened prior to starting the engine on the ACE 802S?
    • A. 

      Air shutoff.

    • B. 

      Fuel shutoff.

    • C. 

      Coolant control.

    • D. 

      Refrigerant flow.

  • 95. 
    What must be accomplished to avoid damage prior to operating the ACE 802S air conditioner in the HEATING mode after COOLING mode operation?
    • A. 

      Permit refrigerant pressure to equalize.

    • B. 

      Perform maximum refrigerant pump down.

    • C. 

      Place heating/cooling switch in HEATING position.

    • D. 

      Place the reversing valve lever in the HEATING position.

  • 96. 
     In troubleshooting, what is the first step that must be completed when a unit comes in with a write-up in the forms?
    • A. 

      Isolate the problem.

    • B. 

      Perform a service inspection.

    • C. 

      Perform an operational check.

    • D. 

      Recognize the write-up as a malfunction.

  • 97. 
    How can a restriction in a refrigerant system be identified?
    • A. 

      Frosting at the outlet.

    • B. 

      Sweating of the outlet.

    • C. 

      Increased suction pressure.

    • D. 

      Loosen fittings to check flow.

  • 98. 
    Oil in the rotary vane compressor
    • A. 

      Lubricates the connecting rods.

    • B. 

      Has high viscosity and is very inflammable.

    • C. 

      Forms a seal between the vanes and the stator.

    • D. 

      Permits it to be typed as a high pressure unit.

  • 99. 
    What provides pressurized oil to the rotor blades of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?
    • A. 

      Hollow-ported bolt.

    • B. 

      Drilled passages.

    • C. 

      Rotor shaft.

    • D. 

      Stator shaft.

  • 100. 
    On the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor, the minimum pressure valve does all of the following except
    • A. 

      Ensure minimum pressure within the oil chamber.

    • B. 

      Ensure minimum pressure to the condensate drain.

    • C. 

      Prevent receiver air from flowing back to the compressor by working as a check valve.

    • D. 

      Increase the efficiency of the felt pads by ensuring they receive a constant minimum air pressure.

  • 101. 
    What is the air output of the MC-2A rotary sliding vane compressor?
    • A. 

      High volume, high pressure.

    • B. 

      High volume, low pressure.

    • C. 

      Low volume, high pressure.

    • D. 

      Low volume, low pressure.

  • 102. 
    The valves on a reciprocating compressor are operated by
    • A. 

      Atmospheric pressure.

    • B. 

      Electrical input.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure.

    • D. 

      Pushrods.

  • 103. 
    Oil-moisture traps are required on a multi-stage reciprocating compressor to
    • A. 

      Cool the compressed air.

    • B. 

      Ensure even compression of the air.

    • C. 

      Introduce moisture to the compressed air.

    • D. 

      Remove moisture from the compressed air.

  • 104. 
    During an inspection on an LN2 cart, you should look at all of the following except the
    • A. 

      Brake assembly.

    • B. 

      Engine oil level.

    • C. 

      Unit for cleanliness.

    • D. 

      Front end alignment.

  • 105. 
    When LOX carts are being transported, what position should the vent valve be in?
    • A. 

      Tow.

    • B. 

      Closed.

    • C. 

      Opened.

    • D. 

      Transport.

  • 106. 
    How is the air compressor in the SGNSC categorized?
    • A. 

      High-pressure.

    • B. 

      Low-pressure.

    • C. 

      High volume.

    • D. 

      Low volume.

  • 107. 
    What component on the SGNSC removes nitrogen from the ambient air?
    • A. 

      Filters.

    • B. 

      Carbon absorber.

    • C. 

      Booster compressor.

    • D. 

      Separation membrane.

  • 108. 
    To start the SGNSC, the operator must place the ignition switch in the start position for no more than
    • A. 

      5 seconds.

    • B. 

      10 seconds.

    • C. 

      15 seconds.

    • D. 

      20 seconds.

  • 109. 
    At what storage cylinder pressure, in psig, should the SGNSC nitrogen booster compressor stop?
    • A. 

      2400 psig.

    • B. 

      4100 psig.

    • C. 

      4400 psig.

    • D. 

      6400 psig.

  • 110. 
    During an operational check of an SGNSC you find that the engine starts, is running at 3,000 rpm, but the nitrogen purity does not reach 95.5% within 30 minutes. What is a probable cause of this malfunction?
    • A. 

      Warming door is not lowered for cold weather operating conditions.

    • B. 

      Low oil level in the feed air compressor lubricant separator tank.

    • C. 

      Booster compressor defective.

    • D. 

      Poor air ventilation.

  • 111. 
    What is important to keep in mind when performing maintenance on the SGNSC?
    • A. 

      Weather conditions.

    • B. 

      Wind direction.

    • C. 

      Ventilation.

    • D. 

      Safety.

  • 112. 
    When filling and bleeding the hydraulic system of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the reservoir selector valve must be in the
    • A. 

      Open position.

    • B. 

      Stand position.

    • C. 

      Aircraft position.

    • D. 

      External position.

  • 113. 
    The purpose of the low pressure pump on the MJ-2A-1 is to ensure a constant flow of fluid to the
    • A. 

      Relief valves.

    • B. 

      Aircraft pumps.

    • C. 

      Low pressure filters.

    • D. 

      High pressure pump.

  • 114. 
     In the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the output volume of the high pressure pump is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Volume control.

    • B. 

      Flow control valve.

    • C. 

      Compensator control.

    • D. 

      Flowmeter assembly.

  • 115. 
    If the position of the reservoir selector valve is changed in the hydraulic test stand during operation, the operator may cause the
    • A. 

      Flowmeter to be damaged.

    • B. 

      Aircraft reservoir to overfill.

    • C. 

      Flow control valve seals to rupture.

    • D. 

      Return system pressure to decrease.

  • 116. 
    What engine system safety device on the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand sounds the warning horn in the event of an engine system malfunction?
    • A. 

      Water level switch.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • C. 

      Fuel level indicator.

    • D. 

      Fuel pressure switch.

  • 117. 
    When setting the controls for operation of the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, what control must you set in the OPEN position?
    • A. 

      Compensator control valve.

    • B. 

      Return system bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Supply shut-off valve.

    • D. 

      System selector valve.

  • 118. 
    When filling and bleeding the MJ-2A-1 hydraulic test stand, the system should be pressurized and bled until
    • A. 

      A solid line of fluid can be seen in the sight tube.

    • B. 

      The sight tube is filled with bubbles.

    • C. 

      Sight tube fluid turns a milky color.

    • D. 

