Z4b051 CDC Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Sustaining the performance, health and fitness of every Airman is best described as a part of the Air Force Medical Service’s

    • Values.
    • Vision.
    • Mission.
    • Strategy.
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About This Quiz

This Z4B051 CDC Volume 1 quiz assesses knowledge on the mission and operational effectiveness of the Air Force Medical Service. It covers key aspects such as health service support, casualty prevention, and the Team Aerospace concept, crucial for enhancing commander decisions and overall Airman health.

Z4b051 CDC Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Matter has three basic forms: solid, liquid and gas. Its physical state is dependent upon the

    • Temperature and atmospheric pressure.

    • Atmospheric pressure only.

    • Mass and weight.

    • Mass only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Temperature and atmospheric pressure.
    Explanation
    The physical state of matter, whether it is solid, liquid, or gas, is determined by the temperature and atmospheric pressure. Temperature affects the kinetic energy of particles, determining whether they are vibrating (solid), moving freely (liquid), or moving rapidly (gas). Atmospheric pressure, on the other hand, affects the intermolecular forces between particles, which can cause matter to condense or evaporate. Therefore, both temperature and atmospheric pressure play crucial roles in determining the physical state of matter.

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  • 3. 

    Which physical states of matter cannot be compressed?

    • Solid and liquid.

    • Liquid and gas.

    • Liquid only.

    • Gas only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid only.
    Explanation
    Liquids cannot be compressed because their particles are already close together and have very little empty space between them. This means that there is no room for the particles to move closer together and further reduce the volume of the liquid. In contrast, gases can be compressed because their particles are far apart and have a lot of empty space between them, allowing for compression and reduction in volume. Solids also cannot be compressed significantly because their particles are tightly packed together in a fixed arrangement.

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  • 4. 

    Which example best describes a solution?  

    • Container of methane gas and carbon dioxide gas.

    • Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

    • Beaker of sodium hydroxide.

    • Container of argon gas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.
    Explanation
    The example of ethyl alcohol dissolved in water best describes a solution. A solution is a homogeneous mixture where one or more substances (solutes) are dissolved in another substance (solvent) at a molecular level. In this case, ethyl alcohol is the solute and water is the solvent. When ethyl alcohol is mixed with water, the molecules of both substances interact and spread evenly throughout the mixture, creating a solution.

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  • 5. 

    Where are the noble gases located within the periodic table?

    • Far right column.

    • Far left column.

    • Bottom row.

    • Top row.

    Correct Answer
    A. Far right column.
    Explanation
    The noble gases are located in the far right column of the periodic table. This column is also known as Group 18 or the helium group. The noble gases include helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon. They are called noble gases because they have very low reactivity and rarely form compounds with other elements. This is due to their full outer electron shells, which makes them stable and less likely to gain or lose electrons.

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  • 6. 

    In what electron shell does most of the reaction activity take place within an atom?

    • Closest to the nucleus.

    • Outermost.

    • Innermost.

    • Middle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Outermost.
    Explanation
    Most of the reaction activity takes place in the outermost electron shell of an atom. This is because the outermost shell, also known as the valence shell, contains the valence electrons which are involved in chemical reactions. These valence electrons are more easily accessible to other atoms, allowing them to form bonds and participate in chemical reactions. The innermost shells, on the other hand, are closer to the nucleus and are typically filled with core electrons that are less likely to participate in reactions.

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  • 7. 

    Elements form compounds in an attempt to

    • Become more stable.

    • Disperse energy.

    • Become inert.

    • Gain energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Become more stable.
    Explanation
    Elements form compounds in an attempt to become more stable. When elements react with each other to form compounds, they do so in order to achieve a more stable electronic configuration. This is often achieved by either gaining or losing electrons to achieve a full outer electron shell, which is the most stable configuration. By forming compounds, elements are able to lower their energy levels and increase their stability.

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  • 8. 

    An anion has a negative charge when the

    • Atom has more neutrons than protons.

    • Atom has fewer neutrons than protons.

