CDC Study Guide: Volume 2/3

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1.  One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to

Explanation

The primary goal of the Air Force in dealing with high-risk situations is to prevent or minimize loss of life and property. This means that their main focus is on ensuring the safety and security of individuals and their belongings. By prioritizing the protection of life and property, the Air Force aims to mitigate the negative impact of these situations and safeguard the well-being of those involved. This goal aligns with the overall mission of the Air Force to protect and defend the United States and its interests.

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About This Quiz
CDC Study Guide: Volume 2/3 - Quiz

This CDC Study Guide Volume 2\/3 is designed for Security Forces personnel, focusing on management information systems, law enforcement procedures, and administrative responsibilities. It assesses key skills in handling forms and reports critical to security operations.

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2. While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?

Explanation

The correct answer is to enter the building to prevent injury or damage. This action is necessary because the cries for help indicate that someone inside the building is in immediate danger or facing potential harm. By entering the building, you can assess the situation and take appropriate action to ensure the safety of those inside and prevent any further injury or damage from occurring.

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3.  DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who

Explanation

The correct answer is "commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense." This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to individuals who have committed a traffic offense, whether it is a moving violation (such as speeding or running a red light) or a nonmoving violation (such as parking in a restricted area). It is not specific to accidents or military membership.

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4. What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?

Explanation

If illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check, it is important to stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain the individual. This is necessary to prevent any further potential harm or illegal activities from taking place. By apprehending or detaining the individual, law enforcement authorities can further investigate the situation and take appropriate legal actions as required.

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5. At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks?1

Explanation

When conducting entry point checks, it is necessary to have at least two security forces members present. This is because having two individuals allows for better coordination and enhances the effectiveness of the checks. One person can focus on interacting with the individuals entering, while the other can observe and provide backup if needed. Additionally, having two security forces members provides a level of safety and security, as they can watch each other's backs and ensure that no threats go unnoticed.

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6. What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?

Explanation

The term "prone" refers to lying face down, which is the most suitable position for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions. This position provides better cover and protection compared to standing, kneeling, or being against a wall. It allows for a lower profile and reduces the chances of being seen or targeted by potential threats. Additionally, being prone provides stability and a better shooting platform if necessary.

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7. What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

Explanation

On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets. This information is crucial for identifying potential targets and planning your firing strategy. By including these features on the sketch, you can effectively analyze the terrain and make informed decisions about where to direct your fire.

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8. You may administer a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test on a suspect. HGN is when your eyes

Explanation

The correct answer is "involuntarily jerk." During a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test, the suspect's eyes may exhibit an involuntary jerking movement. This is a common sign of intoxication and can be used as evidence to determine if the suspect is under the influence of alcohol or drugs.

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9. You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M␣4 rifle at "port arms," a round in the chamber, safety selector on

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is "SAFE," and the finger not in the trigger guard. This is the safest and most appropriate response when encountering an armed adversary. By keeping the safety selector on "SAFE," the rifle is in a secure state, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. Additionally, keeping the finger outside the trigger guard minimizes the chance of unintentionally pulling the trigger. This response ensures readiness while prioritizing safety.

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10. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?

Explanation

You should position your vehicle at the scene of an accident to protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard. This means finding a safe location where your vehicle does not obstruct traffic flow or interfere with emergency responders, while also providing a barrier between the accident scene and passing vehicles to prevent further accidents or injuries.

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11. You attempted to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met with verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take your weapon shouting, "I'll kill you." What subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) is used?

Explanation

The subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) used in this scenario is "assaultive - serious bodily harm/death." This is because the solicitor not only verbally threatens to kill you but also physically lunges forward and attempts to take your weapon. This behavior poses a significant threat of serious bodily harm or death, justifying the use of force at this level to protect oneself.

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12. What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?

Explanation

If someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after being told not to, the appropriate action is to contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film. This ensures that the situation is handled by professionals who are trained to deal with such matters. Physically forcing or detaining the photographer may escalate the situation and potentially lead to legal consequences. Seizing the film without involving law enforcement may also not be the best course of action, as it is important to follow proper legal procedures.

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13.  The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons

Explanation

The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to ensure that weapons are kept clean and properly lubricated. This helps to prevent any build-up of dirt, debris, or rust that could affect the weapon's performance and functionality. Additionally, proper lubrication ensures smooth operation and reduces friction, which can lead to wear and tear on the weapon. By keeping weapons clean and properly lubricated, their lifespan is extended and they are able to function at their optimal level.

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14. What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M9 pistol is 50 meters. This means that the pistol is most accurate and effective in hitting targets within a distance of 50 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the pistol may decrease, making it less reliable in hitting targets accurately.

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15. You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because

Explanation

The correct answer is "a physical assault has not occurred." This is because in order for a dispute to be classified as verbal, it means that there has been no physical violence or assault involved. Verbal disputes involve arguments, disagreements, or conflicts that are expressed through words rather than physical actions.

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16. Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be

Explanation

When it comes to dealing with an M9 malfunction or stoppage, it is important to have a quick and automatic response. The word "instinctive" implies that the actions taken should be natural and immediate, without the need for conscious thought or hesitation. This suggests that the correct response to an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be a reflexive and automatic one, ensuring the quickest and most effective resolution to the issue.

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17. Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?

Explanation

CLP or LSA are used on the steel part of the M9 to prevent rusting. These substances act as a cleaner to remove dirt and debris, a lubricant to reduce friction and wear, and a preservative to protect the steel from moisture and corrosion. By applying CLP or LSA regularly, the steel part of the M9 is kept in good condition and protected from rusting.

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18. What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door

Explanation

In a domestic violence situation where no one answers the door, the first action to take is to contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address. This is important because it ensures that the correct location is being addressed and that the situation is properly reported to the appropriate authorities. By contacting BDOC, they can provide information or guidance on how to proceed and ensure the safety of everyone involved. It is crucial to have accurate information before taking any further steps in such a sensitive situation.

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19. How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?

Explanation

Abuse is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance when it relates to family violence. This means that abuse can manifest in both physical harm and psychological distress. It recognizes that violence within the family can take different forms, including physical aggression that causes injury as well as emotional or psychological harm that affects the well-being and mental state of the victim. This definition acknowledges the broad range of ways in which abuse can occur within a family context.

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20. Which is an example of a weapons systems protection level 1 (PL1) resource?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions." This answer is correct because PL1 resources refer to those that require the highest level of protection due to their critical nature. In this case, the C4 systems of active nuclear missions are crucial for the success and security of those missions, making them a PL1 resource. The other options mentioned, such as the non-nuclear alert force, fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas, and selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment, may also require protection but may not be classified as PL1 resources.

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21. What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene?

Explanation

If you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene, the correct course of action is to record its original position in your notes. This is important because the original position of the evidence can provide crucial information and context during the investigation. By documenting its original position, you can ensure that any changes made to the evidence are properly accounted for and can be accurately analyzed later on. Disregarding the evidence completely or wiping your prints off would be inappropriate and could compromise the integrity of the investigation. Informing the shift supervisor is also important, but recording the evidence's original position should be done first.

