CDC Study Guide: Volume 2/3
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics, the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) also analyzes threat
- A.
Fusion
- B.
Conditions
- C.
Capabilities
- D.
Assessments
Correct Answer
A. FusionExplanation
The correct answer is "fusion." The Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) not only analyzes law enforcement statistics but also analyzes the fusion of different sources of information to provide a comprehensive understanding of threats. This means that SFMIS combines and integrates data from various sources to create a more complete and accurate assessment of the overall security situation. By analyzing the fusion of information, SFMIS can identify patterns, trends, and potential threats more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained?
- A.
Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC), Training.
- B.
Chief, Security Forces
- C.
Unit Training Manager
- D.
Staff Judge Advocate
Correct Answer
B. Chief, Security ForcesExplanation
The Chief, Security Forces is responsible for ensuring personnel are SFMIS trained. They are in charge of overseeing and managing the security forces within the organization, which includes ensuring that all personnel receive the necessary training. This role is crucial in maintaining the security and effectiveness of the security forces team. The NCOIC, Training may assist in the training process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Chief, Security Forces. The Unit Training Manager may also play a role in coordinating and organizing the training, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring personnel are SFMIS trained. The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for legal matters and may not have direct involvement in personnel training.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?
- A.
Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel.
- B.
Military Personnel Flight (MPF) chief.
- C.
Chief, Security Forces (CSF).
- D.
Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)
Correct Answer
C. Chief, Security Forces (CSF).Explanation
The Chief, Security Forces (CSF) is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This individual holds the highest authority within the Security Forces and is responsible for overseeing and managing all security-related matters. They have the power to make decisions regarding violations and can void the form if necessary. The Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel, Military Personnel Flight (MPF) chief, and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) do not have the authority to void this form.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?
- A.
Disposed of because it is not required to be maintained.
- B.
Maintained at the entry control point.
- C.
Filed at pass and registration.
- D.
Given to the individual.
Correct Answer
D. Given to the individual.Explanation
Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This is likely done to provide them with proof of authorization to enter the premises or to operate a vehicle on the premises. By giving the completed form to the individual, they can present it to the appropriate authorities as needed.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare and where are the copies kept?
- A.
One; in the member’s unit.
- B.
Two; the case file and the person receiving custody.
- C.
Three; in the member’s unit, the case file, and security forces.
- D.
Four; the member, the case file, security forces, and person receiving custody.
Correct Answer
B. Two; the case file and the person receiving custody.Explanation
You should prepare two copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person. One copy should be kept in the case file, while the other copy should be given to the person receiving custody.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Where would you annotate, on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test?
- A.
Section I, Suspect’s Data.
- B.
Section II, Initial Contact.
- C.
Section III, Standard Field Sobriety Testing.
- D.
Section IV, Synopsis
Correct Answer
C. Section III, Standard Field Sobriety Testing. -
- 7.
Which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, do you annotate the behind the wheel screening?
- A.
Section I, Suspect’s Data
- B.
Section II, Initial Contact.
- C.
Section III, Standardized Field Sobriety Testing
- D.
Section IV, Synopsis.
Correct Answer
B. Section II, Initial Contact.Explanation
In the DD Form 1920, the behind the wheel screening is annotated in Section II, Initial Contact. This section is where the initial interaction or contact with the suspect is recorded. It is the appropriate place to document the details of the behind the wheel screening, such as the observations made and any tests conducted.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?
- A.
Stop the search immediately.
- B.
Stop the search immediately and get authorization from the Chief of Security Forces
- C.
Keep searching because the suspect signed the AF Form 1364, Consent to Search and Seizure
- D.
Keep searching because the 5th Amendment does not allow the suspect to withdraw consent.
Correct Answer
A. Stop the search immediately.Explanation
If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to stop the search immediately. This is because consent to search is voluntary and can be revoked at any time. Continuing the search without consent would violate the individual's rights and potentially lead to legal consequences. Therefore, it is important to respect the individual's decision and cease the search.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime?
- A.
Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.
- B.
Chief, Security Forces having control over the area or person to be searched.
- C.
Installation Chief Security Forces and Staff Judge Advocate.
- D.
Installation Commander and Staff Judge Advocate.