    • Atom has more protons than electrons.

    • Atom has fewer protons than electrons.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atom has fewer protons than electrons.
    Explanation
    An anion has a negative charge because it has gained one or more electrons, resulting in an excess of negatively charged particles (electrons) compared to positively charged particles (protons). This means that the atom has fewer protons than electrons, leading to a net negative charge.

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  • 9. 

    Unsatured aliphatic hydrocarbons as opposed to saturated compounds are

    • More chemically reactive.

    • Less chemically reactive.

    • Do not react at all.

    • React equally.

    Correct Answer
    A. More chemically reactive.
    Explanation
    Unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbons have double or triple bonds between carbon atoms, which makes them more chemically reactive compared to saturated compounds that only have single bonds. The presence of multiple bonds allows unsaturated hydrocarbons to undergo addition reactions, where new atoms or groups are added to the molecule. This reactivity is due to the presence of the pi bonds in unsaturated hydrocarbons, which are more easily broken and can participate in chemical reactions. In contrast, saturated compounds lack these double or triple bonds and are therefore less reactive.

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  • 10. 

    If 50 grams of sodium chloride is dissolved in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?

    • .1 percent.

    • 10 percent.

    • 25 percent.

    • 50 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 percent.
    Explanation
    The percent by mass can be calculated by dividing the mass of the solute (sodium chloride) by the mass of the solution (sodium chloride + water) and multiplying by 100. In this case, the mass of the solute is 50 grams and the mass of the solution is 500 grams. Therefore, the percent by mass is (50/500) * 100 = 10 percent.

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  • 11. 

    What type of solution contains large amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base and as a result resists change in its ph?

    • Buffered.

    • Alkaline.

    • Neutral.

    • Acidic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Buffered.
    Explanation
    A buffered solution contains large amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base. This allows it to resist changes in its pH when small amounts of acid or base are added. The weak acid can neutralize any added base, while the conjugate base can neutralize any added acid, maintaining the pH of the solution relatively constant. Therefore, a buffered solution is the correct answer because it resists changes in pH.

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  • 12. 

    Which statement best describes the life cycle of a cell?

    • The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.

    • The division of the nuclear material and of the cytoplasm.

    • The determining factor in how the cell will function.

    • The period between two successive cell divisions.

    Correct Answer
    A. The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The growth of a cell until it divides and becomes two new cells." This statement describes the process of cell division, where a cell grows and replicates its genetic material before splitting into two daughter cells. This life cycle is known as the cell cycle and includes phases such as interphase (cell growth and DNA replication) and mitosis (cell division).

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  • 13. 

    Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye which kills the cells there. Which best describes a potential effect of overexposure?

    • Sunburned eyeballs.

    • Collapsed sclera.

    • Burst retina.

    • Cataracts

    Correct Answer
    A. Sunburned eyeballs.
    Explanation
    Overexposure to ultraviolet radiation can cause a photochemical reaction in the outer layer of the eye, leading to damage and cell death. This can result in a condition known as "sunburned eyeballs," where the eyes become red, irritated, and sensitive to light. Collapsed sclera, burst retina, and cataracts are not directly related to overexposure to ultraviolet radiation.

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  • 14. 

    The main function of bones within the human body is to provide

    • A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.

    • Adjustments which contribute to joint stability.

    • And maintain homeostasis.

    • Movement and support.

    Correct Answer
    A. A framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.
    Explanation
    Bones in the human body serve as a framework that provides support and protection to the soft organs. They create a structure that helps maintain the shape and form of the body, ensuring that the organs are held in place and protected from external forces. Additionally, bones also play a crucial role in protecting vital organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs from injury or damage. Therefore, the main function of bones is to provide a framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.

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  • 15. 

    The majority of joints in the adult human body are  

    • Slightly movable.

    • Freely movable.

    • Immovable.