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22. When should you begin taking crime scene notes?

Explanation

The correct answer is "As soon as dispatched." This means that you should start taking crime scene notes immediately after being dispatched to the scene. This is important because it allows you to document important details and observations while they are still fresh in your mind. Taking notes as soon as dispatched helps ensure accuracy and completeness in recording information, which is crucial for the investigation and any subsequent legal proceedings.

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23.  Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?

Explanation

When the trigger of the M240B is squeezed, it initiates the action of firing. This means that the firing pin strikes the primer of the cartridge, causing the propellant to ignite and propel the bullet out of the barrel. The firing action is the result of the trigger being squeezed, which activates the mechanism that ignites the ammunition and allows the firearm to discharge.

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24. What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?

Explanation

The correct answer is "blank firing adapter." A blank firing adapter is a device used to modify a firearm to allow it to fire blank ammunition. Blank ammunition is used for training or theatrical purposes, as it does not contain a projectile but still produces a flash and noise when fired. The blank firing adapter ensures that the firearm functions properly and safely when firing blanks.

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25. Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

Explanation

The correct answer is mk19 because it is a grenade launcher that uses a blowback mechanism to fire grenades. Unlike other weapons listed, the mk19 does not have a barrel that overheats even after prolonged firing because it is designed to handle the high heat and pressure generated by launching grenades. This allows for continuous firing without the need to pause and let the barrel cool down, making it an effective weapon in sustained combat situations.

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26. How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?

Explanation

To conduct a simple search of a vehicle, it is important to do so thoroughly and systematically. This means thoroughly inspecting all areas of the vehicle and conducting a systematic search by following a specific order or pattern. By doing so, it ensures that all parts of the vehicle are properly examined and no potential issues or items are missed. Conducting a thorough and systematic search is essential for identifying any problems, ensuring safety, and maintaining the overall condition of the vehicle.

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27. What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?

Explanation

The manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check is determined by the object size. The size of the object can impact how thoroughly and extensively you search the vehicle. Larger objects may require more time and effort to search properly, while smaller objects may be easier to search quickly. Therefore, considering the object size is crucial in determining the approach and level of thoroughness for searching a vehicle during an entry point check.

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28. A base entry point check is

Explanation

The correct answer is an examination. A base entry point check refers to the process of examining or inspecting a particular entry point. It involves assessing the condition, security measures, and potential risks associated with that entry point. This examination helps to ensure the safety and security of the area or premises being accessed.

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29. It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible

Explanation

Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices is important because it ensures that the evidence obtained through the training is admissible in both civilian and military court. This means that the certification provides credibility and validity to the evidence, allowing it to be presented and considered in legal proceedings in both types of courts.

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30. Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?

Explanation

The security forces are responsible for providing the initial response to incidents. They are trained to handle and respond to various types of incidents such as security breaches, emergencies, and criminal activities. Their role is to ensure the safety and security of the installation and its personnel. They are usually the first ones to arrive at the scene of an incident and take immediate action to assess the situation, secure the area, and initiate the necessary response protocols.

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31. What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?

Explanation

The correct answer is to place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise. This command is given to ensure the safety and control of the driver and occupants during a vehicle challenge. By placing their hands on the headliner, they are unable to reach for any weapons or make any sudden movements that could pose a threat. It allows the authorities to maintain control of the situation and assess the occupants before giving further instructions.

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32. The acronym SPORTS stands for

Explanation

The correct answer is "slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot." This is because the acronym SPORTS is commonly used in firearms training and refers to a series of actions performed when handling a firearm. Slap refers to slapping the magazine to ensure it is properly seated, pull refers to pulling the charging handle or slide to chamber a round, observe means to visually inspect the chamber, release refers to releasing the slide or bolt, tap means to tap the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and shoot means to fire the firearm.

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33.  What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?

Explanation

The main purpose of traffic enforcement is to ensure that the traffic code is followed. This involves monitoring and regulating the behavior of drivers to promote safe and orderly traffic flow. By enforcing the traffic code, authorities aim to reduce the number of traffic accidents and maintain control over the flow of vehicles on the road. Citing people for speeding is just one aspect of traffic enforcement that helps in achieving these goals.

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34. Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

Explanation

Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to enhance our role and understanding of the model. By using different colors to represent different levels of force, it becomes easier to visually comprehend and interpret the model. This allows individuals to have a clearer understanding of the appropriate use of force in different situations, thereby enhancing their role in implementing the model effectively. Additionally, color can also help in highlighting important aspects or distinctions within the model, further improving our understanding of it.

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35. What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?

Explanation

If someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident, the correct course of action is to not answer their questions and instead refer them to public affairs personnel. This is because public affairs personnel are trained to handle media inquiries and can provide accurate and appropriate information to the media. By referring the media to public affairs personnel, you ensure that the correct information is shared and that any potential misunderstandings or inaccuracies are avoided.

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36. The success of any community policing program depends on

Explanation

The success of any community policing program depends on the extent to which the program meets the community's needs. This means that for a community policing program to be successful, it must address and fulfill the specific requirements and concerns of the community it serves. If the program is not tailored to meet the needs of the community, it is unlikely to gain the support and participation of community members, which is crucial for its success. Therefore, understanding and addressing the community's needs is a key factor in determining the effectiveness of a community policing program.

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37. What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The M9 pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that the bullet fired from the pistol can travel up to 1800 meters before it loses its effectiveness. It is important to note that the effective range of the pistol may be shorter than the maximum range, as factors such as accuracy, bullet drop, and the shooter's skill can affect the distance at which the pistol can accurately hit a target.

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38. Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into

Explanation

Grid coordinates are identified by dividing the grid square into smaller sections. In this case, the grid square is divided into 10 equal parts, known as 10ths. This allows for a more precise location identification within the grid square.

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39. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a

Explanation

The claymore is considered a mine or booby trap when used in an uncontrolled role. This is because the claymore is designed to be set up as an explosive device that can be remotely detonated or triggered by a tripwire. It is typically used to target and eliminate enemy personnel or vehicles in a specific area. In this uncontrolled role, the claymore functions as a hidden weapon that can cause significant damage and casualties to unsuspecting targets.

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40. When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a

Explanation

The claymore is treated as a one-shot weapon when employed in a controlled role. This means that it is designed to be used only once before needing to be reloaded or replaced. This could be due to factors such as the limited ammunition capacity or the high destructive power of the claymore, which makes it impractical to use multiple times in a single engagement.

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41.  Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas?

Explanation

Very near infrared lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas because it provides minimal visibility while still allowing for some level of illumination. This type of lighting is used in areas where high levels of visibility are not required, such as in nuclear facilities where restricted access is necessary for safety reasons.

