Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz

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| By Alexlai67
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Alexlai67
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About This Quiz

This is an Ambulatory care trivia quiz that is designed to see just how much you have understood throughout the duration of the course. Do you feel like you have what it takes to tackle it, or are you in need of some more revision? Give the test a try and get to see what the answer to that is based on your score.

Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    HIV, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of AIDS.

    • Hepatitis C virus

    • Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • Human immunodeficiency virus

    • Coronavirus

    • Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    A. Human immunodeficiency virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV was first discovered in 1981 and is known to be the cause of AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). HIV attacks the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, weakening the body's ability to fight off infections and diseases. It is transmitted through certain bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. HIV can be managed with antiretroviral therapy, but there is currently no cure for the virus.

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  • 3. 

    The blood type of the universal donor is ____.

    • O

    • A

    • B

    • AB

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    The blood type O is considered the universal donor because it lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that people with blood type O can donate blood to individuals with any other blood type without causing an adverse reaction. However, individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from other individuals with blood type O.

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  • 4. 

    What part supports the microscope?

    • Nosepiece

    • Low power

    • Base

    • Ocular lens

    • Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Base
    Explanation
    The base of a microscope is the part that supports and provides stability to the entire microscope. It is the bottommost part of the microscope that rests on the table or surface. The base is usually heavy and sturdy to prevent any vibrations or movements that could affect the accuracy of the observations made through the microscope. It also acts as a foundation for the other parts of the microscope, such as the nosepiece, ocular lens, and condenser, ensuring that they are properly aligned and functional.

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  • 5. 

    Renal panel

    • Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • T3, T4, and TSH

    • Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    A. BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and electrolytes. A renal panel is a set of blood tests that assesses kidney function and electrolyte balance. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine are measures of kidney function, while uric acid is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys. Electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are important for maintaining proper fluid balance and nerve function in the body. By measuring these substances in the blood, a renal panel can help diagnose and monitor kidney disease and electrolyte imbalances.

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  • 6. 

    Glucose

    • Gout

    • Nephritis or kidney disease

    • Hepatitis or liver disease

    • Diabetes

    • Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by high levels of glucose in the blood. The other options, such as gout, nephritis, hepatitis, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis, are not directly related to glucose levels in the blood. Therefore, diabetes is the most appropriate answer in this context.

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  • 7. 

    What is another term for eyepiece?

    • Nosepiece

    • Low power

    • Base

    • Ocular lens

    • Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Ocular lens
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ocular lens" because the term "eyepiece" is commonly used to refer to the lens or set of lenses that you look through to view an object in a microscope or telescope. The ocular lens is specifically the lens in the eyepiece that is closest to your eye and helps magnify the image being viewed.

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  • 8. 

    Clotting proteins

    • Electrolytes

    • Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
    Explanation
    Prothrombin and fibrinogen are clotting proteins that play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting. When there is an injury, these proteins are activated and converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding and facilitate wound healing. Without prothrombin and fibrinogen, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to excessive bleeding and difficulty in healing wounds.

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  • 9. 

    Electrolyte panel

    • Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • T3, T4, and TSH

    • Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    A. Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is positively charged cations and negatively charged anions. An electrolyte panel is a blood test that measures the levels of various electrolytes in the body, including sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, and magnesium. These electrolytes are essential for maintaining proper fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Cations are positively charged ions, while anions are negatively charged ions. The electrolyte panel measures the concentrations of these ions in the blood to assess the body's electrolyte balance and overall health.

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  • 10. 

    The prThe preferred sample for pregnancy testing is obtained as a ____.

    • Random sample

    • First morning sample

    • 24-hour sample

    • Catheterized specimen

    Correct Answer
    A. First morning sample
    Explanation
    A first morning sample is the preferred sample for pregnancy testing because it contains a higher concentration of the pregnancy hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). This hormone is produced by the developing placenta and its levels are typically highest in the morning urine. Therefore, using a first morning sample increases the accuracy and sensitivity of the pregnancy test.

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  • 11. 

    Hormones

    • Electrolytes

    • Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid and pituitary glands
    Explanation
    The thyroid and pituitary glands are responsible for the regulation of many important functions in the body. The thyroid gland produces hormones that control metabolism, growth, and development, while the pituitary gland releases hormones that regulate other glands in the body. These glands play a crucial role in maintaining overall hormonal balance and ensuring the proper functioning of various bodily systems.

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  • 12. 

