CDC 4c071 Volume 1

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  • 1/70 Questions

    What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism?

    • Laws
    • Policies
    • Attitudes
    • Education
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About This Quiz

CDC 4C071 Volume 1 quiz assesses understanding of counseling ethics, focusing on overcoming racism, addressing prejudices, and recognizing appropriate behavior in therapeutic and formal settings. It is essential for those in healthcare and counseling roles.

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  • 2. 

    Most people base prejudices upon information

    • Obtained from research

    • Learned in formal courses

    • Gained from learned stereotypes

    • Ensure equal treatment of all patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Gained from learned stereotypes
    Explanation
    The answer suggests that most people form prejudices based on the stereotypes they have learned over time. Stereotypes are generalizations or assumptions made about a particular group of people, often based on limited or biased information. These stereotypes are learned through various means such as media, upbringing, and societal influences. Prejudices formed based on learned stereotypes can lead to biased judgments and discriminatory behavior towards individuals or groups.

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  • 3. 

    When counselors act upon their prejudices, they

    • Become better people

    • Overcome stereotypes

    • Engage in discriminatory behavior

    • Ensure equal treatment of all patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Engage in discriminatory behavior
    Explanation
    The given answer is "engage in discriminatory behavior". When counselors act upon their prejudices, it means that they are allowing their biases and preconceived notions to influence their actions and decisions. This can lead to unfair treatment and discrimination towards certain individuals or groups. By acting upon their prejudices, counselors are not becoming better people or ensuring equal treatment of all patients. Instead, they are engaging in discriminatory behavior, which goes against the principles of counseling and can harm the individuals they are supposed to help.

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  • 4. 

    In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?

    • Personal

    • Intimate

    • Social

    • Public

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal
    Explanation
    Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships require a level of closeness and trust between the therapist and the client. The personal space zone is typically defined as the distance of about 1.5 to 4 feet between individuals, which allows for a comfortable and intimate interaction while still maintaining a sense of personal boundaries. In this zone, individuals can engage in open and honest communication, which is crucial for the success of therapeutic relationships.

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  • 5. 

    In which personal space do formal interactions occur?

    • Personal

    • Intimate

    • Social

    • Public

    Correct Answer
    A. Public
    Explanation
    Formal interactions typically occur in public spaces. Public spaces are areas that are accessible to and used by a large number of people, such as offices, conference rooms, or public venues. These spaces are designed to facilitate professional and formal interactions, such as business meetings, interviews, or presentations. In contrast, personal, intimate, and social spaces are more suitable for informal or personal interactions.

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  • 6. 

    Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?

    • Asians/Pacific Islanders

    • Westernized Healthcare Providers

    • Native Americans

    • Hispanics

    Correct Answer
    A. Westernized Healthcare Providers
    Explanation
    Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they rely on scientific evidence and research to guide their diagnostic and treatment decisions. They prioritize using validated and reliable tools and techniques that have been proven effective through empirical studies. This approach is based on the principles of evidence-based medicine, which emphasizes the importance of using the best available evidence to inform clinical practice. By valuing empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment, Westernized healthcare providers aim to provide the highest quality of care to their patients.

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  • 7. 

    Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?

    • Attends a conference in the advances of depression

    • A white counselor tells his black client to relax bc he sees no color

    • Ask a client to refrain from using slang terminology to ease the language barrier

    • Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the black heritage committee

    Correct Answer
    A. Hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the black heritage committee
    Explanation
    A counselor attending a luncheon hosted by the black heritage committee is an example of a strategy to become more culturally competent. By actively engaging in events and activities that promote cultural understanding and awareness, the counselor can gain insights into the experiences, perspectives, and values of different cultural groups. This can help the counselor develop the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively work with clients from diverse backgrounds and provide culturally sensitive counseling services.

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  • 8. 

    What aging theory that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?

    • Activity Theory of Aging

    • Continuity Theory of Aging

    • Subculture Theory of Aging

    • Disengagement Theory of Aging

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuity Theory of Aging
    Explanation
    The Continuity Theory of Aging suggests that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout a person's lifespan. This theory argues that individuals maintain their previous patterns of behavior, preferences, and interests as they age, rather than developing new ones. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining continuity in one's activities, relationships, and lifestyle choices in order to achieve successful aging. This theory suggests that individuals adapt to the changes and challenges of aging by continuing to engage in activities and roles that are consistent with their past experiences and personal identity.

