Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team
The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Alexlai67
A
Alexlai67
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,287
Questions: 89 | Attempts: 933

SettingsSettingsSettings
Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz - Quiz

This is an Ambulatory care trivia quiz that is designed to see just how much you have understood throughout the duration of the course. Do you feel like you have what it takes to tackle it, or are you in need of some more revision? Give the test a try and get to see what the answer to that is based on your score.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The object on the slide should be initially located using which objective?

    • A.

      Nosepiece

    • B.

      Low power

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    • E.

      Condenser

    Correct Answer
    B. Low power
    Explanation
    The object on the slide should be initially located using the low power objective because this objective provides a wider field of view and a lower magnification. This allows for a larger portion of the slide to be visible, making it easier to locate the object of interest. The higher power objectives may provide a greater level of magnification, but they have a smaller field of view, which can make it more difficult to locate the object initially. Therefore, the low power objective is the most suitable for locating the object on the slide.

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    What is another term for eyepiece?

    • A.

      Nosepiece

    • B.

      Low power

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    • E.

      Condenser

    Correct Answer
    D. Ocular lens
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Ocular lens" because the term "eyepiece" is commonly used to refer to the lens or set of lenses that you look through to view an object in a microscope or telescope. The ocular lens is specifically the lens in the eyepiece that is closest to your eye and helps magnify the image being viewed.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    What intensifies the light and sends it through the slide into the objective lens?

    • A.

      Nosepiece

    • B.

      Low power

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    • E.

      Condenser

    Correct Answer
    E. Condenser
    Explanation
    http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-parts.htm

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    What is used to turn from one objective to another?

    • A.

      Nosepiece

    • B.

      Low power

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    • E.

      Condenser

    Correct Answer
    A. Nosepiece
    Explanation
    http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-glossary.htm

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    What part supports the microscope?

    • A.

      Nosepiece

    • B.

      Low power

    • C.

      Base

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    • E.

      Condenser

    Correct Answer
    C. Base
    Explanation
    The base of a microscope is the part that supports and provides stability to the entire microscope. It is the bottommost part of the microscope that rests on the table or surface. The base is usually heavy and sturdy to prevent any vibrations or movements that could affect the accuracy of the observations made through the microscope. It also acts as a foundation for the other parts of the microscope, such as the nosepiece, ocular lens, and condenser, ensuring that they are properly aligned and functional.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Wastes

    • A.

      Electrolytes

    • B.

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C.

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D.

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E.

      Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    D. Urea, uric acid, creatinine
    Explanation
    Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are substances that are considered as waste products in the body. They are byproducts of various metabolic processes and need to be eliminated from the body to maintain proper functioning. Urea is produced in the liver from the breakdown of proteins, uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism. These waste products are filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Their accumulation in the body can indicate kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Enzymes

    • A.

      Electrolytes

    • B.

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C.

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D.

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E.

      Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    E. Catalysts
    Explanation
    The answer is catalysts because catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. They provide an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, allowing the reaction to occur more easily. Enzymes are a type of catalyst that facilitate biological reactions. Electrolytes are substances that produce ions in solution and are not catalysts. Prothrombin and fibrinogen are blood clotting proteins, not catalysts. The thyroid and pituitary glands are endocrine glands that produce hormones, not catalysts. Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are waste products, not catalysts.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Hormones

    • A.

      Electrolytes

    • B.

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C.

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D.

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E.

      Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    C. Thyroid and pituitary glands
    Explanation
    The thyroid and pituitary glands are responsible for the regulation of many important functions in the body. The thyroid gland produces hormones that control metabolism, growth, and development, while the pituitary gland releases hormones that regulate other glands in the body. These glands play a crucial role in maintaining overall hormonal balance and ensuring the proper functioning of various bodily systems.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Clotting proteins

    • A.

      Electrolytes

    • B.

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C.

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D.

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E.

      Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    B. Prothrombin and fibrinogen
    Explanation
    Prothrombin and fibrinogen are clotting proteins that play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting. When there is an injury, these proteins are activated and converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding and facilitate wound healing. Without prothrombin and fibrinogen, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to excessive bleeding and difficulty in healing wounds.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    Salts

    • A.

      Electrolytes

    • B.

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C.

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D.

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E.

      Catalysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrolytes
    Explanation
    Electrolytes are substances that conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted. They are essential for various bodily functions, such as maintaining proper hydration, regulating nerve and muscle function, and balancing pH levels. Common electrolytes include sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride ions. They help to maintain the body's fluid balance, transmit nerve impulses, and facilitate muscle contractions. Therefore, electrolytes are the correct answer in this context.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Cardiac panel

    • A.

