CDC Study Guide: Volume 2/3

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  • 1/175 Questions

     One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

    • Let other federal agencies take charge of the situation.
    • Prevent or minimize loss of life and property
    • Neutralize perpetrators using deadly force.
    • Not yield to civilian authorities.
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About This Quiz

This CDC Study Guide Volume 2\/3 is designed for Security Forces personnel, focusing on management information systems, law enforcement procedures, and administrative responsibilities. It assesses key skills in handling forms and reports critical to security operations.

CDC Study Guide: Volume 2/3 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

     DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who

    • Causes an accident on-base and is a military member

    • Causes an accident on-base and is a nonmilitary member

    • Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident

    • Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense

    Correct Answer
    A. Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to individuals who have committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a nonmoving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). It is not specific to accidents or military membership.

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  • 3. 

    You may administer a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test on a suspect. HGN is when your eyes

    • Are not jerking

    • Apppear dilated

    • Involuntarily jerk

    • Start and stop jerking

    Correct Answer
    A. Involuntarily jerk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "involuntarily jerk." During a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test, the suspect's eyes may exhibit an involuntary jerking movement. This is a common sign of intoxication and can be used as evidence to determine if the suspect is under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

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  • 4. 

    How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

    • As close as you can get to the accident scene.

    • So that it doesn’t interfere with the traffic flow around the accident.

    • Away from the scene to prevent damage by debris.

    • To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.

    Correct Answer
    A. To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.
    Explanation
    You should position your vehicle at the scene of an accident to protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard. This means finding a safe location where your vehicle does not obstruct traffic flow or interfere with emergency responders, while also providing a barrier between the accident scene and passing vehicles to prevent further accidents or injuries.

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  • 5. 

    Which is an example of a weapons systems protection level 1 (PL1) resource?

    • Non-nuclear alert force.

    • Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions.

    • Fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas.

    • Selected command, control, and communications (C3) facilities, systems, and equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions." This answer is correct because PL1 resources refer to those that require the highest level of protection due to their critical nature. In this case, the C4 systems of active nuclear missions are crucial for the success and security of those missions, making them a PL1 resource. The other options mentioned, such as the non-nuclear alert force, fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas, and selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment, may also require protection but may not be classified as PL1 resources.

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  • 6. 

    You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because

    • A physical assault has not occurred.

    • An individual is not easy to reason with.

    • There are no nearby objects or weapons.

    • The disputants are intoxicated.

    Correct Answer
    A. A physical assault has not occurred.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a physical assault has not occurred." This is because in order for a dispute to be classified as verbal, it means that there has been no physical violence or assault involved. Verbal disputes involve arguments, disagreements, or conflicts that are expressed through words rather than physical actions.

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  • 7. 

    What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door

    • Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.

    • Contact a neighbor and ask questions concerning the incident

    • Knock a second time and announce your presence

    • Assume the fighting stopped and depart the area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.
    Explanation
    In a domestic violence situation where no one answers the door, the first action to take is to contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address. This is important because it ensures that the correct location is being addressed and that the situation is properly reported to the appropriate authorities. By contacting BDOC, they can provide information or guidance on how to proceed and ensure the safety of everyone involved. It is crucial to have accurate information before taking any further steps in such a sensitive situation.

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  • 8. 

    How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?

    • Physical injury only

    • Emotional disturbance

    • Psychological battery

    • Physical injury or emotional disturbance

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical injury or emotional disturbance
    Explanation
    Abuse is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance when it relates to family violence. This means that abuse can manifest in both physical harm and psychological distress. It recognizes that violence within the family can take different forms, including physical aggression that causes injury as well as emotional or psychological harm that affects the well-being and mental state of the victim. This definition acknowledges the broad range of ways in which abuse can occur within a family context.

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  • 9. 

    What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene?

    • Disregard it completely

    • Just wipe your prints off

    • Inform the shift supervisor.

    • Record its original position in your notes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Record its original position in your notes.
    Explanation
    If you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, the correct course of action is to record its original position in your notes. This is important because the original position of the evidence can provide crucial information and context during the investigation. By documenting its original position, you can ensure that any changes made to the evidence are properly accounted for and can be accurately analyzed later on. Disregarding the evidence completely or wiping your prints off would be inappropriate and could compromise the integrity of the investigation. Informing the shift supervisor is also important, but recording the evidence's original position should be done first.

