4a051 Vol. 1 And Vol. 2

107 Questions | Total Attempts: 469

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4a051 Quizzes & Trivia

Vol. 1 and Vol. 2 review exercises from 4A051. Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which system supports the admissions and dispositions functions in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?
    • A. 

      DMRIS.

    • B. 

      DEERS.

    • C. 

      CHCS.

    • D. 

      MEDNET.

  • 2. 
    Which devices are considered auxiliary storage devices?
    • A. 

      Magnetic tape, operating system, and hard disk.

    • B. 

      Operating system, floppy disk, and hard disk.

    • C. 

      Floppy disk, hard disk, USB and magnetic tape.

    • D. 

      Hard disk, monitor, floppy disk.

  • 3. 
    Random access memory (RAM) is
    • A. 

      The temporary electrical storage space that holds program instructions.

    • B. 

      The permanent electrical storage space that holds program instructions.

    • C. 

      Memory whose content remains intact when the computer loses power.

    • D. 

      Memory whose content are saved automatically to the hard disk drive.

  • 4. 
    TRICARE Online allows authorized users to do all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Schedule appointments.

    • B. 

      View appointments.

    • C. 

      Check medications.

    • D. 

      Access medical record information.

  • 5. 
    Which system is designed to store, share, and exchange knowledge among all Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) members?
    • A. 

      Knowledge Exchange (Kx).

    • B. 

      TRICARE Online.

    • C. 

      Micromedex.

    • D. 

      Military Health System (MHS).

  • 6. 
    What process realigns the separated files and moves them into a more defined structure increasing data access rate and performance of the system?
    • A. 

      Network back-up.

    • B. 

      Defragment.

    • C. 

      File back-up.

    • D. 

      Disk space clean-up.

  • 7. 
    What device is used to junction between local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN)?
    • A. 

      Wireless access point (WAP).

    • B. 

      Router.

    • C. 

      Server.

    • D. 

      Switch.

  • 8. 
    A physical inventory of all equipment is conducted
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Biannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

  • 9. 
    Where do you place the Auomated Data Processing Equipment (ADPE) identification label?
    • A. 

      Front or top of the equipment.

    • B. 

      Back panel of the equipment.

    • C. 

      Left side of the equipment.

    • D. 

      Right side of the equipment.

  • 10. 
    What computer security (COMPUSEC) objective is reached when there is no unexpected downtime due to a virus or sabotage?
    • A. 

      Confidentiality.

    • B. 

      Availability.

    • C. 

      Integrity.

    • D. 

      Safety.

  • 11. 
    What computer security (COMPUSEC) abjective is attained when access to sensitive information is allowed only to those with the proper clearance, authorization, and need-to-know?
    • A. 

      Confidentiality.

    • B. 

      Availability.

    • C. 

      Integrity.

    • D. 

      Safety.

  • 12. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in computer security (COMPUSEC) awareness and local operating instructions?
    • A. 

      Information systems security officer (ISSO).

    • B. 

      Computer systems security officer.

    • C. 

      Training NCO.

    • D. 

      Security NCO.

  • 13. 
    Information needing protection from public interest is marked
    • A. 

      For Official Use Only.

    • B. 

      Privacy Act of 1974.

    • C. 

      Unclassified.

    • D. 

      Sensitive.

  • 14. 
    An individual is allowed access to classified information after a determination is made that
    • A. 

      Access is necessary for performance of duty and the individual applies for the appropriate security clearance.

    • B. 

      Access is necessary for performance of duty and the appropriate security clearance is granted.

    • C. 

      The individual is trustworthy and the individual completes COMPUSEC training.

    • D. 

      The individual is trustworthy and access is necessary for performance of duty.

  • 15. 
    When writing, which way would be the simplest way for making a personal contact?
    • A. 

      Big words and long sentences.

    • B. 

      Familiar, everyday words.

    • C. 

      Lots of jargon and slang.

    • D. 

      Fancy sentences.

  • 16. 
    The body of your correspondence explains and clarifies your
    • A. 

      Introduction.

    • B. 

      Concludsion.

    • C. 

      Purpose.