Correct Answer
A. Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.Explanation
The correct answer is the Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched. This is because the Commander has the authority to authorize a search for evidence of a crime. They have the power to give permission for the search to take place and ensure that it is conducted in accordance with the law and regulations. The Commander's control over the area or person or property gives them the necessary jurisdiction to authorize such a search.Rate this question:
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- 10.
DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who
- A.
Causes an accident on-base and is a military member
- B.
Causes an accident on-base and is a nonmilitary member
- C.
Has been involved and is at fault in a vehicle accident
- D.
Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense
Correct Answer
D. Commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offenseExplanation
The correct answer is "commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to individuals who have committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a nonmoving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). It is not specific to accidents or military membership.Rate this question:
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- 11.
How many calendar days is a completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log maintained?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
A completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log is maintained for 90 calendar days. This log is used to track visitors entering a facility and is kept for a specific period of time for security and record-keeping purposes. After 90 days, the log can be discarded as it is no longer necessary to retain the information.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the
- A.
Person who obtained or collected the property
- B.
First person who noticed the property
- C.
Property custodian
- D.
Chief investigator
Correct Answer
A. Person who obtained or collected the propertyExplanation
The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the person who obtained or collected the property. This person is responsible for documenting the initial possession of the evidence and ensuring its safekeeping until it is transferred to the property custodian. The chain-of-custody is crucial in maintaining the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in legal proceedings, as it establishes a clear and documented trail of custody from the time it was collected until it is presented in court.Rate this question:
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- 13.
If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint, have
- A.
A witness to the statement initial all questions and answers
- B.
The person giving the statement initial after each question and answer
- C.
This technique only authorized on a statement used by security force members
- D.
The person giving the statement sign a written agreement to use this technique
Correct Answer
B. The person giving the statement initial after each question and answerExplanation
The correct answer is "the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer." This technique is used to ensure that the person giving the statement acknowledges and verifies the accuracy of each question and answer. It helps to prevent any potential misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the statement.Rate this question:
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- 14.
One use of the narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for
- A.
documenting offense data
- B.
listing the victim’s information
- C.
Documenting multiple incidents
- D.
Continuing any section of the form
Correct Answer
D. Continuing any section of the formExplanation
The narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for continuing any section of the form. This means that if there is not enough space on a particular section of the form to fully document the incident, the narrative page can be used to provide additional information and continue the documentation.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not an allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF Form 3545, Incident Report?
- A.
Taken into custody.
- B.
On-view arrest
- C.
Summons
- D.
Detained
Correct Answer
D. DetainedExplanation
The correct answer is "Detained." The AF Form 3545, Incident Report, does not include "Detained" as an allowable type of apprehension/detention code. This form is used for reporting incidents and documenting details such as the type of apprehension or detention that occurred. However, "Detained" is not listed as one of the options for this specific code on the form.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What rule applies, in the Summary Reporting System, under number of premises entered, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to police?
- A.
Motel
- B.
Hotel
- C.
Temporary Lodging
- D.
Storage
Correct Answer
B. HotelExplanation
In the Summary Reporting System, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to the police, the rule that applies is "Hotel." This suggests that when multiple units within a hotel are burglarized and reported by the manager, it falls under the category of a hotel in the Summary Reporting System.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report?
- A.
Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones.
- B.
The report was written by Amn Smith
- C.
Amn Jones was apprehended by Sgt Smith
- D.
The suspects were surrounded by security forces personnel
Correct Answer
A. Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones.Explanation
The sentence "Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of using active voice in a report because the subject (Sgt Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones).Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is your first step when writing a report once the incident is over
- A.
Gather the facts
- B.
Write the report
- C.
Organize the facts
- D.
Evaluate the report
Correct Answer
A. Gather the factsExplanation
The first step when writing a report once the incident is over is to gather the facts. This is important because it ensures that the report is based on accurate and reliable information. By gathering the facts, the writer can have a clear understanding of what happened during the incident and can then proceed to write a comprehensive and objective report. Organizing the facts and evaluating the report can come later in the writing process, but gathering the facts is the initial and crucial step.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Results of chemical testing for alcohol or drug content are only valid if it is administered
- A.
