1.
How is doctrine applied? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Authoritative but not directive
Explanation
Doctrine is applied in an authoritative manner, meaning that it carries weight and is considered to be a reliable source of guidance. However, it is not necessarily directive, meaning that it does not give specific instructions or commands on how to act or make decisions. Instead, it provides principles, guidelines, and teachings that individuals or organizations can interpret and apply in their own context. This allows for flexibility and adaptation while still maintaining the authority and credibility of the doctrine.
2.
Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish the mission? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
Explanation
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission. This document provides guidance and direction on how to provide health services in the Air Force. It outlines the principles, policies, and procedures that commanders should follow to ensure the health and well-being of Air Force personnel. By following the guidelines outlined in AFDD 2-4.2, commanders can effectively fulfill their mission of providing medical support to the Air Force.
3.
Why is medical doctrine necessary? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Guides commanders in using assets
Explanation
Medical doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets. Doctrine provides a set of principles and guidelines that help commanders make informed decisions about how to best utilize medical resources and capabilities. It ensures that commanders have a standardized framework to follow when making decisions related to medical support, which ultimately leads to more efficient and effective use of assets. By providing clear guidance, doctrine helps to streamline processes, improve coordination, and maximize the overall effectiveness of medical operations.
4.
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within the distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Operational
Explanation
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within specific objectives, but it is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This means that it provides guidelines and principles for how military forces should be organized and used in various operational contexts, such as during military campaigns or in specific theaters of operation. Operational doctrine is more specific than foundational doctrine, which provides overarching principles and concepts, but it is less specific than tactical doctrine, which focuses on the detailed tactics and techniques used in specific military operations.
5.
Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities for their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
6.
Which of the following is not one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airman should be familiar with? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Use of Force
Explanation
The question asks which statement is not one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with. The correct answer is "Use of Force." This means that airmen should be familiar with the other three statements - Competency, Force Health Protection, and Roles and Responsibilities of the Air Force Medical Service.
7.
While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Every airman
Explanation
Every airman is responsible for maintaining their own individual health and fitness. While commanders hold ultimate responsibility for the overall well-being of their personnel, it is up to each airman to take care of their own physical and mental health. This includes staying physically fit, eating well, managing stress, and seeking medical attention when needed. By taking personal responsibility for their health and fitness, every airman contributes to the overall readiness and effectiveness of the military unit.
8.
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Service Foundational Doctrine is accomplished? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Competency
Explanation
When professional knowledge, medical expertise, and technological know-how are combined, the Air Force Medical Service accomplishes the specific doctrine of Competency. This means that the service is able to demonstrate the necessary skills, knowledge, and abilities to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities in providing medical care and support. Competency ensures that the service members are well-trained and capable of delivering high-quality healthcare services to the Air Force community.
9.
What figure in Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. First
Explanation
The first option is the correct answer because it is the only one that is capitalized, indicating that it is a proper noun or a specific term. The other options are not capitalized, suggesting that they are not specific terms related to Air Force Specialty Codes.
10.
How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Two
Explanation
There are two parts that make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan.
11.
In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Two
Explanation
The Specialty Training Standard can be located in the "Two" part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan.
12.
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Master Training Plan
Explanation
The Master Training Plan would provide a specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area. This plan would serve as a comprehensive guide for organizing and implementing training programs, ensuring that all necessary training objectives are met. It would help in identifying the specific tasks and skills that need to be developed and the timeline for achieving them, ultimately ensuring that enlisted members receive the necessary training to perform their duties effectively.
13.
Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience Identifier? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Aeromedical Evacuation Technician
Explanation
Aeromedical Evacuation Technician is identified by a Special Experience Identifier.
14.
Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Aerospace medical service journeyman
Explanation
The aerospace medical service journeyman is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician. This role involves providing medical assistance and support to patients in an aerospace medical service setting. They work closely with physicians to deliver quality care to patients.
15.
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Apprentice to the journeyman
Explanation
The correct answer is "apprentice to the journeyman". This is because the question describes a trainee who is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills, and beginning to practice leadership and management skills. An apprentice is someone who is learning a trade or profession under the guidance of a skilled practitioner, and a journeyman is someone who has completed their apprenticeship and is considered competent in their field. Therefore, the trainee is in the process of transitioning from being an apprentice to becoming a journeyman.
16.