    • D. 

      Logic.

  • 17. 
    The best way to manage correspondence involves sorting, routing, and
    • A. 

      Controlling suspenses.

    • B. 

      Monitoring all mail.

    • C. 

      Using flowcharts.

    • D. 

      Keeping logs.

  • 18. 
    An emergency involving military forces caused by natural disaster, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations is called
    • A. 

      Mobilization.

    • B. 

      Contingency.

    • C. 

      Deployment.

    • D. 

      Exercise.

  • 19. 
    What is the relocation of forces to a desired area of operation called?
    • A. 

      Mobilization.

    • B. 

      Contingency.

    • C. 

      Deployment.

    • D. 

      Employment.

  • 20. 
    What is a quality or capability of military forces to move from place-to-place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission called?
    • A. 

      Deployment.

    • B. 

      Simulation.

    • C. 

      Exercise.

    • D. 

      Mobility.

  • 21. 
    Who is the chairperson of the Medical Readiness staff function (MRSF)?
    • A. 

      Medical Readiness officer/noncommissioned officer.

    • B. 

      MTF commander.

    • C. 

      Medical Logistrics commander.

    • D. 

      Medical Defense officer.

  • 22. 
    Who keeps the Medical Group (MDG) commander and squadron commanders informed of the deployment status of unit personnel and equipment subject to deployments?
    • A. 

      MRNCO.

    • B. 

      UDM.

    • C. 

      UTC team chief.

    • D. 

      MRO.

  • 23. 
    Which scenario is not included in the full spectrum threat response (FSTR) as a required emergency response and mitigation event?
    • A. 

      Enemy attack.

    • B. 

      Major accident.

    • C. 

      Minor government vehicle accident.

    • D. 

      Natural disaster.

  • 24. 
    Into which triage category and color would you place a patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients?
    • A. 

      Delayed-Yellow.

    • B. 

      Minimal-Green.

    • C. 

      Immediate-Red.

    • D. 

      Expectant-Blue.

  • 25. 
    Update disaster team checklists as necessary and review them at least
    • A. 

      Before each exercise.

    • B. 

      After each exercise.

    • C. 

      Every six months.

    • D. 

      Once a year.

  • 26. 
    What telephone communication system is designed to save lives through the rapid relay of emergency information to specific base agencies?
    • A. 

      Secondary crash alarm circuit.

    • B. 

      Primary crash alarm circuit.

    • C. 

      Administrative.

    • D. 

      Hot lines.

  • 27. 
    Horizontal and vertical lines on a grid map are called grid
    • A. 

      Positions.

    • B. 

      Squares.

    • C. 

      Areas.

    • D. 

      Lines.

  • 28. 
    The two types of official Air Force E-mail are
    • A. 

      Command directed and personal.

    • B. 

      Organizational and individual.

    • C. 

      Directive and private.

    • D. 

      Official and unofficial.

  • 29. 
    Which type of E-mail must contain a complete signature element clearly indicating who sent the communication?
    • A. 

      Organizational.

    • B. 

      Individual.

    • C. 

      Official.

    • D. 

      Private.

  • 30. 
    The portion of the situation report (SITREP) that specifically addresses significant deficiencies that are above the commander's capability to overcome in a timely manner is
    • A. 

      Significant Political/Military/or Diplomatic Events.

    • B. 

      Situation Overview.

    • C. 

      Operations.

    • D. 

      Logistics.

  • 31. 
    What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chief of Staff (JCS), Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
    • A. 

      MEDRED-C.

    • B. 

      MRDSS.

    • C. 

      SORTS.

    • D. 

      SITREP.

  • 32. 
    The prefix that means "above or excessive" is
    • A. 

      Homo-.

    • B. 

      Hyper-.

    • C. 

      Hemi-.

    • D. 

      Hypo-.

  • 33. 
    The suffix "-plasty" means
    • A. 

      Surgical reshaping.

    • B. 

      Formation of.

    • C. 

      Fastening.

    • D. 

      Paralysis.

  • 34. 
    Encephal(o) is the root word meaning
    • A. 

      Intestines.

    • B. 