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  • 10. 

    When should you begin taking crime scene notes?

    • As soon as dispatched.

    • When a checklist item has been completed

    • You have completed collecting all evidence.

    • An investigator relieves you from the scene.

    Correct Answer
    A. As soon as dispatched.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "As soon as dispatched." This means that you should start taking crime scene notes immediately after being dispatched to the scene. This is important because it allows you to document important details and observations while they are still fresh in your mind. Taking notes as soon as dispatched helps ensure accuracy and completeness in recording information, which is crucial for the investigation and any subsequent legal proceedings.

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  • 11. 

    While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?

    • Enter to prevent injury or damage.

    • Enter only to identify suspects.

    • Do not enter until the flight chief arrives.

    • Do not enter until you witness an assault

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter to prevent injury or damage.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. This action is necessary because the cries for help indicate that someone inside the building is in immediate danger or facing potential harm. By entering the building, you can assess the situation and take appropriate action to ensure the safety of those inside and prevent any further injury or damage from occurring.

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  • 12. 

    What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?

    • Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual

    • Seize the contraband and refuse entry to the installation

    • Continue searching the vehicle for more contraband.

    • Impound the vehicle immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual
    Explanation
    If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to prevent any further potential harm or illegal activities from taking place. By apprehending or detaining the individual, law enforcement authorities can further investigate the situation and take appropriate legal actions as required.

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  • 13. 

    At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks?1

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This is because having two individuals allows for better coordination and enhances the effectiveness of the checks. One person can focus on interacting with the individuals entering, while the other can observe and provide backup if needed. Additionally, having two security forces members provides a level of safety and security, as they can watch each other's backs and ensure that no threats go unnoticed.

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  • 14. 

    What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

    • Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film

    • Use physical force to retrieve the film.

    • Physically detain the photographer

    • Seize the film.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film
    Explanation
    If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action is to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This ensures that the situation is handled by professionals who are trained to deal with such matters. Physically forcing or detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and potentially lead to legal consequences. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may also not be the best course of action, as it is important to follow proper legal procedures.

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  • 15. 

    What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?

    • Wall

    • Prone

    • Standing

    • Kneeling

    Correct Answer
    A. Prone
    Explanation
    The term "prone" refers to lying face down, which is the most suitable position for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions. This position provides better cover and protection compared to standing, kneeling, or being against a wall. It allows for a lower profile and reduces the chances of being seen or targeted by potential threats. Additionally, being prone provides stability and a better shooting platform if necessary.

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  • 16. 

    You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M␣4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, safety selector on

    • “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard.

    • “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    • “SAFE,” and the finger in the trigger guard

    • “FIRE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

    Correct Answer
    A. “SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard.
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is "SAFE," and the finger not in the trigger guard. This is the safest and most appropriate response when encountering an armed adversary. By keeping the safety selector on "SAFE," the rifle is in a secure state, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. Additionally, keeping the finger outside the trigger guard minimizes the chance of unintentionally pulling the trigger. This response ensures readiness while prioritizing safety.

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  • 17. 

    You attempted to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met with verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take your weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) is used?

    • Compliant

    • Resistant - passive

    • Assaultive - bodily harm

    • Assaultive - serious bodily harm/death

    Correct Answer
    A. Assaultive - serious bodily harm/death
    Explanation
    The subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) used in this scenario is "assaultive - serious bodily harm/death." This is because the solicitor not only verbally threatens to kill you but also physically lunges forward and attempts to take your weapon. This behavior poses a significant threat of serious bodily harm or death, justifying the use of force at this level to protect oneself.

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  • 18. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets

    • Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target.

    • Prominent man-made features that will be a definite target.

    • Natural synthetic features only that could be a target.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets
    Explanation
    On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is crucial for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can effectively analyze the terrain and make informed decisions about where to direct your fire.

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  • 19. 

     The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

    • In brand new condition

    • Clean dry and lubricated

    • Fully oiled and lubricated

    • Clean and properly lubricated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean and properly lubricated
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any build-up of dirt, debris, or rust that could affect the weapon's performance and functionality. Additionally, proper lubrication ensures smooth operation and reduces friction, which can lead to wear and tear on the weapon. By keeping weapons clean and properly lubricated, their lifespan is extended and they are able to function at their optimal level.

