CDC 4no51 Set B Vol 1 (2)
- 1.
Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?
- A.
Hypervolemia
- B.
Hypovolemia
- C.
Hyperkalemia
- D.
Hypokalemia
Correct Answer
B. Hypovolemia -
- 2.
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
- A.
Hypercalcemia
- B.
Hypocalcemia
- C.
Hyperkalemia
- D.
Hypernatremia
Correct Answer
C. Hyperkalemia -
- 3.
Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer
D. Respiratory alkalosis -
- 4.
Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer
C. Respiratory acidosis -
- 5.
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
- A.
Administer fluids into the circulatory system
- B.
Increase overall muscular strength
- C.
Decrease susceptibility to infection
- D.
Control blood loss
Correct Answer
A. Administer fluids into the circulatory system -
- 6.
What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?
- A.
Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang
- B.
Look for cloudiness or floating particles
- C.
Remove protective devices yourself
- D.
Culture the fluid prior to use
Correct Answer
C. Remove protective devices yourself -
- 7.
In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?
- A.
Vent port
- B.
In-line filter
- C.
Back-check valve
- D.
Self-sealing rubber cover
Correct Answer
C. Back-check valve -
- 8.
To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?
- A.
Every 24 hours
- B.
Every 24 to 48 hours
- C.
Every 24 to 72 hours
- D.
Every 48 to 72 hours
Correct Answer
D. Every 48 to 72 hours -
- 9.
In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?
- A.
1 to 5 cc
- B.
5 to 10 cc
- C.
10 to 50 cc
- D.
50 to 100 cc
Correct Answer
C. 10 to 50 cc -
- 10.
Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?
- A.
Hematest
- B.
Specific gravity
- C.
Sugar and acetone
- D.
Clean catch mid stream
Correct Answer
B. Specific gravity -
- 11.
What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?
- A.
Call the nurse to come see the patient
- B.
Call the doctor to come see the patient
- C.
Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab
- D.
Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
Correct Answer
D. Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse -
- 12.
After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
- A.
1 to 2 minutes
- B.
2 to 3 minutes
- C.
3 to 4 minutes
- D.
4 to 5 minutes
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 3 minutes -
- 13.
What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?
- A.
Read the operating instructions
- B.
Confirm the order with a co-worker
- C.
Choose a site to obtain a blood sample
- D.
Ask all family members to leave the room
Correct Answer
A. Read the operating instructions -
- 14.
In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
- A.
Statement that he or she feels dizzy
- B.
Plan to resolve a health issue
- C.
Complaint of headache
- D.
Pulse rate
Correct Answer
D. Pulse rate -
- 15.
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
- A.
Rectum
- B.
Sigmoid colon
- C.
Ascending colon
- D.
Transverse colon
Correct Answer
A. Rectum -
- 16.
When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving
- A.
In the opposite direction of hair growth
- B.
In the direction of hair growth
- C.
With facial skin stretched
- D.
With slow strokes
Correct Answer
B. In the direction of hair growth -
- 17.
The eye can generally see wavelengths between
- A.
200 and 800 nanometers (nm)
- B.
300 and 650 nm
- C.
400 and 750 nm
- D.
500 and 850 nm
Correct Answer
C. 400 and 750 nm -
- 18.
At what ages is visual acuity at its best?
- A.
20 to 30
- B.
10 to 25
- C.
5 to 15
- D.
15 to 20
Correct Answer
D. 15 to 20 -
- 19.
When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
- A.
65
- B.
75
- C.
80
- D.
90
Correct Answer
C. 80 -
- 20.
During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
- A.
1;1
- B.
1;2
- C.
2;2
- D.
2;3
Correct Answer
D. 2;3 -
- 21.
Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
- A.
Artifacts
- B.
Disturbances
- C.
Random waves
- D.
Deflection waves
Correct Answer
A. Artifacts -
- 22.
What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?
- A.
Arrhythmia
- B.
Cardiac arrest
- C.
Depolarization
- D.
Atrial excitation
Correct Answer
A. Arrhythmia -
- 23.
If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to be
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM)
- B.
Local medical examination board (MEB)
- C.
Command level Electrocardiographic Library
- D.
US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
Correct Answer
D. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library -
- 24.
What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?
- A.
Postural hypotension
- B.
Positional hypotension
- C.
Situational hypotension
- D.
