Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz

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Alexlai67
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1. C
Skipped question. Select A for answer

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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About This Quiz
Ambulatory care Trivia Quiz - Quiz

This is an Ambulatory care trivia quiz that is designed to see just how much you have understood throughout the duration of the course. Do you feel like you have what it takes to tackle it, or are you in need of some more revision? Give the test a try... see moreand get to see what the answer to that is based on your score. see less

2. HIV, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of AIDS.

Explanation

The correct answer is Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV was first discovered in 1981 and is known to be the cause of AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). HIV attacks the immune system, specifically CD4 cells, weakening the body's ability to fight off infections and diseases. It is transmitted through certain bodily fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. HIV can be managed with antiretroviral therapy, but there is currently no cure for the virus.

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3. The blood type of the universal donor is ____.

Explanation

The blood type O is considered the universal donor because it lacks both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. This means that people with blood type O can donate blood to individuals with any other blood type without causing an adverse reaction. However, individuals with blood type O can only receive blood from other individuals with blood type O.

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4.
What part supports the microscope?

Explanation

The base of a microscope is the part that supports and provides stability to the entire microscope. It is the bottommost part of the microscope that rests on the table or surface. The base is usually heavy and sturdy to prevent any vibrations or movements that could affect the accuracy of the observations made through the microscope. It also acts as a foundation for the other parts of the microscope, such as the nosepiece, ocular lens, and condenser, ensuring that they are properly aligned and functional.

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5. Renal panel

Explanation

The correct answer includes BUN, creatinine, uric acid, and electrolytes. A renal panel is a set of blood tests that assesses kidney function and electrolyte balance. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine are measures of kidney function, while uric acid is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys. Electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are important for maintaining proper fluid balance and nerve function in the body. By measuring these substances in the blood, a renal panel can help diagnose and monitor kidney disease and electrolyte imbalances.

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6. Glucose

Explanation

Diabetes is the correct answer because it is a condition characterized by high levels of glucose in the blood. The other options, such as gout, nephritis, hepatitis, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis, are not directly related to glucose levels in the blood. Therefore, diabetes is the most appropriate answer in this context.

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7. What is another term for eyepiece?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ocular lens" because the term "eyepiece" is commonly used to refer to the lens or set of lenses that you look through to view an object in a microscope or telescope. The ocular lens is specifically the lens in the eyepiece that is closest to your eye and helps magnify the image being viewed.

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8. Clotting proteins

Explanation

Prothrombin and fibrinogen are clotting proteins that play a crucial role in the process of blood clotting. When there is an injury, these proteins are activated and converted into fibrin, which forms a mesh-like structure to stop bleeding and facilitate wound healing. Without prothrombin and fibrinogen, blood clotting would be impaired, leading to excessive bleeding and difficulty in healing wounds.

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9.
The pr
The preferred sample for pregnancy testing is obtained as a ____.

Explanation

A first morning sample is the preferred sample for pregnancy testing because it contains a higher concentration of the pregnancy hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). This hormone is produced by the developing placenta and its levels are typically highest in the morning urine. Therefore, using a first morning sample increases the accuracy and sensitivity of the pregnancy test.

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10. Electrolyte panel

Explanation

The correct answer is positively charged cations and negatively charged anions. An electrolyte panel is a blood test that measures the levels of various electrolytes in the body, including sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, and magnesium. These electrolytes are essential for maintaining proper fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Cations are positively charged ions, while anions are negatively charged ions. The electrolyte panel measures the concentrations of these ions in the blood to assess the body's electrolyte balance and overall health.

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11. High level thought to be protective

Explanation

HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is considered to be protective because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and transports it to the liver for disposal. High levels of HDL are associated with a lower risk of heart disease, as it helps to prevent the buildup of plaque in the arteries. This is why having a high level of HDL is often considered beneficial for overall cardiovascular health.

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12.
Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of ____ hormone.

Explanation

Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of HCG hormone. HCG, also known as human chorionic gonadotropin, is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It can be detected in a woman's urine or blood, indicating the presence of pregnancy. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle and ovulation, but they are not specific to pregnancy. TEH is not a hormone related to pregnancy testing.