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  • 9. 

    Which aging theory states that the elderly possess their own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?

    • Activity Theory of Aging

    • Continuity Theory of Aging

    • Subculture Theory of Aging

    • Disengagement Theory of Aging

    Correct Answer
    A. Disengagement Theory of Aging
    Explanation
    The Disengagement Theory of Aging suggests that as individuals age, they gradually withdraw and disengage from society. According to this theory, the elderly develop their own set of norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors that are different from those of younger generations. This theory proposes that this disengagement is a natural and inevitable part of the aging process, allowing older individuals to adjust to the physical and social changes that come with aging.

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  • 10. 

    How is alcoholism detected among elderly patients?

    • Through routine, thorough screening measures

    • As a result of physical consequences of alcohol abuse

    • Through histories obtained from family members of the elderly patient

    • By responses from surveys used during prevention and outreach activities.

    Correct Answer
    A. Through histories obtained from family members of the elderly patient
    Explanation
    Alcoholism among elderly patients can be detected through histories obtained from family members of the elderly patient. Family members often have firsthand knowledge of the patient's drinking habits and can provide valuable information about any signs or symptoms of alcohol abuse. This method of detection relies on the cooperation and honesty of family members in sharing accurate information about the patient's alcohol consumption.

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  • 11. 

    Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?

    • Veterans

    • Baby Boomers

    • Generations Xers

    • Generation Nexters

    Correct Answer
    A. Generation Nexters
    Explanation
    Generation Nexters are more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications. This is because Generation Nexters are typically young adults who are more proactive and assertive about their healthcare needs. They are more likely to research and educate themselves about different treatments and medications, and they are comfortable advocating for their own healthcare. Veterans, Baby Boomers, and Generation Xers may also approach providers for specific procedures or medications, but Generation Nexters are generally more proactive in seeking out specific treatments.

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  • 12. 

    Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpertrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?

    • There has been no noticeable affect

    • Lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims

    • Females recieve more and more services each year because of thier victimization

    • Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence
    Explanation
    The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims is the lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence. This stereotype has led to a focus on providing services and support to female victims, while neglecting the needs of male victims. As a result, there is a lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims and a limited availability of services tailored to their specific needs.

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  • 13. 

    Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing:

    • Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use

    • Blackouts, hangovers, and compulsive use

    • Blackouts, hangovers, and withdrawal

    • Tolerance, withdrawal, and hangovers

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use
    Explanation
    Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increased amounts of a substance to achieve the desired effect. Withdrawal refers to the physical and psychological symptoms that occur when the substance is discontinued or reduced. Compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. By evaluating these factors, counselors can determine whether an individual is experiencing substance abuse or dependence.

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  • 14. 

    Which substances will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during crash?

    • Cocaine or Herion

    • Herion or opiates

    • Opiates or alcohol

    • Alcohol or heroin

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol or heroin
    Explanation
    Amphetamine users often experience agitation during the crash phase, which is the period when the effects of the drug wear off. To manage this agitation, they may turn to substances that can help calm them down. Alcohol and heroin are commonly used by amphetamine users to alleviate the agitation and discomfort associated with the crash. These substances have sedative effects that can help counteract the stimulant effects of amphetamines, providing a temporary relief from the agitation.

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  • 15. 

    Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patients normal level of functioning?

    • Cluster

    • Positive

    • Negative

    • Perceptual

    Correct Answer
    A. Cluster
  • 16. 

    Which diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?

    • Schizophrenia

    • Schizoaffective Disorder

    • Delusional Disorder

    • Schizophreniform Disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Delusional Disorder
    Explanation
    Delusional Disorder is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month. In this disorder, the individual firmly holds false beliefs despite evidence to the contrary. These delusions are not bizarre or implausible, and they do not significantly impair the person's functioning. Unlike schizophrenia, which involves a range of symptoms such as hallucinations and disorganized thinking, Delusional Disorder primarily revolves around persistent delusions. Schizoaffective Disorder involves a combination of schizophrenia symptoms and mood disorder symptoms, while Schizophreniform Disorder involves symptoms similar to schizophrenia but lasting for a shorter duration.

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  • 17. 

    A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks. Which symptoms of mania is this behavior evidence of?