      Sight tube fluid is blue in color.

  • 119. 
    What is the most important logical step in troubleshooting a malfunction?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Isolation.

    • C. 

      Recognition.

    • D. 

      Verification.

  • 120. 
    When a line is to be disconnected you
    • A. 

      Ensure there is no pressure in the system.

    • B. 

      Replace it with the same type of line.

    • C. 

      Mark the location of the line.

    • D. 

      Seal all openings.

  • 121. 
    The volume of oil delivered from the variable displacement hydraulic pump to the fixed displacement hydrostatic motor of the MJ-1B bomblift determines the
    • A. 

      Direction of movement of the lift arms.

    • B. 

      Speed of movement of the lift arms.

    • C. 

      Direction of movement of the truck.

    • D. 

      Speed of movement of the truck.

  • 122. 
    What prevents overpressurization of the steering system of the MJ-1B bomblift?
    • A. 

      Bleed valve.

    • B. 

      Relief valve.

    • C. 

      Bypass valve.

    • D. 

      Pressure regulator.

  • 123. 
    What valve on the MJ-1B bomblift prevents collapsing of the cantilever lifting arms in the event of hydraulic pressure failure?
    • A. 

      Air bleed.

    • B. 

      Rotary by-pass.

    • C. 

      Counterbalance.

    • D. 

      Over pressurization.

  • 124. 
    As soon as the engine of the MJ-1B starts, you should check for sufficient
    • A. 

      Hydraulic pressure.

    • B. 

      Battery charging.

    • C. 

      Fuel pressure.

    • D. 

      Oil pressure.

  • 125. 
    During an operational check of the MJ-1B bomblift, all hydraulic components should exhibit
    • A. 

      A smooth movement with no binding or no jumping.

    • B. 

      Fast steady movements with minimal jumping.

    • C. 

      Some settling once the actuator is released.

    • D. 

      Small amounts of residue.

  • 126. 
    What is the purpose of the rear control shutoff valve on the MHU-83C/E bomblift?
    • A. 

      Isolates the brake valve.

    • B. 

      Isolates the counterbalance valve.

    • C. 

      Cuts off fluid through the hydrostatic drive.

    • D. 

      Cuts off fluid through the rear control valves.

  • 127. 
    What component on the MHU-83C/E bomblift supplies the brake valve and calipers with fluid?
    • A. 

      System pump.

    • B. 

      Steering pump.

    • C. 

      Transmission pump.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic system control valve.

  • 128. 
    When verifying the proper operation of the centering mechanism on the MHU-83C/E bomblift, the unit should
    • A. 

      Start in reverse.

    • B. 

      Move in neutral.

    • C. 

      Not start in reverse.

    • D. 

      Not move in neutral.

  • 129. 
    You check the backup hydraulic system on the MHU-83C/E bomblift by
    • A. 

      Closing the shutoff valve.

    • B. 

      Operating the hand pump.

    • C. 

      Closing the air bleed valve.

    • D. 

      Operating the system pump.

  • 130. 
    If there is a discrepancy between the workcards and TO, you should refer to
    • A. 

      The TO.

    • B. 

      The workcards.

    • C. 

      Your supervisor.

    • D. 

      Both the TO and workcards.

  • 131. 
    When troubleshooting the electrical system on the MJ-1B bomblift, what component will give you a visual indication that the alternator is charging?
    • A. 

      Ammeter.

    • B. 

      Voltmeter.

    • C. 

      Head light.

    • D. 

      Control panel light.

  • 132. 
    What is used to raise the mast on the FL-1D?
    • A. 

      Screw mechanism.

    • B. 

      Pneumatic controls.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic cylinder.

    • D. 

      Hand-operated cable.

  • 133. 
    What must you do prior to raising or lowering the mast from the vertical or horizontal position on the FL-1D?
    • A. 

      Secure all doors.

    • B. 

      Warm-up the engine.

    • C. 

      Set the master control switch to ON.

    • D. 

      Position the towbar to the left or right.

  • 134. 
    When a unit comes in with a write-up, how do you verify a malfunction exists?
    • A. 

      Operate the unit.

    • B. 

      Analyze the problem.

    • C. 

      Perform a service inspection.

    • D. 

      Give several probable causes.

  • 135. 
    Where can you find test procedures for a particular component?
    • A. 

      Unit manufacturer’s TO.

    • B. 

      Periodic inspection workcards.

    • C. 

      Service inspection workcards.

    • D. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown.

  • 136. 
    On the outriggers of the split deck maintenance platform, what prevents accidental loss of cylinder extension?
    • A. 

      Electric solenoids.

    • B. 

      Pressure switches.

    • C. 

      Pilot check valve.

    • D. 

      Limit switch.

  • 137. 
    What are the two lifting capacities of the davit (lift pulley) on the maintenance platform?
    • A. 

      150 lbs or 550 lbs.

    • B. 

      250 lbs or 500 lbs.

    • C. 

      550 lbs or 2000 lbs.

    • D. 

      1000 lbs or 2000 lbs.

  • 138. 
    What switch, when turned to the OFF position will prevent all control console functions except platform lowering and engine operation?
    • A. 

      Lift switch.

    • B. 

      Outriggers switch.

    • C. 

      Emergency switch.

    • D. 

      Mode selection switch.

  • 139. 
    When troubleshooting the split deck maintenance platform, how do you bypass the long scissors control cable and operate the control console while observing the test meter?
    • A. 

      Plug the control console directly into the hydraulic control module.

    • B. 

      Disconnect the control console from the hydraulic control module.

    • C. 

      Energize the malfunctioning system.

    • D. 

      Cut the scissors control cable.

  • 140. 
    While operating the split deck maintenance platform you realize the platform will not lower, the probable cause could be
    • A. 

      Corroded battery cables.

    • B. 

      A defective control cable.

    • C. 

      The main disconnect switch is ON.

    • D. 

      The engine switch is in RUN position.

  • 141. 
    What component provides manual speed adjustment on the AF/M32T-1 cabin leakage tester?
    • A. 

      Tachometer.

    • B. 

      Diesel engine.

    • C. 

      Throttle assembly.

    • D. 

      Fuel system relief valve.

  • 142. 
    If the air intake of the AF/M32T-1 cabin leakage tester was restricted, what effect would it have on operation?
    • A. 

      High blower output.

    • B. 

      Low blower output.

    • C. 

      High cabin pressure.

    • D. 

      Correct cabin pressure.

  • 143. 
    What is the reservoir fluid capacity and system pressure of the hydraulic pump on the B-6, 10-ton hydraulic tripod jack?
    • A. 