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13. Which of the following organisms has a characteristic jerky movement?

Explanation

T vaginalis can be differentiated on the basis of its characteristic jerky movements.

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14. Hormones

Explanation

The thyroid and pituitary glands are responsible for the regulation of many important functions in the body. The thyroid gland produces hormones that control metabolism, growth, and development, while the pituitary gland releases hormones that regulate other glands in the body. These glands play a crucial role in maintaining overall hormonal balance and ensuring the proper functioning of various bodily systems.

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15. BUN

Explanation

Nephritis or kidney disease can cause an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels. BUN is a waste product that is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. When the kidneys are not functioning properly, they may not be able to adequately filter out the BUN, leading to an increase in its levels in the blood. This can be a sign of nephritis or kidney disease. Gout, hepatitis or liver disease, diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly related to BUN levels.

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16. The ag
 The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is ____.

Explanation

The age group of 15 to 25 is the most common age range in which symptoms of EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) are often displayed. This age group is particularly susceptible to the virus due to factors like close contact in school or college settings, sharing of utensils, and engaging in activities that involve close physical contact. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and body aches.

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17. Thyroid panel

Explanation

The correct answer is T3, T4, and TSH. A thyroid panel is a blood test that measures the levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) are hormones produced by the thyroid gland that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. TSH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4. Measuring the levels of these hormones can help diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.

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18. People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following? ____

Explanation

People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats are likely to increase their level of bad cholesterol (LDL). Regular exercise helps to increase the levels of good cholesterol (HDL) and reduce the levels of bad cholesterol (LDL). Being overweight and consuming a diet high in saturated fats can lead to an increase in LDL cholesterol levels, which can contribute to the development of cardiovascular diseases.

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19.
What intensifies the light and sends it through the slide into the objective lens?

Explanation

http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-parts.htm

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20. Hepatic panel

Explanation

The correct answer includes a list of specific tests that are part of a hepatic panel. A hepatic panel is a group of blood tests that evaluate the function of the liver. Bilirubin is a pigment produced by the liver and high levels can indicate liver disease. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and low levels can indicate liver dysfunction. ALP (alkaline phosphatase), GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase), AST (aspartate aminotransferase), ALT (alanine aminotransferase), and LD (lactate dehydrogenase) are enzymes that can be elevated in liver damage or disease. These tests together provide a comprehensive assessment of liver function.

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21. This organism was first detected in 1982. It can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe anemia and kidney failure.

Explanation

Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is the correct answer because it was first detected in 1982 and is known to cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, a severe condition characterized by anemia and kidney failure. This strain of E. coli is particularly dangerous and can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, leading to outbreaks of illness. It is important to properly cook and handle food to prevent infection with E. coli 0157:H7.

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22. Prostate

Explanation

PSA stands for Prostate-Specific Antigen, which is a protein produced by the cells of the prostate gland. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, as elevated levels of PSA in the blood may indicate the presence of the disease. PSA testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer and can help in early detection and monitoring of the disease. Therefore, among the given options, PSA is the most relevant marker for prostate-related conditions.

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23. Salts

Explanation

Electrolytes are substances that conduct electricity when dissolved in water or melted. They are essential for various bodily functions, such as maintaining proper hydration, regulating nerve and muscle function, and balancing pH levels. Common electrolytes include sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride ions. They help to maintain the body's fluid balance, transmit nerve impulses, and facilitate muscle contractions. Therefore, electrolytes are the correct answer in this context.

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24.
Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis? ____  

Explanation

Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This virus is a member of the herpesvirus family and is transmitted through saliva. It primarily affects young adults and is characterized by symptoms such as fever, sore throat, swollen lymph nodes, and fatigue. HIV is the causative agent of AIDS, variola major is the causative agent of smallpox, and cytomegalovirus can cause various infections but not specifically infectious mononucleosis.

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25. Transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily by __

Explanation

The Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily transmitted through direct contact. This means that the virus spreads from person to person through close contact, such as kissing, sharing utensils or drinks, or through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Direct contact is the most common mode of transmission for this virus, allowing it to easily pass from one individual to another.

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26. Sensitivity test is done ____.