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42. Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered

Explanation

The correct answer is "non-lethal". Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is designed to temporarily incapacitate an individual by causing severe irritation to the eyes, nose, and respiratory system. While it can cause significant discomfort and pain, it is not intended to cause long-term harm or death, making it a non-lethal option for self-defense or law enforcement purposes.

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43. What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?

Explanation

The baton is primarily used as an impact weapon. It is a long, rigid stick typically made of metal or wood that is used by law enforcement officers and security personnel to deliver strikes and control aggressive individuals. The primary purpose of using a baton is to create an impact on the target, causing pain and incapacitating them if necessary. It is not considered a non-physical or psychological weapon, as its effectiveness relies on physical force and impact. While it can potentially be lethal if used with excessive force or in sensitive areas, its primary purpose is to deliver impactful blows rather than causing fatal injuries.

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44. What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?

Explanation

Circumstantial evidence is a type of evidence that indirectly implicates a person in an offense. Unlike direct evidence, which directly proves a fact, circumstantial evidence relies on inference and suggests a conclusion based on a series of facts or circumstances. It may include things like witness testimony, physical evidence, or behavior that implies guilt. While circumstantial evidence may not provide definitive proof of a person's involvement in an offense, it can still be persuasive and used to build a case against them.

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45. When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to

Explanation

When arriving at a crime scene, it is crucial to keep the scene in its original state. This is because any disturbance or alteration to the scene can potentially contaminate or destroy important evidence that could be crucial in solving the crime. By preserving the scene in its original state, investigators can ensure that all evidence is properly collected, documented, and analyzed, increasing the chances of identifying and apprehending the perpetrator. Treating injured persons, taking appropriate notes, and collecting and marking visible items of evidence are also important tasks, but the top priority is maintaining the integrity of the crime scene.

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46.  Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?

Explanation

Strip and grid search method is normally used for large outdoor areas. This method involves dividing the search area into strips or grids and systematically searching each strip or grid one by one. This allows for a more organized and efficient search, ensuring that no areas are missed and reducing the chances of overlooking any potential targets or evidence. It is particularly useful in large outdoor areas where a systematic approach is necessary to cover the entire area effectively.

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47. What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?

Explanation

If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to stop the search immediately. This is because consent to search is voluntary and can be revoked at any time. Continuing the search without consent would violate the individual's rights and potentially lead to legal consequences. Therefore, it is important to respect the individual's decision and cease the search.

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48. How many range cards are prepared for each position?

Explanation

Two range cards are prepared for each position.

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49. What does the acronym FPL stand for?

Explanation

The acronym FPL stands for final protective line. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to a predetermined line of defense that is established to stop or slow down enemy forces. It is a crucial element in defensive operations and is often used in coordination with other defensive measures to protect key assets or positions.

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50.  One use of the narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for

Explanation

The narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for continuing any section of the form. This means that if there is not enough space on a particular section of the form to fully document the incident, the narrative page can be used to provide additional information and continue the documentation.

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51. For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be

Explanation

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. This means following a methodical approach and ensuring that all relevant information is gathered and analyzed. Being systematic helps to ensure that no important details are missed and that the search is conducted in a logical and organized manner. Being thorough means leaving no stone unturned and exploring all possible sources of information. By being systematic and thorough, the search is more likely to yield accurate and comprehensive results.

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52. Results of chemical testing for alcohol or drug content are only valid if it is administered

Explanation

To ensure the accuracy and reliability of the results, chemical testing for alcohol or drug content should be administered by qualified personnel. These individuals have the necessary training and expertise to properly conduct the tests, minimizing the risk of errors or false readings. The involvement of qualified personnel helps to maintain the integrity of the testing process and ensures that the results can be considered valid and trustworthy.

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53. The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?

Explanation

Dead space refers to the area that cannot be effectively targeted or engaged by grazing fire. It is an area that is shielded or protected from direct fire due to obstacles, such as natural or man-made barriers. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to an area where enemy forces can seek cover or move without being exposed to direct fire.

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54. What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations?

Explanation

Trained negotiators are the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations. Negotiators are skilled in communication and conflict resolution techniques, allowing them to establish a dialogue with individuals involved in high-risk situations. Through active listening, empathy, and effective negotiation strategies, trained negotiators aim to de-escalate tensions and find peaceful resolutions without resorting to violence or force. Their expertise in managing crisis situations makes them an essential component in ensuring a peaceful outcome and minimizing harm to all parties involved.

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55.  Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?

Explanation

Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of terrain because it plays a crucial role in their ability to effectively engage targets. Understanding the terrain allows sharpshooters to position themselves in advantageous locations, such as high ground or areas with good cover, which provides them with better visibility and protection. They can also use the terrain to their advantage by utilizing natural features like hills, trees, or buildings to conceal their presence and make it harder for the enemy to detect and engage them. Overall, terrain knowledge is essential for sharpshooters to maximize their effectiveness and survivability in combat situations.

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56. In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

Explanation

Using deadly force is generally not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a house. Deadly force is typically only justified in situations where there is an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to oneself or others. In the case of someone breaking into a house, it is generally recommended to prioritize personal safety and contact law enforcement authorities rather than resorting to deadly force.

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57.  On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and

Explanation

The correct answer is loaded chamber indicator. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is to indicate if there is a round in the chamber. The loaded chamber indicator visually and physically shows whether a round is present in the chamber, providing a quick and easy way for the shooter to determine if the firearm is loaded or not.

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58. Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?

Explanation

Emotional maltreatment is the most difficult type of child abuse to identify because it often leaves no physical evidence. Unlike physical abuse or sexual maltreatment, emotional maltreatment involves behaviors such as verbal abuse, humiliation, neglect, and rejection, which can be more subtle and easily hidden. The effects of emotional maltreatment can be long-lasting and damaging to a child's emotional and psychological well-being. It requires careful observation and understanding of the child's behavior and emotional state to identify and address this type of abuse.

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59.  A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?

Explanation

The black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates that it is a High Explosive (HE) antiarmor round launcher. The color coding system is used to differentiate between different types of ammunition or rounds. In this case, the black and yellow band specifically indicates the type of round that the launcher is designed to fire, which is the HE antiarmor round.

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60. Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?

Explanation

MK19 ammunition is specifically designed for the MK19 automatic grenade launcher, not the M203 grenade launcher. Therefore, under no circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203.

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61. What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?

Explanation

Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, is completed, it is given to the individual. This is likely done to provide them with proof of authorization to enter the premises or to operate a vehicle on the premises. By giving the completed form to the individual, they can present it to the appropriate authorities as needed.

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62. What is the function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force if a weapon has been taken?

Explanation

The function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force is to assist in recapture and recovery operations. This means that if a nuclear weapon has been taken, this force is responsible for helping to retrieve and recover the weapon. They would work alongside other forces to locate and secure the weapon, ensuring that it does not fall into the wrong hands and minimizing the potential threat it poses.

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63. What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts and statements?