Voluntarily
- B.
W/ a lawyer present
- C.
Twice
- D.
By qualified personnel
Correct Answer
D. By qualified personnelExplanation
To ensure the accuracy and reliability of the results, chemical testing for alcohol or drug content should be administered by qualified personnel. These individuals have the necessary training and expertise to properly conduct the tests, minimizing the risk of errors or false readings. The involvement of qualified personnel helps to maintain the integrity of the testing process and ensures that the results can be considered valid and trustworthy.Rate this question:
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- 20.
It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
- A.
In military court
- B.
In civilian court
- C.
In civilian and military court
- D.
To the Chief, Security Forces
Correct Answer
C. In civilian and military courtExplanation
Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained through the training is admissible in both civilian and military court. This means that the certification provides credibility and validity to the evidence, allowing it to be presented and considered in legal proceedings in both types of courts.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
The correct answer is 4. In the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test, nystagmus refers to the involuntary jerking of the eyes. When a suspect exhibits four or more clues on this test, it indicates a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08. These clues include lack of smooth pursuit, distinct nystagmus at maximum deviation, and onset of nystagmus prior to 45 degrees. These indicators suggest impairment due to alcohol consumption.Rate this question:
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- 22.
You may administer a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test on a suspect. HGN is when your eyes
- A.
Are not jerking
- B.
Apppear dilated
- C.
Involuntarily jerk
- D.
Start and stop jerking
Correct Answer
C. Involuntarily jerkExplanation
The correct answer is "involuntarily jerk." During a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test, the suspect's eyes may exhibit an involuntary jerking movement. This is a common sign of intoxication and can be used as evidence to determine if the suspect is under the influence of alcohol or drugs.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one-leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
A. 2Explanation
In order to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08 on the one-leg stand field sobriety test, the suspect must exhibit a minimum of 2 clues. This suggests that the suspect is displaying signs of impairment and may be intoxicated.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect
- A.
Steps off the line four or more times.
- B.
Steps off the line three or more times.
- C.
puts his or her foot down one or more times.
- D.
Puts his or her foot down three or more times
Correct Answer
B. Steps off the line three or more times.Explanation
The correct answer is "steps off the line three or more times." In a walk and turn field sobriety test, the suspect is asked to take a certain number of steps along a straight line, while maintaining heel-to-toe contact and counting the steps out loud. If the suspect steps off the line three or more times during the test, it indicates a lack of balance and coordination, which could be a sign of impairment. Therefore, this is the threshold at which the test is terminated.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for all of the following reasons except
- A.
Motorists will start shouting back.
- B.
Hand and arm signals are sufficient
- C.
Shouting orders antagonizes motorists.
- D.
They are sometimes difficult to understand.
Correct Answer
C. Shouting orders antagonizes motorists.Explanation
Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for several reasons. Firstly, motorists may start shouting back, which can create chaos and confusion on the road. Secondly, hand and arm signals are usually sufficient to effectively communicate with drivers. Thirdly, shouting orders can antagonize motorists and lead to aggressive or confrontational behavior. Lastly, verbal commands can sometimes be difficult to understand, especially in noisy or busy traffic situations.Rate this question:
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- 26.
When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand
- A.
next to your vehicle.
- B.
In the center of the road.
- C.
Off to the side of the road.
- D.
In the center of the intersection
Correct Answer
C. Off to the side of the road.Explanation
When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of oncoming traffic and ensures that you are visible to drivers. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road can obstruct the view of other drivers and create confusion. Similarly, standing in the center of the intersection can be dangerous and may lead to accidents. Therefore, standing off to the side of the road is the safest and most effective position for directing traffic on a one-way street.Rate this question:
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- 27.
How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?
- A.
As close as you can get to the accident scene.
- B.
So that it doesn’t interfere with the traffic flow around the accident.
- C.
Away from the scene to prevent damage by debris.
- D.
To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.
Correct Answer
D. To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.Explanation
You should position your vehicle at the scene of an accident to protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard. This means finding a safe location where your vehicle does not obstruct traffic flow or interfere with emergency responders, while also providing a barrier between the accident scene and passing vehicles to prevent further accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 28.