      2.1 gallons at 2250 psi.

    • B. 

      1.5 gallons at 2200 psi.

    • C. 

      1.1 gallons at 2235 psi.

    • D. 

      1.0 gallons at 1135 psi.

  • 144. 
    What component on the B-1 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform allows the work platform and steps to remain parallel to the base at any desired platform height?
    • A. 

      Base assembly.

    • B. 

      Upper platform.

    • C. 

      Stair support linkage.

    • D. 

      Hydraulic cylinder assembly.

  • 145. 
    What controls the speed of retraction of the hydraulic cylinder assembly on the B-1 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform?
    • A. 

      Handle on the bypass valve.

    • B. 

      Upper structure assembly.

    • C. 

      Flow control valve.

    • D. 

      Pump handle.

  • 146. 
    What type of mechanism does the B-4 adjustable aircraft maintenance platform utilize to raise and lower the platform?
    • A. 

      Screw.

    • B. 

      Scissor.

    • C. 

      Ratchet.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic.

  • 147. 
    What section of the towbar has a screw actuated fork assembly that is used to engage or disengage the aircraft nose gear?
    • A. 

      Head adapter assembly.

    • B. 

      Main tube assembly.

    • C. 

      Extension tubes.

    • D. 

      Lift actuator.

  • 148. 
    The purpose of the lift mechanism on the towbar is to
    • A. 

      Adjust the forks.

    • B. 

      Stabilize the main tube assembly.

    • C. 

      Raise and lower the wheel assemblies.

    • D. 

      Engage or disengage the aircraft nose gear.

  • 149. 
    What position would you put the valve handle in to precharge the supply tank of the PMU-29/E oil cart?
    • A. 

      BYPASS.

    • B. 

      OPEN.

    • C. 

      OFF.

    • D. 

      ON.

  • 150. 
    When servicing the hydraulic cart, what prevents large particles in the fluid from entering the reservoir?
    • A. 

      Line filter.

    • B. 

      Check valve.

    • C. 

      Mesh screen.

    • D. 

      Relief valve.

  • 151. 
    Within the universal jack tester control box, what is used to increase the strength of the signals to keep background noise to a minimum?
    • A. 

      Analog digital converter.

    • B. 

      Microprocessor.

    • C. 

      Amplifier.

    • D. 

      Filter.

  • 152. 
    To change electrical energy to mechanical energy is the purpose of a
    • A. 

      Generator

    • B. 

      Converter

    • C. 

      Inverter

    • D. 

      Motor

  • 153. 
    Electrical contact between the stationary and rotating parts of a motor is the function of the
    • A. 

      Field windings.

    • B. 

      Commutator.

    • C. 

      Bearings.

    • D. 

      Brushes.

  • 154. 
    Torque is defined as
    • A. 

      Wattage.

    • B. 

      Horsepower.

    • C. 

      Rotational force.

    • D. 

      Opposition to applied voltage.

  • 155. 
    In a series-wound direct current (DC) motor, speed is dependent on the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Torque.

    • C. 

      Armature.

    • D. 

      Field winding.

  • 156. 
    The relationship between slip and torque can best be described as more
    • A. 

      Torque causing more slip.

    • B. 

      Slip causing more torque.

    • C. 

      Torque causing less slip.

    • D. 

      Slip causing less torque.

  • 157. 
    The three-phase induction motor does not require
    • A. 

      Slip.

    • B. 

      A rotor.

    • C. 

      A stator.

    • D. 

      A starting device.

  • 158. 
    To reverse the direction of rotation of a three-phrase inductive motor, you must reverse
    • A. 

      All three phases.

    • B. 

      Any two power leads.

    • C. 

      A and B phases only.

    • D. 

      B and C phases only.

  • 159. 
    The stator windings of a synchronous motor are spaced
    • A. 

      20 degrees apart.

    • B. 

      30 degrees apart.

    • C. 

      90 degrees apart.

    • D. 

      120 degrees apart.

  • 160. 
    The rotation speed of a synchronous motor is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Torque.

    • C. 

      Input frequency.

    • D. 

      Armature current.

  • 161. 
    During an inspection of a direct current (DC) motor, check the brushes for
    • A. 

      Pitting.

    • B. 

      Seating.

    • C. 

      Coloration.

    • D. 

      Brittleness.

  • 162. 
    When you check the concentricity of a commutator or slip rings, look for
    • A. 

      Wear.

    • B. 

      Pitting.

    • C. 

      Roundness.

    • D. 

      Overheating.

  • 163. 
    When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Remedies.

    • C. 

      Symptoms.

    • D. 

      Probably causes.

  • 164. 
    Most troubleshooting on a motor can be done using a
    • A. 

      Megger.

    • B. 

      Growler.

    • C. 

      Multimeter.

    • D. 

      Clamp-on meter.

  • 165. 
    Perform an operational check of the unit
    • A. 

      At the last minute.

    • B. 

      With the defective part removed.

    • C. 

      Before final reassembly of the enclosure.

    • D. 

      As soon as you replace the defective part.

  • 166. 
    The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is
    • A. 

      Spray.

    • B. 

      Pintle.

    • C. 

      Pressure.

    • D. 

      Mechanical.

  • 167. 
    Aside from idle speed, the limiting speed governor through the use of flyweights and spring tension controls
    • A. 

      Load speed.

    • B. 

      Minimum speed.

    • C. 

      Maximum speed.

    • D. 

      Intermediate speed.

  • 168. 
    A lubricant performs which function when it deposites particles of dirt in the oil sump?
    • A. 

      Cooling.

    • B. 

      Sealing.

    • C. 

      Cleaning.

    • D. 

      Reducing friction.

  • 169. 
    What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?
    • A. 

      Radiator cap.

    • B. 

      Thermostat.

    • C. 

      Water pump.

    • D. 

      Radiator.

  • 170. 
    Which liquid cooling system component circulates the coolant?
    • A. 

      Vacuum valve.

    • B. 

      Water pump.

    • C. 

      Cooling fan.

    • D. 

      Radiator.

  • 171. 
    One of the impellers within a blower on a diesel engine is normally driven
    • A. 

      By the engine electrical system through a DC motor.

    • B. 

      By the engine exhaust gases flowing across the turbine wheel.

    • C. 

      From the engine crankshaft through a system of gears or a silent chain.

    • D. 

      Through a solid shaft connected between the blower and the transmission.

  • 172. 
    What must be accomplished to supercharge a diesel engine?
    • A. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are not open at the same time.

    • B. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are open at the same time.

    • C. 

      Advance exhaust valve opening time.