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Positively influence the patient's visit
Explanation
Developing excellent customer service is important for the 4N0XX because it allows them to positively influence the patient's visit. Providing exceptional customer service ensures that patients have a positive experience and feel satisfied with the care they receive. This can lead to improved patient outcomes, increased patient loyalty, and a positive reputation for the healthcare facility. Additionally, positive patient experiences can also contribute to the overall job satisfaction of the 4N0XX and prevent potential lawsuits by addressing any concerns or issues promptly and effectively.
17.
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Career Field Manager
Explanation
A Career Field Manager may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory.
18.
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Three years
Explanation
The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every three years.
19.
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor
Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey.
20.
What is the purpose of documenting training? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness
Explanation
The purpose of documenting training is to document capability, scope of practice, and strength and weakness. This helps in keeping a record of the skills and knowledge acquired during training, as well as identifying areas for improvement. It also ensures that healthcare professionals are practicing within their authorized scope and can provide evidence of their qualifications if needed. Additionally, documenting training helps in establishing guidelines for patient care in civilian practice.
21.
On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS
22.
When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level
Explanation
The AETC Form 156, Student Training Report, may be removed from the Individual Training Record when the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level. This suggests that the form is no longer needed once the Airman has achieved a higher level of skill and proficiency in their training.
23.
Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Part 6, Section B
Explanation
The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscitation card would be filed in Part 6, Section B of the Individual Training Record.
24.
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Evaluate learning through performance and tests
Explanation
When conducting in-service training, it is important to evaluate learning through performance and tests. This allows trainers to assess the effectiveness of the training and determine if the participants have acquired the necessary knowledge and skills. By evaluating learning through performance and tests, trainers can identify any gaps in understanding and make adjustments to improve future training sessions. This ensures that the training is effective and meets the objectives set forth.
25.
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. MEPRS
Explanation
MEPRS stands for Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System. It is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. MEPRS provides a standardized way to collect and report data on medical expenses and performance, allowing healthcare organizations to analyze and allocate resources effectively.
26.
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Type and section
27.
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. UPMR
Explanation
UPMR is the tool used to list the personnel assigned to a work center.
28.
Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Manpower Authorization
Explanation
Manpower Authorization is the correct answer because it refers to a funded manpower requirement that clearly defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade, and any other characteristic needed. It indicates that the position has been approved and authorized for hiring, ensuring that the necessary resources are allocated for the position. This term specifically highlights the importance of funding and authorization in defining the position.
29.
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM
Explanation
MAJCOM (Major Command) approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request.
30.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Each individual
31.
Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and discipline of supply use? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Commanders
Explanation
Commanders are the designated individuals responsible for ensuring adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, maintaining records, and enforcing discipline in supply use. They have the authority and oversight to manage and allocate resources effectively within their units. Supervisors may have some responsibility in this area, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commanders. Property custodians are responsible for managing and maintaining the physical inventory, while Medical Equipment Management Officer personnel may be responsible for specific aspects of medical equipment management, but they do not have the overall responsibility for storage space and supply use.
32.
By training new personnel on proper equipment use what is the supervisor likely to prevent? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to a patient
Explanation
Training new personnel on proper equipment use is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. When personnel are trained on the correct use of equipment, they are less likely to make mistakes or mishandle the equipment, which can lead to damage. Additionally, proper training ensures that personnel understand the safety protocols and procedures associated with using the equipment, reducing the risk of injury to patients.
33.
What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. 70%
Explanation
The correct answer is 70%. This means that 70% of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error. Operator error refers to mistakes or incorrect actions made by the person operating the equipment, which can lead to malfunctions or errors in its functioning. This high percentage suggests that it is crucial for operators to receive proper training and education to minimize errors and ensure the safe and effective use of medical equipment.
34.
What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Activity issue/turn in summary
Explanation
The Activity issue/turn in summary is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. This report provides a summary of the activity related to the issuance and return of supplies and equipment, allowing for better tracking and management of inventory.
35.
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO
Explanation
The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This suggests that the property custodian should take proactive steps to cancel the order and prevent the unnecessary receipt of the item. By notifying MEMO and requesting the cancellation, the property custodian can ensure that they do not receive or pay for an item that is no longer needed.
36.
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order
Explanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask MEMO personnel to check on the order. This suggests that there may be a delay or issue with the order, and contacting the relevant department can help provide an update or resolution. Cancelling the order may be premature, as there could be a valid reason for the delay. Complaining to the commander may not be necessary at this stage, as the issue can likely be resolved by contacting MEMO personnel. Waiting another 15 days before following up may further prolong the resolution process.
37.
When does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list
Explanation
A new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the property/equipment list upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list. This indicates that the custodian has acknowledged and accepted the responsibility for the items listed on the document.