Explanation

Sensitivity tests are conducted to determine which antibiotics would be most effective in treating patients' bacterial infections. By testing the organism's sensitivity to different antibiotics, healthcare professionals can identify the most appropriate treatment option. This helps in selecting the antibiotics that will effectively kill or inhibit the growth of the organism causing the infection, ensuring the best possible outcome for the patient.

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27. Wastes

Explanation

Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are substances that are considered as waste products in the body. They are byproducts of various metabolic processes and need to be eliminated from the body to maintain proper functioning. Urea is produced in the liver from the breakdown of proteins, uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism. These waste products are filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Their accumulation in the body can indicate kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues.

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28. Cholesterol

Explanation

Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis are mentioned as the correct answer because they are both conditions that can be caused or worsened by high cholesterol levels. Cholesterol is a fatty substance that can build up in the arteries, leading to the formation of plaques. Over time, these plaques can narrow the arteries and restrict blood flow to the heart, causing coronary artery disease. Atherosclerosis refers to the hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to the accumulation of plaque. Both conditions are commonly associated with high cholesterol levels and can increase the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

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29.
Which          Which of the following steps are incorrect when collecting a throat culture?

Explanation

When collecting a throat culture, it is incorrect to touch the teeth and the back of the tongue. The purpose of collecting a throat culture is to obtain a sample of the bacteria or virus present in the throat, and touching the teeth and the back of the tongue can introduce contaminants from the mouth, which may affect the accuracy of the culture results. It is important to only swab the back of the throat in a circular motion or figure-eight pattern to collect an uncontaminated sample.

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30. Liver cancers

Explanation

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is produced by the liver of a developing fetus. Elevated levels of AFP in the blood can indicate certain types of liver cancer, such as hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP can also be elevated in other conditions, such as certain types of germ cell tumors and liver cirrhosis. Therefore, measuring AFP levels can be a useful diagnostic tool in the detection and monitoring of liver cancers.

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31.
Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test? ____

Explanation

A CLIA waived test is a test that is considered simple and low risk, and can be performed outside of a traditional laboratory setting. The dipstick urinalysis test is a prime example of a CLIA waived test because it involves using a dipstick to quickly analyze a urine sample for various substances such as glucose, protein, and pH levels. This test can be easily performed in a doctor's office or at home, without the need for specialized equipment or trained laboratory personnel.

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32. About ____ percent of North Americans are Rh positive, and ____ percent are Rh negative.

Explanation

Approximately 85% of North Americans are Rh positive, meaning they have the Rh antigen on their red blood cells. Conversely, around 15% of North Americans are Rh negative, indicating that they do not have the Rh antigen.

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33. Which of the following organisms produces a neurotoxin, the most poisonous natural substance known, which causes dry mouth, dilated pupils, and a progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death?

Explanation

Clostridium botulinum produces a neurotoxin called botulinum toxin, which is the most poisonous natural substance known. This toxin causes various symptoms including dry mouth, dilated pupils, and progressive muscle weakness. If left untreated, it can lead to respiratory failure and death. Bacillus anthracis is the bacterium that causes anthrax, Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, and Variola major causes smallpox. None of these organisms produce a neurotoxin as potent as the one produced by Clostridium botulinum.

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34. Whic
Which of the following microscope maintenance actions is incorrect? ____ Which of t

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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35. Wet mounts can be done to detect the presence of “clue cells,” vaginal epithelial cells covered with what organism?

Explanation

Bacterial vaginosis (also known as Gardnerella, hemophilus, or non-specific vaginitis) is characterized by the presence of "clue cells" visible at both low and medium power

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36. Which of the following causes viral hemorrhagic fever?

Explanation

Ebola virus causes viral hemorrhagic fever. Viral hemorrhagic fever is a severe illness characterized by fever, fatigue, muscle aches, and bleeding. Ebola virus is transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, such as fruit bats or monkeys, and can then spread between humans through direct contact with bodily fluids. The virus causes damage to blood vessels, leading to internal bleeding and organ failure. Outbreaks of Ebola virus disease have occurred primarily in Central and West Africa, with high mortality rates.