    • D. 

      Retard intake valve opening time.

  • 173. 
    The filtration stop protects the diesel engine fuel system from
    • A. 

      Blockage of airflow.

    • B. 

      Lube system malfunctions.

    • C. 

      Slipping belts on the blower.

    • D. 

      Abrasion by foreign particles.

  • 174. 
    The best step in preventing abnormal amounts of carbon moisture, and sludge buildup in a diesel engine, is to
    • A. 

      Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load.

    • B. 

      Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time.

    • C. 

      Drain moisture from fuel system periodically.

    • D. 

      Perform a preoperational check.

  • 175. 
    When performing a compression test, measuring pounds per square inch (psi), the maximum allowable deviation between cylinders is
    • A. 

      25 psi.

    • B. 

      50 psi.

    • C. 

      75 psi.

    • D. 

      100 psi.

  • 176. 
    If the drive shaft for the oil pump assembly in a gas turbine engine becomes sheared, what other component is rendered inoperative?
    • A. 

      Alternating (AC) generator.

    • B. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • C. 

      Starter motor.

    • D. 

      Cooling fan.

  • 177. 
    In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the 
    • A. 

      Cooling fan.

    • B. 

      Starter motor.

    • C. 

      Fuel pump and control unit.

    • D. 

      Multiple centrifugal switch assembly.

  • 178. 
    During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the
    • A. 

      Diffusers.

    • B. 

      Exducers.

    • C. 

      Impellers.

    • D. 

      Deswirl ring.

  • 179. 
    During operation of a turbine engine, fuel and air are mixed and ignited in the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Combustor can.

    • C. 

      Mixer assembly.

    • D. 

      Plenum chamber.

  • 180. 
    In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the
    • A. 

      Diffuser.

    • B. 

      Exhaust flange.

    • C. 

      Turbine wheel and exducer.

    • D. 

      Exhaust gas thermocouple.

  • 181. 
    The boost pump on the gas turbine engine provides fuel to the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • D. 

      Fuel air mixture valve.

  • 182. 
    Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a
    • A. 

      Flow check valve.

    • B. 

      Filter bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve.

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator.

  • 183. 
    Gas turbine compressor (GTC) operation with insufficient oil pressure is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Oil pressure solenoid.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • C. 

      Oil drain switch.

    • D. 

      Ignition coil.

  • 184. 
    During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Air-oil seals.

    • B. 

      Oil tank baffles.

    • C. 

      Exhaust vent line.

    • D. 

      Pressure relief valve.

  • 185. 
    If the gas turbine compressor (GTC) load control butterfly valve opens too slowly or too quickly, what is the most probable cause of the malfunction?
    • A. 

      Excessive exhaust gas temperature.

    • B. 

      Maladjusted rate adjustment screw.

    • C. 

      Ruptured actuator diaphragm.

    • D. 

      Defective relief valve.

  • 186. 
    In the turbine engine, rupture of the rate diaphragm is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Adjustment screw.

    • B. 

      Actuator regulator.

    • C. 

      Rate metering valve.

    • D. 

      Rate diaphragm return spring.

  • 187. 
    Prior to operating any aerospace ground equipment (AGE), you should perform
    • A. 

      A preoperational inspection.

    • B. 

      A serviceability check.

    • C. 

      A periodic inspection.

    • D. 

      An operational test.

  • 188. 
    During a preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for
    • A. 

      Leakage.

    • B. 

      Excess heat.

    • C. 

      Hairline cracks.

    • D. 

      Foreign objects.

  • 189. 
    Normal acceleration characteristics of the gas turbine compressor (GTC) include
    • A. 

      Sudden rumbling noises after 35 percent.

    • B. 

      A decrease in vibration after 35 percent.

    • C. 

      Smooth and quiet acceleration.

    • D. 

      Burping.

  • 190. 
    Before you load and after you unload the gas turbine compressor (GTC), allow the engine to operate unloaded to
    • A. 

      Decrease noise.

    • B. 

      Allow for flameouts.

    • C. 

      Reduce thermal stress.

    • D. 

      Allow for positioning of the service hose.

  • 191. 
    When you operate a unit to determine the validity of an entry on the maintenance record form, what step in effective troubleshooting are you performing?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Isolation.

    • C. 

      Recognition.

    • D. 

      Verification.

  • 192. 
    While troubleshooting the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if you discover there is no oil pressure and the oil filter is dirty, changing the oil filter will not correct the problem because the
    • A. 

      Filter bypass valve is stuck open.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure relief valve is stuck open.

    • C. 

      Externally mounted solenoid is stuck closed.

    • D. 

      Scavenge pump is not providing sufficient suction.

  • 193. 
    If no oil pressure is available from the main oil pump assembly on the gas turbine compressor (GTC), you should replace the
    • A. 

      Oil pump.

    • B. 

      Entire assembly.

    • C. 

      Flow check valve.

    • D. 

      Filter bypass relief valve.

  • 194. 
    Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?
    • A. 

      Excessive engine revolutions per minute (rpm).

    • B. 

      Excessive engine exhaust temperature.

    • C. 

      Oil that enters the airflow system.

    • D. 

      Fuel mixing with the airflow.

  • 195. 
    In the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if large amounts of oil are forced through the air-oil seals, the most probable cause is a defective
    • A. 

      Main oil pump.

    • B. 

      Scavenge pump.

    • C. 

      Oil tank vent line.

    • D. 

      Oil drain solenoid.

  • 196. 
    Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?
    • A. 

      Load valve.

    • B. 

      Hose relief valve.

    • C. 

      Rate adjustment screw.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic load thermostat.

  • 197. 
    Which three things are necessary to produce an electromotive force (EMF) mechanically?
    • A. 

      EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field.

    • B. 

      Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion.

    • C. 

      Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF), a conductor, and magnetic field.

  • 198. 
    To increase the output of a generator, you must increase the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Resistance of the conductor.

    • C. 

      Strength of the magnetic field.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF)

  • 199. 
    What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple direct current (DC) generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?
    • A. 

      Increased output and almost constant alternating current (AC).

    • B. 

      Increased output and almost constant DC.

    • C. 

      Decreased current and constant AC.

    • D. 

      Decreased current and constant DC.

  • 200. 
    The rotor of an alternating current (AC) generator consists of the slip rings and 
    • A. 

      Armature.

    • B. 

      Starter coil.

    • C. 

      Stator windings.

    • D. 

      Voltage regulator.

  • 201. 
    Control the output voltage of an alternating current (AC) generator is accomplished by varying the
    • A. 

      Speed of rotation.

    • B. 