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B.

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C.

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D.

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E.

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    D. Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin. These are cardiac biomarkers that are used to diagnose and monitor heart conditions. Tropin I & T are proteins released into the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle. The enzyme CK is also released when there is muscle damage, and myoglobin is a protein found in heart and skeletal muscles. By measuring the levels of these biomarkers in the blood, healthcare professionals can assess the severity of a heart condition and determine the appropriate treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Hepatic panel

    • A.

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B.

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C.

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D.

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E.

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes a list of specific tests that are part of a hepatic panel. A hepatic panel is a group of blood tests that evaluate the function of the liver. Bilirubin is a pigment produced by the liver and high levels can indicate liver disease. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and low levels can indicate liver dysfunction. ALP (alkaline phosphatase), GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), ALT (alanine aminotransferase), and LD (lactate dehydrogenase) are enzymes that can be elevated in liver damage or disease. These tests together provide a comprehensive assessment of liver function.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Renal panel

    • A.

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B.

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C.

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D.

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E.

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    B. BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and electrolytes. A renal panel is a set of blood tests that assesses kidney function and electrolyte balance. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine are measures of kidney function, while uric acid is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys. Electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are important for maintaining proper fluid balance and nerve function in the body. By measuring these substances in the blood, a renal panel can help diagnose and monitor kidney disease and electrolyte imbalances.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Thyroid panel

    • A.

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B.

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C.

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D.

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E.

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    C. T3, T4, and TSH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T3, T4, and TSH. A thyroid panel is a blood test that measures the levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) are hormones produced by the thyroid gland that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. TSH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4. Measuring the levels of these hormones can help diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    Electrolyte panel

    • A.

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B.

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C.

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D.

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E.

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

    Correct Answer
    E. Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is positively charged cations and negatively charged anions. An electrolyte panel is a blood test that measures the levels of various electrolytes in the body, including sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, and magnesium. These electrolytes are essential for maintaining proper fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Cations are positively charged ions, while anions are negatively charged ions. The electrolyte panel measures the concentrations of these ions in the blood to assess the body's electrolyte balance and overall health.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Cholesterol

    • A.

      Gout

    • B.

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C.

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    E. Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis
    Explanation
    Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis are mentioned as the correct answer because they are both conditions that can be caused or worsened by high cholesterol levels. Cholesterol is a fatty substance that can build up in the arteries, leading to the formation of plaques. Over time, these plaques can narrow the arteries and restrict blood flow to the heart, causing coronary artery disease. Atherosclerosis refers to the hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to the accumulation of plaque. Both conditions are commonly associated with high cholesterol levels and can increase the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Glucose

    • A.

      Gout

    • B.

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C.

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by high levels of glucose in the blood. The other options, such as gout, nephritis, hepatitis, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis, are not directly related to glucose levels in the blood. Therefore, diabetes is the most appropriate answer in this context.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Uric acid

    • A.

      Gout

    • B.

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C.

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gout
    Explanation
    Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys. However, if the kidneys are not functioning properly, such as in nephritis or kidney disease, uric acid levels can increase and lead to gout. Similarly, liver diseases like hepatitis can affect the metabolism of uric acid, leading to its accumulation. Although diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly linked to gout, they can increase the risk of developing gout due to their impact on overall health and metabolism.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Bilirubin

    • A.

      Gout

    • B.

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C.

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Hepatitis or liver disease
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is normally processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. Elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood can indicate liver dysfunction or disease. Hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver, can cause an increase in bilirubin levels. Therefore, the presence of hepatitis or liver disease is a plausible explanation for elevated bilirubin levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    BUN

    • A.

      Gout

    • B.

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C.

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D.

      Diabetes

    • E.