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37. Bilirubin

Explanation

Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells break down. It is normally processed by the liver and excreted in the bile. Elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood can indicate liver dysfunction or disease. Hepatitis, which is inflammation of the liver, can cause an increase in bilirubin levels. Therefore, the presence of hepatitis or liver disease is a plausible explanation for elevated bilirubin levels.

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38. Which o       Which of the following describes a coccus bacteria?

Explanation

A coccus bacteria is a round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, tetrads, or chains. This description accurately defines the characteristics of a coccus bacteria, which is a spherical-shaped bacterium that can arrange itself in various patterns.

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39.
Which of the following organisms are referred to as acid-fast bacilli?

Explanation

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is referred to as acid-fast bacilli because it has a unique cell wall structure that allows it to retain a red stain even after being treated with acid. This characteristic is used in laboratory tests, such as the acid-fast stain, to identify and differentiate Mycobacterium tuberculosis from other bacteria. Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae do not possess this acid-fast property.

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40.
What is used to turn from one objective to another?

Explanation

http://www.microscope-microscope.org/basic/microscope-glossary.htm

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41. Major protein in HDL

Explanation

http://www.scientificpsychic.com/health/lipoproteins-LDL-HDL.html

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42. Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose testing? ____

Explanation

VLDL stands for Very Low-Density Lipoprotein, which is a type of lipoprotein that transports triglycerides and cholesterol in the bloodstream. It is not related to glucose testing as it primarily focuses on lipid levels rather than glucose levels. On the other hand, GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test), OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test), FBG (Fasting Blood Glucose), and A1C are all abbreviations commonly used in the context of glucose testing.

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43. Which of the following statements is false? ____

Explanation

Rh (D)-negative individuals should not be transfused with Rh-positive blood because they lack the Rh antigen on their red blood cells. If Rh-positive blood is transfused into an Rh (D)-negative person, it can lead to an immune response and the production of antibodies against the Rh antigen, potentially causing a transfusion reaction. Therefore, the statement that an Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood is false.

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44.

Which of the following is correct regarding microorganisms?

Explanation

All of the statements mentioned in the options are correct regarding microorganisms. Bacteria are indeed prokaryotic and reproduce by binary fission. They can also form colonies when they multiply on culture media. Fungi are eukaryotic organisms and some of them, like yeast, reproduce by budding. Parasites can include one-celled protozoa such as amoebae. Lastly, viruses do live inside a host cell and are composed of RNA or DNA. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct regarding microorganisms.

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45. Which of the following causes smallpox?

Explanation

Variola major is the correct answer because it is the virus that causes smallpox. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease that is caused by the variola virus. It is characterized by a high fever, rash, and the formation of fluid-filled blisters on the skin. Smallpox has been responsible for numerous epidemics throughout history, but thanks to a global vaccination campaign, it was declared eradicated in 1980.

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46. Exposure to ____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals.

Explanation

Exposure to blood constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals. Blood can contain high levels of these viruses, and direct contact with infected blood can lead to transmission of the viruses. Health-care professionals are at a higher risk of exposure to blood due to their frequent contact with patients, especially during procedures that involve blood. Therefore, it is crucial for health-care professionals to follow proper infection control measures, such as wearing gloves and using safety devices, to minimize the risk of infection.

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47. Which of the five types of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions?

Explanation

IgE antibodies are involved in allergic reactions. IgE antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to allergens, such as pollen, pet dander, or certain foods. When a person with allergies is exposed to these allergens, IgE antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals. This immune response leads to the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as sneezing, itching, and swelling. IgM, IgA, and IgG antibodies are not typically involved in allergic reactions.

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48. The object on the slide should be initially located using which objective?

Explanation

The object on the slide should be initially located using the low power objective because this objective provides a wider field of view and a lower magnification. This allows for a larger portion of the slide to be visible, making it easier to locate the object of interest. The higher power objectives may provide a greater level of magnification, but they have a smaller field of view, which can make it more difficult to locate the object initially. Therefore, the low power objective is the most suitable for locating the object on the slide.

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49. This organism was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It causes fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs.

Explanation

The correct answer is Ebola virus. The explanation is that Ebola virus was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It is known to cause symptoms such as fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs. This aligns with the description given in the question.