      Size of the armature.

    • C. 

      Amount of field current.

    • D. 

      Size of the field windings.

  • 202. 
    In an alternating current (AC) generator, the output frequency is often more critical than the output
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Phase.

    • C. 

      Current.

    • D. 

      Voltage.

  • 203. 
    In a three-phase alternating current (AC) generator, direct current (DC) is applied to the field windings through the brushes and
    • A. 

      Diodes.

    • B. 

      Rectifier.

    • C. 

      Slip rings.

    • D. 

      Commutator.

  • 204. 
    Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Single-phase generator.

    • C. 

      Two-phase generator.

    • D. 

      Three-phase generator.

  • 205. 
    The self-excited alternating current (AC) generator provides its own field current from a built-in
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Selenium rectifier.

    • C. 

      Battery source.

    • D. 

      Regulator.

  • 206. 
    When a load is applied to a self-excited alternating current (AC) generator, exciter field resistance will
    • A. 

      Decrease current flow.

    • B. 

      Remain the same.

    • C. 

      Increase.

    • D. 

      Decrease.

  • 207. 
    The weak points of the self-excited alternating current (AC) generator are the
    • A. 

      Commutator, brushes, and slip rings.

    • B. 

      Commutator, rotor, and slip rings.

    • C. 

      Brushes, commutator, and rotor.

    • D. 

      Brushes, slip rings, and rotor.

  • 208. 
    In the brushless alternating current (AC) generator, what provides necessary excitation current?
    • A. 

      Main generator.

    • B. 

      Exciter generator.

    • C. 

      Armature windings.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

  • 209. 
    What type of loads can be applied to a generator under test by the A/M24T-8 electrical test set?
    • A. 

      Inductive and resistive.

    • B. 

      Reactive and resistive.

    • C. 

      Armature windings.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

  • 210. 
    The A/M24T-8 electrical test est is capable of testing
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator sets only.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) power supplies only.

    • C. 

      Direct current (DC) power supplies only.

    • D. 

      AC and DC power supplies.

  • 211. 
    What circuit on the A/M24T-8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?
    • A. 

      Special checks.

    • B. 

      Impedance load.

    • C. 

      Aircraft servicing.

    • D. 

      Jet engine servicing.

  • 212. 
    What occurs when the load selection switches on the A/M24T-8 load bank are closed?
    • A. 

      Load elements are connected to neutral.

    • B. 

      Blower motors begin operation.

    • C. 

      Panel lights illuminate.

    • D. 

      Link boards rearrange.

  • 213. 
    Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should
    • A. 

      Make sure input power cables are energized.

    • B. 

      Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position.

    • C. 

      Close the direct current (DC) section cooling fan doors.

    • D. 

      Place circuit breaker three-phase shock load to ON position.

  • 214. 
    When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlined in the
    • A. 

      Generator technical order (TO) and career development course (CDC).

    • B. 

      Load bank TO, generator TO, and CDC.

    • C. 

      Generator TO and load bank TO.

    • D. 

      Load bank TO and CDC.

  • 215. 
    When using an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, when should the frequency and voltage selector switch be positioned to match input power?
    • A. 

      While applying power to the test set.

    • B. 

      Before applying power to the test set.

    • C. 

      After the ABC indicator is illuminated.

    • D. 

      After the 28 volts direct current (VDC) control signal indicator illuminates.

  • 216. 
    What maximum alternating current (AC) resistive load can the portable load bank apply to a generator?
    • A. 

      65 kilowatts.

    • B. 

      70 kilowatts.

    • C. 

      75 kilowatts.

    • D. 

      80 kilowatts.

  • 217. 
    When performing a phase-one periodic inspection (PE), you are going to do a
    • A. 

      Detailed annual inspection.

    • B. 

      Relatively quick equipment condition check.

    • C. 

      Special inspection accomplishing the lubrication requirements only.

    • D. 

      Streamline inspection to ensure a unit is operational and serviceable.

  • 218. 
    The resistive elements on the A/M24T-8 test set are best cleaned by
    • A. 

      Blowing off with 5 pounds per square inch (PSI) uncontaminated air.

    • B. 

      Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air.

    • C. 

      Scrubbing with soap and water.

    • D. 

      Steam cleaning.

  • 219. 
    On an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?
    • A. 

      Shorted fuses.

    • B. 

      Defective wind switch.

    • C. 

      CB1 stuck in the ON position.

    • D. 

      Defective power supply rectifier.

  • 220. 
    The governor of the A/M32T-60A generator set is controlled directly by the
    • A. 

      Engine speed.

    • B. 

      Trim control motor.

    • C. 

      Static frequency sensor.

    • D. 

      Manual trim adjustment.

  • 221. 
    What is used as a reference for controlling A/M32A-60A engine speed?
    • A. 

      Fuel pressure.

    • B. 

      Control air pressure.

    • C. 

      Governor flyweight pressure.

    • D. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator output frequency.

  • 222. 
    If the oil pressure switch opens during operation of a A/M32A-60A, during which period does it stop operating?
    • A. 

      From 0 to 35 percent.

    • B. 

      From 35 to 95 percent.

    • C. 

      From 95 to 100 percent.

    • D. 

      Anytime during operation.

  • 223. 
    On the A/M32A-60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?
    • A. 

      1 and 2.

    • B. 

      2 and 3.

    • C. 

      1 and 3.

    • D. 

      2 and 4.

  • 224. 
    Power for starting the A/M32A-60A is provided by
    • A. 

      Batteries.

    • B. 

      Generator.

    • C. 

      Start switch.

    • D. 

      Master switch.

  • 225. 
    In the event of an overspeed condition, what component of the A/M32A-60A generator electrical system stops the engine?
    • A. 

      Overspeed actuator.

    • B. 

      Fuel shutoff switch.

    • C. 

      35 percent centrifugal switch.

    • D. 

      110 percent centrifugal switch.

  • 226. 
    The A/M32A-60A generator set cannot be loaded either electrically or pneumatically until after the
    • A. 

      35 percent switch has closed.

    • B. 

      95 percent switch has closed.

    • C. 

      110 percent switch has opened.

    • D. 

      BLEED AIR ON switch is closed.

  • 227. 
    The component of the A/M32A-60A that opens and closes the fuel transfer line is the fuel
    • A. 

      Level switch, S20

    • B. 

      Solenoid valve, L1

    • C. 

      Level control relay, K26

    • D. 

      Level solenoid valve, L4

  • 228. 
    After the A/M32A-60A generator set has shut itself down due to low fuel, the fuel level relay, K4 must be reset by
    • A. 