    BUN

    • Gout

    • Nephritis or kidney disease

    • Hepatitis or liver disease

    • Diabetes

    • Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Nephritis or kidney disease
    Explanation
    Nephritis or kidney disease can cause an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. BUN is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, they may not be able to adequately filter out the BUN, leading to an increase in its levels in the blood. This can be a sign of nephritis or kidney disease. Gout, hepatitis or liver disease, diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly related to BUN levels.

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  • 13. 

    High level thought to be protective

    • Triglyceride level

    • HDL

    • LDL

    • Cholesterol

    • Apolipoprotein A, B

    Correct Answer
    A. HDL
    Explanation
    HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is considered to be protective because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transports it to the liver for disposal. High levels of HDL are associated with a lower risk of heart disease, as it helps to prevent the buildup of plaque in the arteries. This is why having a high level of HDL is often considered beneficial for overall cardiovascular health.

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  • 14. 

    Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of ____ hormone.

    • FSH

    • LH

    • HCG

    • TEH

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of HCG hormone. HCG, also known as human chorionic gonadotropin, is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in a woman's urine or blood, indicating the presence of pregnancy. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation, but they are not specific to pregnancy. TEH is not a hormone related to pregnancy testing.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following organisms has a characteristic jerky movement?

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Gardnerella vaginalis

    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Trichomonas vaginalis
    Explanation
    T vaginalis can be differentiated on the basis of its characteristic jerky movements.

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  • 16. 

    Thyroid panel

    • Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • T3, T4, and TSH

    • Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    A. T3, T4, and TSH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T3, T4, and TSH. A thyroid panel is a blood test that measures the levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) are hormones produced by the thyroid gland that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. TSH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4. Measuring the levels of these hormones can help diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.

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  • 17. 

    The ag The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is ____.

    • Under 5

    • 15 to 25

    • 30 to 40

    • 40 and over

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 to 25
    Explanation
    The age group of 15 to 25 is the most common age range in which symptoms of EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) are often displayed. This age group is particularly susceptible to the virus due to factors like close contact in school or college settings, sharing of utensils, and engaging in activities that involve close physical contact. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and body aches.

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  • 18. 

    What intensifies the light and sends it through the slide into the objective lens?

    • Nosepiece

    • Low power

    • Base

    • Ocular lens

    • Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Condenser
    Explanation
    http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-parts.htm

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  • 19. 

    Hepatic panel

    • Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • T3, T4, and TSH

    • Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes a list of specific tests that are part of a hepatic panel. A hepatic panel is a group of blood tests that evaluate the function of the liver. Bilirubin is a pigment produced by the liver and high levels can indicate liver disease. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and low levels can indicate liver dysfunction. ALP (alkaline phosphatase), GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), ALT (alanine aminotransferase), and LD (lactate dehydrogenase) are enzymes that can be elevated in liver damage or disease. These tests together provide a comprehensive assessment of liver function.

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  • 20. 

    People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following? ____

    • Albumin

    • Bad cholesterol (LDL)

    • Glucose

    • Good cholesterol (HDL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Bad cholesterol (LDL)
    Explanation
    People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats are likely to increase their level of bad cholesterol (LDL). Regular exercise helps to increase the levels of good cholesterol (HDL) and reduce the levels of bad cholesterol (LDL). Being overweight and consuming a diet high in saturated fats can lead to an increase in LDL cholesterol levels, which can contribute to the development of cardiovascular diseases.

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  • 21. 

    Salts

    • Electrolytes

    • Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrolytes
    Explanation
    Electrolytes are substances that conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted. They are essential for various bodily functions, such as maintaining proper hydration, regulating nerve and muscle function, and balancing pH levels. Common electrolytes include sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride ions. They help to maintain the body's fluid balance, transmit nerve impulses, and facilitate muscle contractions. Therefore, electrolytes are the correct answer in this context.

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  • 22. 

    This organism was first detected in 1982. It can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe anemia and kidney failure.

    • Hepatitis C virus

    • Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • Human immunodeficiency virus

    • Coronavirus

    • Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    A. Escherichia coli 0157:H7
    Explanation
    Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is the correct answer because it was first detected in 1982 and is known to cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, a severe condition characterized by anemia and kidney failure. This strain of E. coli is particularly dangerous and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, leading to outbreaks of illness. It is important to properly cook and handle food to prevent infection with E. coli 0157:H7.

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  • 23. 