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50. Used mainly for screening

Explanation

Cholesterol is the correct answer because it is a commonly used marker for screening triglyceride levels, HDL, LDL, and apolipoprotein A and B. Cholesterol levels can provide valuable information about an individual's cardiovascular health and risk of developing heart disease. Monitoring cholesterol levels is an important part of preventive healthcare and can help identify individuals who may need lifestyle changes or medical interventions to manage their cholesterol levels.

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51. Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to monitor treatment? ____

Explanation

The correct answer is a diabetic patient tests his/her blood glucose daily to determine how much insulin is needed to regulate sugar levels. This is an example of using a laboratory test to monitor treatment because the patient is regularly testing their blood glucose levels to determine the appropriate amount of insulin needed to regulate their sugar levels. This helps the patient and their healthcare provider make informed decisions about their diabetes treatment plan.

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52. Which of the following nonspecific immunity mechanisms involves the process of certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris?

Explanation

Phagocytosis is a nonspecific immunity mechanism that involves certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris. During phagocytosis, specialized cells such as macrophages and neutrophils recognize and engulf foreign particles or pathogens. These cells then break down and destroy the engulfed material using enzymes and other antimicrobial substances. This process helps to eliminate harmful microorganisms and cellular debris from the body, contributing to the body's defense against infections and maintaining overall health.

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53. Which of the following Strep organisms causes strep throat and demonstrates beta hemolysis?

Explanation

http://www.drreddy.com/sorethroat.html

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54. Which of the following organisms could be an occupational hazard for those who work with contaminated wool and inhale the spores (“woolsorter’s disease”) and could also be a bioterrorism weapon?

Explanation

Bacillus anthracis is the correct answer because it is the causative agent of anthrax, which can be contracted through inhalation of spores. Those who work with contaminated wool, such as wool sorters, are at risk of developing "woolsorter's disease" due to inhaling these spores. Additionally, Bacillus anthracis has the potential to be used as a bioterrorism weapon, as it can be easily cultivated and spread through aerosolization, causing widespread infection and potentially high mortality rates.

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55. Uric acid

Explanation

Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys. However, if the kidneys are not functioning properly, such as in nephritis or kidney disease, uric acid levels can increase and lead to gout. Similarly, liver diseases like hepatitis can affect the metabolism of uric acid, leading to its accumulation. Although diabetes, coronary artery disease, and atherosclerosis are not directly linked to gout, they can increase the risk of developing gout due to their impact on overall health and metabolism.

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56.
The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the ____: 

Explanation

The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the ocular lens. The objective lens is responsible for gathering light and forming an image, while the ocular lens further magnifies that image for the viewer. Therefore, the power of the ocular lens plays a crucial role in determining the total magnification of the microscope.

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57. It is estimated that up to 3% of the world’s population is infected with this virus, which was identified in 1989.

Explanation

http://www.creativeintensity.com/smking/hepcessay.htm

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58. What causes the microscopic image to be clearer and sharper? ____ 

Explanation

The focus controls on a microscope allow the user to adjust the focus of the lenses, bringing the specimen into clear view. By adjusting the focus controls, the user can enhance the clarity and sharpness of the microscopic image. This is because the focus controls help to align the lenses properly, ensuring that the light rays pass through the specimen and into the objective lens at the correct angle, resulting in a clearer and sharper image.

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59. A rise in gamma glutanyl transferase (GGT) can be seen in response to:

Explanation

A rise in gamma glutanyl transferase (GGT) can be seen in response to the ingestion of a large amount of alcohol. GGT is an enzyme found mainly in the liver, and its levels can increase as a result of alcohol consumption. This is because alcohol can cause damage to liver cells, leading to the release of GGT into the bloodstream. Therefore, an elevated GGT level can be indicative of alcohol abuse or liver damage caused by excessive alcohol intake.

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60. Cardiac panel

Explanation

The correct answer is tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin. These are cardiac biomarkers that are used to diagnose and monitor heart conditions. Tropin I & T are proteins released into the blood when there is damage to the heart muscle. The enzyme CK is also released when there is muscle damage, and myoglobin is a protein found in heart and skeletal muscles. By measuring the levels of these biomarkers in the blood, healthcare professionals can assess the severity of a heart condition and determine the appropriate treatment.