    • Indiscretion

    • Extravagance

    • Grandiosity

    • Overstimuli

    Correct Answer
    A. Indiscretion
    Explanation
    This behavior of spending a large amount of money on shoes in a short period of time is evidence of indiscretion. Indiscretion refers to a lack of judgment or restraint in one's actions, often leading to impulsive and irresponsible behavior. In this case, the patient's excessive spending on shoes demonstrates a lack of consideration for the consequences and a disregard for financial responsibility.

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  • 18. 

    Which statement describes a manic patients initial behavior?

    • Increased productivity, but decreased energy

    • Increased productivity, and increased energy

    • Decreased productivity, and decreased energy

    • Decreased productivity, but increased energy

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased productivity, and increased energy
    Explanation
    A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. Mania is a state of elevated mood and hyperactivity, leading to heightened levels of energy and increased engagement in activities. This can result in the individual being highly productive and accomplishing tasks at a rapid pace. The combination of increased energy and productivity is a hallmark feature of manic behavior.

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  • 19. 

    What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

    • Intense fear of an identifiable stressor

    • Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor

    • Moderate fear of an identifiable stressor

    • Moderate fear of an unidentifable stressor

    Correct Answer
    A. Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor
    Explanation
    A panic attack is characterized by an intense fear or discomfort that arises suddenly and reaches its peak within minutes. The key characteristic of a panic attack is that the fear experienced is not related to any identifiable stressor or trigger. This means that the fear is not caused by a specific event or situation, but rather emerges seemingly out of nowhere. This is what distinguishes a panic attack from other anxiety-related conditions, where the fear is typically linked to a specific stressor.

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  • 20. 

    An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?

    • Expected

    • Unexpected

    • Situationally Bound

    • Situationally predisposed

    Correct Answer
    A. Situationally Bound
    Explanation
    The NCO is likely experiencing a situationally bound panic attack. This type of panic attack is triggered by a specific situation or event, in this case, the thought of giving a speech. The NCO's anxiety and fear are specifically tied to this situation, causing them to feel as though they are dying. This is different from an expected panic attack, which would occur in anticipation of a situation but not necessarily tied to a specific event. It is also different from an unexpected panic attack, which occurs without any apparent trigger. Finally, situationally predisposed panic attacks are more likely to occur in certain situations but are not necessarily bound to them.

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  • 21. 

    Which is an essential feature of PTSD?

    • Tearfulness

    • Dissociation

    • Hallucination

    • Sleeplessness

    Correct Answer
    A. Dissociation
    Explanation
    Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD. It refers to a mental process where a person disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, memories, or sense of identity as a way to cope with trauma. Individuals with PTSD often experience dissociation as a defense mechanism to protect themselves from the overwhelming emotions and distress associated with their traumatic experiences. This can manifest as feeling detached from oneself or one's surroundings, experiencing amnesia or gaps in memory, or feeling as if things are unreal or dreamlike. Dissociation is a common symptom of PTSD and plays a crucial role in understanding and diagnosing the disorder.

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  • 22. 

    What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?

    • Acute Intervention

    • Desensitization exposure

    • Psychopharmacological intervention

    • Allowing the patient to spend time alone

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute Intervention
    Explanation
    Acute Intervention is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD. Acute Intervention refers to immediate and timely psychological support and intervention provided to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. It aims to reduce the impact of the trauma and prevent the development of long-term psychological consequences. By addressing the trauma early on and providing appropriate support, individuals are less likely to develop long-term psychological scarring or PTSD.

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  • 23. 

    What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

    • Need to maintain control over diet

    • Need to confront poor eating habits

    • Intense pain related to eating certain foods

    • Refusal to maintain appropiate body weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Refusal to maintain appropiate body weight
    Explanation
    The primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa is the refusal to maintain an appropriate body weight. Individuals with anorexia nervosa have a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. They restrict their food intake and may engage in excessive exercise or other behaviors to lose weight. This refusal to maintain a healthy weight is a key feature of the disorder.

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  • 24. 

    Which disorder is commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?

    • Mania

    • Depression

    • Substance abuse

    • Impulsive purging

    Correct Answer
    A. Depression
    Explanation
    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with anorexia nervosa often restrict their food intake to an extreme degree, leading to severe weight loss. Depression is commonly diagnosed in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to the psychological and emotional toll of the disorder. The constant preoccupation with food, weight, and body image can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. Additionally, the physical effects of malnutrition can also contribute to the development of depressive symptoms.