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  • 20. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

    • 50 meters

    • 60 meters

    • 70 meters

    • 80 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets within a distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease, making it less reliable in hitting targets accurately.

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  • 21. 

    Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

    • Impossible

    • Incredible

    • Ineffective

    • Instinctive

    Correct Answer
    A. Instinctive
    Explanation
    When it comes to dealing with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to have a quick and automatic response. The word "instinctive" implies that the actions taken should be natural and immediate, without the need for conscious thought or hesitation. This suggests that the correct response to an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be a reflexive and automatic one, ensuring the quickest and most effective resolution to the issue.

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  • 22. 

    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

    • Aluminum

    • Rubber

    • Plastic

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Steel
    Explanation
    CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. These substances act as a cleaner to remove dirt and debris, a lubricant to reduce friction and wear, and a preservative to protect the steel from moisture and corrosion. By applying CLP or LSA regularly, the steel part of the M9 is kept in good condition and protected from rusting.

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  • 23. 

    It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

    • In military court

    • In civilian court

    • In civilian and military court

    • To the Chief, Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. In civilian and military court
    Explanation
    Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained through the training is admissible in both civilian and military court. This means that the certification provides credibility and validity to the evidence, allowing it to be presented and considered in legal proceedings in both types of courts.

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  • 24. 

     What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?

    • Enforce the traffic code

    • Reduce traffic accidents

    • Cite people for speeding

    • Control the flow of traffic

    Correct Answer
    A. Enforce the traffic code
    Explanation
    The main purpose of traffic enforcement is to ensure that the traffic code is followed. This involves monitoring and regulating the behavior of drivers to promote safe and orderly traffic flow. By enforcing the traffic code, authorities aim to reduce the number of traffic accidents and maintain control over the flow of vehicles on the road. Citing people for speeding is just one aspect of traffic enforcement that helps in achieving these goals.

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  • 25. 

    The success of any community policing program depends on

    • Whether or not the Chief, Security Forces is involved.

    • The extent to which the program meets the community’s needs

    • Whether or not all the needs of a community were identified on a survey

    • The degree security forces personnel let the community handle their own problems.

    Correct Answer
    A. The extent to which the program meets the community’s needs
    Explanation
    The success of any community policing program depends on the extent to which the program meets the community's needs. This means that for a community policing program to be successful, it must address and fulfill the specific requirements and concerns of the community it serves. If the program is not tailored to meet the needs of the community, it is unlikely to gain the support and participation of community members, which is crucial for its success. Therefore, understanding and addressing the community's needs is a key factor in determining the effectiveness of a community policing program.

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  • 26. 

     Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas?

    • Area

    • Boundary

    • Special purpose

    • Very near infrared

    Correct Answer
    A. Very near infrared
    Explanation
    Very near infrared lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas because it provides minimal visibility while still allowing for some level of illumination. This type of lighting is used in areas where high levels of visibility are not required, such as in nuclear facilities where restricted access is necessary for safety reasons.

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  • 27. 

    What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?

    • Real

    • Direct

    • Documentary

    • Circumstantial

    Correct Answer
    A. Circumstantial
    Explanation
    Circumstantial evidence is a type of evidence that indirectly implicates a person in an offense. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on inference and suggests a conclusion based on a series of facts or circumstances. It may include things like witness testimony, physical evidence, or behavior that implies guilt. While circumstantial evidence may not provide definitive proof of a person's involvement in an offense, it can still be persuasive and used to build a case against them.

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  • 28. 

    How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?

    • Completely and simple

    • Systematically and simply

    • Thoroughly and completely

    • Thoroughly and systematically

    Correct Answer
    A. Thoroughly and systematically
    Explanation
    To conduct a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do so thoroughly and systematically. This means thoroughly inspecting all areas of the vehicle and conducting a systematic search by following a specific order or pattern. By doing so, it ensures that all parts of the vehicle are properly examined and no potential issues or items are missed. Conducting a thorough and systematic search is essential for identifying any problems, ensuring safety, and maintaining the overall condition of the vehicle.

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  • 29. 

    What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

    • Operator's attitude

    • Patrolman's attitude

    • Object size

    • Location

    Correct Answer
    A. Object size
    Explanation
    The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the object size. The size of the object can impact how thoroughly and extensively you search the vehicle. Larger objects may require more time and effort to search properly, while smaller objects may be easier to search quickly. Therefore, considering the object size is crucial in determining the approach and level of thoroughness for searching a vehicle during an entry point check.

