4a051 Vol. 1 And Vol. 2

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    The place where bones meet is a

    • Spinal column.
    • Spinal cord.
    • Muscle.
    • Joint.
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Air Force Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz covers various medical information systems used in Air Force Medical Service, addressing systems like CHCS, TRICARE Online, and Knowledge Exchange.


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  • 2. 

    When writing, which way would be the simplest way for making a personal contact?

    • Big words and long sentences.

    • Familiar, everyday words.

    • Lots of jargon and slang.

    • Fancy sentences.

    Correct Answer
    A. Familiar, everyday words.
    Explanation
    The simplest way for making a personal contact when writing would be to use familiar, everyday words. This ensures that the message is easily understood by the reader and helps in establishing a connection. Using big words and long sentences can make the writing complex and difficult to comprehend. Similarly, lots of jargon and slang may confuse the reader or create a barrier in communication. Fancy sentences might come across as pretentious and may not effectively convey the intended message. Therefore, using familiar, everyday words is the most straightforward approach for making a personal contact through writing.

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  • 3. 

    The suffix "-plasty" means

    • Surgical reshaping.

    • Formation of.

    • Fastening.

    • Paralysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical reshaping.
    Explanation
    The suffix "-plasty" is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical procedure that involves reshaping or reconstructing a specific body part or organ. It is derived from the Greek word "plassein," which means "to shape." Therefore, the correct answer is "surgical reshaping."

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  • 4. 

    Outpatient records are the property of the

    • Department of Defense.

    • Records custodian.

    • Medical treatment facility.

    • Patient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense.
    Explanation
    Outpatient records are the property of the Department of Defense because the Department of Defense is responsible for the overall management and administration of military healthcare facilities. As such, they have the authority and ownership over the medical records generated within these facilities, including outpatient records. This ensures that the records are properly maintained, stored, and accessible for the benefit of the patients and the military healthcare system as a whole.

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  • 5. 

    To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

    • Accomplish a "Patient Lookup".

    • Access On Line Users Manual by entering ??OLUM.

    • Create medical record using post registration options.

    • Compare patient documentation with a (DEERS) RIP from MPF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accomplish a "Patient Lookup".
    Explanation
    Before registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS), it is important to accomplish a "Patient Lookup". This step ensures that the patient is not already registered in the system, avoiding confusion and duplication. By performing a patient lookup, healthcare providers can verify if the patient already has a medical record in the system, preventing the creation of duplicate records. This helps maintain accurate and organized patient information within the CHCS.

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  • 6. 

    A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Ststem (DEERS) to accomplish what task?

    • Verify the patient's eligibility for care.

    • Ensure the patient's CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.

    • Provide a tool for commander's to keep abreast of unit's manning strength.

    • Provides interface for Military Personnel Flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verify the patient's eligibility for care.
    Explanation
    The perpetual link between CHCS and DEERS allows for the verification of a patient's eligibility for care. This means that the system can cross-reference the patient's information in both systems to ensure that they meet the necessary criteria to receive healthcare services. By maintaining this connection, healthcare providers can quickly and accurately determine if a patient is eligible for care, streamlining the process and ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately.

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  • 7. 

    How often are active duty records inventoried?

    • Never, if the facility has CHCS.

    • At least semiannually.

    • Whenever necessary.

    • At least once a year.

    Correct Answer
    A. At least once a year.
    Explanation
    Active duty records are inventoried at least once a year. This means that a thorough check and assessment of the records is conducted annually to ensure accuracy, completeness, and proper organization. Regular inventorying helps in maintaining the integrity of the records and allows for any necessary updates or corrections to be made. It also helps in identifying any missing or misplaced records, ensuring that all active duty records are accounted for and easily accessible when needed.

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  • 8. 

     Inpatient records on a family member of a retired Air Force Chief are the property of the

    • Department of Defense.

    • Medical treatment facility.

    • Family member's sponsor.

    • Medical Group commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense.
    Explanation
    Inpatient records on a family member of a retired Air Force Chief are the property of the Department of Defense because the Department of Defense is responsible for maintaining and storing medical records of military personnel and their dependents. As a retired Air Force Chief, the family member falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense, and therefore their medical records are considered the property of the Department of Defense.