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  • 25. 

    What is the time frame of binge behavior?

    • More than two hours

    • Less than two hours

    • More than three hours

    • Less than three hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than two hours
    Explanation
    The time frame of binge behavior is less than two hours. Binge behavior refers to engaging in a specific activity excessively or compulsively within a short period of time. In this case, it suggests that binge behavior occurs within a time frame of less than two hours. This means that individuals who engage in binge behavior spend a significant amount of time engaging in the activity in a concentrated and excessive manner, but for a duration that is shorter than two hours.

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  • 26. 

    Many eating disorders go undetected because

    • Of poor screening measures

    • Patients are adept at hiding their behavior

    • Other mental illnesses make eating disorders

    • Counselors are not skilled at assessing for eating disorders

    Correct Answer
    A. Of poor screening measures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "of poor screening measures." This means that many eating disorders go undetected because there are ineffective methods in place to identify and screen for these disorders. This could be due to a lack of awareness or training among healthcare professionals, limited access to appropriate screening tools, or a failure to prioritize the early detection of eating disorders. Without proper screening measures, individuals with eating disorders may not receive the necessary support and treatment they need.

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  • 27. 

    What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder?

    • 2 and 5 months, respectively

    • 3 and 6 months, respectively

    • 4 and 7 months, respectively

    • 5 and 8 months, respectively

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 and 6 months, respectively
    Explanation
    The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is typically between 3 and 6 months. This means that the symptoms of adjustment disorder usually begin within 3 months of a stressful event or situation, and they typically resolve or improve within 6 months. It is important to note that this time frame can vary depending on the individual and the specific circumstances surrounding the adjustment disorder.

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  • 28. 

    Which term describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than 6 months?

    • Acute

    • Chronic

    • Persistent

    • Short-term

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute
    Explanation
    Acute is the correct answer because it refers to symptoms that have been present for a short duration, typically less than 6 months. This term is used to describe adjustment disorder symptoms that arise in response to a stressful event or situation and resolve within a relatively short period of time. It is important to differentiate acute symptoms from chronic or persistent symptoms, which last for a longer duration.

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  • 29. 

    Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality disorders?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to Cluster A of personality disorders. Cluster A includes disorders such as paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. These disorders are characterized by unusual or eccentric behavior, social detachment, and distorted thinking patterns. People with Cluster A personality disorders may exhibit odd or peculiar beliefs, difficulty forming close relationships, and a preference for solitude.

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  • 30. 

    Which personality disorder is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?

    • Schizotypal

    • Dependent

    • Paranoid

    • Schizoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Schizotypal
    Explanation
    Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a person feeling very uncomfortable in close personal relationships and displaying odd or eccentric behavior. Individuals with this disorder often have difficulties with social interactions, have peculiar beliefs or thoughts, and may exhibit unconventional behavior or appearance. They may also experience perceptual distortions or magical thinking. Therefore, schizotypal is the correct answer as it aligns with the description provided in the question.

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  • 31. 

    A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a

    • Borderline Personality disorder

    • Histrionic personality disorder

    • Antisocial personality disorder

    • Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Histrionic personality disorder
    Explanation
    A patient who is constantly seeking attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. Individuals with this disorder often have an intense need for approval and validation from others, and they may engage in dramatic or provocative behavior to gain attention. They may also have difficulty establishing and maintaining appropriate boundaries in relationships.

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  • 32. 

    In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with medical, legal, or social issues, this is called

    • Dual diagnosis

    • Polysubstance abuse

    • Coexisting conditions

    • Polysubstance dependence

    Correct Answer
    A. Coexisting conditions
    Explanation
    Coexisting conditions refers to the situation when a patient has both alcoholism or substance abuse and other medical, legal, or social issues. This term is used to describe the simultaneous presence of multiple conditions that can complicate the treatment process. It acknowledges that the patient's alcohol or substance abuse problem is not the only concern, but that there are other factors that need to be addressed in order to provide comprehensive care.

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  • 33. 

    The average adult can oxidize approximately how many drinks in 180 minutes?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    In the given question, the correct answer is 6. This means that on average, an adult can oxidize approximately 6 drinks in 180 minutes. Oxidation refers to the process by which the body breaks down and eliminates alcohol. This answer suggests that within a span of 3 hours, the average adult can metabolize and eliminate the alcohol content of 6 drinks.