    Prostate

    • PSA

    • CEA antigen

    • Alpha fetoprotein

    • Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    A. PSA
    Explanation
    PSA stands for Prostate-Specific Antigen, which is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, as elevated levels of PSA in the blood may indicate the presence of the disease. PSA testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer and can help in early detection and monitoring of the disease. Therefore, among the given options, PSA is the most relevant marker for prostate-related conditions.

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  • 24. 

    Wastes

    • Electrolytes

    • Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Urea, uric acid, creatinine
    Explanation
    Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are substances that are considered as waste products in the body. They are byproducts of various metabolic processes and need to be eliminated from the body to maintain proper functioning. Urea is produced in the liver from the breakdown of proteins, uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism. These waste products are filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Their accumulation in the body can indicate kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues.

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  • 25. 

    Cholesterol

    • Gout

    • Nephritis or kidney disease

    • Hepatitis or liver disease

    • Diabetes

    • Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
    Explanation
    Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis are mentioned as the correct answer because they are both conditions that can be caused or worsened by high cholesterol levels. Cholesterol is a fatty substance that can build up in the arteries, leading to the formation of plaques. Over time, these plaques can narrow the arteries and restrict blood flow to the heart, causing coronary artery disease. Atherosclerosis refers to the hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to the accumulation of plaque. Both conditions are commonly associated with high cholesterol levels and can increase the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis? ____  

    • HIV

    • Variola major

    • Epstein-Barr virus

    • Cytomegalovirus

    Correct Answer
    A. Epstein-Barr virus
    Explanation
    Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is a member of the herpesvirus family and is transmitted through saliva. It primarily affects young adults and is characterized by symptoms such as fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and fatigue. HIV is the causative agent of AIDS, variola major is the causative agent of smallpox, and cytomegalovirus can cause various infections but not specifically infectious mononucleosis.

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  • 27. 

    Transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily by __

    • Direct contact

    • Injection

    • Aspiration

    • Vector

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct contact
    Explanation
    The Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily transmitted through direct contact. This means that the virus spreads from person to person through close contact, such as kissing, sharing utensils or drinks, or through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Direct contact is the most common mode of transmission for this virus, allowing it to easily pass from one individual to another.

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  • 28. 

    Sensitivity test is done ____.

    • To identify the organism

    • To determine which antibiotics would be most effective for treating patients’ bacterial infections

    • To perform a colony count

    • To determine whether the organism will grow anaerobically

    Correct Answer
    A. To determine which antibiotics would be most effective for treating patients’ bacterial infections
    Explanation
    Sensitivity tests are conducted to determine which antibiotics would be most effective in treating patients' bacterial infections. By testing the organism's sensitivity to different antibiotics, healthcare professionals can identify the most appropriate treatment option. This helps in selecting the antibiotics that will effectively kill or inhibit the growth of the organism causing the infection, ensuring the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • 29. 

    Which          Which of the following steps are incorrect when collecting a throat culture?

    • Sanitize your hands, and apply gloves.

    • Have the patient sit with head back. Use a sterile tongue depressor to hold down the tongue, and have the patient say “Ahh.”

    • Rotate the swab on the back of throat in a circular motion or figure-eight pattern, and place it in the appropriate container.

    • Be sure to touch the teeth and the back of the tongue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Be sure to touch the teeth and the back of the tongue.
    Explanation
    When collecting a throat culture, it is incorrect to touch the teeth and the back of the tongue. The purpose of collecting a throat culture is to obtain a sample of the bacteria or virus present in the throat, and touching the teeth and the back of the tongue can introduce contaminants from the mouth, which may affect the accuracy of the culture results. It is important to only swab the back of the throat in a circular motion or figure-eight pattern to collect an uncontaminated sample.

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  • 30. 

    Liver cancers

    • PSA

    • CEA antigen

    • Alpha fetoprotein

    • Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha fetoprotein
    Explanation
    Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is produced by the liver of a developing fetus. Elevated levels of AFP in the blood can indicate certain types of liver cancer, such as hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP can also be elevated in other conditions, such as certain types of germ cell tumors and liver cirrhosis. Therefore, measuring AFP levels can be a useful diagnostic tool in the detection and monitoring of liver cancers.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test? ____

    • Pap test

    • Dipstick urinalysis test

    • Pulmonary function test

    • TB skin test

    Correct Answer
    A. Dipstick urinalysis test
    Explanation
    A CLIA waived test is a test that is considered simple and low risk, and can be performed outside of a traditional laboratory setting. The dipstick urinalysis test is a prime example of a CLIA waived test because it involves using a dipstick to quickly analyze a urine sample for various substances such as glucose, protein, and pH levels. This test can be easily performed in a doctor's office or at home, without the need for specialized equipment or trained laboratory personnel.