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  • 9. 

    How must corrections to medical documentation be accomplished?

    • Use a commercial liquid or tape white-out product.

    • Destroy form with incorrect data and reaccomplish.

    • In parenthesis write: data incorrect, see note below.

    • Line through the incorrect data with one straight line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Line through the incorrect data with one straight line.
    Explanation
    Corrections to medical documentation should be accomplished by lining through the incorrect data with one straight line. This method ensures that the original information remains visible and the correction is clearly indicated. Using a commercial liquid or tape white-out product may not be appropriate as it can obscure the original information. Destroying the form and reaccomplishing it is unnecessary and wasteful. Writing "data incorrect, see note below" in parenthesis may not be sufficient to clearly indicate the correction.

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  • 10. 

    Which system is designed to store, share, and exchange knowledge among all Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) members?

    • Knowledge Exchange (Kx).

    • TRICARE Online.

    • Micromedex.

    • Military Health System (MHS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge Exchange (Kx).
    Explanation
    Knowledge Exchange (Kx) is the system designed to store, share, and exchange knowledge among all Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) members. This system allows AFMS members to access and contribute to a centralized repository of medical knowledge, promoting collaboration and information sharing within the organization. Kx enables healthcare professionals to stay updated with the latest medical practices, research, and guidelines, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided to patients in the Air Force Medical Service.

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  • 11. 

    Where do you place the Auomated Data Processing Equipment (ADPE) identification label?

    • Front or top of the equipment.

    • Back panel of the equipment.

    • Left side of the equipment.

    • Right side of the equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Front or top of the equipment.
    Explanation
    The Automated Data Processing Equipment (ADPE) identification label should be placed on the front or top of the equipment. This placement allows for easy visibility and identification of the equipment, making it convenient for users to locate and access the necessary information. Placing the label on the back panel, left side, or right side may not provide the same level of visibility and accessibility, potentially causing confusion or delays in identifying the equipment.

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  • 12. 

    The prefix that means "above or excessive" is

    • Homo-.

    • Hyper-.

    • Hemi-.

    • Hypo-.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyper-.
    Explanation
    The prefix "hyper-" means "above or excessive." It is commonly used in medical terms to indicate an excessive or above normal state. For example, hypertension refers to high blood pressure, and hyperglycemia refers to high blood sugar levels. Therefore, "hyper-" is the correct answer as it best fits the definition provided.

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  • 13. 

    What enables a developing baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream?

    • Uterus.

    • Placenta.

    • Ovaries.

    • Fallopian tubes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta.
    Explanation
    The placenta is an organ that develops during pregnancy and connects the developing baby to the mother's uterus. It allows the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the mother's bloodstream and the baby's bloodstream. The placenta also produces hormones that are necessary for the pregnancy to progress. Thus, the placenta enables a developing baby to obtain food and oxygen from the mother's bloodstream.

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  • 14. 

    When are new outpatient record jackets prepared for patients with existing outpatient records?

    • When an Army patient's records are maintained in an Air Force military treatment facility (MTF).

    • When the patient is removed from the Personeel Reliability Program (PRP).

    • When there are no more years left on the table of years.

    • When the folder no longer protects the contents.

    Correct Answer
    A. When the folder no longer protects the contents.
    Explanation
    New outpatient record jackets are prepared for patients with existing outpatient records when the folder no longer protects the contents. This suggests that the current folder has become damaged or worn out, and it is necessary to transfer the records to a new folder to ensure their protection and organization. This process is typically done to maintain the integrity and accessibility of the patient's medical records.

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  • 15. 

    When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?

    • The sponsor.

    • The dependent.

    • The gaining unit.

    • The Primary Care Manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. The dependent.
    Explanation
    When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, the dependent must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record. This form is used to transfer the dependent's medical records to their new healthcare provider after the sponsor's retirement. It is the responsibility of the dependent to ensure that their medical records are transferred appropriately.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of tissue helps support and join together various parts of the body?

    • Connective.

    • Epithelial.

    • Nervous.

    • Muscle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Connective.
    Explanation
    Connective tissue is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing support and connecting different parts of the body. This type of tissue is found throughout the body and includes structures such as tendons, ligaments, and cartilage. Connective tissue is characterized by its ability to bind and support other tissues and organs, as well as its flexibility and strength. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of the body and facilitating movement and stability.