38.
Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a physical inventory of equipment
Explanation
The new equipment custodian must conduct a physical inventory of equipment before taking over an equipment account. This is important because it allows the custodian to verify the existence and condition of all the equipment in the account. By physically counting and inspecting the equipment, the custodian can ensure that everything is accounted for and in proper working order. This step is crucial in maintaining accurate records and preventing any discrepancies or losses in the equipment inventory.
39.
When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL
Explanation
The AF Form 601 is a document used to track items on the Controlled Repairable List (CRL). The CRL is a list of items that are repairable and require special handling. When an item is added to or taken off the CRL, it is necessary to update the AF Form 601 accordingly. Therefore, the form may be destroyed when there are changes to the CRL, specifically when an item is added to or taken off the list.
40.
How often are equipment inspections usually conducted? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Daily
Explanation
Equipment inspections are usually conducted on a daily basis. This means that inspections are performed every day to ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and to identify any potential issues or safety hazards. Conducting daily inspections helps to maintain the equipment's performance, prevent breakdowns, and ensure the safety of operators and users.
41.
What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Inspect, remove and report
42.
What is the primary source for recording equipment repair? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing
Explanation
The primary source for recording equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form allows for the temporary issue of equipment and documents any actions taken by the custodian or repairs made to the equipment. It serves as a record of the repair process and provides a comprehensive overview of the equipment's maintenance history.
43.
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. Biomedical equipment repair technician
Explanation
A biomedical equipment repair technician would be the best person to contact for the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns. They specialize in repairing and maintaining biomedical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge and expertise in this area. They would be familiar with the specific equipment used and would be able to provide the necessary guidance and support for any issues or concerns that may arise. Contacting the district sales and maintenance representative, base supply and equipment maintenance, or the original equipment manufacturer may not provide the same level of specialized knowledge and support for biomedical equipment.
44.
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
C. The duty to do no harm
Explanation
Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the duty to do no harm to patients. It means that healthcare professionals should refrain from causing harm or injury to their patients, both through intentional actions and through negligence or omission. This principle requires healthcare providers to prioritize the well-being and safety of their patients above all else, and to take necessary precautions to prevent harm. By adhering to the principle of nonmaleficence, healthcare professionals can ensure that they are acting ethically and in the best interest of their patients.
45.
Which of the following defines fidelity? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Acting in a responsible manner
Explanation
Acting in a responsible manner defines fidelity. Fidelity refers to being faithful, loyal, and committed to fulfilling one's responsibilities and obligations. It involves acting with integrity, honesty, and reliability, and consistently doing what is expected or required of oneself. Fidelity is closely associated with trustworthiness and dependability, as it involves being accountable for one's actions and fulfilling one's duties with diligence and conscientiousness.
46.
What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field? Preferences Preferences Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. STS
Explanation
The scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field is specifically defined by STS (Specialty Training Standard). This document outlines the knowledge, skills, and responsibilities that individuals in this career field must possess and adhere to. It provides guidance on the specific tasks and procedures that they are authorized to perform, ensuring that they are operating within their professional boundaries and providing safe and effective care to patients. STS serves as a reference for training, certification, and professional development within the 4N0X1 career field.
47.
What are patient responsibilities designed to do? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
D. Protect other patients and health care providers
Explanation
Patient responsibilities are designed to protect other patients and health care providers. These responsibilities ensure that patients follow proper hygiene practices, comply with treatment plans, and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of infections or diseases. By doing so, patients contribute to maintaining a safe and healthy environment for everyone in the healthcare setting, reducing the risk of transmission and protecting the well-being of both patients and healthcare providers.
48.
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. Chaperone
Explanation
Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient. This policy is put in place to ensure the safety and comfort of both the provider and patient during sensitive procedures. The responsibility of implementing this policy falls under the role of a chaperone, who is responsible for being present during the examination or treatment to provide support and maintain a professional environment.
49.
During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
A. Depression
Explanation
During the stage of depression in the grieving process, it is most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking. This is because depression is often characterized by feelings of sadness, emptiness, and a need to express one's emotions. Allowing the patient to talk can provide them with an outlet to express their feelings and thoughts, which can be therapeutic and help them process their grief. It also allows the healthcare provider to gain a better understanding of the patient's emotional state and provide appropriate support and interventions.
50.
Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record? Preferences§1234567890-=Backspace Tabqwertyuiop[] Return capslockasdfghjkl;'\ shift`zxcvbnm,./shift English Deutsch Español Français Italiano Português Русский alt alt Preferences
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 2005