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  • 34. 

    Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?

    • Self-awareness

    • Acceptance

    • Observation

    • Empathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance
    Explanation
    Acceptance is the correct answer because when a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance of the patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without criticizing or evaluating them. This allows the patient to feel safe and supported, fostering a trusting therapeutic relationship. It also encourages the patient to openly express themselves and explore their emotions without fear of judgment, ultimately leading to a more effective counseling process.

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  • 35. 

    In order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe every

    • Counselor can help patients change

    • Patient has the capacity to change

    • Counselor can help patients

    • Patient can be changed

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient has the capacity to change
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "patient has the capacity to change." This answer suggests that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that every patient has the ability to change and improve their mental health. This belief is important in providing effective counseling and support to patients, as it promotes a positive and hopeful outlook on their potential for growth and progress. By holding this belief, counselors can approach their work with patients with empathy, encouragement, and a focus on facilitating positive change.

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  • 36. 

    What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?

    • Therapeutic alliance

    • Acceptance

    • Empathy

    • Rapport

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapport
    Explanation
    Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient. It is a crucial aspect of building a therapeutic alliance, as it creates a comfortable and open environment for effective communication and collaboration. Developing rapport involves establishing a connection, understanding, and empathy with the patient, which ultimately contributes to the success of the therapeutic relationship.

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  • 37. 

    The best benefit the patient recieves from the therapeutic alliance is

    • Being able to make changes based on new information

    • Being able to take more responsibility for his or her life

    • Feeling confident the counselor will provide sound advice

    • Being able to feel relief to have help with his/ her problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Being able to take more responsibility for his or her life
    Explanation
    The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is being able to take more responsibility for his or her life. Through the therapeutic alliance, the patient develops a strong and trusting relationship with the counselor, which allows them to feel empowered and take ownership of their own actions and decisions. This sense of responsibility can lead to personal growth, increased self-awareness, and the ability to make positive changes in their life based on their own choices and values.

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  • 38. 

    What is an important consideration in using self-disclosure?

    • Presenting the information in a non threatening manner

    • Considering how much is appropriate to disclose

    • Understanding the reason for disclosing

    • Knowing the ethics of disclosing

    Correct Answer
    A. Understanding the reason for disclosing
    Explanation
    An important consideration in using self-disclosure is understanding the reason for disclosing. This means that before sharing personal information, one should have a clear understanding of why they are choosing to disclose it. By understanding the reason for disclosing, individuals can ensure that their self-disclosure is purposeful and appropriate for the given situation. This consideration helps to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate disclosure, and allows individuals to make informed decisions about what information to share and when.

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  • 39. 

    What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?

    • Ambivalence

    • Resistance

    • Conflict

    • Issues

    Correct Answer
    A. Ambivalence
    Explanation
    Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings or contradictory thoughts about a particular issue or behavior. Motivational interviewing aims to help individuals explore and resolve this ambivalence by increasing their motivation and commitment to change. By addressing ambivalence, motivational interviewing can assist individuals in overcoming their internal conflicts and moving towards positive behavior change.

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  • 40. 

    What is the role of the counselor in supporting self efficacy?

    • Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change

    • Share the burden of responsibility for making change with the patient

    • Roll with resistance to avoid conflict with the patient

    • Deal with ambivalence by confronting discrepancy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change
    Explanation
    The counselor's role in supporting self-efficacy is to share a belief with the patient that they are capable of making change. By expressing this belief, the counselor helps to build the patient's confidence and belief in their own abilities. This support encourages the patient to take ownership of their actions and empowers them to make the necessary changes in their life. It creates a positive and empowering therapeutic relationship, where the patient feels supported and motivated to achieve their goals.

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  • 41. 

    A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess

    • For acute withdrawal

    • Recent binge episodes

    • For substance intoxication

    • The need for detoxification

    Correct Answer
    A. The need for detoxification
    Explanation
    One common mistake in assessing a patient with a diagnosis of substance abuse is failing to assess the need for detoxification. Detoxification is the process of removing toxic substances from the body, and it is often necessary for individuals who are dependent on drugs or alcohol. Failure to assess the need for detoxification can result in inadequate treatment and support for the patient, as detoxification is an important first step in the recovery process. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's level of substance dependence and determine if detoxification is necessary to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 42. 