      Turning the start switch OFF, the ON.

    • B. 

      Turning the master switch OFF, then ON.

    • C. 

      De-energizing the low-level lockout relay.

    • D. 

      De-energizing the low-level warning switch.

  • 229. 
    What does the alternating current (AC) voltage regulator of the A/M32A-60A use to determine the amount of adjustment the generator output needs?
    • A. 

      AC ammeter.

    • B. 

      AC voltmeter.

    • C. 

      Generator output current.

    • D. 

      Generator output voltage.

  • 230. 
    When is 28 volts direct current (VDC) applied to E pin of the alternating current (AC) cable?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      At all times.

    • C. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the GEN position.

    • D. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the ACFT position.

  • 231. 
    On the A/M32A-60A generator, what stops battery charging when the batteries are fully charged and prevents discharge when the unit is shut down?
    • A. 

      Battery charging resistor.

    • B. 

      Battery charging diode.

    • C. 

      Voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Charging shunt.

  • 232. 
    On the A/M32A-60A generator, when the direct current (DC) contactor is in the closed position, the DC ammeter indicates
    • A. 

      Power through the DC power receptacle.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) load.

    • C. 

      Battery charging current.

    • D. 

      Nothing.

  • 233. 
    How often are service inspections required?
    • A. 

      After equipment is placed on the ready line.

    • B. 

      After maintenance.

    • C. 

      Once a week.

    • D. 

      Once a day.

  • 234. 
    After the A/M32A-60A generator set has reached 95 percent of governed speed, the operator should
    • A. 

      Reset the alternating current (AC) system.

    • B. 

      Connect the power cables.

    • C. 

      Adjust the governed speed.

    • D. 

      Connect the bleed air duct.

  • 235. 
    When troubleshooting, the actual location of a terminal connection on the unit can best be found by using
    • A. 

      The wiring diagram.

    • B. 

      Your past experience.

    • C. 

      The schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      The reference designation.

  • 236. 
    To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the
    • A. 

      Flow chart.

    • B. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • C. 

      Schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation list.

  • 237. 
    What component of the A/M32A-86D energizes to send power to the fuel gauge during operation?
    • A. 

      Hourmeter, M4.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch, S46.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure switch, S53.

    • D. 

      Fuel oil pressure switch, S48.

  • 238. 
    What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A-86D?
    • A. 

      Protects the generator electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • B. 

      Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • C. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator.

    • D. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the engine.

  • 239. 
    How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32-86D before letting it cool?
    • A. 

      60 seconds.

    • B. 

      30 seconds.

    • C. 

      20 seconds.

    • D. 

      10 seconds.

  • 240. 
    When troubleshooting any electrical system, you can locate a starting point by first finding the
    • A. 

      Common ground bus.

    • B. 

      Main circuit breaker.

    • C. 

      External power source.

    • D. 

      Last known source of power.

  • 241. 
    What position must the alarm switch on the EPU-6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      ACTIVATE.

    • D. 

      INACTIVE.

  • 242. 
    What indicator on the EPU-6/E frequency converter indicates an undervoltage condition?
    • A. 

      Overvoltage.

    • B. 

      Out-of-phase.

    • C. 

      Undervoltage.

    • D. 

      Fault.

  • 243. 
    What component on the EPU-6/E frequency converter controls the timing and firing of the silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Analog board.

    • B. 

      Control transformer.

    • C. 

      SCR voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Phase sequence transformer.

  • 244. 
    Before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the
    • A. 

      Air inlets for blockage.

    • B. 

      Wiring for secure mounting.

    • C. 

      Maintenance panels for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Interior air vents for secure mounting.

  • 245. 
    What problem is indicated by a flashing red over/undervoltage indicator light on the EPU-6/E frequency converter?
    • A. 

      Out-of-phase relationship.

    • B. 

      Output overvoltage.

    • C. 

      Loss-of-input phase.

    • D. 

      Input undervoltage.

  • 246. 
    What printed circuit (PC) card controls the cold-starting air on the B809A generator set?
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC).

    • B. 

      Annunciator.

    • C. 

      Regulator.

    • D. 

      Engine.

  • 247. 
    What signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?
    • A. 

      200 volts alternating current (VAC).

    • B. 

      110 volts direct current (VDC).

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC.

    • D. 

      115 VAC.

  • 248. 
    What condition is sensed by the direct current (DC) card on the B809A generator set?
    • A. 

      Overtemperature.

    • B. 

      Under frequency.

    • C. 

      Overfrequency.

    • D. 

      Low fuel.

  • 249. 
    During high-voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?
    • A. 

      High sense relay (HSR) energizes.

    • B. 

      Interlock (INT) relay energizes.

    • C. 

      INT relay deenergizes.

    • D. 

      HSR deenergizes.

  • 250. 
    If you have a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Connect TB4-11 to 14 VDC power source.

    • B. 

      Check the Field Transformer.

    • C. 

      Field flash the generator.

    • D. 

      Check the fault display.

  • 251. 
    Every atom must contain what types of particles?
    • A. 

      Electrons and protons.

    • B. 

      Electrons and neutrons.

    • C. 

      Protons and neutrons.

    • D. 

      Electrons, protons, and neutrons.

  • 252. 
    An atom with eight electrons in its outermost shell is said to be
    • A. 

      Free.

    • B. 

      Stable.

    • C. 

      Valence.

    • D. 

      Ionized.

  • 253. 
    How many valence electrons are needed to make a good conductor?
    • A. 

      3.

    • B. 

      4.

    • C. 

      5.

    • D. 

      6.

  • 254. 
    "Dielectric" is the term used for
    • A. 

      Conductors.

    • B. 

      Insulators.

    • C. 

      Doped atoms.

    • D. 

      Semi-conductors.

  • 255. 
    "The flow or drift of electrons through a conductor" in the same direction at the same time is
    • A. 

      Conductivity.

    • B. 

      Voltage.

    • C. 

      Current.

    • D. 

      Valence.

  • 256. 
    The potential difference between two points in a circuit that exerts a force on free electrons is called
    • A. 

      Conductivity.

    • B. 

      Voltage.

    • C. 

      Current.

    • D. 

      Valence.

  • 257. 
    What is used to control current flow in a circuit?
    • A. 

      Voltage.

    • B. 

      Coulombs.

    • C. 

      Resistance.

    • D. 

      Conductivity.

  • 258. 
    The relationship of voltage, current, and resistance is expressed through
    • A. 

      E, I, and C.

    • B. 

      Power formulas.

    • C. 

      Conductance.

    • D. 