      Brain.

    • C. 

      Skin.

    • D. 

      Uterus.

  • 35. 
    What is the abbreviation for "both ears"
    • A. 

      AD.

    • B. 

      AE.

    • C. 

      AK.

    • D. 

      AU.

  • 36. 
    The anatomical term meaning "away from the midline" of the body is
    • A. 

      Posterior.

    • B. 

      Anterior.

    • C. 

      Medial.

    • D. 

      Lateral.

  • 37. 
    The anatomical term "peripheral" refers to something
    • A. 

      Outward from the center of the body.

    • B. 

      Towards the outside of the body.

    • C. 

      Towards the back of the body.

    • D. 

      Inside the body.

  • 38. 
    What provides the body energy?
    • A. 

      Bones.

    • B. 

      Food.

    • C. 

      Oxygen.

    • D. 

      Food and oxygen.

  • 39. 
    Which macromolecules carry instructions that tell each cell how to perform their particular jobs?
    • A. 

      Nucleic acids.

    • B. 

      Carbohydrates.

    • C. 

      Protein.

    • D. 

      Lipids.

  • 40. 
    Which type of tissue helps support and join together various parts of the body?
    • A. 

      Connective.

    • B. 

      Epithelial.

    • C. 

      Nervous.

    • D. 

      Muscle.

  • 41. 
    The epidermis
    • A. 

      Forms the innermost layer of the skin.

    • B. 

      Forms the outermost layer of the skin.

    • C. 

      Serves as an important sense organ.

    • D. 

      Provides extra fuel for the body.

  • 42. 
    The place where bones meet is a
    • A. 

      Spinal column.

    • B. 

      Spinal cord.

    • C. 

      Muscle.

    • D. 

      Joint.

  • 43. 
    What type of muscle is known as "involuntary"?
    • A. 

      Cardiac.

    • B. 

      Skeletal.

    • C. 

      Smooth.

    • D. 

      Striated.

  • 44. 
    What empties into the small intestine through a duct?
    • A. 

      Bile.

    • B. 

      Chyme.

    • C. 

      Digestive enzymes.

    • D. 

      Pancreatic enzymes.

  • 45. 
    Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the
    • A. 

      Diaphragm.

    • B. 

      Brain.

    • C. 

      Lungs.

    • D. 

      Heart.

  • 46. 
    Arteries carry blood
    • A. 

      Away from the lungs.

    • B. 

      Away from the heart.

    • C. 

      To the lungs.

    • D. 

      To the heart.

  • 47. 
    The largest artery in the body is the
    • A. 

      Superior vena cava.

    • B. 

      Inferior vena cava.

    • C. 

      Alveolus.

    • D. 

      Aorta.

  • 48. 
    All of the lymph flows into either the thoracic duct or the
    • A. 

      Right lymphatic duct.

    • B. 

      Left lymphatic duct.

    • C. 

      Veins near the lungs.

    • D. 

      Veins near the heart.

  • 49. 
    Urine leaves the body through the
    • A. 

      Urinary bladder.

    • B. 

      Nephrons.

    • C. 

      Urethra.

    • D. 

      Ureters.

  • 50. 
    What carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
    • A. 

      Capillaries.

    • B. 

      Nephrons.

    • C. 

      Urethra.

    • D. 

      Ureters.

  • 51. 
    What enables a developing baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream?
    • A. 

      Uterus.

    • B. 

      Placenta.

    • C. 

      Ovaries.

    • D. 

      Fallopian tubes.

  • 52. 
    Which glands control body functions by producing hormones?
    • A. 

      Endocrine.

    • B. 

      Exocrine.

    • C. 

      Adrenal.

    • D. 

      Thyroid.

  • 53. 
    Which gland is the "master gland"?
    • A. 

      Exocrine.

    • B. 

      Pituitary.

    • C. 

      Adrenal.

    • D. 

      Thyroid.

  • 54. 
    Sensory neurons carry information
    • A. 

      From the autonomic nervous system.

    • B. 

      To the autonomic nervous system.

    • C. 

      From the central nervous system.

    • D. 

      To the central nervous system.