During a traffic stop, how far from the violator’s vehicle do you position your vehicle?
- A.
10 to 12 feet to the rear and three feet to the left.
- B.
10 to 12 feet to the rear and two feet to the left.
- C.
12 to 15 feet to the rear and three feet to the right.
- D.
12 to 15 feet to the rear and two feet to the right.
Correct Answer
A. 10 to 12 feet to the rear and three feet to the left.Explanation
During a traffic stop, it is recommended to position your vehicle 10 to 12 feet to the rear and three feet to the left of the violator's vehicle. This positioning allows for a safe distance between the two vehicles, reducing the risk of any potential danger or harm. It also provides enough space for the officer to approach the violator's vehicle and conduct the necessary procedures while maintaining a safe distance.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?
- A.
Enforce the traffic code
- B.
Reduce traffic accidents
- C.
Cite people for speeding
- D.
Control the flow of traffic
Correct Answer
A. Enforce the traffic codeExplanation
The main purpose of traffic enforcement is to ensure that the traffic code is followed. This involves monitoring and regulating the behavior of drivers to promote safe and orderly traffic flow. By enforcing the traffic code, authorities aim to reduce the number of traffic accidents and maintain control over the flow of vehicles on the road. Citing people for speeding is just one aspect of traffic enforcement that helps in achieving these goals.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime?
- A.
Determine which program meets the community’s needs.
- B.
Whether or not all of the needs of the installation were identified.
- C.
To establish rapport between police personnel and the community
- D.
Educate personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property.
Correct Answer
D. Educate personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property.Explanation
Physical protection surveys help to educate personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property. By conducting these surveys, individuals can identify potential vulnerabilities in their surroundings and take appropriate measures to minimize the risk of crime. This includes implementing security measures such as installing surveillance cameras, improving lighting, and reinforcing doors and windows. Educating personnel about these steps empowers them to be proactive in safeguarding their own safety and belongings, ultimately contributing to the prevention of crime.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The success of any community policing program depends on
- A.
Whether or not the Chief, Security Forces is involved.
- B.
The extent to which the program meets the community’s needs
- C.
Whether or not all the needs of a community were identified on a survey
- D.
The degree security forces personnel let the community handle their own problems.
Correct Answer
B. The extent to which the program meets the community’s needsExplanation
The success of any community policing program depends on the extent to which the program meets the community's needs. This means that for a community policing program to be successful, it must address and fulfill the specific requirements and concerns of the community it serves. If the program is not tailored to meet the needs of the community, it is unlikely to gain the support and participation of community members, which is crucial for its success. Therefore, understanding and addressing the community's needs is a key factor in determining the effectiveness of a community policing program.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
- A.
A zero tolerance approach to handling crime
- B.
Random calls to solve community problems
- C.
Involvement with local youth programs
- D.
Greater community voice in setting police priorities.
Correct Answer
D. Greater community voice in setting police priorities.Explanation
Greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. When community members have a say in determining the focus of law enforcement efforts, it ensures that the police are addressing the specific needs and concerns of the community. This approach promotes a sense of ownership and collaboration between the police and the community, leading to more effective crime prevention strategies and a stronger bond between law enforcement and residents. It also fosters trust, communication, and cooperation, ultimately creating a safer and more harmonious neighborhood environment.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which detection stage of alarm protection provides response forces with the least amount of warning?
- A.
Penetration
- B.
Motion
- C.
Point
- D.
Area
Correct Answer
C. PointExplanation
The detection stage of alarm protection that provides response forces with the least amount of warning is the "point" stage. This stage typically involves the use of individual sensors or detectors placed at specific points within a protected area. These sensors are designed to detect specific events or conditions, such as the opening of a door or window. Since they are only able to monitor a single point, they may provide the least amount of warning compared to other stages that cover larger areas or detect motion in general.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also called
- A.
Volumetric or space
- B.
Mobile or stationary
- C.
Point or spot
- D.
Area or zone
Correct Answer
A. Volumetric or spaceExplanation
In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also referred to as "volumetric or space". This term is used to describe the detection of movement within a given area or space, rather than focusing on specific points or spots. It implies that the detection system can monitor and detect motion in three dimensions, covering a larger area or volume.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?
