CDC 4no51 Set B Vol 1 (2)

51 Questions | Attempts: 61
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  • 1/51 Questions

    What steps should you take if you identify a small object while straining urine?

    • Call the nurse to come see the patient
    • Call the doctor to come see the patient
    • Place it in a gauze pad and take it to the lab
    • Place it in a sterile urine cup and notify the nurse
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  • 2. 

    When performing a crash cart check, what should you do after ensuring the defibrillator or cardiac monitor operate?

    • Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip

    • Remove paddles and release joules

    • Make a list of expired medications

    • Remove the battery and recharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Annotate date and time on a rhythm strip
  • 3. 

    In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only

    • When the senior medical technician on board approves it

    • When local protocol authorizes it

    • During the response phase

    • During the transport phase

    Correct Answer
    A. When local protocol authorizes it
  • 4. 

    The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called

    • Expanded primary survey

    • Secondary survey

    • Trauma history

    • Scene sizeup

    Correct Answer
    A. Scene sizeup
  • 5. 

    When performing an initial assessment on a patient and the patient responds by spontaneously opening his or her eyes or answers clearly, how would you assess the patient's mental status

    • Able

    • Alert

    • Ambulatory

    • Asymptomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert
  • 6. 

    During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are

    • 1;1

    • 1;2

    • 2;2

    • 2;3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2;3
  • 7. 

    Any artificial products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called

    • Artifacts

    • Disturbances

    • Random waves

    • Deflection waves

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts
  • 8. 

    When can the minor surgery procedure begin?

    • When the provider says its time

    • After the consent form is signed

    • Once a set of vital signs are repeated

    • Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room

    Correct Answer
    A. After the consent form is signed
  • 9. 

    When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?

    • Begin suturing

    • Flush the wound

    • Clean out the debris with an allis clamp

    • Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Flush the wound
  • 10. 

    Which acronym is used by emergency medical technician (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?

    • Range of motion (ROM)

    • Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)

    • Purified protein derivative (PPD)

    • Alert, verbal, painful, unresponsive (AVPU)

    Correct Answer
    A. Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
  • 11. 

    While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he or she has splashed a chemical in his or her eye, what should you determine first?

    • The patient's visual acuity

    • If the patient is experiencing any pain

    • Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility

    • If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type

    Correct Answer
    A. If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
  • 12. 

    The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to

    • Administer fluids into the circulatory system

    • Increase overall muscular strength

    • Decrease susceptibility to infection

    • Control blood loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Administer fluids into the circulatory system
  • 13. 

    Which urine test is done to determine the hydration level of the patient?

    • Hematest

    • Specific gravity

    • Sugar and acetone

    • Clean catch mid stream

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific gravity
  • 14. 

    What should be done prior to operating a glucose meter?

    • Read the operating instructions

    • Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • Ask all family members to leave the room

    Correct Answer
    A. Read the operating instructions
  • 15. 

    What term is used to describe any variance in the normal electrical rate or sequence of cardiac activities discovered on electrocardiogram tracings?

    • Arrhythmia

    • Cardiac arrest

    • Depolarization

    • Atrial excitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrhythmia
  • 16. 

    When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?

    • Age

    • Name

    • Chief complaint

    • Medications and allergies

    Correct Answer
    A. Name
  • 17. 

    If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide

    • High-concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask

    • Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen

    • High-concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask

    • Low-concentration oxygen with a nasal cannula

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
  • 18. 

    What are your responsibilities as an emergency medical technician (EMT) at the scene of a hazmat incident?

    • Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members

    • Determining wind flow and type of chemical involved

    • Putting out the fire and gaining access to the patient

    • Stabilizing the incident as fast as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Caring for the injured and monitor and rehabilitating the hazmat team members
  • 19. 

    Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?

    • Army field litter

    • Long backboard

    • Scoop stretcher

    • Stoke's basket

    Correct Answer
    A. Army field litter
  • 20. 

    If an individual walks in to a medical treatment facility (MTF) and asks for assistance bringing in a family member, you should ask

    • If the patient can walk to determine if you need to call for help

    • How old the patient is to determine if you should call another clinic

    • What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device

    • If the patient is authorized care at your facility

    Correct Answer
    A. What is wrong with the patient to determine the appropriate transfer device
  • 21. 

    Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because of greater blood loss or contamination is possible?