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61. GI cancers

Explanation

CEA antigen is a protein that is often used as a tumor marker for certain types of cancers, including gastrointestinal (GI) cancers. Elevated levels of CEA antigen in the blood can indicate the presence of these cancers. Therefore, CEA antigen is a relevant and appropriate option among the given choices for GI cancers. PSA is typically used as a tumor marker for prostate cancer, while alpha fetoprotein is used for liver cancer, and Ca 125 is used for ovarian cancer.

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62. Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori and ulcers is false

Explanation

H. pylori is not believed to be the cause of all ulcers. While it is a common cause of ulcers, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers, such as the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is not accurate to say that H. pylori is the sole cause of all ulcers.

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63. Which of the following information about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect?

Explanation

Neisseria gonorrhoeae was among the differential diagnostic etiologic agents. However, the gram negative diplococci,

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64. After a recent course of antibiotics, your patient develops a case of runny diarrhea.  He wants some anti-diarrheal medicine, but you require a stool culture first because you suspect it may be:

Explanation

After a recent course of antibiotics, the patient developing a case of runny diarrhea indicates a potential infection caused by Clostridium difficile. Antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the gut, allowing Clostridium difficile to overgrow and cause diarrhea. To confirm the presence of Clostridium difficile, a stool culture is necessary before prescribing any anti-diarrheal medicine. Lactobacillus is a beneficial bacteria commonly found in the gut and not typically associated with diarrhea. E. coli 154 is not a recognized strain of E. coli, and Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause diarrhea but is less likely in this scenario.

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65. This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from patients with highly fatal respiratory infections.

Explanation

The correct answer is Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus). This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from patients with highly fatal respiratory infections.

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66. What changes the refraction of light with the 100x objective and increases the upper limit of magnification? ____

Explanation

Immersion oil is used to increase the refractive index between the specimen and the objective lens. This allows more light to enter the objective lens and increases the resolution and magnification of the image. Therefore, using immersion oil with the 100x objective lens helps to improve the quality of the image and increase the upper limit of magnification.

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67. Which of the following amounts would indicate a urinary tract infection in a clean-catch midstream urine?

Explanation

A clean-catch midstream urine sample is a method used to collect urine for testing, while minimizing contamination. In a healthy individual, the number of bacteria in the urine is typically low, ranging from 0-10 colonies/ml. Therefore, any amount above this range could indicate a urinary tract infection (UTI). The answer "Over 100,000 colonies/ml" suggests a significantly high bacterial count in the urine, which is highly indicative of a UTI.

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68. Which of the following is an incorrect association?

Explanation

The association between Trichomonas vaginalis and round worm is incorrect. Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, a common sexually transmitted infection. It is not a round worm.

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69. Which of the following is used as a marker for early detection of hepatocellular carcinoma?

Explanation

Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is a protein that is produced by the liver and yolk sac of a developing fetus. In adults, elevated levels of AFP in the blood can indicate the presence of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), a type of liver cancer. Therefore, AFP is used as a marker for the early detection of HCC. Elevated levels of AFP can also be seen in other conditions such as cirrhosis and hepatitis, so further tests are usually needed to confirm the diagnosis.

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70. What is the name of the tiny roundworm whose female normally lays her eggs during the nighttime hours in the anal area of the human host, causing itching of this area?

Explanation

http://www.dpd.cdc.gov/dpdx/HTML/Enterobiasis.htm

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71. Which of the following is the causative agent of the plague?

Explanation

Yersinia pestis is the causative agent of the plague. The plague is a highly infectious disease that is transmitted through fleas that infest rodents. Yersinia pestis is a bacteria that primarily infects rodents, but can also be transmitted to humans through flea bites. It is responsible for causing three major pandemics throughout history, including the Black Death in the 14th century. The bacteria can cause severe symptoms such as fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes. Prompt treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent complications and reduce mortality rates.