  • 55. 
    Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?
    • A. 

      Drug and alcohol.

    • B. 

      Adoptions and abortions.

    • C. 

      Sexual assault and abuse.

    • D. 

      Child molesation and endangerment.

  • 56. 
    Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered
    • A. 

      Nonreleasable.

    • B. 

      Classified.

    • C. 

      Sensitive.

    • D. 

      Secret.

  • 57. 
    If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,
    • A. 

      Only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).

    • B. 

      Release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).

    • C. 

      Send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee.

    • D. 

      Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

  • 58. 
    What establishes your identity to Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and authenticates your use of the system?
    • A. 

      User record.

    • B. 

      Access code.

    • C. 

      Access and verify codes.

    • D. 

      Access and verify code in conjunction with the user record.

  • 59. 
    Which kind of information cannot be released without a patient's informed consent?
    • A. 

      Present medical assessment of condition.

    • B. 

      General extent of the injury or disease.

    • C. 

      Name and rank of individual.

    • D. 

      Component occupation.

  • 60. 
    Which is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
    • A. 

      ???

    • B. 

      ?OPTION.

    • C. 

      OLUM.

    • D. 

      ?OPTION SYNONYM.

  • 61. 
    To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
    • A. 

      Accomplish a "Patient Lookup".

    • B. 

      Access On Line Users Manual by entering ??OLUM.

    • C. 

      Create medical record using post registration options.

    • D. 

      Compare patient documentation with a (DEERS) RIP from MPF.

  • 62. 
    A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Ststem (DEERS) to accomplish what task?
    • A. 

      Verify the patient's eligibility for care.

    • B. 

      Ensure the patient's CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.

    • C. 

      Provide a tool for commander's to keep abreast of unit's manning strength.

    • D. 

      Provides interface for Military Personnel Flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

  • 63. 
    What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the Check-In Record option?
    • A. 

      Clinic returning record.

    • B. 

      Provider who checked-out the record.

    • C. 

      Date and time of record being returned.

    • D. 

      Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

  • 64. 
    Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is composed of timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patient slots?
    • A. 

      Capacity appointment slots.

    • B. 

      Template.

    • C. 

      Schedule.

    • D. 

      Profile.

  • 65. 
    Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987-65-4321?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      2.

    • D. 

      1.

  • 66. 
    When are new outpatient record jackets prepared for patients with existing outpatient records?
    • A. 

      When an Army patient's records are maintained in an Air Force military treatment facility (MTF).

    • B. 

      When the patient is removed from the Personeel Reliability Program (PRP).

    • C. 

      When there are no more years left on the table of years.

    • D. 

      When the folder no longer protects the contents.

  • 67. 
    Outpatient records are the property of the
    • A. 

      Department of Defense.

    • B. 

      Records custodian.

    • C. 

      Medical treatment facility.

    • D. 

      Patient.

  • 68. 
    How often are active duty records inventoried?
    • A. 

      Never, if the facility has CHCS.

    • B. 

      At least semiannually.

    • C. 

      Whenever necessary.

    • D. 

      At least once a year.

  • 69. 
    What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
    • A. 

      TRICARE team.

    • B. 

      Alternative Care team.

    • C. 

      Health Care Optimization team.

    • D. 

      Primary Care Optimization team.

  • 70. 
    When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
    • A. 

      Acute Care Manager.

    • B. 

      Health Care Manager.

    • C. 

      Primary Care Manager.

    • D. 

      Family Practice Manager.

  • 71. 
    When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
    • A. 

      The sponsor.

    • B. 

      The dependent.

    • C. 

      The gaining unit.

    • D. 

      The Primary Care Manager.

  • 72. 
    When an active duty member is being discharged but does not have any type of orders, what document must they provide before you can release their records to the discharge review board?
    • A. 

      Addendum from their flight.

    • B. 

      Memorandum from their group.

    • C. 

      Addendum from their squadron.

    • D. 

      Memorandum from their squadron.

  • 73. 
    A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on Standard Form (SF) 502, Medical Record-Narrative Summary, for
    • A. 

      All inpatients unless treated by a tactical medical treatment facility.