Explanation

The Jencks Act is a federal law that requires the government to provide defendants with any statements made by government witnesses that relate to the subject matter of their testimony. It is commonly applied in criminal cases to ensure that defendants have access to potentially exculpatory evidence. The act mandates the preservation and disclosure of field notes, rough drafts, and statements made by government witnesses, which is why it is the correct answer to the question.

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64. How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare and where are the copies kept?

Explanation

You should prepare two copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person. One copy should be kept in the case file, while the other copy should be given to the person receiving custody.

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65. Which system affords the highest level of protection for nuclear weapons?

Explanation

The correct answer is "protection level" because the question asks for the system that provides the highest level of protection for nuclear weapons. The term "protection level" refers to the degree or level of security and safeguards implemented to ensure the safety and security of nuclear weapons. This system would involve various measures such as physical barriers, access controls, surveillance, and other security protocols to prevent unauthorized access and potential threats to the nuclear weapons.

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66. The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,

Explanation

The correct answer is legs, and knees. When using a baton on a suspect, the principle target areas are the legs and knees. By striking these areas, law enforcement officers can incapacitate the suspect and prevent them from fleeing or causing harm. Targeting the legs and knees can also help to minimize the risk of causing severe injury or harm to the suspect.

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67.  Where would you annotate, on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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68.  What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?

Explanation

When audio-visual personnel are not available to document a crime scene, it is crucial to photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched. This is because photographs serve as the primary visual record of the scene and the evidence present. By capturing images of the evidence in its original state, investigators can ensure that important details are not lost or altered. This rule helps preserve the integrity of the crime scene and provides a reliable visual reference for future analysis and investigation.

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69. Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all

Explanation

Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for airmen. This means that airmen need to possess the skills and knowledge to effectively defend their installations, whether they are deployed or stationed at home. Integrated defense refers to the coordination and collaboration between different units and forces to create a comprehensive defense strategy. By having this competency, airmen can contribute to the overall security and protection of their base or installation.

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70. Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?

Explanation

The assisting Security Forces member should stand to one side of the situation to help from a position of advantage. This position allows the member to have a clear view of the suspect and the apprehending officer, while also providing them with a strategic position to react quickly if needed. Standing at a 90-degree angle or directly behind the suspect may obstruct the member's line of sight and hinder their ability to assist effectively. Standing next to the apprehending officer may also create a vulnerable situation, as both officers would be exposed to potential harm from the suspect.

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71.  The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the

Explanation

The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the person who obtained or collected the property. This person is responsible for documenting the initial possession of the evidence and ensuring its safekeeping until it is transferred to the property custodian. The chain-of-custody is crucial in maintaining the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in legal proceedings, as it establishes a clear and documented trail of custody from the time it was collected until it is presented in court.

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72. In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?

Explanation

The M240B, MK19, and .50 Cal are all fixed weapons that require a range card. A range card is a document that provides information about the distances at which the weapon can effectively engage targets. It includes data such as the maximum effective range, the trajectory of the rounds, and any adjustments that need to be made for wind or elevation. By having a range card, the operator can quickly reference the necessary information to accurately engage targets at different distances.

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73. Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?

Explanation

Negotiation teams are allowed inside the inner perimeter at a high-risk scene because they play a crucial role in communicating and negotiating with potential threats or individuals involved in the situation. Their presence is necessary to establish communication channels, gather information, and work towards a peaceful resolution. Medical emergency services personnel, base fire department personnel, and chaplains may be allowed inside the outer perimeter to provide support and assistance, but negotiation teams are specifically trained for high-risk situations and have the expertise to handle negotiations effectively.

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74. What is your first step when writing a report once the incident is over

Explanation

The first step when writing a report once the incident is over is to gather the facts. This is important because it ensures that the report is based on accurate and reliable information. By gathering the facts, the writer can have a clear understanding of what happened during the incident and can then proceed to write a comprehensive and objective report. Organizing the facts and evaluating the report can come later in the writing process, but gathering the facts is the initial and crucial step.

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75. Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include

Explanation

The optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance. These capabilities are essential for effective engagement and support in various combat scenarios. Response refers to the ability to quickly react and engage targets with precision. Overwatch involves providing cover and support to friendly forces from a concealed position. Screening is the act of protecting friendly forces by detecting and neutralizing threats. Lastly, reconnaissance involves gathering information about the enemy and the battlefield to inform decision-making.

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76. Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior

Explanation

Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior accuracy. This means that the ammunition is manufactured with precise measurements and specifications, resulting in consistent and predictable performance. With such high levels of accuracy, snipers can effectively hit their targets with precision and minimal deviation. This is crucial in sniper operations where accuracy is paramount for mission success.

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77. How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the M9 pistol is known to use four different types of 9 mm ammunition.

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78. Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?

Explanation

Buckshot is the most effective M203 round in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing because it disperses multiple small pellets upon firing, increasing the chances of hitting targets and causing significant damage within a confined space. This makes it ideal for close-quarters combat and situations where there are obstacles like dense vegetation that may obstruct the trajectory of a single projectile. The pellets can penetrate vegetation and provide a wider coverage area, increasing the likelihood of hitting targets in such environments.

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79. The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for

Explanation

The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for single or dual priming. This means that the claymore can be set up to be detonated by either one or two detonators. This flexibility allows for different scenarios and preferences, as some situations may require a single detonator while others may benefit from the added security and reliability of dual priming.

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80. What type effect does restricted area lighting have in deterring intruders?

Explanation

Restricted area lighting has a psychological effect in deterring intruders. This means that the presence of well-lit areas in a restricted zone can create a sense of fear, uncertainty, and risk for potential intruders. The bright lights can make them feel exposed and vulnerable, discouraging them from attempting to enter the area. It plays on the human psyche by triggering feelings of apprehension and caution, ultimately dissuading individuals from trespassing.

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81. What portion, of the Use of Force Model (UFM) that a subject's actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?

Explanation

In the Use of Force Model (UFM), the portion where a subject's actions are located within and where approved electronic control devices can be expected to be used is the "Resistant (active)" portion. This means that the subject is actively resisting and posing a threat, and the use of electronic control devices may be necessary to gain control and ensure the safety of others.

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82.  An item of evidence is considered fragile if

Explanation

If an item of evidence is considered fragile, it means that conditions exist that could destroy its evidential value. This suggests that the item is sensitive to certain factors or circumstances that could potentially compromise or diminish its value as evidence. It does not necessarily refer to the physical fragility of the item itself, such as the possibility of breaking if dropped, but rather the vulnerability of the evidence to external factors that could render it unreliable or unusable in a legal context.

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83. How is ammunition fed into the M240B?

Explanation

The correct answer is 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt. This means that the ammunition is fed into the M240B using a bandoleer that contains 100 rounds and a split-link belt. The split-link belt allows for easy loading and feeding of the ammunition into the weapon.