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  • 32. 

    About ____ percent of North Americans are Rh positive, and ____ percent are Rh negative.

    • 85; 15

    • 15; 85

    • 5; 95

    • 95; 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 85; 15
    Explanation
    Approximately 85% of North Americans are Rh positive, meaning they have the Rh antigen on their red blood cells. Conversely, around 15% of North Americans are Rh negative, indicating that they do not have the Rh antigen.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following organisms produces a neurotoxin, the most poisonous natural substance known, which causes dry mouth, dilated pupils, and a progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death?

    • Bacillus anthracis

    • Clostridium botulinum

    • Francisella tularensis

    • Variola major

    Correct Answer
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    Explanation
    Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxin called botulinum toxin, which is the most poisonous natural substance known. This toxin causes various symptoms including dry mouth, dilated pupils, and progressive muscle weakness. If left untreated, it can lead to respiratory failure and death. Bacillus anthracis is the bacterium that causes anthrax, Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, and Variola major causes smallpox. None of these organisms produce a neurotoxin as potent as the one produced by Clostridium botulinum.

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  • 34. 

    WhicWhich of the following microscope maintenance actions is incorrect? ____ Which of t

    • Clean all lenses with lens paper only

    • When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens

    • Store the microscope in a dust free area with a cover over it

    • Carry the microscope with two hands by the base and arm

    Correct Answer
    A. When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens
  • 35. 

    Wet mounts can be done to detect the presence of “clue cells,” vaginal epithelial cells covered with what organism?

    • Gardnerella vaginalis

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • Chlamydia trachomatis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gardnerella vaginalis
    Explanation
    Bacterial vaginosis (also known as Gardnerella, hemophilus, or non-specific vaginitis) is characterized by the presence of "clue cells" visible at both low and medium power

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following causes viral hemorrhagic fever?

    • Herpes simplex

    • Variola minor

    • Ebola virus

    • Variola major

    Correct Answer
    A. Ebola virus
    Explanation
    Ebola virus causes viral hemorrhagic fever. Viral hemorrhagic fever is a severe illness characterized by fever, fatigue, muscle aches, and bleeding. Ebola virus is transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, such as fruit bats or monkeys, and can then spread between humans through direct contact with bodily fluids. The virus causes damage to blood vessels, leading to internal bleeding and organ failure. Outbreaks of Ebola virus disease have occurred primarily in Central and West Africa, with high mortality rates.

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  • 37. 

    Bilirubin

    • Gout

    • Nephritis or kidney disease

    • Hepatitis or liver disease

    • Diabetes

    • Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis or liver disease
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is normally processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. Elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood can indicate liver dysfunction or disease. Hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver, can cause an increase in bilirubin levels. Therefore, the presence of hepatitis or liver disease is a plausible explanation for elevated bilirubin levels.

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  • 38. 

    What is used to turn from one objective to another?

    • Nosepiece

    • Low power

    • Base

    • Ocular lens

    • Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Nosepiece
    Explanation
    http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-glossary.htm

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  • 39. 

    Which o       Which of the following describes a coccus bacteria?

    • An organism that can be a gently curved rod

    • A rod-shaped organism

    • A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, tetrads, or chains

    • An organism that looks like a corkscrew or a spring

    Correct Answer
    A. A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, tetrads, or chains
    Explanation
    A coccus bacteria is a round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, tetrads, or chains. This description accurately defines the characteristics of a coccus bacteria, which is a spherical-shaped bacterium that can arrange itself in various patterns.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following organisms are referred to as acid-fast bacilli?

    • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • Escherichia coli

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    Correct Answer
    A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis is referred to as acid-fast bacilli because it has a unique cell wall structure that allows it to retain a red stain even after being treated with acid. This characteristic is used in laboratory tests, such as the acid-fast stain, to identify and differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other bacteria. Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae do not possess this acid-fast property.

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  • 41. 