    • Rigid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Freely movable.
    Explanation
    The majority of joints in the adult human body are freely movable. This means that they allow for a wide range of movement and flexibility. Freely movable joints are also known as synovial joints, which are characterized by the presence of a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid. Examples of freely movable joints include the shoulder, hip, knee, and elbow joints. These joints are essential for performing activities such as walking, running, and lifting objects.

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  • 16. 

    What is the primary function of mature lymphocytes within the lymphatic system?

    • Transmission of nerve impulses.

    • Defense against disease.

    • Hormone production.

    • Homeostasis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense against disease.
    Explanation
    The primary function of mature lymphocytes within the lymphatic system is defense against disease. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancer cells. They produce antibodies and coordinate immune responses to protect the body from infections and diseases. Therefore, defense against disease is the main role of mature lymphocytes in the lymphatic system.

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  • 17. 

    Which condition best illustrates an exaggerated immune response?

    • Hearing loss.

    • Cervical strain.

    • Hypersensitivity.

    • Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypersensitivity.
    Explanation
    Hypersensitivity refers to an exaggerated immune response to a substance that is normally harmless. It occurs when the immune system overreacts and produces an excessive response, leading to symptoms such as inflammation, itching, and difficulty breathing. Hearing loss, cervical strain, and carpal tunnel syndrome are not related to immune responses, making hypersensitivity the most appropriate answer.

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  • 18. 

     What term describes the probability of a substance to cause harm under specific conditions?

    • Threshold.

    • Half-life.

    • Target.

    • Risk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk.
    Explanation
    The term that describes the probability of a substance to cause harm under specific conditions is "risk." Risk refers to the likelihood or probability of an adverse event or harm occurring due to exposure to a substance. It takes into account factors such as the toxicity of the substance and the level of exposure, and helps in assessing and managing potential dangers.

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  • 19. 

    If an organism displays more adverse effects to the same dosage of a chemical over time, then the organism has become

    • Sensitized.

    • Resistant.

    • Tolerant.

    • Chronic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitized.
    Explanation
    If an organism displays more adverse effects to the same dosage of a chemical over time, it indicates that the organism has become sensitized. Sensitization refers to an increased sensitivity or responsiveness to a particular substance or stimulus. In this case, the organism's heightened adverse reactions suggest that its body has developed a heightened sensitivity to the chemical, resulting in more pronounced negative effects.

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  • 20. 

    Toxicity testing on a uniform group of rats results in 40 percent deaths when they receive a 10 mg/kg oral dose of a substance. The 10 mg/kg is called the

    • LC40.

    • LD40.

    • LC10.

    • LD10.

    Correct Answer
    A. LD40.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LD40. In toxicity testing, LD stands for "lethal dose," which refers to the dose of a substance that causes death in a specific percentage of the test subjects. In this case, the LD40 indicates that 40 percent of the rats died when they received a 10 mg/kg oral dose of the substance. The term LC is used for lethal concentration in air or water, whereas LD is used for lethal dose via ingestion or injection.

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  • 21. 

    If you are assessing a shop were workers are exposed to potentially hazardous vapors, then you would be most concerned with identifying with which hazard?

    • Absorption.

    • Inhalation.

    • Injection.

    • Ingestion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhalation.
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the workers in the shop are exposed to potentially hazardous vapors. The most concerning hazard in this situation would be inhalation. When workers inhale these vapors, they can enter their respiratory system and cause harm to their lungs and other organs. Inhalation of hazardous vapors can lead to various health issues, including respiratory problems, irritation, and even long-term damage. Therefore, identifying and addressing the risks associated with inhalation is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of the workers in this shop.

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  • 22. 

    If you are assessing a shop were your main concern is the entry of chemicals through the skin, then you are mainly concerned with identifying which hazard?

    • Absorption.

    • Inhalation.

    • Injection.

    • Ingestion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorption.
    Explanation
    If the main concern is the entry of chemicals through the skin, the hazard that one would be mainly concerned with is absorption. Absorption refers to the process by which substances are taken in and penetrate the skin, entering the bloodstream or underlying tissues. This can be a significant concern in a shop environment where workers may come into contact with hazardous chemicals that can be absorbed through the skin and cause adverse health effects.