- A.
25
- B.
50
- C.
75
- D.
100
Correct Answer
D. 100Explanation
Restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This ensures that the signs are clearly visible and provide sufficient warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. By placing the signs at this distance, it helps to maintain safety and prevent unauthorized access to the restricted area.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas?
- A.
Area
- B.
Boundary
- C.
Special purpose
- D.
Very near infrared
Correct Answer
D. Very near infraredExplanation
Very near infrared lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas because it provides minimal visibility while still allowing for some level of illumination. This type of lighting is used in areas where high levels of visibility are not required, such as in nuclear facilities where restricted access is necessary for safety reasons.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What type effect does restricted area lighting have in deterring intruders?
- A.
Psychological
- B.
Physiological
- C.
Sociological
- D.
Visual
Correct Answer
A. PsychologicalExplanation
Restricted area lighting has a psychological effect in deterring intruders. This means that the presence of well-lit areas in a restricted zone can create a sense of fear, uncertainty, and risk for potential intruders. The bright lights can make them feel exposed and vulnerable, discouraging them from attempting to enter the area. It plays on the human psyche by triggering feelings of apprehension and caution, ultimately dissuading individuals from trespassing.Rate this question:
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- 38.
How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area?
- A.
Ground level
- B.
One inch
- C.
Two inches
- D.
Three inches
Correct Answer
C. Two inchesExplanation
In a restricted area, the fence fabric must extend two inches above the ground level. This is important to ensure that the restricted area is properly enclosed and there are no gaps or openings that could allow unauthorized access. By extending the fence fabric two inches above the ground, it provides a sufficient barrier to prevent people or animals from easily crossing the fence and entering the restricted area.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries?
- A.
Legal and physical
- B.
Legal and warning
- C.
Warning and deterrent
- D.
Physical and deterrent
Correct Answer
A. Legal and physicalExplanation
Fences serve both legal and physical demarcation when used to secure area boundaries. From a legal standpoint, fences establish a clear boundary between properties, indicating ownership and defining property lines. This helps in resolving disputes and determining responsibilities. On the other hand, fences also provide a physical barrier that prevents unauthorized access and acts as a deterrent to potential trespassers. Therefore, the correct answer is legal and physical.Rate this question:
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- 40.
You will apply specific security principles to a close-in security area that contains
- A.
Nuclear weapons
- B.
Top secret material
- C.
One of a kind aircraft
- D.
Very sensitive material
Correct Answer
A. Nuclear weaponsExplanation
The specific security principles would be applied to the close-in security area because nuclear weapons are highly dangerous and pose a significant threat if they fall into the wrong hands. These principles would include strict access control measures, constant surveillance, and stringent protocols for handling and storing the weapons. The close-in security area would need to be highly secure to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with the nuclear weapons.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force if a weapon has been taken?
- A.
To protect the remaining nuclear weapons that has not been taken.
- B.
Let the response force and back-up force handle the situation.
- C.
To setup base defense positions around the perimeter
- D.
To assist in recapture and recovery operations.
Correct Answer
D. To assist in recapture and recovery operations.Explanation
The function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force is to assist in recapture and recovery operations. This means that if a nuclear weapon has been taken, this force is responsible for helping to retrieve and recover the weapon. They would work alongside other forces to locate and secure the weapon, ensuring that it does not fall into the wrong hands and minimizing the potential threat it poses.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which is an example of a weapons systems protection level 1 (PL1) resource?
- A.
Non-nuclear alert force.
- B.
Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions.
- C.
Fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas.
- D.
Selected command, control, and communications (C3) facilities, systems, and equipment.
Correct Answer
B. Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions.Explanation
The correct answer is "Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions." This answer is correct because PL1 resources refer to those that require the highest level of protection due to their critical nature. In this case, the C4 systems of active nuclear missions are crucial for the success and security of those missions, making them a PL1 resource. The other options mentioned, such as the non-nuclear alert force, fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas, and selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment, may also require protection but may not be classified as PL1 resources.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which system affords the highest level of protection for nuclear weapons?
- A.
Security
- B.
Protection level
- C.
Priority resource
- D.