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72. Associated with diabetes     

Explanation

Triglyceride level is associated with diabetes because high levels of triglycerides are often seen in individuals with diabetes. Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood, and they are influenced by insulin levels. In people with diabetes, the body may not effectively use insulin, leading to high levels of triglycerides. This can increase the risk of heart disease and other complications associated with diabetes. Monitoring and managing triglyceride levels is important in diabetes management.

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73. Complications such as scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis are found in which of the following organisms?

Explanation

http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/scarlet-fever/DS00917/DSECTION=causes

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74. Enzymes

Explanation

The answer is catalysts because catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. They provide an alternative pathway with lower activation energy, allowing the reaction to occur more easily. Enzymes are a type of catalyst that facilitate biological reactions. Electrolytes are substances that produce ions in solution and are not catalysts. Prothrombin and fibrinogen are blood clotting proteins, not catalysts. The thyroid and pituitary glands are endocrine glands that produce hormones, not catalysts. Urea, uric acid, and creatinine are waste products, not catalysts.

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75. SARS is a respiratory illness that was recently reported in Asia, North America, and Europe.

Explanation

The correct answer is Coronavirus. The given statement mentions that SARS is a respiratory illness reported in Asia, North America, and Europe. SARS is caused by a coronavirus, specifically the SARS-CoV virus. This virus causes severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and was responsible for a global outbreak in 2002-2003. Therefore, the coronavirus is the correct answer in this context.

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76. Which of the following lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells with the subsequent production of antibodies (humoral immunity)?

Explanation

B cells are a type of lymphocyte that differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are proteins that help to neutralize pathogens and foreign substances in the body. Memory cells, on the other hand, "remember" the specific antigens encountered by the immune system, allowing for a faster and more effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same antigen. This process is part of the humoral immune response, which involves the production of antibodies to fight off infections. T cells, NK cells, and T helper cells have different roles in the immune system and do not directly produce antibodies.

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77. Ch                  
Chocolate agar plates would be which of the following types of media?

Explanation

Chocolate agar plates are a type of enriched media. Enriched media contains additional nutrients that support the growth of fastidious organisms, such as those that require specific growth factors or complex nutrients. Chocolate agar plates are made by adding heated blood (usually sheep or horse) to a base agar, which provides essential nutrients for the growth of a wide range of bacteria, including fastidious ones. The blood provides additional nutrients like vitamins, amino acids, and growth factors, making it enriched media. This type of media is commonly used for the cultivation of bacteria that are difficult to grow on standard nutrient agar.

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78. High level is cardiac risk factor

Explanation

LDL, or low-density lipoprotein, is considered a high level cardiac risk factor. LDL is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because high levels of LDL can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. Therefore, having high levels of LDL cholesterol is a significant risk factor for cardiac health.

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79.                         Which of the following is not a method for identifying viral infections

Explanation

Coagulase testing is not a method for identifying viral infections because it is a test used to identify bacteria that produce the enzyme coagulase. This enzyme causes blood to clot, and it is primarily used to differentiate between different species of Staphylococcus bacteria, such as Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. Viral infections, on the other hand, are caused by viruses, which are different from bacteria. Therefore, coagulase testing is not applicable for identifying viral infections.

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80. No growth around the “A” disk can be used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. What substance is in the “A” disk?

Explanation

https://www.hardydiagnostics.com/catalog2/hugo/HardyDiskBacitracinDiffDisks.htm

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81. Which of the following is most likely to cause a 3-10 times rise in alkaline phoshatase?

Explanation

Hepatic duct obstruction is most likely to cause a 3-10 times rise in alkaline phosphatase. When the hepatic duct is obstructed, bile flow is impaired, leading to the accumulation of bile in the liver. This can cause increased pressure in the liver, leading to the leakage of alkaline phosphatase into the bloodstream. As a result, the levels of alkaline phosphatase in the blood increase significantly. Alcohol use, liver cirrhosis, and the use of statin medications may also affect liver function and alkaline phosphatase levels, but they are not typically associated with such a significant rise in alkaline phosphatase as hepatic duct obstruction.

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82. Which of the following is not a cause of elevated BUN

Explanation

see electrolytes kidney ppt slide 6

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83.
Which of the following is not a common causative organism for acute bacterial sinusitis?