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  • 30. 

    A base entry point check is

    • An examination.

    • A warrant search.

    • A consent search.

    • A probable cause search.

    Correct Answer
    A. An examination.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is an examination. A base entry point check refers to the process of examining or inspecting a particular entry point. It involves assessing the condition, security measures, and potential risks associated with that entry point. This examination helps to ensure the safety and security of the area or premises being accessed.

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  • 31. 

    Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?

    • Installation commander

    • Security forces

    • Squadron commander

    • Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces
    Explanation
    The security forces are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. They are trained to handle and respond to various types of incidents such as security breaches, emergencies, and criminal activities. Their role is to ensure the safety and security of the installation and its personnel. They are usually the first ones to arrive at the scene of an incident and take immediate action to assess the situation, secure the area, and initiate the necessary response protocols.

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  • 32. 

    What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?

    • Do not answer and then detain them.

    • Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.

    • Make a brief comment and then refer them to the public affairs personnel.

    • Make a brief comment and then refer them to the installation commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.
    Explanation
    If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and appropriate information to the media. By referring the media to public affairs personnel, you ensure that the correct information is shared and that any potential misunderstandings or inaccuracies are avoided.

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  • 33. 

    Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into

    • 5ths

    • 10ths

    • 15ths

    • 20ths

    Correct Answer
    A. 10ths
    Explanation
    Grid coordinates are identified by dividing the grid square into smaller sections. In this case, the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts, known as 10ths. This allows for a more precise location identification within the grid square.

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  • 34. 

    Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered

    • Lethal

    • Non-lethal

    • Deadly force

    • Resistant (passive)

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-lethal
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "non-lethal". Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual by causing severe irritation to the eyes, nose, and respiratory system. While it can cause significant discomfort and pain, it is not intended to cause long-term harm or death, making it a non-lethal option for self-defense or law enforcement purposes.

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  • 35. 

    What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?

    • Non-physical

    • Psychological

    • Impact

    • Lethal

    Correct Answer
    A. Impact
    Explanation
    The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, rigid stick typically made of metal or wood that is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel to deliver strikes and control aggressive individuals. The primary purpose of using a baton is to create an impact on the target, causing pain and incapacitating them if necessary. It is not considered a non-physical or psychological weapon, as its effectiveness relies on physical force and impact. While it can potentially be lethal if used with excessive force or in sensitive areas, its primary purpose is to deliver impactful blows rather than causing fatal injuries.

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  • 36. 

    What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?

    • Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise.

    • Leave headlights on, step out of the vehicle, and assume the prone position.

    • Turn off headlights, set the parking brake, and turn on dome light.

    • Leave engine running, and place hands on dash board palms up.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise. This command is given to ensure the safety and control of the driver and occupants during a vehicle challenge. By placing their hands on the headliner, they are unable to reach for any weapons or make any sudden movements that could pose a threat. It allows the authorities to maintain control of the situation and assess the occupants before giving further instructions.

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  • 37. 

    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

    • Enhance our role and understanding of the model.

    • Create a better visual effect of the model.

    • Support force awareness.

    • Minimize mistakes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhance our role and understanding of the model.
    Explanation
    Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to enhance our role and understanding of the model. By using different colors to represent different levels of force, it becomes easier to visually comprehend and interpret the model. This allows individuals to have a clearer understanding of the appropriate use of force in different situations, thereby enhancing their role in implementing the model effectively. Additionally, color can also help in highlighting important aspects or distinctions within the model, further improving our understanding of it.

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  • 38. 

    The acronym SPORTS stands for

    • Slap, push, open, recall, tap, and shoot

    • smooth, pull, open, recoil, tap, and shoot

    • Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.

    • slap, push, observe, release, tab, and shoot

    Correct Answer
    A. Slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot." This is because the acronym SPORTS is commonly used in firearms training and refers to a series of actions performed when handling a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle or slide to chamber a round, observe means to visually inspect the chamber, release refers to releasing the slide or bolt, tap means to tap the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot means to fire the firearm.

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  • 39. 