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  • 17. 

    When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?

    • Acute Care Manager.

    • Health Care Manager.

    • Primary Care Manager.

    • Family Practice Manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary Care Manager.
    Explanation
    When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, the records are delivered to the Primary Care Manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing the patient's overall healthcare, coordinating referrals to specialists, and managing the patient's medical records. They play a crucial role in ensuring continuity of care and proper documentation of the patient's medical history.

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  • 18. 

    In concert with acquiring long-range aeromedical evacuation (AE) aircraft, full use of helicopters and rapid airlift, what else was instrumental with the reduction of mortality rates?

    • Trained AE crews.

    • Night vision capabilities.

    • Additional congressional support.

    • Full support from then chief of staff Gen Henry "Hap" Arnold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trained AE crews.
    Explanation
    Trained AE crews were instrumental in reducing mortality rates because they possess the necessary skills and expertise to provide medical care and support during aeromedical evacuations. These crews are trained in advanced medical techniques and are equipped to handle emergency situations. Their presence ensures that patients receive timely and appropriate medical attention, increasing their chances of survival. Without trained AE crews, the effectiveness and efficiency of aeromedical evacuations would be significantly compromised, leading to higher mortality rates.

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  • 19. 

    Which system supports the admissions and dispositions functions in the medical treatment facility (MTF)?

    • DMRIS.

    • DEERS.

    • CHCS.

    • MEDNET.

    Correct Answer
    A. CHCS.
    Explanation
    CHCS (Composite Health Care System) is the correct answer because it is a system that supports the admissions and dispositions functions in a medical treatment facility (MTF). CHCS is a comprehensive software application used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to manage and maintain health records for military personnel and their families. It allows healthcare providers to schedule appointments, track patient information, manage admissions and dispositions, and facilitate the overall management of patient care within the MTF. DMRIS (Defense Medical Readiness Reporting System), DEERS (Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System), and MEDNET do not specifically support admissions and dispositions functions in the MTF.

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  • 20. 

    Which devices are considered auxiliary storage devices?

    • Magnetic tape, operating system, and hard disk.

    • Operating system, floppy disk, and hard disk.

    • Floppy disk, hard disk, USB and magnetic tape.

    • Hard disk, monitor, floppy disk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Floppy disk, hard disk, USB and magnetic tape.
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the devices that are considered auxiliary storage devices, which are floppy disk, hard disk, USB, and magnetic tape. These devices are used to store data and are not part of the computer's main memory. The operating system and monitor are not considered auxiliary storage devices as they serve different functions in the computer system.

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  • 21. 

    The largest artery in the body is the

    • Superior vena cava.

    • Inferior vena cava.

    • Alveolus.

    • Aorta.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aorta.
    Explanation
    The aorta is the largest artery in the body. It originates from the left ventricle of the heart and carries oxygenated blood to the rest of the body. It is responsible for supplying blood to all organs and tissues, making it the largest and most important artery. The superior and inferior vena cava are veins that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart, while the alveolus is a small air sac in the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is the aorta.

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  • 22. 

    Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered

    • Nonreleasable.

    • Classified.

    • Sensitive.

    • Secret.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sensitive.
    Explanation
    Sensitive information refers to any data that may have an impact on a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health. This type of information is considered confidential and should not be released to unauthorized individuals. It is important to protect sensitive information to maintain patient privacy and prevent any potential harm or negative consequences. Therefore, the correct answer is "sensitive."

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  • 23. 

    TRICARE Online allows authorized users to do all of the following except:

    • Schedule appointments.

    • View appointments.

    • Check medications.

    • Access medical record information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Access medical record information.
    Explanation
    TRICARE Online is a platform that enables authorized users to perform various tasks related to their healthcare. They can schedule appointments, view upcoming appointments, and check their medications. However, the one thing they cannot do is access their medical record information. This feature may be restricted to protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user's medical history.

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  • 24. 

    What process realigns the separated files and moves them into a more defined structure increasing data access rate and performance of the system?

    • Network back-up.

    • Defragment.

    • File back-up.

    • Disk space clean-up.