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Nephritis or kidney disease
    Explanation
    Nephritis or kidney disease can cause an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. BUN is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, they may not be able to adequately filter out the BUN, leading to an increase in its levels in the blood. This can be a sign of nephritis or kidney disease. Gout, hepatitis or liver disease, diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly related to BUN levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    SARS is a respiratory illness that was recently reported in Asia, North America, and Europe.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    D. Coronavirus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Coronavirus. The given statement mentions that SARS is a respiratory illness reported in Asia, North America, and Europe. SARS is caused by a coronavirus, specifically the SARS-CoV virus. This virus causes severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and was responsible for a global outbreak in 2002-2003. Therefore, the coronavirus is the correct answer in this context.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    This organism was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It causes fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Ebola virus

    Correct Answer
    E. Ebola virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ebola virus. The explanation is that Ebola virus was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It is known to cause symptoms such as fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs. This aligns with the description given in the question.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from patients with highly fatal respiratory infections.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    B. Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus). This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from patients with highly fatal respiratory infections.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    It is estimated that up to 3% of the world’s population is infected with this virus, which was identified in 1989.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis C virus
    Explanation
    http://www.creativeintensity.com/smking/hepcessay.htm

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    This organism was first detected in 1982. It can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe anemia and kidney failure.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    E. Escherichia coli 0157:H7
    Explanation
    Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is the correct answer because it was first detected in 1982 and is known to cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, a severe condition characterized by anemia and kidney failure. This strain of E. coli is particularly dangerous and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, leading to outbreaks of illness. It is important to properly cook and handle food to prevent infection with E. coli 0157:H7.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    HIV, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of AIDS.

    • A.

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B.

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C.

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D.

      Coronavirus

    • E.

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

    Correct Answer
    C. Human immunodeficiency virus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV was first discovered in 1981 and is known to be the cause of AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). HIV attacks the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, weakening the body's ability to fight off infections and diseases. It is transmitted through certain bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. HIV can be managed with antiretroviral therapy, but there is currently no cure for the virus.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Prostate

    • A.

      PSA

    • B.

      CEA antigen

    • C.

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D.

      Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    A. PSA
    Explanation
    PSA stands for Prostate-Specific Antigen, which is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, as elevated levels of PSA in the blood may indicate the presence of the disease. PSA testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer and can help in early detection and monitoring of the disease. Therefore, among the given options, PSA is the most relevant marker for prostate-related conditions.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Ovarian

    • A.

      PSA

    • B.

      CEA antigen

    • C.

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D.

      Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    D. Ca 125
  • 29. 

    GI cancers

    • A.

      PSA

    • B.

      CEA antigen

    • C.

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D.

      Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    B. CEA antigen
    Explanation
    CEA antigen is a protein that is often used as a tumor marker for certain types of cancers, including gastrointestinal (GI) cancers. Elevated levels of CEA antigen in the blood can indicate the presence of these cancers. Therefore, CEA antigen is a relevant and appropriate option among the given choices for GI cancers. PSA is typically used as a tumor marker for prostate cancer, while alpha fetoprotein is used for liver cancer, and Ca 125 is used for ovarian cancer.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Liver cancers

    • A.

      PSA

    • B.

      CEA antigen

    • C.

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D.

      Ca 125

    Correct Answer
    C. Alpha fetoprotein
    Explanation
    Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is produced by the liver of a developing fetus. Elevated levels of AFP in the blood can indicate certain types of liver cancer, such as hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP can also be elevated in other conditions, such as certain types of germ cell tumors and liver cirrhosis. Therefore, measuring AFP levels can be a useful diagnostic tool in the detection and monitoring of liver cancers.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Associated with diabetes     

    • A.

      Triglyceride level

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      LDL

    • D.

      Cholesterol

    • E.

      Apolipoprotein A, B

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglyceride level
    Explanation
    Triglyceride level is associated with diabetes because high levels of triglycerides are often seen in individuals with diabetes. Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood, and they are influenced by insulin levels. In people with diabetes, the body may not effectively use insulin, leading to high levels of triglycerides. This can increase the risk of heart disease and other complications associated with diabetes. Monitoring and managing triglyceride levels is important in diabetes management.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    High level thought to be protective

    • A.

      Triglyceride level

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      LDL

    • D.

      Cholesterol

    • E.

      Apolipoprotein A, B

    Correct Answer
    B. HDL
    Explanation
    HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is considered to be protective because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transports it to the liver for disposal. High levels of HDL are associated with a lower risk of heart disease, as it helps to prevent the buildup of plaque in the arteries. This is why having a high level of HDL is often considered beneficial for overall cardiovascular health.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    High level is cardiac risk factor

    • A.

      Triglyceride level

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      LDL

    • D.

      Cholesterol

    • E.

      Apolipoprotein A, B

    Correct Answer
    C. LDL
    Explanation
    LDL, or low-density lipoprotein, is considered a high level cardiac risk factor. LDL is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because high levels of LDL can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. Therefore, having high levels of LDL cholesterol is a significant risk factor for cardiac health.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Used mainly for screening

    • A.