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84. Searching fire is most often used on

Explanation

Searching fire is most often used on level or evenly sloping ground because it provides a stable and balanced platform for the firing unit. This allows for better accuracy and control over the trajectory of the fired projectiles. On sloped or hilly ground, the uneven terrain can affect the stability of the firing unit and cause deviations in the trajectory, making it less effective. Therefore, level or evenly sloping ground is preferred for searching fire to ensure optimal performance and accuracy.

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85. How many calendar days is a completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log maintained?

Explanation

A completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log is maintained for 90 calendar days. This log is used to track visitors entering a facility and is kept for a specific period of time for security and record-keeping purposes. After 90 days, the log can be discarded as it is no longer necessary to retain the information.

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86. The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms

Explanation

When facing a rear grab hold, the second step is to make a fist, flex your arms out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect's feet. This is because looking at the suspect's feet allows you to maintain situational awareness and potentially identify any potential weapons or objects that could be used against you. By crouching down, you lower your center of gravity, making it harder for the suspect to maintain their grip and giving you more control over the situation. Flexing your arms out slightly helps to create space and make it easier to break free from the hold.

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87. What rule applies, in the Summary Reporting System, under number of premises entered, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to police?

Explanation

In the Summary Reporting System, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to the police, the rule that applies is "Hotel." This suggests that when multiple units within a hotel are burglarized and reported by the manager, it falls under the category of a hotel in the Summary Reporting System.

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88. Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report?

Explanation

The sentence "Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones" is an example of using active voice in a report because the subject (Sgt Smith) is performing the action (struck) on the object (Amn Jones).

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89. You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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90. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?

Explanation

The kill radius for hand grenades is typically around 5 meters. This means that anyone within a 5-meter radius of the explosion is likely to be killed or severely injured by the blast and shrapnel. Hand grenades are designed to be highly destructive within a limited area, making them effective weapons in close-quarters combat situations.

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91. Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse?

Explanation

The family advocacy officer must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse. This is because the family advocacy officer is responsible for providing support and resources to families experiencing abuse and ensuring the safety of the individuals involved. They have the expertise and training to handle these sensitive situations and can initiate appropriate interventions and investigations to protect the victims and hold the abuser accountable.

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92. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?

Explanation

Restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This ensures that the signs are clearly visible and provide sufficient warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. By placing the signs at this distance, it helps to maintain safety and prevent unauthorized access to the restricted area.

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93. What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?

Explanation

Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B. Sluggish operation refers to the weapon's failure to cycle properly, resulting in a delay or failure to fire. Uncontrolled fire refers to the weapon firing continuously without the shooter's control, often caused by a malfunctioning trigger or firing mechanism. These malfunctions can significantly affect the weapon's performance and pose safety risks.

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94. Which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, do you annotate the behind the wheel screening?

Explanation

In the DD Form 1920, the behind the wheel screening is annotated in Section II, Initial Contact. This section is where the initial interaction or contact with the suspect is recorded. It is the appropriate place to document the details of the behind the wheel screening, such as the observations made and any tests conducted.

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95. At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of

Explanation

The correct answer is 900 - 1200 rounds. This is because the M240B should be cleaned after firing a basic load, which typically consists of 900 - 1200 rounds. Cleaning the weapon is essential to ensure its proper functioning and to prevent any malfunctions or failures. Regular cleaning helps remove dirt, debris, and carbon buildup, which can affect the weapon's performance and reliability. By cleaning the M240B after firing a basic load, soldiers can maintain the weapon's effectiveness and prolong its lifespan.

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96. Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target

Explanation

The statement suggests that abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data allow the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target in a fast and precise manner. This means that the gunner can quickly make necessary adjustments and accurately hit the target without wasting time.

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97. Which of the following is not an allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF Form 3545, Incident Report?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Detained." The AF Form 3545, Incident Report, does not include "Detained" as an allowable type of apprehension/detention code. This form is used for reporting incidents and documenting details such as the type of apprehension or detention that occurred. However, "Detained" is not listed as one of the options for this specific code on the form.

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98. The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?

Explanation

The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in the close-quarters battle role because of its wide spread and high stopping power at close range. In close-quarters combat, where engagements typically occur within a few meters, the shotgun's ability to quickly neutralize targets in confined spaces makes it a valuable weapon. Its effectiveness is further enhanced by its ability to deliver devastating blows even through obstacles such as doors or walls. Therefore, the close-quarters battle role is the most suitable for utilizing the shotgun's capabilities.

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99. What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?

Explanation

Hand grenades are commonly characterized by their short employment range, meaning they can only be thrown a relatively short distance. They also have a small casualty radius, which refers to the area in which they can cause damage or harm. Additionally, hand grenades have a delay element that allows the user to safely throw them before they explode. This delay element is crucial in ensuring that the person throwing the grenade has enough time to distance themselves from the blast radius, making it safer for them.

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100. What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?

Explanation

The cordon size of an accident involving biological agents is 2000 feet upwind and crosswind. This means that a perimeter of 2000 feet should be established in all directions from the accident site to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent the spread of the biological agents. This distance is necessary to minimize the risk of exposure to the agents and to create a buffer zone to contain any potential contamination.

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101. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?

Explanation

Greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood. When community members have a say in determining the focus of law enforcement efforts, it ensures that the police are addressing the specific needs and concerns of the community. This approach promotes a sense of ownership and collaboration between the police and the community, leading to more effective crime prevention strategies and a stronger bond between law enforcement and residents. It also fosters trust, communication, and cooperation, ultimately creating a safer and more harmonious neighborhood environment.

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102.  Integrated defense (ID) forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except

Explanation

Integrated defense (ID) forces are military forces that work together to defend a particular theater or area. These forces typically include joint services, which are the different branches of the military working together, coalition partners, which are military forces from different countries working together, and host nations, which are the military forces of the country where the defense is taking place. The only option that does not fit into this category is "friendly forces." Friendly forces refer to the military forces of the enemy or opposing side, and therefore would not be included in the integrated defense forces.

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103. What is the first thing you would do to apply the IKKYO grip properly?

Explanation

The correct answer is to grab the back of the suspect's right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspect's left with your left). This grip is known as the IKKYO grip and it is a technique used in martial arts or self-defense to gain control over an opponent. By grabbing the back of the suspect's hand with your hand palm down, you have a better grip and control over their wrist, making it more difficult for them to escape or resist.

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104. What is the function of the forward assist?

Explanation

The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that is used to lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures. Immediate action procedures are used in situations where a malfunction or stoppage occurs, and the forward assist helps to ensure that the bolt is fully locked in place and ready to fire. This feature is especially useful in combat or high-pressure situations where quick and reliable firearm operation is crucial.

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105.  From what position is the M240B loaded?

Explanation

The M240B can be loaded from either the bolt opened or closed position. This means that the weapon can be loaded whether the bolt is in its forward or rearward position. This flexibility allows for quick and efficient reloading in various situations, providing the user with options depending on the specific circumstances.

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106.  If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint, have

Explanation

The correct answer is "the person giving the statement initial after each question and answer." This technique is used to ensure that the person giving the statement acknowledges and verifies the accuracy of each question and answer. It helps to prevent any potential misunderstandings or misinterpretations of the statement.