    Correct Answer
    A. Defragment.
    Explanation
    Defragmentation is the process of rearranging fragmented files on a disk to improve data access rate and system performance. When files are stored on a disk, they can become fragmented, meaning they are scattered in different locations. This can slow down the system as it takes longer to access the scattered pieces of a file. Defragmentation brings these scattered pieces together, organizing them into a more defined structure, which allows for faster and more efficient data retrieval. Network back-up, file back-up, and disk space clean-up are unrelated processes that do not specifically address the issue of file fragmentation.

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  • 25. 

    What is a quality or capability of military forces to move from place-to-place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission called?

    • Deployment.

    • Simulation.

    • Exercise.

    • Mobility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility.
    Explanation
    The term "mobility" refers to the quality or capability of military forces to move from one place to another while still being able to carry out their primary mission effectively. This includes the ability to transport personnel, equipment, and supplies efficiently and quickly, whether by land, sea, or air. It is crucial for military operations to have mobility to respond to different situations and maintain flexibility on the battlefield.

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  • 26. 

    Encephal(o) is the root word meaning

    • Intestines.

    • Brain.

    • Skin.

    • Uterus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain.
    Explanation
    The root word "encephal(o)" refers to the brain. This can be understood by breaking down the word: "encephal" refers to the brain, and the suffix "-o" is often used to indicate a root word. Therefore, "encephal(o)" means brain.

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  • 27. 

    What is the abbreviation for "both ears"

    • AD.

    • AE.

    • AK.

    • AU.

    Correct Answer
    A. AU.
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "AU" stands for "auris utraque" in Latin, which translates to "both ears" in English. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical and healthcare contexts to indicate that a condition or treatment applies to both ears. Therefore, AU is the correct abbreviation for "both ears" in this question.

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  • 28. 

    What provides the body energy?

    • Bones.

    • Food.

    • Oxygen.

    • Food and oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Food and oxygen.
    Explanation
    Food and oxygen are both essential for providing the body with energy. Food contains nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are broken down during digestion to release energy. Oxygen is required for the process of cellular respiration, where glucose from food is converted into ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the body's main source of energy. Without either food or oxygen, the body would not be able to generate the energy needed for its various functions and activities.

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  • 29. 

    Inhaling and exhaling result mainly from contractions of the

    • Diaphragm.

    • Brain.

    • Lungs.

    • Heart.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is diaphragm. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs. It plays a crucial role in the process of breathing by contracting and relaxing. When the diaphragm contracts, it moves downward, creating a vacuum in the chest cavity and allowing air to enter the lungs. When it relaxes, the diaphragm moves upward, pushing air out of the lungs. Therefore, inhaling and exhaling primarily result from the contractions of the diaphragm.

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  • 30. 

    What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the Check-In Record option?

    • Clinic returning record.

    • Provider who checked-out the record.

    • Date and time of record being returned.

    • Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Date and time of record being returned.
    Explanation
    The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) records the date and time when a record is returned using the Check-In Record option. This information is important for tracking the movement and availability of patient records within the system. It allows healthcare providers to know when a record was last accessed and returned, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information for patient care.

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  • 31. 

    What computer security (COMPUSEC) abjective is attained when access to sensitive information is allowed only to those with the proper clearance, authorization, and need-to-know?

    • Confidentiality.

    • Availability.

    • Integrity.

    • Safety.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality.
    Explanation
    Confidentiality is the correct answer because it refers to the protection of sensitive information from unauthorized access. By allowing access only to individuals with the proper clearance, authorization, and need-to-know, the objective of maintaining confidentiality is achieved. This ensures that sensitive information remains confidential and is not disclosed to unauthorized parties, thereby protecting the privacy and security of the data. Availability, integrity, and safety are important aspects of computer security, but they do not directly address the restriction of access to sensitive information.

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  • 32. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in computer security (COMPUSEC) awareness and local operating instructions?

    • Information systems security officer (ISSO).

    • Computer systems security officer.

    • Training NCO.

    • Security NCO.

    Correct Answer
    A. Information systems security officer (ISSO).
    Explanation
    The Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO) is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in computer security awareness and local operating instructions. This role involves educating users about the importance of security measures, providing training on how to properly use computer systems and software, and ensuring compliance with security policies and procedures. The ISSO plays a crucial role in promoting a secure computing environment and minimizing the risk of security breaches.