    • B. 

      Patients remaining in the hospital as bed occupants for 48 hours or less.

    • C. 

      Inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.

    • D. 

      Cases involving commuicable diseases.

  • 74. 
    Final progress notes on Standard Form (SF) 509 may be subsituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except
    • A. 

      Patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay.

    • B. 

      Uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries.

    • C. 

      Patients treated at tactical MTFs.

    • D. 

      Normal newborn infants.

  • 75. 
     Inpatient records on a family member of a retired Air Force Chief are the property of the
    • A. 

      Department of Defense.

    • B. 

      Medical treatment facility.

    • C. 

      Family member's sponsor.

    • D. 

      Medical Group commander.

  • 76. 
    An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
    • A. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001.

    • B. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003.

    • C. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.

    • D. 

      Never retired as long as the patient remains on active duty.

  • 77. 
    Before a patient without proper identification or verification of Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) eligibility is provided care in a military treatment facility (MTF), they must first sign a statement agreeing to provide proof of eligibility within
    • A. 

      15 days.

    • B. 

      20 days.

    • C. 

      25 days.

    • D. 

      30 days.

  • 78. 
    During completion of a Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee letter, the request must contain the effective date, period covered and
    • A. 

      The specific provider who will follow the designee.

    • B. 

      The specific Primary Care Optimization team the designee is assigned to.

    • C. 

      Determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical avacuation.

    • D. 

      Confirmation that the designee is either a TRICARE Prime, Extra or Standard member.

  • 79. 
    Which is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?
    • A. 

      Identify active duty service members with family members with special educational needs.

    • B. 

      Locates providers and establishes the consults for care.

    • C. 

      Help families obtain information on required services.

    • D. 

      Ensures access to necessary services if reassigned.

  • 80. 
    For sponsors on unaccomplanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the
    • A. 

      Military training facility (MTF) in closest proximity to the family.

    • B. 

      MTF in closest proximity to the member.

    • C. 

      Military Personnel Flight (MPF) in closest proximity to the family.

    • D. 

      MPF in closest proximity to the member.

  • 81. 
    Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
    • A. 

      Category one.

    • B. 

      Category two.

    • C. 

      Presidential support.

    • D. 

      Presidential administration.

  • 82. 
    Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hopital benefits?
    • A. 

      Office of Personnel Management.

    • B. 

      Department of Veterans' Affairs.

    • C. 

      Department of Labor.

    • D. 

      Air Force.

  • 83. 
    The interim line of duty (LOD) for Reserve members is valid for no more than
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      60 days.

    • C. 

      90 days.

    • D. 

      180 days.

  • 84. 
    If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the
    • A. 

      Appointing authority.

    • B. 

      Investigating officer.

    • C. 

      Unit commander.

    • D. 

      LOD-MFP.

  • 85. 
    Who has the authority to retire or separate members who can no longer perform the duties of their grade because of medical impairment?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the United States Air Force.

    • B. 

      Chief of Staff, United States Air Force.

    • C. 

      Commander, numbered Air Force.

    • D. 

      Commander, major command.

  • 86. 
    Who designates the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?
    • A. 

      The board will be conducted at the originating MTF.

    • B. 

      Air Force Surgeon General.

    • C. 

      HQ AFPC/DPAMM.

    • D. 

      HQ AF/CC.

  • 87. 
    Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 88. 
    Which is an appropriate Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) recommendation?
    • A. 

      Refer to HQ AFPC or Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) for retraining.

    • B. 

      Assignment to a different geographic area or climate.

    • C. 

      Refer to HQ AFPC or PEB for profile.

    • D. 

      Return to duty.

  • 89. 
    Which Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) finding is the appointing authority not allowed to reverse?
    • A. 

      Refer to PEB.

    • B. 

      Return to duty.

    • C. 

      Competency or sanity.

    • D. 

      Temporary duty retirement list.

  • 90. 
    Who will be reimbursed from military treatement facility (MTF) operating funds on a monthly basis?
    • A. 

      Magaged care support contractor (MCSC).

    • B. 

      TRICARE.

    • C. 