      Ohm's Law.

  • 259. 
    Total current in a series circuit is equal to the
    • A. 

      Current through one component.

    • B. 

      Sum of the current through each component.

    • C. 

      Reciprocal of the current through on component.

    • D. 

      Reciprocal of the sum of the currents through each component.

  • 260. 
    What is the wattage of a circuit with 28 volts applied and a total resistance of .2 ohms?
    • A. 

      .14 watts (w)

    • B. 

      .14 kilowatts (kw)

    • C. 

      3.92 w.

    • D. 

      3.92 kw.

  • 261. 
    In a parallel circuit, the total voltage is equal to the
    • A. 

      Sum of the voltages across each branch.

    • B. 

      Voltage across each resistor.

    • C. 

      Voltage across each branch.

    • D. 

      The reciprocal of the voltage across the resistances.

  • 262. 
    Source current in a parallel circuit will be divided according to branch
    • A. 

      Voltage.

    • B. 

      Powers.

    • C. 

      Lengths.

    • D. 

      Resistances.

  • 263. 
    The area around a magnet where its influence can be felt is the definition of the
    • A. 

      Saturation principle.

    • B. 

      Magnetic theory.

    • C. 

      Magnetic field.

    • D. 

      Law of attraction and repulsion.

  • 264. 
    "The ability of a material to pass lines of force" is a definition of
    • A. 

      Permeability.

    • B. 

      Reluctance.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetism.

    • D. 

      Retentivity.

  • 265. 
    The magnetism that remains after the magnetizing force has been removed is known as
    • A. 

      Electromagnetism.

    • B. 

      Molecular magnetism.

    • C. 

      Permeability.

    • D. 

      Residual magnetism.

  • 266. 
    The magnetic field of an electromagnet can be varied by changing the
    • A. 

      Type of core.

    • B. 

      Number of turns in the coil.

    • C. 

      Amount of current in the coil.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 267. 
    The electromechanical generation of a voltage requires a magnetic field, relative motion, and
    • A. 

      A complete circuit.

    • B. 

      A conductor.

    • C. 

      An insulator.

    • D. 

      A load.

  • 268. 
    The principle behind all electromechanical generation is
    • A. 

      Conduction.

    • B. 

      Commutation.

    • C. 

      Rectification.

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic induction.

  • 269. 
    The function of the commutator in a DC generator is to
    • A. 

      Complete the circuit to the load.

    • B. 

      Induce DC into the external circuit.

    • C. 

      Rectify the input.

    • D. 

      Change AC voltage to DC voltage.

  • 270. 
    Because an inductor stores energy and then returns it to the circuit, it is called a
    • A. 

      Resistive device.

    • B. 

      Reactive device.

    • C. 

      Retentive device.

    • D. 

      Retroactive device.

  • 271. 
    An inductor stores energy in the form of
    • A. 

      Heat.

    • B. 

      Resistance.

    • C. 

      A magnetic field.

    • D. 

      An electrostatic field.

  • 272. 
    The process by which a current change in one coil produces a voltage in another coil is called
    • A. 

      Inductance.

    • B. 

      Self-induction.

    • C. 

      Mutual induction.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 273. 
    A transformer will change all of the following except
    • A. 

      Power.

    • B. 

      Current.

    • C. 

      Voltage.

    • D. 

      Resistance.

  • 274. 
    Normally, the winding of a transformer that is connected to a power source is known as the 
    • A. 

      Field winding.

    • B. 

      Primary winding.

    • C. 

      Current winding.

    • D. 

      Secondary winding.

  • 275. 
    What kind of turns of wire is found in the secondary windings of a step up transformer?
    • A. 

      Equal.

    • B. 

      Less.

    • C. 

      More.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 276. 
    A relay is an electrically operated
    • A. 

      Meter.

    • B. 

      Motor.

    • C. 

      Switch.

    • D. 

      Safety device.

  • 277. 
    A relay that, once energized, requires a second coil to be energized before the contacts will return to their original positions is called
    • A. 

      Locking relay.

    • B. 

      Latching relay.

    • C. 

      Timing relay.

    • D. 

      Tripping relay.

  • 278. 
    A capacitor stores energy in the form of
    • A. 

      Heat.

    • B. 

      Resistance.

    • C. 

      A magnetic field.

    • D. 

      An electrostatic field.

  • 279. 
    In a capacitor, the dielectric is the
    • A. 

      Positive lead.

    • B. 

      Conductor.

    • C. 

      Insulator.

    • D. 

      Outer case.

  • 280. 
    Opposition of a capacitor to AC is called
    • A. 

      Inductive reactance.

    • B. 

      Impedance.

    • C. 

      Capacitive reactance.

    • D. 

      Capacitance.

  • 281. 
    The factors which determine the time required to charge a capacitor are the capacitance and the
    • A. 

      Applied voltage.

    • B. 

      Circuit current.

    • C. 

      Amount of resistance.

    • D. 

      Type of dielectric.

  • 282. 
    The anode of a diode is constructed of
    • A. 

      Neutral material.

    • B. 

      Biased material.

    • C. 

      Positive material.

    • D. 

      Negative material.

  • 283. 
    Expanding or contracting the depletion region of a diode is called
    • A. 

      Basing.

    • B. 

      Gating.

    • C. 

      Spiking.

    • D. 

      Biasing.

  • 284. 
    A diode placed in a circuit in reverse bias is being used as
    • A. 

      A spike protector.

    • B. 

      An amplifier.

    • C. 

      A regulator.

    • D. 

      A rectifier.

  • 285. 
    A zener will conduct in reverse bias
    • A. 

      For a second or two at a time.

    • B. 

      Until gate potential has been reached.

    • C. 

      Once the avalanche point has bene reached.

    • D. 

      Until the breakdown point has been reached.

  • 286. 
    A zener being used as a regulator must have a resistor placed in the circuit in
    • A. 

      Series.

    • B. 

      Parallel.

    • C. 

      Reverse bias.

    • D. 

      Series-parallel.

  • 287. 
    What is the approximate operating voltage of a LED?
    • A. 

      .5 volts.

    • B. 

      .1 volt.

    • C. 

      1.6 volts.

    • D. 

      2.4 volts.

  • 288. 
    The SCR has how many PN junctions?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 289. 
    The amount of current required to gate an SCR is called
    • A. 

      Forward breakover voltage.

    • B. 

      Holding current.

    • C. 

      Peak voltage.

    • D. 

      Gate current.

  • 290. 
    In order for an SCR to be turned off
    • A. 

      The forward breakover voltage must exceed the holding voltage.

    • B. 