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107. Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?

Explanation

A final protective line (FPL) is a predetermined line along which direct fire is delivered to stop an enemy assault. It is fixed in both direction and elevation, meaning that it does not change its position or angle during the engagement. The purpose of the FPL is to provide a continuous and effective barrier of fire to protect friendly forces and prevent the enemy from advancing further. This fixed position allows for accurate and consistent fire to be delivered, increasing the chances of successfully repelling the enemy attack.

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108. What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called?

Explanation

The correct answer is tools. Tools refer to the mechanical, physical, or mental resources that can be utilized to promote or gain compliance. These resources can include various instruments, equipment, strategies, or methods that are employed to achieve a desired outcome or persuade others to comply with certain actions or behaviors.

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109. When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand

Explanation

When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This position allows you to have a clear view of oncoming traffic and ensures that you are visible to drivers. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road can obstruct the view of other drivers and create confusion. Similarly, standing in the center of the intersection can be dangerous and may lead to accidents. Therefore, standing off to the side of the road is the safest and most effective position for directing traffic on a one-way street.

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110.  The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of

Explanation

The correct answer is short recoil principle. The M107 sniper rifle operates using the short recoil principle, which means that the barrel and bolt move together for a short distance during the firing process. This movement allows for the extraction of the spent cartridge and the loading of a new round. The short recoil principle is commonly used in firearms to ensure reliable operation and accuracy.

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111. What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime?

Explanation

Physical protection surveys help to educate personnel about the steps they can take to protect themselves and their property. By conducting these surveys, individuals can identify potential vulnerabilities in their surroundings and take appropriate measures to minimize the risk of crime. This includes implementing security measures such as installing surveillance cameras, improving lighting, and reinforcing doors and windows. Educating personnel about these steps empowers them to be proactive in safeguarding their own safety and belongings, ultimately contributing to the prevention of crime.

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112. After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?

Explanation

In the event of a nuclear accident, the nearest military installation has the initial response base responsibility. This is because military installations are equipped with resources and personnel trained to handle emergency situations, including nuclear accidents. They have the capability to assess the situation, coordinate rescue and recovery efforts, and provide immediate assistance to mitigate the effects of the accident. The military's expertise and preparedness make them the most suitable organization to take charge of the initial response in such a critical situation.

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113. Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a domestic violence situation before knocking?

Explanation

In a domestic violence situation, it is important to approach the situation cautiously and ensure the safety of everyone involved. Stopping and listening at the door for 15 to 20 seconds before knocking allows you to gather information about the situation inside. This duration gives you enough time to determine if there is any immediate danger or signs of violence before entering the situation. It also allows for any potential arguments or altercations to subside, creating a safer environment for intervention.

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114. How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area?

Explanation

In a restricted area, the fence fabric must extend two inches above the ground level. This is important to ensure that the restricted area is properly enclosed and there are no gaps or openings that could allow unauthorized access. By extending the fence fabric two inches above the ground, it provides a sufficient barrier to prevent people or animals from easily crossing the fence and entering the restricted area.

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115. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

The marginal data area is typically used for important information that is not directly related to the main purpose of the range card. Magnetic north data is crucial for navigation and orientation, but it is not directly related to target locations or firing data. By placing the magnetic north data in the marginal data area, it can be easily accessed and referenced without cluttering the main part of the range card. This allows the user to quickly locate the magnetic north data when needed.

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116. When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?

Explanation

When clearing fields of fire, it is important to start at least 100 meters away from your position and work forward. This distance ensures that you have a clear and unobstructed line of sight, minimizing the risk of accidental injury or damage caused by firing too close to your own position. Starting at a greater distance also allows for better visibility and control over the area being cleared, reducing the chances of missing any potential threats or targets. Therefore, 100 meters is the minimum recommended distance to begin clearing fields of fire.

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117. You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holster, with the flap open

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is "sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard." This is the safest response because the sentry lock is disengaged, allowing for quick access to the pistol if needed. The hood is rotated forward, providing additional protection for the weapon. The hammer is not cocked, reducing the risk of accidental discharge. And most importantly, the finger is not in the trigger guard, ensuring that the pistol will not fire unintentionally.

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118. Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?

Explanation

The ogive of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicates the color of the smoke produced.

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119. What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?

Explanation

The M249 has a maximum effective range of 600 meters for a point target when using a bipod. This means that the weapon is most accurate and effective when engaging a single, specific target at distances up to 600 meters while utilizing the bipod for stability. Beyond this range, the weapon's accuracy and effectiveness may decrease.

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120. Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?

Explanation

The receiver assembly is the support for all major components of the M249. It is the main body of the weapon where the barrel, bolt, and other important parts are housed. The receiver assembly provides the structure and stability necessary for the functioning of the firearm. Without a properly functioning receiver assembly, the M249 would not be able to operate effectively.

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121. Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched. This is because the Commander has the authority to authorize a search for evidence of a crime. They have the power to give permission for the search to take place and ensure that it is conducted in accordance with the law and regulations. The Commander's control over the area or person or property gives them the necessary jurisdiction to authorize such a search.

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122. Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect

Explanation

The correct answer is "steps off the line three or more times." In a walk and turn field sobriety test, the suspect is asked to take a certain number of steps along a straight line, while maintaining heel-to-toe contact and counting the steps out loud. If the suspect steps off the line three or more times during the test, it indicates a lack of balance and coordination, which could be a sign of impairment. Therefore, this is the threshold at which the test is terminated.

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123. To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect's

Explanation

To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, it is important to keep the suspect's arm parallel to the ground. This positioning ensures that the force applied during the takedown is distributed evenly along the suspect's arm, reducing the risk of hyperextension or other injuries. Keeping the arm parallel to the ground also allows for better control and manipulation of the suspect's body, making it easier to execute the takedown effectively.

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124. Range cards are a record of

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide detailed information about the firing exercises conducted at a specific range, including the type of ammunition used, the distance to the target, the angle of elevation, and any adjustments made during the firing process. Range cards are essential for maintaining accurate records of training exercises, analyzing performance, and improving marksmanship skills. They serve as a valuable reference for future training sessions and help in evaluating the effectiveness of different firing techniques and strategies.

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125. Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

Explanation

The most often used gun mount for the MK19 is m3.

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126. In which portion of the Use of Force Model phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?

Explanation

In the resistant - active portion of the Use of Force Model phase, Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART) can be expected to be used. This phase refers to situations where the individual being apprehended is actively resisting but not yet causing bodily harm or posing a serious threat. In such cases, the use of physical techniques to restrain and apprehend the individual may be necessary to maintain control and ensure the safety of all parties involved.

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127. The sniper's primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from

Explanation

The correct answer is concealed positions because snipers are trained to hide and remain undetected while providing support during combat operations. By using concealed positions, snipers can effectively deliver precise rifle fire without being easily spotted by the enemy. This allows them to maintain a tactical advantage and increase their chances of success in their mission.