Security forces alerting
Correct Answer
B. Protection levelExplanation
The correct answer is "protection level" because the question asks for the system that provides the highest level of protection for nuclear weapons. The term "protection level" refers to the degree or level of security and safeguards implemented to ensure the safety and security of nuclear weapons. This system would involve various measures such as physical barriers, access controls, surveillance, and other security protocols to prevent unauthorized access and potential threats to the nuclear weapons.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all
- A.
Installation commanders
- B.
Deployed personnel
- C.
Security forces
- D.
Airmen
Correct Answer
D. AirmenExplanation
Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for airmen. This means that airmen need to possess the skills and knowledge to effectively defend their installations, whether they are deployed or stationed at home. Integrated defense refers to the coordination and collaboration between different units and forces to create a comprehensive defense strategy. By having this competency, airmen can contribute to the overall security and protection of their base or installation.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Integrated defense (ID) forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except
- A.
Joint services
- B.
Coalition partners
- C.
Host nations
- D.
Friendly forces
Correct Answer
D. Friendly forcesExplanation
Integrated defense (ID) forces are military forces that work together to defend a particular theater or area. These forces typically include joint services, which are the different branches of the military working together, coalition partners, which are military forces from different countries working together, and host nations, which are the military forces of the country where the defense is taking place. The only option that does not fit into this category is "friendly forces." Friendly forces refer to the military forces of the enemy or opposing side, and therefore would not be included in the integrated defense forces.Rate this question:
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- 46.
You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because
- A.
A physical assault has not occurred.
- B.
An individual is not easy to reason with.
- C.
There are no nearby objects or weapons.
- D.
The disputants are intoxicated.
Correct Answer
A. A physical assault has not occurred.Explanation
The correct answer is "a physical assault has not occurred." This is because in order for a dispute to be classified as verbal, it means that there has been no physical violence or assault involved. Verbal disputes involve arguments, disagreements, or conflicts that are expressed through words rather than physical actions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse?
- A.
Unit commander
- B.
First sergeant
- C.
Family advocacy officer
- D.
Air force office of special investigations
Correct Answer
C. Family advocacy officerExplanation
The family advocacy officer must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse. This is because the family advocacy officer is responsible for providing support and resources to families experiencing abuse and ensuring the safety of the individuals involved. They have the expertise and training to handle these sensitive situations and can initiate appropriate interventions and investigations to protect the victims and hold the abuser accountable.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door
- A.
Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.
- B.
Contact a neighbor and ask questions concerning the incident
- C.
Knock a second time and announce your presence
- D.
Assume the fighting stopped and depart the area.
Correct Answer
A. Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.Explanation
In a domestic violence situation where no one answers the door, the first action to take is to contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address. This is important because it ensures that the correct location is being addressed and that the situation is properly reported to the appropriate authorities. By contacting BDOC, they can provide information or guidance on how to proceed and ensure the safety of everyone involved. It is crucial to have accurate information before taking any further steps in such a sensitive situation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a domestic violence situation before knocking?
- A.
5 to 10
- B.
10 to 15
- C.
15 to 20
- D.
20 to 25
Correct Answer
C. 15 to 20Explanation
In a domestic violence situation, it is important to approach the situation cautiously and ensure the safety of everyone involved. Stopping and listening at the door for 15 to 20 seconds before knocking allows you to gather information about the situation inside. This duration gives you enough time to determine if there is any immediate danger or signs of violence before entering the situation. It also allows for any potential arguments or altercations to subside, creating a safer environment for intervention.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?
- A.
Emotional maltreatment
- B.
Psychological abuse
- C.
Sexual maltreatment
- D.
Physical abuse
Correct Answer
A. Emotional maltreatmentExplanation
Emotional maltreatment is the most difficult type of child abuse to identify because it often leaves no physical evidence. Unlike physical abuse or sexual maltreatment, emotional maltreatment involves behaviors such as verbal abuse, humiliation, neglect, and rejection, which can be more subtle and easily hidden. The effects of emotional maltreatment can be long-lasting and damaging to a child's emotional and psychological well-being. It requires careful observation and understanding of the child's behavior and emotional state to identify and address this type of abuse.Rate this question:
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Oct 12, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 04, 2012Quiz Created by
Kayy0825
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