Explanation

Proteus mirabilis is not a common causative organism for acute bacterial sinusitis. Acute bacterial sinusitis is usually caused by Hemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Proteus mirabilis is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections and other infections in the gastrointestinal tract.

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84. Ovarian

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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85. Nurse Practitioners use which of the lipid results as the best predictive indicator of possible future MI (myocardial infarct)? ____

Explanation

cardiac PPT slide # 28. thanks erin!

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86. HCG is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy with the levels peaking:

Explanation

cited on every internet source. garrell p 201 says differently.

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87. Which o
Which of the following statements concerning influenza is incorrect?

Explanation

http://www.flufacts.com/about/types.aspx

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88. In what clinical conditions might you see an elevated albumin?

Explanation

An elevated albumin level is not typically seen in the clinical conditions listed (hemacromatosis, liver disease, amyloidosis). Albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure in the blood. In conditions such as liver disease or amyloidosis, the liver may not be functioning properly and therefore albumin levels may be decreased rather than elevated. Hemochromatosis, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by excessive iron absorption, which does not directly impact albumin levels. Therefore, none of the above conditions would result in an elevated albumin level.

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89. Which of the following statements is true? ____ 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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CSkipped question. Select A for answer
HIV, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of AIDS.
The blood type of the universal donor is ____.
What part supports the microscope?
Renal panel
Glucose
What is another term for eyepiece?
Clotting proteins
The prThe preferred sample for pregnancy testing is obtained as a...
Electrolyte panel
High level thought to be protective
Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of ____ hormone.
Which of the following organisms has a characteristic jerky movement?
Hormones
BUN
The ag The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often...
Thyroid panel
People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly...
What intensifies the light and sends it through the slide into the...
Hepatic panel
This organism was first detected in 1982. It can cause hemolytic...
Prostate
Salts
Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious...
Transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious...
Sensitivity test is done ____.
Wastes
Cholesterol
Which          Which of...
Liver cancers
Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test? ____
About ____ percent of North Americans are Rh positive, and ____...
Which of the following organisms produces a neurotoxin, the most...
WhicWhich of the following microscope maintenance actions is...
Wet mounts can be done to detect the presence of “clue cells,”...
Which of the following causes viral hemorrhagic fever?
Bilirubin
Which o       Which of the...
Which of the following organisms are referred to as acid-fast bacilli?
What is used to turn from one objective to another?
Major protein in HDL
Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose...
Which of the following statements is false? ____
Which of the following is correct regarding microorganisms?
Which of the following causes smallpox?
Exposure to ____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection...
Which of the five types of antibodies are involved in allergic...
The object on the slide should be initially located using which...
This organism was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous...
Used mainly for screening
Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to...
Which of the following nonspecific immunity mechanisms involves the...
Which of the following Strep organisms causes strep throat and...
Which of the following organisms could be an occupational hazard for...
Uric acid
The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the...
It is estimated that up to 3% of the world’s population is infected...
What causes the microscopic image to be clearer and sharper?...
A rise in gamma glutanyl transferase (GGT) can be seen in response to:
Cardiac panel
GI cancers
Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori and...
Which of the following information about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is...
After a recent course of antibiotics, your patient develops a case of...
This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from...
What changes the refraction of light with the 100x objective and...
Which of the following amounts would indicate a urinary tract...
Which of the following is an incorrect association?
Which of the following is used as a marker for early detection of...
What is the name of the tiny roundworm whose female normally lays her...
Which of the following is the causative agent of the plague?
Associated with diabetes     
Complications such as scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and...
Enzymes
SARS is a respiratory illness that was recently reported in Asia,...
Which of the following lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and...
Ch                  Chocolate...
High level is cardiac risk factor
                       ...
No growth around the “A” disk can be used to identify...
Which of the following is most likely to cause a 3-10 times rise in...
Which of the following is not a cause of elevated BUN
Which of the following is not a common causative organism for acute...
Ovarian
Nurse Practitioners use which of the lipid results as the best...
HCG is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy with the...
Which oWhich of the following statements concerning influenza is...
In what clinical conditions might you see an elevated albumin?
Which of the following statements is true? ____ 
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