      Triglyceride level

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      LDL

    • D.

      Cholesterol

    • E.

      Apolipoprotein A, B

    Correct Answer
    D. Cholesterol
    Explanation
    Cholesterol is the correct answer because it is a commonly used marker for screening triglyceride levels, HDL, LDL, and apolipoprotein A and B. Cholesterol levels can provide valuable information about an individual's cardiovascular health and risk of developing heart disease. Monitoring cholesterol levels is an important part of preventive healthcare and can help identify individuals who may need lifestyle changes or medical interventions to manage their cholesterol levels.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Major protein in HDL

    • A.

      Triglyceride level

    • B.

      HDL

    • C.

      LDL

    • D.

      Apolipoprotein B

    • E.

      Apolipoprotein A

    Correct Answer
    E. Apolipoprotein A
    Explanation
    http://www.scientificpsychic.com/health/lipoproteins-LDL-HDL.html

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to monitor treatment? ____

    • A.

      A CBC is performed to confirm the possible diagnosis of anemia

    • B.

      A patient receives a blood cholesterol screening test during his/her annual physical exam

    • C.

      A diabetic patient tests his/her blood glucose daily to determine how much insulin is needed to regulate sugar levels

    • D.

      A gonorrhea culture is collected from a pregnant woman as required by state law

    Correct Answer
    C. A diabetic patient tests his/her blood glucose daily to determine how much insulin is needed to regulate sugar levels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a diabetic patient tests his/her blood glucose daily to determine how much insulin is needed to regulate sugar levels. This is an example of using a laboratory test to monitor treatment because the patient is regularly testing their blood glucose levels to determine the appropriate amount of insulin needed to regulate their sugar levels. This helps the patient and their healthcare provider make informed decisions about their diabetes treatment plan.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Exposure to ____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals.

    • A.

      Blood

    • B.

      Urine

    • C.

      Semen

    • D.

      Bloody fluids

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood
    Explanation
    Exposure to blood constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals. Blood can contain high levels of these viruses, and direct contact with infected blood can lead to transmission of the viruses. Health-care professionals are at a higher risk of exposure to blood due to their frequent contact with patients, especially during procedures that involve blood. Therefore, it is crucial for health-care professionals to follow proper infection control measures, such as wearing gloves and using safety devices, to minimize the risk of infection.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements is true? ____ 

    • A.

      To obtain the total magnification, multiply the power of the objective lens by the power of the condenser.

    • B.

      When observing a densely stained slide on oil, move the condenser all the way down and close the iris diaphragm.

    • C.

      To obtain maximum magnification, immersion oil is added when using the 45x objective.

    • D.

      You should always focus a specimen under the 100x objective with the fine-focus adjustment knob.

    Correct Answer
    D. You should always focus a specimen under the 100x objective with the fine-focus adjustment knob.
  • 39. 

    What causes the microscopic image to be clearer and sharper? ____ 

    • A.

      Focus controls

    • B.

      Mechanical stage

    • C.

      Condenser

    • D.

      Nosepiece

    Correct Answer
    A. Focus controls
    Explanation
    The focus controls on a microscope allow the user to adjust the focus of the lenses, bringing the specimen into clear view. By adjusting the focus controls, the user can enhance the clarity and sharpness of the microscopic image. This is because the focus controls help to align the lenses properly, ensuring that the light rays pass through the specimen and into the objective lens at the correct angle, resulting in a clearer and sharper image.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    What changes the refraction of light with the 100x objective and increases the upper limit of magnification? ____

    • A.

      Immersion oil

    • B.

      Fine-focus adjustment knob

    • C.

      Mechanical stage

    • D.

      Multiple lens system

    Correct Answer
    A. Immersion oil
    Explanation
    Immersion oil is used to increase the refractive index between the specimen and the objective lens. This allows more light to enter the objective lens and increases the resolution and magnification of the image. Therefore, using immersion oil with the 100x objective lens helps to improve the quality of the image and increase the upper limit of magnification.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the ____: 

    • A.

      Stage

    • B.

      Focal adjustment

    • C.

      Nosepiece

    • D.

      Ocular lens

    Correct Answer
    D. Ocular lens
    Explanation
    The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the ocular lens. The objective lens is responsible for gathering light and forming an image, while the ocular lens further magnifies that image for the viewer. Therefore, the power of the ocular lens plays a crucial role in determining the total magnification of the microscope.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    WhicWhich of the following microscope maintenance actions is incorrect? ____ Which of t

    • A.