    • Open

    • Closed

    • Internal fixation

    • External fixation

    Correct Answer
    A. Open
  • 22. 

    What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?

    • Hypercalcemia

    • Hypocalcemia

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hypernatremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperkalemia
  • 23. 

    After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for

    • 1 to 2 minutes

    • 2 to 3 minutes

    • 3 to 4 minutes

    • 4 to 5 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 to 3 minutes
  • 24. 

    In the objective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's

    • Statement that he or she feels dizzy

    • Plan to resolve a health issue

    • Complaint of headache

    • Pulse rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse rate
  • 25. 

    A proctoscopy is an inspection of the

    • Rectum

    • Sigmoid colon

    • Ascending colon

    • Transverse colon

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectum
  • 26. 

    When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

    • Retractor

    • Allis clamp

    • Iris scissors

    • Mayo scissors

    Correct Answer
    A. Mayo scissors
  • 27. 

    How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?

    • 100 mmHg

    • 150 mmHg

    • 200 mmHg

    • 300 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 mmHg
  • 28. 

    If you are treating a severely injured patient with a life-threatening problem, it may be appropriate to skip the

    • Initial patient assessment

    • Detailed physical exam

    • Initial physical exam

    • Vital signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Detailed physical exam
  • 29. 

    In a piggyback setup, what prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions?

    • Vent port

    • In-line filter

    • Back-check valve

    • Self-sealing rubber cover

    Correct Answer
    A. Back-check valve
  • 30. 

    When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?

    • 65

    • 75

    • 80

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
  • 31. 

    Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below

    • 88 percent

    • 90 percent

    • 97 percent

    • 100 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 97 percent
  • 32. 

    When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the affected vehicle?

    • 50

    • 100

    • 150

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
  • 33. 

    In minutes, what is the recommended interval for reassessment of an unstable patient?

    • 5

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
  • 34. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 35. 

    To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on patients scheduled for long-term therapy, how often should you change a patient's intravenous (IV) site?

    • Every 24 hours

    • Every 24 to 48 hours

    • Every 24 to 72 hours

    • Every 48 to 72 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 48 to 72 hours
  • 36. 

    In cubic centimeters (cc), what is the slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution?

    • 1 to 5 cc

    • 5 to 10 cc

    • 10 to 50 cc

    • 50 to 100 cc

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 to 50 cc
  • 37. 

    At what ages is visual acuity at its best?

    • 20 to 30

    • 10 to 25

    • 5 to 15

    • 15 to 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 to 20
  • 38. 

    If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to be

    • Major command (MAJCOM)

    • Local medical examination board (MEB)

    • Command level Electrocardiographic Library

    • US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library

    Correct Answer
    A. US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
  • 39. 

    After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?

    • Apply a sterile dressing

    • Assess sensory awareness

    • Begin suturing the wound

    • Soak the wound in cold water

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess sensory awareness
  • 40. 

    A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threat to the patient are

    • A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    • An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to

    Correct Answer
    A. A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
  • 41. 

    Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory alkalosis
  • 42. 

    Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
  • 43. 

    What is the best way for a medical technician to ensure the sterility of an intravenous (IV) solution?

    • Use only the bag the nurse has spiked and ready to hang

    • Look for cloudiness or floating particles

    • Remove protective devices yourself

    • Culture the fluid prior to use

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove protective devices yourself
  • 44. 

    When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving

    • In the opposite direction of hair growth

    • In the direction of hair growth

    • With facial skin stretched

    • With slow strokes

    Correct Answer
    A. In the direction of hair growth
  • 45. 

    What is another term for orthostatic hypotension?

    • Postural hypotension

    • Positional hypotension

    • Situational hypotension

    • Environmental hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Postural hypotension
  • 46. 

    As a general rule, apply a cervical collar if there is any blow above the

    • Nose

    • Hips

    • Neck

    • Clavicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Clavicles
  • 47. 

    While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?

    • Time

    • Quality

    • Severity

    • Radiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Time
  • 48. 

    Which fluid imbalance is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure?

    • Hypervolemia

    • Hypovolemia

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hypokalemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypovolemia
  • 49. 

    The eye can generally see wavelengths between

    • 200 and 800 nanometers (nm)

    • 300 and 650 nm

    • 400 and 750 nm

    • 500 and 850 nm

    Correct Answer
    A. 400 and 750 nm

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 20, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 09, 2018
    Quiz Created by
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