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  • 23. 

    You observe a laboratory worker drinking a soda at their work station. What route of entry are you most concerned with?

    • Absorption.

    • Inhalation.

    • Injection.

    • Ingestion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ingestion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ingestion because when the laboratory worker drinks a soda, they are consuming it through their mouth, which means it will enter their body through the digestive system. Ingesting substances can be concerning in a laboratory setting because it can lead to accidental ingestion of hazardous chemicals or contaminants, potentially causing harm to the worker's health.

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  • 24. 

    Which route of entry provides direct entry into the body, bypassing most of the body’s defenses?

    • Absorption.

    • Inhalation.

    • Injection.

    • Ingestion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Injection.
    Explanation
    Injection provides direct entry into the body, bypassing most of the body's defenses. When a substance is injected, it is directly introduced into the bloodstream or tissues, allowing it to quickly reach its target and exert its effects. Unlike other routes of entry, such as absorption, inhalation, or ingestion, injection does not require the substance to pass through barriers like the skin, digestive system, or respiratory system, which can act as protective mechanisms against harmful substances. Therefore, injection provides a direct and efficient way for substances to enter the body without encountering many of the body's natural defenses.

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  • 25. 

    Which class of substances is known to depress the central nervous system?

    • Asphyxiant.

    • Anesthetic.

    • Primary irritant.

    • Secondary irritant.

    Correct Answer
    A. Anesthetic.
    Explanation
    Anesthetics are substances that depress the central nervous system, resulting in loss of sensation or consciousness. They are commonly used during medical procedures to induce sleep or numbness. Anesthetics work by blocking nerve signals in the brain and spinal cord, reducing pain and creating a state of relaxation. This class of substances includes both general anesthetics, which affect the entire body, and local anesthetics, which target a specific area. The depressant effect on the central nervous system is what allows anesthetics to produce their desired effects.

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  • 26. 

    Which example best describes a chemical that would be classified as a central nervous system depressant?

    • Uranium.

    • Hydrogen.

    • Acetylene.

    • Ethyl ether.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethyl ether.
    Explanation
    Ethyl ether is the correct answer because it is a chemical that acts as a central nervous system depressant. It is a volatile liquid that can produce sedative and anesthetic effects when inhaled or ingested. It depresses the activity of the central nervous system, leading to a decrease in brain function and a calming effect on the body. Uranium, hydrogen, and acetylene do not have the same depressant effects on the central nervous system.

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  • 27. 

    Which statement best describes an autotrophic organism?

    • Are classified by their type of respiration.

    • Can be further categorized as phagotrophs or saprotrophs.

    • Use already formed organic compounds as a basis for food.

    • Self-nourishing organisms manufacture their own food entirely.

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-nourishing organisms manufacture their own food entirely.
    Explanation
    Autotrophic organisms are capable of producing their own food through the process of photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. They do not rely on external sources for obtaining organic compounds and instead synthesize their own nutrients using energy from sunlight or inorganic chemicals. This ability to self-nourish sets them apart from heterotrophic organisms, which rely on consuming other organisms or organic matter for their nutritional needs. Therefore, the statement "Self-nourishing organisms manufacture their own food entirely" best describes autotrophic organisms.

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  • 28. 

    The access of a chemical to the lungs depends foremost on its physical state. For particulates, penetration depends on

    • Size.

    • Shape.

    • Reactivity.

    • Temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Size.
    Explanation
    The access of a chemical to the lungs depends on its physical state, and for particulates, penetration depends on size. This means that the size of the particles determines whether they can enter the lungs or not. Larger particles may get trapped in the nose or throat, while smaller particles can reach the lungs and potentially cause harm. Therefore, size is the most important factor in determining the access of particulate chemicals to the lungs.

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  • 29. 

    Providing health risk assessment capability to enhance a commander’s decisions is part of the bioenvironmental engineering

    • Values.