      The current must drop below the holding current.

    • C. 

      The negative amp switch must activate.

    • D. 

      The negative volt switch must activate.

  • 291. 
    The best method of troubleshooting is the
    • A. 

      Systematic method.

    • B. 

      Instantaneous method.

    • C. 

      Hit-and-miss method.

    • D. 

      Trial-and-error method.

  • 292. 
    Which troubleshooting step is done by knowing proper equipment operation?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Recognition.

    • C. 

      Repair and check.

    • D. 

      Elimination and isolation.

  • 293. 
    During which troubleshooting step do you try to determine which system could cause the malfunction?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Verification.

    • C. 

      Recognition.

    • D. 

      Elimination and isolation.

  • 294. 
    During which troubleshooting step do your first use the schematic diagram?
    • A. 

      Recognition.

    • B. 

      Verification.

    • C. 

      Analysis.

    • D. 

      Isolation.

  • 295. 
    Which troubleshooting aid is designed to aid you if you see an unfamiliar symbol?
    • A. 

      Zones.

    • B. 

      Schematic.

    • C. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 296. 
    Which troubleshooting aid is designed to aid you in finding components in a diagram?
    • A. 

      Zones.

    • B. 

      Schematic.

    • C. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation index.

  • 297. 
    When used in a series circuit to measure voltage, how is a multimeter connected in the circuit?
    • A. 

      In series.

    • B. 

      To ground.

    • C. 

      In parallel.

    • D. 

      In series-parallel.

  • 298. 
    To set a value to the height of the oscilloscope grid markings, you adjust the
    • A. 

      Focus.

    • B. 

      Pitch control.

    • C. 

      Voltage selector.

    • D. 

      Time sweep selector.

  • 299. 
    To ensure accuracy of an oscilloscope when preparing for operation you should always,
    • A. 

      Zero the display.

    • B. 

      Center the display.

    • C. 

      Identify the cal point and adjust to zero.

    • D. 

      Identify the cal point and calibrate the display.

  • 300. 
    When you are testing a transformer, an open coil reading on the 8025A multimeter will be indicated by
    • A. 

      A beep.

    • B. 

      An extending analog bar graph.

    • C. 

      OL.

    • D. 

      0 ohms.

  • 301. 
    Which could be the indication from the 8025A multimeter when you are checking a serviceable capacitor?
    • A. 

      A beep.

    • B. 

      An extending analog bar graph.

    • C. 

      OL.

    • D. 

      0 ohms.

  • 302. 
    When checking a FET, you must check the diode junction and the continuity between the
    • A. 

      Gate and source.

    • B. 

      Source and drain.

    • C. 

      Gate and substrate.

    • D. 

      Substrate and drain.

  • 303. 
    How can you identify an electrostatic sensitive device?
    • A. 

      The package will have special coloring as specified in local directives.

    • B. 

      The package will have a special control number as specified in local directives.

    • C. 

      It will be marked with the MIL-STD-129 symbol or a caution marking.

    • D. 

      It will be marked with the MIL-SPC-235 symbol or a warning marking.

  • 304. 
    A heat sink is used in soldering to
    • A. 

      Prevent heat from damaging the component being soldered.

    • B. 

      Prevent heat from damaging other components in the circuit.

    • C. 

      Apply heat to the component being soldered.

    • D. 

      Apply heat to other components in the circuit.

  • 305. 
    A pitted or worn soldering iron tip should be redressed with a flat, fine, single-cut file and should be
    • A. 

      Tinned.

    • B. 

      Clean of solder.

    • C. 

      Replaced.

    • D. 

      Checked for length.

  • 306. 
    The first step in soldering a conductor is to
    • A. 

      Wick the wire.

    • B. 

      Removed the insulation.

    • C. 

      Apply heat to the connection.

    • D. 

      Apply solder to the connection.

  • 307. 
    When soldering flat perforated terminals, the conductor is connected to the terminal using a
    • A. 

      90 degree wrap.

    • B. 

      180 degree wrap.

    • C. 

      270 degree wrap.

    • D. 

      360 degree wrap.

  • 308. 
    A wire is inserted into a solder cup until the
    • A. 

      Wire touches the bottom.

    • B. 

      Wire clears the top of the cup.

    • C. 

      Insulation touches the cup.

    • D. 

      Wire protrudes from the weep hole.

  • 309. 
    The best method of repairing a lifted circuit track on a PCB is to
    • A. 

      Bond it.

    • B. 

      Glue it.

    • C. 

      Replace it with bare wire.

    • D. 

      Replace it with insulated wire.

  • 310. 
    On which type of metal can you leave corrosion as long as the component is operational?
    • A. 

      Steel.

    • B. 

      Copper.

    • C. 

      Aluminum.

    • D. 

      None, all corrosion must be removed.

  • 311. 
    When should you use starting aids to start the New Generation Heater?
    • A. 

      During the engine start up with the ignition switch in PREHEAT position.

    • B. 

      Never, as it will result in serious engine damage.

    • C. 

      When the temperature gauge reads COOL.

    • D. 

      When ambient temperature is below 32 degrees F.

  • 312. 
    What component on the MA-3D air conditioner shuts off the compressor when the suction pressure drops below 5 psi?
    • A. 

      Low pressure cutout.

    • B. 

      High pressure cutout.

    • C. 

      Temperature controller.

    • D. 

      Temperature control switch.

  • 313. 
    The proper level of the gauge of the hydraulic reservoir should be
    • A. 

      2/3 to 3/4 inch from the bottom of the glass.

    • B. 

      2/3 to 3/4 inch from the top of the glass.

    • C. 

      1/2 inch from the bottom of the glass.

    • D. 

      1/2 inch from the top of the glass.

  • 314. 
    How do you check the shift lock lever for proper operation?
    • A. 

      An audible click will be heard and the locking lever will move downward.

    • B. 

      The unit will not move in reverse and an audible click will be heard.

    • C. 

      Locking lever will move upward and an audible click will be heard.

    • D. 

      The unit starts and moves in both directions.

  • 315. 
    The engine safety circuits on the FL-1D shutdown the engine by
    • A. 

      Opening the fuel solenoid.

    • B. 

      Closing the engine intake air.

    • C. 

      Shutting off fuel to the engine.

    • D. 

      Tripping the protective circuit breaker.

  • 316. 
    The component most likely to be damaged by poorly filtered fuel is the 
    • A. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • B. 

      Transfer pump.

    • C. 

      Fuel lines.

    • D. 

      Injectors.

  • 317. 
    How many junctions are checked to test the serviceability of a transistor?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.