      MDG commanders.

    • D. 

      Lead agents.

  • 91. 
    For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accpet administrative responsibility?
    • A. 

      Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.

    • B. 

      Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilian facility.

    • C. 

      A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.

    • D. 

      A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

  • 92. 
    The number used to identify an inpatient's case from beginning to end is called
    • A. 

      A medical records tracking (MRT) number.

    • B. 

      The sponsor's social security number.

    • C. 

      A transaction number.

    • D. 

      A register number.

  • 93. 
    Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the heatlh care provider has completed his or her entries?
    • A. 

      NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.

    • B. 

      Admitting physician.

    • C. 

      Admissions technician.

    • D. 

      Charge nurse.

  • 94. 
    Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Currrent Organization) of AF Form 560?
    • A. 

      Son, USAF E7 (Ret).

    • B. 

      Civilian emergency.

    • C. 

      AD E6 OSI Agent.

    • D. 

      Wife, AD AF 0-3.

  • 95. 
    Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) subsystem supports admissions functions?
    • A. 

      Patient Appointment Scheduling (PAS).

    • B. 

      Managed Care Module (MCM).

    • C. 

      Patient Administration (PAD).

    • D. 

      Clinical (CLN).

  • 96. 
    The Admissions and Dispositions Report is a daily report of
    • A. 

      Admissions, dispoitions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.

    • B. 

      All transactions taking place in the A & D office.

    • C. 

      Admissions, dispositions, and newborns only.

    • D. 

      Admissions and dispositions only.

  • 97. 
    Which is not include in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
    • A. 

      AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement.

    • B. 

      AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record.

    • C. 

      The outpatient record.

    • D. 

      Patient suspense file.

  • 98. 
    An inventory of patient valuables is conducted
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Daily.

  • 99. 
    What form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1403, Roster of Seriously Ill/Very Seriously Ill.

    • B. 

      AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement.

    • C. 

      AF Form 570, Notification of Patient's Medical Status.

    • D. 

      SF 509, Progress Notes.

  • 100. 
    When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
    • A. 

      What 24 hours after death.

    • B. 

      After a complete and thorough investigation ahs been conducted.

    • C. 

      When approved by the Medical Group commander or a designated representative.

    • D. 

      When approved by the wing commander or a designated representative.

  • 101. 
    How must corrections to medical documentation be accomplished?
    • A. 

      Use a commercial liquid or tape white-out product.

    • B. 

      Destroy form with incorrect data and reaccomplish.

    • C. 

      In parenthesis write: data incorrect, see note below.

    • D. 

      Line through the incorrect data with one straight line.

  • 102. 
    Once a pass has been approved for an inpatient, give the original AF Form 569, Absence Record, Section I to the patient and file the copy in the
    • A. 

      Ward's administrative file.

    • B. 

      Patient suspense file.

    • C. 

      Outpatient record.

    • D. 

      Inpatient record.

  • 103. 
    In concert with acquiring long-range aeromedical evacuation (AE) aircraft, full use of helicopters and rapid airlift, what else was instrumental with the reduction of mortality rates?
    • A. 

      Trained AE crews.

    • B. 

      Night vision capabilities.

    • C. 

      Additional congressional support.

    • D. 

      Full support from then chief of staff Gen Henry "Hap" Arnold.

  • 104. 
    What is the largest turbo prop driven cargo aircraft in the Air Force inventory?
    • A. 

      C-17 Globemaster III.

    • B. 

      C-9 Nightingale.

    • C. 

      C-130 Hercules.

    • D. 

      C-5 Galaxy.

  • 105. 
    Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as
    • A. 

      Litter.

    • B. 

      Recovered.

    • C. 

      Psychiatric.

    • D. 

      Ambulatory.

  • 106. 
    What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?
    • A. 

      6A.

    • B. 

      6B.

    • C. 

      5A.

    • D. 

      5B.

  • 107. 
    What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient's Baggage Tag represent?
    • A. 

      The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.

    • B. 

      The civilian AE transport center where the patient will be transported.

    • C. 

      The patient's final MTF destination.

    • D. 

      The patient's originating MTF.