CDC 4NO51 Set B Vol 1 (2)

1. When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

Remove paddles and release joules

Make a list of expired medications

Remove the battery and recharge

2. In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

When the senior medical technician on board approves it

When local protocol authorizes it

During the response phase

During the transport phase

3. The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

Expanded primary survey

Secondary survey

Trauma history

Scene sizeup

4. When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status

Able

Alert

Ambulatory

Asymptomatic

5. What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

Call the nurse to come see the patient

Call the doctor to come see the patient

Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab

Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse

6. During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

1;1

1;2

2;2

2;3

7. Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

Artifacts

Disturbances

Random waves

Deflection waves

8. Which acronym is used by emergency medical technician (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

Range of motion (ROM)

Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

Purified protein derivative (PPD)

Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU)

9. While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

The patient's visual acuity

If the patient is experiencing any pain

Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility

If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

10. When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

When the provider says its time

After the consent form is signed

Once a set of vital signs are repeated

Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

11. When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

Begin suturing

Flush the wound

Clean out the debris with an allis clamp

Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

12. What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

Read the operating instructions

Confirm the order with a co-worker

Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

Ask all family members to leave the room

13. When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

Age

Name

Chief complaint

Medications and allergies

14. The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to

Administer fluids into the circulatory system

Increase overall muscular strength

Decrease susceptibility to infection

Control blood loss

15. If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen

High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

Low-concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula

16. Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

Hematest

Specific gravity

Sugar and acetone

Clean catch mid stream

17. What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members

Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved

Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient

Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible

18. Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

Army field litter

Long backboard

Scoop stretcher

Stoke's basket

19. What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

Arrhythmia

Cardiac arrest

Depolarization

Atrial excitation

20. If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help

How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic

What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

If the patient is authorized care at your facility

21. Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because of greater blood loss or contamination is possible?

Open

Closed

Internal fixation

External fixation

22. A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

Rectum

Sigmoid colon

Ascending colon

Transverse colon

23. How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

100 mmHg

150 mmHg

200 mmHg

300 mmHg

24. In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

Statement that he or she feels dizzy

Plan to resolve a health issue

Complaint of headache

Pulse rate

25. If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

Initial patient assessment

Detailed physical exam

Initial physical exam

Vital signs

26. What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

Hypercalcemia

Hypocalcemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypernatremia

27. After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for

1 to 2 minutes

2 to 3 minutes

3 to 4 minutes

4 to 5 minutes

28. When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

Retractor

Allis clamp

Iris scissors

Mayo scissors

29. In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

Vent port

In-line filter

Back-check valve

Self-sealing rubber cover

30. When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

50

100

150

200

31. When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?

65

75

80

90

32. Which one do you like?

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

33. In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?

5

10

15

20

34. Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below

88 percent

90 percent

97 percent

100 percent

35. After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

Apply a sterile dressing

Assess sensory awareness

Begin suturing the wound

Soak the wound in cold water

36. To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?

Every 24 hours

Every 24 to 48 hours

Every 24 to 72 hours

Every 48 to 72 hours

37. In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

1 to 5 cc

5 to 10 cc

10 to 50 cc

50 to 100 cc

38. At what ages is visual acuity at its best?

20 to 30

10 to 25

5 to 15

15 to 20

39. A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

40. If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to be

Major command (MAJCOM)

Local medical examination board (MEB)

Command level Electrocardiographic Library

US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library

41. Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

Metabolic acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

42. Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

Metabolic acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

43. When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving

In the opposite direction of hair growth

In the direction of hair growth

With facial skin stretched

With slow strokes

44. What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang

Look for cloudiness or floating particles

Remove protective devices yourself

Culture the fluid prior to use

45. As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the

Nose

Hips

Neck

Clavicles

46. While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

Time

Quality

Severity

Radiation

47. What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

Postural hypotension

Positional hypotension

Situational hypotension

Environmental hypotension

48. Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?

Hypervolemia

Hypovolemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypokalemia

49. The eye can generally see wavelengths between

200 and 800 nanometers (nm)

300 and 650 nm

400 and 750 nm

500 and 850 nm

50. When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about

Onset

Quality

Radiation

Provocation

51. In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?

Left atrium

Right atrium

Left ventricle

Right ventricle

CDC 4no51 Set B Vol 1 (2)