    • Vision.

    • Mission.

    • Strategy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that providing health risk assessment capability is a specific objective or goal that falls under the responsibilities of bioenvironmental engineering. This aligns with the concept of a mission, which is a broad statement of purpose or objective that guides an organization's actions. Therefore, the correct answer is mission.

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  • 30. 

    Within the digestive system food is broken down until the molecules are small enough to be absorbed and waste products are

    • Absorbed.

    • Eliminated.

    • Maintained.

    • Converted to energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminated.
    Explanation
    In the digestive system, food is broken down into smaller molecules through the process of digestion. These smaller molecules are then absorbed by the body for various functions. However, not all of the food is absorbed. Waste products, such as undigested food and other substances, are eliminated from the body through the process of elimination, typically in the form of feces. Therefore, the correct answer is "eliminated."

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  • 31. 

    Which statement best describes the function of the reproductive systems?

    • Not vital to the individual’s survival.

    • Critical for defense against diseases.

    • Maintains homeostasis for survival.

    • Vital for the metabolic processes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Not vital to the individual’s survival.
    Explanation
    The reproductive systems are not vital to an individual's survival because they are not essential for maintaining basic bodily functions or homeostasis. While reproduction is important for the survival of a species, an individual can live and function without reproductive organs or the ability to reproduce. Other systems, such as the respiratory or cardiovascular systems, are more crucial for maintaining homeostasis and ensuring an individual's survival.

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  • 32. 

    Of the solid aerosols, which group has the greatest variety of sizes, shapes, and toxic effects?

    • Smokes.

    • Fumes.

    • Dusts.

    • Fogs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dusts.
    Explanation
    Dusts have the greatest variety of sizes, shapes, and toxic effects among solid aerosols. Dust particles can vary in size from large visible particles to microscopic particles, and they can have different shapes depending on their composition and source. Additionally, dust particles can contain toxic substances such as heavy metals or chemicals, which can have harmful effects on human health when inhaled. Smokes, fumes, and fogs are also solid aerosols, but they typically have less variety in terms of size, shape, and toxic effects compared to dusts.

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  • 33. 

    If you are deployed for the purpose of identifying the radiological environment and recommend protective actions to insure the health and safety of AF and DOD personnel and the surrounding community following radiological incidents then you are a member of which unit type code (UTC)?

    • Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical Team.

    • Preventive and Aerospace Medicine Team.

    • Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Radiation Assessment Team. This team is responsible for identifying the radiological environment and providing recommendations for protective actions after radiological incidents. They ensure the health and safety of Air Force and Department of Defense personnel as well as the surrounding community. The other options, such as Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical Team, Preventive and Aerospace Medicine Team, and Medical Global Reach Laydown Team, do not specifically focus on radiological assessment and protective actions.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?

    • Solid and liquid.

    • Liquid and gas.

    • Liquid only.

    • Gas only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas only.
    Explanation
    Gas is the physical state of matter that lacks both volume and shape. Unlike solids and liquids, gases do not have a definite shape or volume. They can expand to fill the entire space available to them and can be compressed or expanded easily. This is because the particles in a gas are widely spaced and move freely, resulting in a lack of both shape and volume.

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  • 35. 

    The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to

    • Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell.

    • Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.

    • Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles.

    • Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.
    Explanation
    The plasma membrane acts as a selectively permeable barrier that separates the internal environment of the cell from its surrounding environment. It controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell, allowing essential molecules to enter and waste products to be removed. Additionally, the plasma membrane protects the cell from harmful substances and provides structural support. Therefore, the purpose of the plasma membrane is to separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.

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  • 36. 

    What two systems work together to supply oxygen and remove wastes from the body?

    • Circulatory and respiratory system.

    • Respiratory and lymphatic system.

    • Lymphatic and endocrine system.