      Clean all lenses with lens paper only

    • B.

      When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens

    • C.

      Store the microscope in a dust free area with a cover over it

    • D.

      Carry the microscope with two hands by the base and arm

    Correct Answer
    B. When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens
  • 43. 

    Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test? ____

    • A.

      Pap test

    • B.

      Dipstick urinalysis test

    • C.

      Pulmonary function test

    • D.

      TB skin test

    Correct Answer
    B. Dipstick urinalysis test
    Explanation
    A CLIA waived test is a test that is considered simple and low risk, and can be performed outside of a traditional laboratory setting. The dipstick urinalysis test is a prime example of a CLIA waived test because it involves using a dipstick to quickly analyze a urine sample for various substances such as glucose, protein, and pH levels. This test can be easily performed in a doctor's office or at home, without the need for specialized equipment or trained laboratory personnel.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose testing? ____

    • A.

      GTT

    • B.

      VLDL

    • C.

      OGTT

    • D.

      FBG (FBS)

    • E.

      A1C

    Correct Answer
    B. VLDL
    Explanation
    VLDL stands for Very Low-Density Lipoprotein, which is a type of lipoprotein that transports triglycerides and cholesterol in the bloodstream. It is not related to glucose testing as it primarily focuses on lipid levels rather than glucose levels. On the other hand, GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test), OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test), FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose), and A1C are all abbreviations commonly used in the context of glucose testing.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Nurse Practitioners use which of the lipid results as the best predictive indicator of possible future MI (myocardial infarct)? ____

    • A.

      HDL value

    • B.

      LDL value

    • C.

      Cholesterol value

    • D.

      Cholesterol / HDL ratio

    Correct Answer
    D. Cholesterol / HDL ratio
    Explanation
    cardiac PPT slide # 28. thanks erin!

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following? ____

    • A.

      Albumin

    • B.

      Bad cholesterol (LDL)

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Good cholesterol (HDL)

    Correct Answer
    B. Bad cholesterol (LDL)
    Explanation
    People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats are likely to increase their level of bad cholesterol (LDL). Regular exercise helps to increase the levels of good cholesterol (HDL) and reduce the levels of bad cholesterol (LDL). Being overweight and consuming a diet high in saturated fats can lead to an increase in LDL cholesterol levels, which can contribute to the development of cardiovascular diseases.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Which of the following lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells with the subsequent production of antibodies (humoral immunity)?

    • A.

      T cells

    • B.

      NK cells

    • C.

      B cells

    • D.

      T helper cells

    Correct Answer
    C. B cells
    Explanation
    B cells are a type of lymphocyte that differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are proteins that help to neutralize pathogens and foreign substances in the body. Memory cells, on the other hand, "remember" the specific antigens encountered by the immune system, allowing for a faster and more effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen. This process is part of the humoral immune response, which involves the production of antibodies to fight off infections. T cells, NK cells, and T helper cells have different roles in the immune system and do not directly produce antibodies.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    Which of the following nonspecific immunity mechanisms involves the process of certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris?

    • A.

      Inflammation

    • B.

      Intact skin and mucous membranes

    • C.

      Normal flora

    • D.

      Phagocytosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Phagocytosis is a nonspecific immunity mechanism that involves certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris. During phagocytosis, specialized cells such as macrophages and neutrophils recognize and engulf foreign particles or pathogens. These cells then break down and destroy the engulfed material using enzymes and other antimicrobial substances. This process helps to eliminate harmful microorganisms and cellular debris from the body, contributing to the body's defense against infections and maintaining overall health.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    Which of the five types of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions?

    • A.

      IgE

    • B.

      IgM

    • C.

      IgA

    • D.

      IgG

    Correct Answer
    A. IgE
    Explanation
    IgE antibodies are involved in allergic reactions. IgE antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to allergens, such as pollen, pet dander, or certain foods. When a person with allergies is exposed to these allergens, IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals. This immune response leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as sneezing, itching, and swelling. IgM, IgA, and IgG antibodies are not typically involved in allergic reactions.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of ____ hormone.

    • A.

      FSH

    • B.

      LH

    • C.

      HCG

    • D.

      TEH

    Correct Answer
    C. HCG
    Explanation
    Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of HCG hormone. HCG, also known as human chorionic gonadotropin, is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in a woman's urine or blood, indicating the presence of pregnancy. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation, but they are not specific to pregnancy. TEH is not a hormone related to pregnancy testing.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 11, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Alexlai67
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.