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  • 33. 

    Which scenario is not included in the full spectrum threat response (FSTR) as a required emergency response and mitigation event?

    • Enemy attack.

    • Major accident.

    • Minor government vehicle accident.

    • Natural disaster.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minor government vehicle accident.
    Explanation
    The full spectrum threat response (FSTR) is a comprehensive emergency response and mitigation plan that covers various scenarios. It includes enemy attacks, major accidents, and natural disasters as required events that need to be addressed. However, a minor government vehicle accident is not considered a significant threat or emergency that requires the full spectrum response. It can be handled through regular protocols and procedures without the need for extensive emergency response measures.

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  • 34. 

    The two types of official Air Force E-mail are

    • Command directed and personal.

    • Organizational and individual.

    • Directive and private.

    • Official and unofficial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational and individual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is organizational and individual. This is because the question asks for the two types of official Air Force E-mail, and the options provided are command directed and personal, organizational and individual, directive and private, and official and unofficial. Out of these options, organizational and individual best represent the two types of official E-mail, as it distinguishes between E-mails related to the organization and those related to individuals within the Air Force.

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  • 35. 

    Arteries carry blood

    • Away from the lungs.

    • Away from the heart.

    • To the lungs.

    • To the heart.

    Correct Answer
    A. Away from the heart.
    Explanation
    Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the various parts of the body. They have thick, elastic walls that help maintain blood pressure as the blood is pumped out of the heart. Veins, on the other hand, carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. Therefore, the correct answer is "away from the heart."

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  • 36. 

    Which gland is the "master gland"?

    • Exocrine.

    • Pituitary.

    • Adrenal.

    • Thyroid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary.
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" because it plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the activities of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and releases a variety of hormones that control growth, metabolism, reproduction, and other important bodily functions. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is connected to the hypothalamus, which helps to regulate its hormone production.

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  • 37. 

    Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

    • Drug and alcohol.

    • Adoptions and abortions.

    • Sexual assault and abuse.

    • Child molesation and endangerment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug and alcohol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Drug and alcohol. This is because drug and alcohol laws are typically governed by federal and state regulations that prioritize the protection of public health and safety. Access and release of medical information related to drug and alcohol use may be subject to stricter confidentiality and privacy laws compared to other directives pertaining to adoptions, abortions, sexual assault, abuse, child molestation, and endangerment.

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  • 38. 

    If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

    • Only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).

    • Release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).

    • Send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee.

    • Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.
    Explanation
    If a physician determines that disclosing medical information directly to the patient could harm their physical or mental health or safety, the information should only be released to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations. This ensures that the information is handled by individuals who are trained and qualified to assess and manage the potential adverse effects on the patient's well-being.

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  • 39. 

    For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accpet administrative responsibility?

    • Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.

    • Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilian facility.

    • A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.

    • A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.
    Explanation
    An Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) would accept administrative responsibility for an active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status. This is because the Staff Sergeant is still an active duty member of the Air Force and is entitled to receive medical care at the MTF. The other options involve patients who are either retired or not directly affiliated with the Air Force, and therefore the commander would not have administrative responsibility for them.

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  • 40. 

    Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) subsystem supports admissions functions?

    • Patient Appointment Scheduling (PAS).

    • Managed Care Module (MCM).

    • Patient Administration (PAD).

    • Clinical (CLN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient Administration (PAD).
    Explanation
    The Patient Administration (PAD) subsystem supports admissions functions in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS). This subsystem is responsible for managing patient demographics, admissions, discharges, transfers, and other administrative tasks related to patient care. It ensures that accurate and up-to-date patient information is maintained and accessible to healthcare providers. The Patient Administration subsystem plays a crucial role in coordinating and streamlining the admissions process within the CHCS.

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  • 41. 

    What device is used to junction between local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN)?

    • Wireless access point (WAP).

    • Router.

    • Server.

    • Switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Router.
    Explanation
    A router is the device used to junction between local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN). A router is responsible for forwarding data packets between networks, determining the best path for the packets to reach their destination, and ensuring efficient communication between devices in different networks. It acts as a gateway, connecting LANs to the internet or other WANs, allowing devices in the LAN to access resources and communicate with devices outside the local network. A wireless access point (WAP) provides wireless connectivity within a single network, while a server is a device that provides services to other devices. A switch is used to connect devices within a single network.