    • Endocrine and nervous system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Circulatory and respiratory system.
    Explanation
    The circulatory and respiratory systems work together to supply oxygen and remove wastes from the body. The respiratory system is responsible for the intake of oxygen and the removal of carbon dioxide, while the circulatory system transports oxygen-rich blood to the body's tissues and carries away waste products. These two systems collaborate to ensure that oxygen is delivered to all cells in the body and waste products are efficiently removed.

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  • 37. 

    Decomposition provides nutrition for plants and modifies the Earth’s surface by

    • Producing nutrient-rich soil.

    • Preventing deficiency diseases.

    • Limiting growth and reproduction.

    • Changing wastes into organic materials.

    Correct Answer
    A. Producing nutrient-rich soil.
    Explanation
    Decomposition is the process in which organic matter, such as dead plants and animals, breaks down into simpler substances. During this process, microorganisms, such as bacteria and fungi, break down the organic matter and release nutrients into the soil. These nutrients, such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, are essential for plant growth. Therefore, decomposition plays a crucial role in producing nutrient-rich soil, which provides the necessary nutrition for plants to grow and thrive.

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  • 38. 

    What term describes the purpose of the Air Force Medical Service unit’s purpose? 

    • Vision

    • Mission

    • Leadership

    • Directional

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    The term that describes the purpose of the Air Force Medical Service unit is "Mission." A mission refers to the specific objective or goal that an organization or unit aims to achieve. In the context of the Air Force Medical Service unit, their mission would likely involve providing medical support and care to Air Force personnel, ensuring their health and well-being, and contributing to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.

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  • 39. 

    Which agencies would bioenvironmental engineering interface with to correct a drinking water standard violation?

    • Air Force Inspection Agency and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • Air Force Medical Operations and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

    • Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.

    • Civil Engineering and the Air Force Inspection Agency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering is a field that deals with the assessment and control of environmental factors that can affect human health and well-being. In the context of correcting a drinking water standard violation, bioenvironmental engineering would need to work with agencies that have expertise in both engineering and environmental protection. The Civil Engineering agency would provide the engineering knowledge and resources to address the violation, while the Environmental Protection Agency would provide guidance and regulations related to water quality standards. Therefore, the correct answer is Civil Engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.

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  • 40. 

    If you are deployed following a radiological incident and asked to identify the radiological environment along with providing recommendations for protective actions then you are a member of the

    • Medical Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (MNBC) team.

    • Preventive and Aerospace Medicine (PAM) team.

    • Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.

    • Medical Global Reach Laydown Team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Radiation Assessment Team.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Radiation Assessment Team. This team is responsible for identifying the radiological environment and providing recommendations for protective actions in the event of a radiological incident. They have the expertise and equipment to assess the level of radiation and determine the necessary precautions and actions to be taken. The other options, such as the MNBC team, PAM team, and Global Reach Laydown Team, do not specifically deal with radiological incidents and protective actions.

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  • 41. 

    What prevents nearly every known variety of germs from passing through the skin’s surface?

    • The nerve endings in the dermis.

    • The hornlike protein material called keratin.

    • The overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.

    • The secretion of sebum by the sebaceous glands.

    Correct Answer
    A. The overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells. The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and acts as a protective barrier against external threats, including germs. The cells in the epidermis are tightly packed and arranged in a way that creates a barrier, preventing germs from easily passing through the skin's surface. This overlapping arrangement helps to keep germs out and protect the body from infections and diseases.

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  • 42. 

    The muscular system is comprised of specialized cells called muscle fibers. What is their chief function?

    • Support.

    • Connectivity.

    • Contractibility.

    • Joint stability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contractibility.
    Explanation
    The chief function of muscle fibers in the muscular system is contractibility. Muscle fibers have the ability to contract and generate force, allowing movement and enabling the body to perform various activities. This contractibility is essential for actions such as walking, running, and lifting objects. Support, connectivity, and joint stability are important functions of other components of the musculoskeletal system, but contractibility is specifically associated with muscle fibers.

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  • 43. 

    Within the nervous system, these highly specialized nerve cells function by conducting nerve impulses.

    • Neuroglia.

    • Dendrites.