    What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

    • 600 meters

    • 800 meters

    • 1100 meters

    • 1800 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that the bullet fired from the pistol can travel up to 1800 meters before it loses its effectiveness. It is important to note that the effective range of the pistol may be shorter than the maximum range, as factors such as accuracy, bullet drop, and the shooter's skill can affect the distance at which the pistol can accurately hit a target.

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  • 40. 

     Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

    • Firing

    • Cocking

    • Extracting

    • Ejecting

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing
    Explanation
    When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. The firing action is the result of the trigger being squeezed, which activates the mechanism that ignites the ammunition and allows the firearm to discharge.

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  • 41. 

    What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

    • Big flash adapter

    • Blank flash adapter

    • Blank firing adapter

    • Bandoleer flap adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Blank firing adapter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "blank firing adapter." A blank firing adapter is a device used to modify a firearm to allow it to fire blank ammunition. Blank ammunition is used for training or theatrical purposes, as it does not contain a projectile but still produces a flash and noise when fired. The blank firing adapter ensures that the firearm functions properly and safely when firing blanks.

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  • 42. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • M240b

    • M249

    • M780

    • Mk19

    Correct Answer
    A. Mk19
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mk19 because it is a grenade launcher that uses a blowback mechanism to fire grenades. Unlike other weapons listed, the mk19 does not have a barrel that overheats even after prolonged firing because it is designed to handle the high heat and pressure generated by launching grenades. This allows for continuous firing without the need to pause and let the barrel cool down, making it an effective weapon in sustained combat situations.

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  • 43. 

    When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a

    • Precision engagement weapon

    • Active force multiplier

    • Lethal force weapon

    • Mine or bobby trap

    Correct Answer
    A. Mine or bobby trap
    Explanation
    The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when used in an uncontrolled role. This is because the claymore is designed to be set up as an explosive device that can be remotely detonated or triggered by a tripwire. It is typically used to target and eliminate enemy personnel or vehicles in a specific area. In this uncontrolled role, the claymore functions as a hidden weapon that can cause significant damage and casualties to unsuspecting targets.

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  • 44. 

    When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

    • One shot weapon

    • Two shot weapon

    • Three shot weapon

    • Four shot weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. One shot weapon
    Explanation
    The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. This could be due to factors such as the limited ammunition capacity or the high destructive power of the claymore, which makes it impractical to use multiple times in a single engagement.

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  • 45. 

    What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?

    • Disposed of because it is not required to be maintained.

    • Maintained at the entry control point.

    • Filed at pass and registration.

    • Given to the individual.

    Correct Answer
    A. Given to the individual.
    Explanation
    Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This is likely done to provide them with proof of authorization to enter the premises or to operate a vehicle on the premises. By giving the completed form to the individual, they can present it to the appropriate authorities as needed.

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  • 46. 

    How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare and where are the copies kept?

    • One; in the member’s unit.

    • Two; the case file and the person receiving custody.

    • Three; in the member’s unit, the case file, and security forces.

    • Four; the member, the case file, security forces, and person receiving custody.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two; the case file and the person receiving custody.
    Explanation
    You should prepare two copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person. One copy should be kept in the case file, while the other copy should be given to the person receiving custody.

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  • 47. 

     Where would you annotate, on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test?

    • Section I, Suspect’s Data.

    • Section II, Initial Contact.

    • Section III, Standard Field Sobriety Testing.

    • Section IV, Synopsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Section III, Standard Field Sobriety Testing.
  • 48. 

    What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?

    • Stop the search immediately.

    • Stop the search immediately and get authorization from the Chief of Security Forces

    • Keep searching because the suspect signed the AF Form 1364, Consent to Search and Seizure

    • Keep searching because the 5th Amendment does not allow the suspect to withdraw consent.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the search immediately.
    Explanation
    If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to stop the search immediately. This is because consent to search is voluntary and can be revoked at any time. Continuing the search without consent would violate the individual's rights and potentially lead to legal consequences. Therefore, it is important to respect the individual's decision and cease the search.

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  • 49. 

     One use of the narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for

    • documenting offense data

    • listing the victim’s information

    • Documenting multiple incidents

    • Continuing any section of the form

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuing any section of the form
    Explanation
    The narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for continuing any section of the form. This means that if there is not enough space on a particular section of the form to fully document the incident, the narrative page can be used to provide additional information and continue the documentation.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Oct 12, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 12, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kayy0825
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