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128.  If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is Adjusted aiming point method. When firing the M9, shooters are required to use the adjusted aiming point method in order to engage targets. This method involves making slight adjustments to the point of aim based on factors such as distance, windage, and elevation. By adjusting the aiming point, shooters can compensate for these variables and increase their chances of hitting the target accurately.

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129. In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics, the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) also analyzes threat

Explanation

The correct answer is "fusion." The Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) not only analyzes law enforcement statistics but also analyzes the fusion of different sources of information to provide a comprehensive understanding of threats. This means that SFMIS combines and integrates data from various sources to create a more complete and accurate assessment of the overall security situation. By analyzing the fusion of information, SFMIS can identify patterns, trends, and potential threats more effectively.

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130. Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?

Explanation

Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), it is important to check the backblast area. The backblast area refers to the space behind the weapon where the exhaust gases and debris are expelled when the weapon is fired. It is crucial to ensure that there are no personnel or obstacles in this area to prevent injury or damage. By checking the backblast area, you can ensure the safety of yourself and others before firing the LAW.

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131. Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?

Explanation

The Chief, Security Forces (CSF) is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This individual holds the highest authority within the Security Forces and is responsible for overseeing and managing all security-related matters. They have the power to make decisions regarding violations and can void the form if necessary. The Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel, Military Personnel Flight (MPF) chief, and Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) do not have the authority to void this form.

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132. You will apply specific security principles to a close-in security area that contains

Explanation

The specific security principles would be applied to the close-in security area because nuclear weapons are highly dangerous and pose a significant threat if they fall into the wrong hands. These principles would include strict access control measures, constant surveillance, and stringent protocols for handling and storing the weapons. The close-in security area would need to be highly secure to prevent any unauthorized access or tampering with the nuclear weapons.

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133. What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?

Explanation

During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, m199 dummy ammunition is used. Dummy ammunition is designed to mimic the weight, dimensions, and appearance of live ammunition, but it does not contain any explosive or propellant material. This allows trainees to safely practice loading, unloading, and manipulating the weapon without the risk of firing a live round. The m199 dummy ammunition is specifically used for these training purposes, ensuring that the weapon functions correctly and that trainees can practice their skills effectively.

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134. What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. In the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test, nystagmus refers to the involuntary jerking of the eyes. When a suspect exhibits four or more clues on this test, it indicates a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08. These clues include lack of smooth pursuit, distinct nystagmus at maximum deviation, and onset of nystagmus prior to 45 degrees. These indicators suggest impairment due to alcohol consumption.

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135. Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained?

Explanation

The Chief, Security Forces is responsible for ensuring personnel are SFMIS trained. They are in charge of overseeing and managing the security forces within the organization, which includes ensuring that all personnel receive the necessary training. This role is crucial in maintaining the security and effectiveness of the security forces team. The NCOIC, Training may assist in the training process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Chief, Security Forces. The Unit Training Manager may also play a role in coordinating and organizing the training, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring personnel are SFMIS trained. The Staff Judge Advocate is responsible for legal matters and may not have direct involvement in personnel training.

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136. What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?

Explanation

Before apprehending a suspect, it is important to evaluate their attitude and physical condition. This is crucial because it can provide insights into the suspect's state of mind and potential threat level. By assessing their attitude, such as signs of aggression or compliance, law enforcement officers can determine the appropriate approach to take during the apprehension. Additionally, evaluating the suspect's physical condition can help determine if they pose a risk to themselves or others during the arrest process. Understanding these factors can contribute to a safer and more effective apprehension.

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137. What are the two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?

Explanation

When approaching a suspect to make an apprehension, it is crucial to consider your position and attitude. Your position refers to how you physically approach the suspect, ensuring that you have a tactical advantage and are in a safe position. Your attitude refers to your demeanor and behavior, as it can greatly influence the suspect's response and cooperation. Maintaining a calm and professional attitude can help de-escalate the situation and increase the chances of a successful apprehension.

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138.  How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?

Explanation

In the training environment, live fragmentation grenades should be thrown overhand. This means that the thrower should bring their arm back and then forward in a throwing motion, releasing the grenade over the top of their head. This technique allows for maximum distance and accuracy when throwing the grenade. Throwing the grenade underhand, overhead, or sidearm may not provide the same level of control and effectiveness.

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139. Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti- jacking) duties?

Explanation

The correct answer is MK243 MOD 0. This ammunition round is only issued to specific groups such as security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security duties. The other options, m917 dummy round, M882 ball with cannelure, and M882 ball without cannelure, are not specifically designated for these groups.

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140. In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also called

Explanation

In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also referred to as "volumetric or space". This term is used to describe the detection of movement within a given area or space, rather than focusing on specific points or spots. It implies that the detection system can monitor and detect motion in three dimensions, covering a larger area or volume.

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141. What document establishes the rules of evidence?

Explanation

The Manual for Courts Martial (MCM) establishes the rules of evidence. It is a comprehensive document that provides guidance and instructions on how evidence should be handled and presented in military courts martial proceedings. The MCM ensures fairness and consistency in the application of evidence rules, helping to maintain the integrity of the military justice system.

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142. During a traffic stop, how far from the violator's vehicle do you position your vehicle?

Explanation

During a traffic stop, it is recommended to position your vehicle 10 to 12 feet to the rear and three feet to the left of the violator's vehicle. This positioning allows for a safe distance between the two vehicles, reducing the risk of any potential danger or harm. It also provides enough space for the officer to approach the violator's vehicle and conduct the necessary procedures while maintaining a safe distance.

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143. When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?

Explanation

The predetermined type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners when selecting crew-served weapons positions. This means that the gunners have pre-planned firing positions and target areas, allowing them to quickly and effectively engage the enemy. This type of fire helps to ensure coordination and maximize the effectiveness of the crew-served weapons in the battle.

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144. To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly "trap" the suspect's hand by grabbing the suspect's arm

Explanation

To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly "trap" the suspect's hand by grabbing the suspect's arm below the elbow, with your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect's hand on your chest. This position allows for better control and leverage over the suspect's hand, making it harder for them to escape or continue their aggressive behavior.

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145. Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?

Explanation

The primary sector of fire is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions. This means that the gun team is responsible for focusing their fire on the area where the enemy is most likely to come from, ensuring that they can effectively engage and neutralize any threats. The primary sector of fire is crucial in providing a strong defensive position and maximizing the team's ability to protect the area.

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146. What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?

Explanation

The correct answer is m856. The M856 cartridge is similar to the M196, but it has a longer tracer burnout distance. This means that the tracer projectile in the M856 will remain visible for a longer distance compared to the M196. The M856 is commonly used in the M4 carbine, providing improved visibility and tracking of the bullet's trajectory during firing.