    A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of

    • Other mental illness

    • Polysubstance abuse

    • Withdrawal syndrome

    • Substance intoxicaton

    Correct Answer
    A. Withdrawal syndrome
    Explanation
    A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability of experiencing some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because the body and brain have already gone through the process of withdrawal before, making them more sensitive to the effects of substance withdrawal. Therefore, when the person discontinues substance use again, they are more likely to experience withdrawal symptoms.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following forms the basis of treatment reccommendations for the substance using patient?

    • Information obtained in at least five ASAM dimensions

    • Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions

    • Past history of treatment outcomes

    • Discovery of dual diagnosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions." The ASAM (American Society of Addiction Medicine) dimensions are a comprehensive assessment tool used to evaluate a patient's substance use disorder and determine the appropriate treatment recommendations. These dimensions include the patient's acute intoxication/withdrawal potential, biomedical conditions and complications, emotional/behavioral/cognitive conditions and complications, readiness to change, relapse/continued use/continued problem potential, and recovery environment. Gathering information in all six dimensions allows for a thorough understanding of the patient's needs and helps guide the treatment planning process.

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  • 44. 

    The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is

    • 2, biomedical conditions and complications

    • 3, emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications

    • 4, readiness to change

    • 5, relapse, continued use or continued problem potential

    Correct Answer
    A. 3, emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications
    Explanation
    The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on evaluating and addressing any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive issues that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It involves assessing the individual's mental health, identifying any co-occurring conditions, and developing a treatment plan that addresses both the substance use disorder and the mental health condition. This dimension recognizes the importance of addressing the interconnectedness of mental health and substance use in order to provide comprehensive and effective treatment.

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  • 45. 

    Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF?

    • Highest ranking enlisted mental health tech

    • Highest ranking privileged life skills provider

    • Installation commander

    • TSR Team chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF. This means that it is the installation commander's duty to make sure that there is a TSR team present at every installation with a medical treatment facility. The other options, such as the highest ranking enlisted mental health tech or TSR Team chief, may have important roles within the TSR team, but they do not have the overall responsibility of ensuring the establishment of the team at each installation. Similarly, the highest ranking privileged life skills provider does not have the authority to ensure the establishment of the TSR team.

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  • 46. 

    Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?

    • Social worker

    • 3 level tech

    • 7 level tech

    • community readiness consultant

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 level tech
    Explanation
    A 3 level tech is not typically part of the TSR team. The other options, such as a social worker, community readiness consultant, and 7 level tech, are more likely to be part of the TSR team. The term "TSR" is not defined in the question, so it is assumed to refer to a specific team or organization.

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  • 47. 

    According to the AF's TSR guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month, and/or impacts work or social functioning.

    • Flashbacks

    • Suicidal ideation

    • Homicidal ideation

    • Alcohol or drug abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Flashbacks
    Explanation
    According to the AF's TSR guidelines, seeking assistance is recommended when symptoms last for over a month and/or impact work or social functioning. Flashbacks are a symptom that refers to the re-experiencing of a traumatic event, which can significantly affect an individual's daily life and functioning. Therefore, it is essential to seek assistance if flashbacks persist for an extended period and interfere with work or social activities.

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  • 48. 

    During which phase of the group informational briefings would you provide credible information to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety, of the unknown, and allow the the victims to regain a sense of control?

    • Fact revelation phase

    • Common cause phase

    • Reduce symptoms phase

    • Sense of normalcy phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Fact revelation phase
    Explanation
    In the fact revelation phase of group informational briefings, credible information is provided to help manage destructive rumors, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of control. This phase focuses on presenting accurate facts and addressing any misconceptions or rumors that may be circulating. By providing reliable information, it helps to establish trust and credibility among the group, reducing anxiety and promoting a sense of control and understanding.

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  • 49. 

    What is the final phase of a group informational briefing?

    • Fact revelation phase

    • Incident closure phase

    • Self aid and buddy care

    • Sense of normalcy phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Self aid and buddy care
    Explanation
    The final phase of a group informational briefing is self aid and buddy care. This phase focuses on empowering individuals to take care of themselves and their peers in case of an emergency or crisis situation. It emphasizes the importance of providing immediate medical assistance and support to those in need, promoting a sense of responsibility and teamwork within the group. This phase ensures that individuals are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to address any injuries or medical emergencies effectively, contributing to the overall safety and well-being of the group.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 16, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 06, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Ksawyer

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