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  • 42. 

    What telephone communication system is designed to save lives through the rapid relay of emergency information to specific base agencies?

    • Secondary crash alarm circuit.

    • Primary crash alarm circuit.

    • Administrative.

    • Hot lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary crash alarm circuit.
    Explanation
    A primary crash alarm circuit is a telephone communication system that is specifically designed to quickly transmit emergency information to specific base agencies. This system is implemented to save lives by providing rapid relay of critical information during emergencies. It is a dedicated circuit that is activated in the event of a crash or emergency situation, allowing for immediate communication and response from the appropriate emergency services.

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  • 43. 

    The epidermis

    • Forms the innermost layer of the skin.

    • Forms the outermost layer of the skin.

    • Serves as an important sense organ.

    • Provides extra fuel for the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. Forms the outermost layer of the skin.
    Explanation
    The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin. It acts as a protective barrier against the external environment, preventing the entry of harmful substances and pathogens. The epidermis also helps to regulate body temperature and prevents excessive water loss. It contains specialized cells called keratinocytes that produce a protein called keratin, which gives the skin its strength and waterproof properties. Additionally, the epidermis contains melanocytes that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color. Overall, the epidermis plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of the skin.

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  • 44. 

    What establishes your identity to Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and authenticates your use of the system?

    • User record.

    • Access code.

    • Access and verify codes.

    • Access and verify code in conjunction with the user record.

    Correct Answer
    A. Access and verify codes.
    Explanation
    Access and verify codes are what establish your identity to the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and authenticate your use of the system. These codes are used in conjunction with the user record to ensure that only authorized individuals are able to access and utilize the system.

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  • 45. 

    Which is an appropriate Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) recommendation?

    • Refer to HQ AFPC or Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) for retraining.

    • Assignment to a different geographic area or climate.

    • Refer to HQ AFPC or PEB for profile.

    • Return to duty.

    Correct Answer
    A. Return to duty.
    Explanation
    The appropriate Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) recommendation in this case would be to return to duty. This means that the individual is deemed fit for duty and can resume their regular responsibilities without any restrictions or further evaluation needed. The other options, such as referring to HQ AFPC or Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) for retraining, assignment to a different geographic area or climate, or referring to HQ AFPC or PEB for a profile, are not the correct recommendations based on the information provided.

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  • 46. 

    Information needing protection from public interest is marked

    • For Official Use Only.

    • Privacy Act of 1974.

    • Unclassified.

    • Sensitive.

    Correct Answer
    A. For Official Use Only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "For Official Use Only." This marking is used to indicate that the information is intended for use by government officials or authorized personnel only. It is used to protect sensitive information that, while not classified, should not be disclosed to the public. This marking ensures that the information is handled and protected appropriately to maintain its confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 47. 

    The body of your correspondence explains and clarifies your

    • Introduction.

    • Concludsion.

    • Purpose.

    • Logic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Purpose.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the correspondence is to explain and clarify the introduction. This suggests that the main goal of the communication is to provide further information and understanding about the initial points or topics discussed.

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  • 48. 

    An emergency involving military forces caused by natural disaster, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations is called

    • Mobilization.

    • Contingency.

    • Deployment.

    • Exercise.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contingency.
    Explanation
    A contingency refers to an emergency situation that arises unexpectedly and requires immediate response or action. It can involve military forces and be caused by various factors such as natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations. Mobilization refers to the process of assembling and preparing military forces for deployment, while deployment refers to the actual movement and positioning of military forces. An exercise typically refers to a practice or training activity. Therefore, contingency is the most appropriate term to describe an emergency involving military forces caused by the mentioned factors.

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  • 49. 

    Urine leaves the body through the

    • Urinary bladder.

    • Nephrons.

    • Urethra.

    • Ureters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethra.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is urethra. The urethra is a tube that connects the urinary bladder to the external opening of the body, allowing urine to be expelled from the body. The urinary bladder stores urine until it is ready to be released, and the urethra serves as the passageway for urine to exit the body. The nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys, responsible for filtering waste products from the blood to form urine. The ureters are tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 21, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Ktyafmafb
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