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147. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an

Explanation

The claymore mine is considered a defensive weapon because its primary purpose is to protect an area by inflicting maximum damage to enemy forces. It is designed to be set up and detonated remotely, allowing defenders to target and eliminate incoming threats from a safe distance. By utilizing its directional fragmentation, the claymore mine creates a lethal cone-shaped blast that can effectively neutralize enemy personnel and vehicles, thus defending the area it is placed in.

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148. During which portion of the Use of Force Model (UFM) can you expect to use the baton?

Explanation

In the Use of Force Model (UFM), the baton can be expected to be used during the Assaultive (bodily harm) portion. This means that when facing a situation where bodily harm is being inflicted, the use of a baton may be necessary to protect oneself or others. The baton is a tool that can be used to subdue and control an assailant who poses a threat of bodily harm.

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149. What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one-leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?

Explanation

In order to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08 on the one-leg stand field sobriety test, the suspect must exhibit a minimum of 2 clues. This suggests that the suspect is displaying signs of impairment and may be intoxicated.

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150. How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?

Explanation

There are 10 different types of ammunition available for the M4 carbine.

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151. In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?

Explanation

The M18A claymore mine was standardized in 1960. Standardization refers to the process of establishing a set of specifications and requirements for a particular military equipment or weapon. In this case, it means that in 1960, the M18A claymore mine was officially adopted and became the standard model for the United States military.

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152. The M136 AT4's warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal

Explanation

The M136 AT4's warhead is known for its excellent penetration ability, meaning it can effectively penetrate armored targets. Additionally, it has lethal "after armor effects," which suggests that even after penetrating the armor, it continues to cause significant damage or destruction. This could include effects such as explosions or shrapnel that can incapacitate or kill enemy personnel inside the armored target.

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153. What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries?

Explanation

Fences serve both legal and physical demarcation when used to secure area boundaries. From a legal standpoint, fences establish a clear boundary between properties, indicating ownership and defining property lines. This helps in resolving disputes and determining responsibilities. On the other hand, fences also provide a physical barrier that prevents unauthorized access and acts as a deterrent to potential trespassers. Therefore, the correct answer is legal and physical.

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154. The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is

Explanation

The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the objective is to have a clear line of sight and the ability to shoot at any potential threat within that area. It is important to be able to effectively engage anyone who may pose a threat, ensuring the safety and security of the surroundings.

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155. How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?

Explanation

An M249 bandoleer contains 200 rounds.

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156. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

Explanation

The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that it is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod.

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157.  Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and

Explanation

In the context of machine guns in offense, the objective is to advance towards the enemy, occupy their position, and maintain control over it. Holding the enemy position allows the offense to establish a strategic advantage and prevent the enemy from regaining control. This objective is crucial as it enables the offense to effectively engage and neutralize the enemy, ensuring the success of the offensive operation.

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158. Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Disaster control group. In the event of a nuclear weapon accident, the Disaster control group is responsible for assuming overall command and control. They are trained to handle such emergencies and coordinate the response efforts. The on-scene fire chief, on-scene commander, and initial base response force may play important roles, but the Disaster control group has the ultimate responsibility for managing the situation and ensuring the safety of personnel and the surrounding area.

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159.  In meters, what it the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M870 shotgun using "00" buckshot round is 640 meters.

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160. What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?

Explanation

The standard cartridge used with the M9 is the m882.

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161. What is the standard round for the MK19?

Explanation

The standard round for the MK19 is the m430.

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162. An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?

Explanation

A stoppage refers to an interruption in the cycle of operations caused by either a faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition. It can occur when the weapon fails to cycle properly, such as a failure to feed, extract, or eject rounds. A stoppage can also be caused by a malfunction in the ammunition, such as a misfire or a failure to ignite. In such cases, the weapon may need to undergo remedial action, which involves identifying and resolving the issue to restore proper functioning. Operator error, on the other hand, refers to mistakes made by the user that can lead to malfunctions or stoppages.

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163. What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?

Explanation

The correct answer is m61. M61 ammunition is commonly used to engage lightly-armored targets. It is specifically designed for use in aircraft cannons and is effective against lightly-armored vehicles, aircraft, and personnel. It has good penetration capabilities and can cause significant damage to these types of targets.

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164. Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of

Explanation

A stoppage refers to any interruption or halt in the cycle of operations. It can occur due to various reasons such as a malfunction, failure to fire, or an operational failure. This interruption can disrupt the smooth functioning of a process or system. Therefore, the correct answer is stoppage.

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165. What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?

Explanation

The waiting period of 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203 is necessary to ensure safety. Opening the assembly immediately after a failure could result in a dangerous situation, such as a round still being live in the barrel. Waiting for 30 seconds allows for any potential hazards to dissipate and reduces the risk of accidental discharge or injury.

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166. Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for all of the following reasons except

Explanation

Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for several reasons. Firstly, motorists may start shouting back, which can create chaos and confusion on the road. Secondly, hand and arm signals are usually sufficient to effectively communicate with drivers. Thirdly, shouting orders can antagonize motorists and lead to aggressive or confrontational behavior. Lastly, verbal commands can sometimes be difficult to understand, especially in noisy or busy traffic situations.

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167. Which detection stage of alarm protection provides response forces with the least amount of warning?

Explanation

The detection stage of alarm protection that provides response forces with the least amount of warning is the "point" stage. This stage typically involves the use of individual sensors or detectors placed at specific points within a protected area. These sensors are designed to detect specific events or conditions, such as the opening of a door or window. Since they are only able to monitor a single point, they may provide the least amount of warning compared to other stages that cover larger areas or detect motion in general.

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168. The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an

Explanation

The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an emotional and physical deterrent to aggression. This means that it not only physically stops the aggressor from causing harm but also creates an emotional response in them, deterring them from further aggression. By using the baton, law enforcement officers can effectively control and de-escalate potentially dangerous situations by addressing both the physical and emotional aspects of aggression.

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169. What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 2000 yards. This means that the gun can accurately hit targets up to a distance of 2000 yards. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the gun may decrease.

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170.  In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 350 meters.

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171. What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

Explanation

The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters.

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172. Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?

Explanation

The target reference point (TRP) is primarily used to control direct-fire weapons, allowing the operator to designate a specific location for the weapons to target. However, it can also be used for indirect-fire weapons, as it provides a reference point for calculating firing solutions and adjusting the trajectory of the projectiles. The other options, principle determination of fire (PDF), principle direction of enemy (PDE), and final protective line (FPL), do not have the same level of versatility and are more specific in their application.

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173. The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?

Explanation

The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to 700 meters. This means that the fire can spread up to a distance of 700 meters from its origin. It indicates the potential reach or range of the fire as it grazes or spreads across an area.

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174. Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?

Explanation

Final protective fire is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. It is a defensive measure that involves the rapid and concentrated delivery of fire at a specific location to disrupt or destroy enemy forces attempting to breach defensive positions. This tactic is often used as a last resort to protect friendly forces and deny the enemy access to critical areas.

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175. In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?

Explanation

The maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets is 150 meters.

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How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a...
 Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of...
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