    Major protein in HDL

    • Triglyceride level

    • HDL

    • LDL

    • Apolipoprotein B

    • Apolipoprotein A

    Correct Answer
    A. Apolipoprotein A
    Explanation
    http://www.scientificpsychic.com/health/lipoproteins-LDL-HDL.html

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose testing? ____

    • GTT

    • VLDL

    • OGTT

    • FBG (FBS)

    • A1C

    Correct Answer
    A. VLDL
    Explanation
    VLDL stands for Very Low-Density Lipoprotein, which is a type of lipoprotein that transports triglycerides and cholesterol in the bloodstream. It is not related to glucose testing as it primarily focuses on lipid levels rather than glucose levels. On the other hand, GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test), OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test), FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose), and A1C are all abbreviations commonly used in the context of glucose testing.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following statements is false? ____

    • No antigens of the ABO system are present on cells of group O individuals.

    • Type A blood contains anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

    • Rh slide typing is performed at body temperature.

    • An Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood.

    • An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus may cause hemolytic problems in the fetus.

    Correct Answer
    A. An Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood.
    Explanation
    Rh (D)-negative individuals should not be transfused with Rh-positive blood because they lack the Rh antigen on their red blood cells. If Rh-positive blood is transfused into an Rh (D)-negative person, it can lead to an immune response and the production of antibodies against the Rh antigen, potentially causing a transfusion reaction. Therefore, the statement that an Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood is false.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is correct regarding microorganisms?

    • Bacteria are prokaryotic, reproduce by binary fission, and can form colonies when they multiply on culture media.

    • Fungi are eukaryotic, and some are yeast, which reproduce by budding.

    • Parasites can be one-celled protozoa such as amoebae.

    • Viruses live in a host cell and are made of RNA or DNA.

    • All of the above are correct

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above are correct
    Explanation
    All of the statements mentioned in the options are correct regarding microorganisms. Bacteria are indeed prokaryotic and reproduce by binary fission. They can also form colonies when they multiply on culture media. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms and some of them, like yeast, reproduce by budding. Parasites can include one-celled protozoa such as amoebae. Lastly, viruses do live inside a host cell and are composed of RNA or DNA. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct regarding microorganisms.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following causes smallpox?

    • Bacillus anthracis

    • Yersinia pestis

    • Francisella tularensis

    • Variola major

    Correct Answer
    A. Variola major
    Explanation
    Variola major is the correct answer because it is the virus that causes smallpox. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease that is caused by the variola virus. It is characterized by a high fever, rash, and the formation of fluid-filled blisters on the skin. Smallpox has been responsible for numerous epidemics throughout history, but thanks to a global vaccination campaign, it was declared eradicated in 1980.

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  • 46. 

    The object on the slide should be initially located using which objective?

    • Nosepiece

    • Low power

    • Base

    • Ocular lens

    • Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Low power
    Explanation
    The object on the slide should be initially located using the low power objective because this objective provides a wider field of view and a lower magnification. This allows for a larger portion of the slide to be visible, making it easier to locate the object of interest. The higher power objectives may provide a greater level of magnification, but they have a smaller field of view, which can make it more difficult to locate the object initially. Therefore, the low power objective is the most suitable for locating the object on the slide.

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  • 47. 

    Exposure to ____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals.

    • Blood

    • Urine

    • Semen

    • Bloody fluids

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    Exposure to blood constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals. Blood can contain high levels of these viruses, and direct contact with infected blood can lead to transmission of the viruses. Health-care professionals are at a higher risk of exposure to blood due to their frequent contact with patients, especially during procedures that involve blood. Therefore, it is crucial for health-care professionals to follow proper infection control measures, such as wearing gloves and using safety devices, to minimize the risk of infection.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the five types of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions?

    • IgE

    • IgM

    • IgA

    • IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgE
    Explanation
    IgE antibodies are involved in allergic reactions. IgE antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to allergens, such as pollen, pet dander, or certain foods. When a person with allergies is exposed to these allergens, IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals. This immune response leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as sneezing, itching, and swelling. IgM, IgA, and IgG antibodies are not typically involved in allergic reactions.

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  • 49. 

    Uric acid

    • Gout

    • Nephritis or kidney disease

    • Hepatitis or liver disease

    • Diabetes

    • Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gout
    Explanation
    Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys. However, if the kidneys are not functioning properly, such as in nephritis or kidney disease, uric acid levels can increase and lead to gout. Similarly, liver diseases like hepatitis can affect the metabolism of uric acid, leading to its accumulation. Although diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly linked to gout, they can increase the risk of developing gout due to their impact on overall health and metabolism.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 11, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Alexlai67

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