    • Neurons.

    • Axial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Neurons.
    Explanation
    Neurons are highly specialized nerve cells that function by conducting nerve impulses within the nervous system. Neuroglia refers to the supportive cells in the nervous system that provide structural and functional support to neurons. Dendrites are the branch-like extensions of neurons that receive signals from other neurons. Axial refers to the main axis or central part of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is neurons.

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  • 44. 

    What is the main function of the central nervous system?

    • Controls the visceral motor nerve fibers.

    • Serves as the major signal receptor and integration site.

    • Transmits impulses from peripheral organs to the central nervous system.

    • Transmits impulses from the central nervous system out to the peripheral organs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Serves as the major signal receptor and integration site.
    Explanation
    The main function of the central nervous system is to serve as the major signal receptor and integration site. This means that it receives signals from the sensory organs and processes them to generate appropriate responses. The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord, which are responsible for receiving and interpreting sensory information, coordinating motor responses, and regulating bodily functions. It plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and allowing organisms to interact with their environment.

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  • 45. 

    If toxic substances such as heavy metals or halogenated hydrocarbons are not filter out of the body and become concentrated, damage can be caused to the

    • Lungs.

    • Liver.

    • Kidneys.

    • Ovaries.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys.
    Explanation
    Toxic substances such as heavy metals or halogenated hydrocarbons can cause damage to various organs if they are not filtered out of the body and become concentrated. In this case, the correct answer is kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in filtering waste and toxins from the blood, and if these substances accumulate in the kidneys, they can lead to kidney damage or dysfunction. The lungs are primarily affected by airborne toxins, while the liver is responsible for detoxifying chemicals in the body. The ovaries, on the other hand, are not directly involved in the filtration or detoxification process.

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  • 46. 

     Substances that are produced by or are a by-product of human activities, not biological systems, is a definition of

    • Poisons.

    • Toxicants.

    • Pollutants.

    • Germ cells.

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxicants.
    Explanation
    The definition of toxicants refers to substances that are produced by or are a by-product of human activities, not biological systems. These substances can be harmful to living organisms and cause toxic effects. Poisons, on the other hand, can be any substance that is capable of causing harm or death to a living organism. Pollutants are substances that contaminate the environment and can be harmful to living organisms. Germ cells are reproductive cells that give rise to eggs or sperm.

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  • 47. 

    A material which produces a mutation is known as a mutagen. If the mutation occurs in a germ cell then the effect

    • Is passed on to the next generation.

    • Is not passed on to the next generation.

    • To the exposed individual results in cancer.

    • To the exposed individual results in dermatitis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is passed on to the next generation.
    Explanation
    A material that causes a mutation is called a mutagen. If the mutation happens in a germ cell, it means that it occurs in the reproductive cells that are responsible for passing genetic information to the next generation. Therefore, the mutation will be inherited by the offspring, and the effect will be passed on to the next generation.

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  • 48. 

    What term describes the unwanted effects a substance is capable of producing?

    • Dose.

    • Toxicity.

    • Response.

    • Synergism.

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxicity.
    Explanation
    Toxicity refers to the unwanted effects that a substance can produce. It is a measure of the harmfulness or potential danger of a substance when it is introduced into the body. The level of toxicity can vary depending on the dose or amount of the substance that is taken. High levels of toxicity can lead to adverse reactions or even be fatal, while lower levels may cause milder side effects. Therefore, toxicity is the term that best describes the unwanted effects a substance can have.

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  • 49. 

    What is the primary difference between mists and fogs?

    • Method of generation.

    • Make-up.

    • Shape.

    • Size.

    Correct Answer
    A. Size.
    Explanation
    The primary difference between mists and fogs is their size. Mists are composed of tiny water droplets that are smaller in size compared to fog. Fog, on the other hand, consists of larger water droplets that reduce visibility significantly. While both mists and fogs are formed due to condensation, their distinction lies in the size of the water droplets present in the air.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 27, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 27, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 13, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Fatal16
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