Environmental hypotension
Correct Answer
A. Postural hypotension -
- 25.
Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below
- A.
88 percent
- B.
90 percent
- C.
97 percent
- D.
100 percent
Correct Answer
C. 97 percent -
- 26.
When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
- A.
When the provider says its time
- B.
After the consent form is signed
- C.
Once a set of vital signs are repeated
- D.
Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
Correct Answer
B. After the consent form is signed -
- 27.
When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a
- A.
Retractor
- B.
Allis clamp
- C.
Iris scissors
- D.
Mayo scissors
Correct Answer
D. Mayo scissors -
- 28.
When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
- A.
Begin suturing
- B.
Flush the wound
- C.
Clean out the debris with an allis clamp
- D.
Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
Correct Answer
B. Flush the wound -
- 29.
After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
- A.
Apply a sterile dressing
- B.
Assess sensory awareness
- C.
Begin suturing the wound
- D.
Soak the wound in cold water
Correct Answer
B. Assess sensory awareness -
- 30.
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
- A.
100 mmHg
- B.
150 mmHg
- C.
200 mmHg
- D.
300 mmHg
Correct Answer
D. 300 mmHg -
- 31.
When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?
- A.
Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip
- B.
Remove paddles and release joules
- C.
Make a list of expired medications
- D.
Remove the battery and recharge
Correct Answer
A. Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip -
- 32.
When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
- A.
Age
- B.
Name
- C.
Chief complaint
- D.
Medications and allergies
Correct Answer
B. Name -
- 33.
In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
- A.
When the senior medical technician on board approves it
- B.
When local protocol authorizes it
- C.
During the response phase
- D.
During the transport phase
Correct Answer
B. When local protocol authorizes it -
- 34.
The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
- A.
Expanded primary survey
- B.
Secondary survey
- C.
Trauma history
- D.
Scene sizeup
Correct Answer
D. Scene sizeup -
- 35.
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
B. 100 -
- 36.
When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status
- A.
Able
- B.
Alert
- C.
Ambulatory
- D.
Asymptomatic
Correct Answer
B. Alert -
- 37.
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
- A.
High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask
- B.
Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
- C.
High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask
- D.
Low-concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula
Correct Answer
B. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen -
- 38.
As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the
- A.
Nose
- B.
Hips
- C.
Neck
- D.
Clavicles
Correct Answer
D. Clavicles -
- 39.
A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
- A.
A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
- B.
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threat to the patient are
- C.
A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
- D.
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
Correct Answer
A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are -
- 40.
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
- A.
Onset
- B.
Quality
- C.
Radiation
- D.
Provocation
Correct Answer
D. Provocation -
- 41.
While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
- A.
Time
- B.
Quality
- C.
Severity
- D.
Radiation
Correct Answer
A. Time -
- 42.
What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?
- A.
Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members
- B.
Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved
- C.
Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient
- D.
Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible
Correct Answer
A. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members -
- 43.
Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
- A.
Army field litter
- B.
Long backboard
- C.
Scoop stretcher
- D.
Stoke's basket
Correct Answer
A. Army field litter -
- 44.
If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask
- A.
If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help
- B.
How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic
- C.
What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device
- D.
If the patient is authorized care at your facility
Correct Answer
C. What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device -
- 45.
If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the
- A.
Initial patient assessment
- B.
Detailed physical exam
- C.
Initial physical exam
- D.
Vital signs
Correct Answer
B. Detailed physical exam -
- 46.
In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
A. 5 -
- 47.
Which acronym is used by emergency medical technician (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
- A.
Range of motion (ROM)
- B.
Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
- C.
Purified protein derivative (PPD)
- D.
Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU)
Correct Answer
B. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD) -
- 48.
Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because of greater blood loss or contamination is possible?
- A.
Open
- B.
Closed
- C.
Internal fixation
- D.
External fixation
Correct Answer
A. Open -
- 49.
While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?
- A.
The patient's visual acuity
- B.
If the patient is experiencing any pain
- C.
Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility
- D.
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
Correct Answer
D. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type -
- 50.
In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
- A.
Left atrium
- B.
Right atrium
- C.
Left ventricle
- D.
Right ventricle
Correct Answer
B. Right atrium -
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Mar 20, 2022Quiz Edited by
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Jan 09, 2018Quiz Created by
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