CDC 4c071 Volume 1

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1. What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism?

Explanation

In order to overcome the influence of racism, society must change its attitudes. Laws and policies can be put in place to discourage racism, but true change can only happen when individuals shift their mindset and beliefs. Education plays a crucial role in challenging and unlearning racist attitudes, promoting empathy and understanding among different racial groups. By addressing and transforming societal attitudes towards race, we can create a more inclusive and equal society.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

CDC 4C071 Volume 1 quiz assesses understanding of counseling ethics, focusing on overcoming racism, addressing prejudices, and recognizing appropriate behavior in therapeutic and formal settings. It is essential... see morefor those in healthcare and counseling roles. see less

2. Most people base prejudices upon information

Explanation

The answer suggests that most people form prejudices based on the stereotypes they have learned over time. Stereotypes are generalizations or assumptions made about a particular group of people, often based on limited or biased information. These stereotypes are learned through various means such as media, upbringing, and societal influences. Prejudices formed based on learned stereotypes can lead to biased judgments and discriminatory behavior towards individuals or groups.

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3. When counselors act upon their prejudices, they

Explanation

The given answer is "engage in discriminatory behavior". When counselors act upon their prejudices, it means that they are allowing their biases and preconceived notions to influence their actions and decisions. This can lead to unfair treatment and discrimination towards certain individuals or groups. By acting upon their prejudices, counselors are not becoming better people or ensuring equal treatment of all patients. Instead, they are engaging in discriminatory behavior, which goes against the principles of counseling and can harm the individuals they are supposed to help.

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4. Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?

Explanation

Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they rely on scientific evidence and research to guide their diagnostic and treatment decisions. They prioritize using validated and reliable tools and techniques that have been proven effective through empirical studies. This approach is based on the principles of evidence-based medicine, which emphasizes the importance of using the best available evidence to inform clinical practice. By valuing empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment, Westernized healthcare providers aim to provide the highest quality of care to their patients.

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5. What aging theory that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?

Explanation

The Continuity Theory of Aging suggests that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout a person's lifespan. This theory argues that individuals maintain their previous patterns of behavior, preferences, and interests as they age, rather than developing new ones. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining continuity in one's activities, relationships, and lifestyle choices in order to achieve successful aging. This theory suggests that individuals adapt to the changes and challenges of aging by continuing to engage in activities and roles that are consistent with their past experiences and personal identity.

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6. Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?

Explanation

A counselor attending a luncheon hosted by the black heritage committee is an example of a strategy to become more culturally competent. By actively engaging in events and activities that promote cultural understanding and awareness, the counselor can gain insights into the experiences, perspectives, and values of different cultural groups. This can help the counselor develop the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively work with clients from diverse backgrounds and provide culturally sensitive counseling services.

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7. Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing:

Explanation

Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increased amounts of a substance to achieve the desired effect. Withdrawal refers to the physical and psychological symptoms that occur when the substance is discontinued or reduced. Compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. By evaluating these factors, counselors can determine whether an individual is experiencing substance abuse or dependence.

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8. The effects of alcohol on the brain can cause what type of injury?

Explanation

Alcohol can cause both temporary and permanent injuries to the brain. In the short term, alcohol impairs memory and cognitive function, leading to temporary memory loss and difficulty in forming new memories. However, long-term alcohol abuse can result in permanent brain damage, such as shrinkage of brain tissue and loss of brain cells. This can lead to cognitive impairments, memory problems, and even neurological disorders like dementia. Therefore, the effects of alcohol on the brain can range from temporary memory lapses to permanent brain damage.

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9. In order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe every

Explanation

The correct answer is "patient has the capacity to change." This answer suggests that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that every patient has the ability to change and improve their mental health. This belief is important in providing effective counseling and support to patients, as it promotes a positive and hopeful outlook on their potential for growth and progress. By holding this belief, counselors can approach their work with patients with empathy, encouragement, and a focus on facilitating positive change.

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10. What is the initial physiological response to nicotine?

Explanation

Nicotine is a stimulant drug that activates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased release of adrenaline. This results in an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the initial physiological response to nicotine is increased blood pressure and heart rate.

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11. What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder?

Explanation

The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is typically between 3 and 6 months. This means that the symptoms of adjustment disorder usually begin within 3 months of a stressful event or situation, and they typically resolve or improve within 6 months. It is important to note that this time frame can vary depending on the individual and the specific circumstances surrounding the adjustment disorder.

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12. Which disorder is commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?

Explanation

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image. People with anorexia nervosa often restrict their food intake to an extreme degree, leading to severe weight loss. Depression is commonly diagnosed in individuals with anorexia nervosa due to the psychological and emotional toll of the disorder. The constant preoccupation with food, weight, and body image can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. Additionally, the physical effects of malnutrition can also contribute to the development of depressive symptoms.

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13. Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF?

Explanation

The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty Air Force installation with a MTF. This means that it is the installation commander's duty to make sure that there is a TSR team present at every installation with a medical treatment facility. The other options, such as the highest ranking enlisted mental health tech or TSR Team chief, may have important roles within the TSR team, but they do not have the overall responsibility of ensuring the establishment of the team at each installation. Similarly, the highest ranking privileged life skills provider does not have the authority to ensure the establishment of the TSR team.

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14. What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?

Explanation

Acute Intervention is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD. Acute Intervention refers to immediate and timely psychological support and intervention provided to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. It aims to reduce the impact of the trauma and prevent the development of long-term psychological consequences. By addressing the trauma early on and providing appropriate support, individuals are less likely to develop long-term psychological scarring or PTSD.

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15.  how many times should the TSR team conduct a group informational briefing after a particular incident?

Explanation

The correct answer is "as many times as it proves useful." This answer suggests that the TSR team should conduct a group informational briefing after a particular incident multiple times, depending on the situation and the needs of the individuals involved. It emphasizes the importance of assessing the usefulness of each session and conducting additional briefings if necessary to provide adequate support and information to the affected individuals.

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16. Which role is also known as the fixer in the chemically dependent family?

Explanation

The role of the caretaker in the chemically dependent family is often referred to as the fixer. This individual takes on the responsibility of managing and solving problems within the family caused by the addiction. They may try to cover up or minimize the addict's behavior, enable their substance abuse, and maintain a sense of control and stability in the family. The caretaker often sacrifices their own needs and well-being to maintain the appearance of a functioning and cohesive family unit.

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17. What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

Explanation

The primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa is the refusal to maintain an appropriate body weight. Individuals with anorexia nervosa have a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. They restrict their food intake and may engage in excessive exercise or other behaviors to lose weight. This refusal to maintain a healthy weight is a key feature of the disorder.

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18. The most prescribed of all medications is

Explanation

Opioids are the most prescribed of all medications due to their effectiveness in managing moderate to severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, reducing the perception of pain. Opioids are commonly prescribed after surgeries, injuries, or for chronic pain conditions. However, their high potential for addiction and abuse has led to a public health crisis in many countries. Despite the risks, opioids continue to be widely prescribed for their pain-relieving properties.

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19. Which statement describes a manic patients initial behavior?

Explanation

A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. Mania is a state of elevated mood and hyperactivity, leading to heightened levels of energy and increased engagement in activities. This can result in the individual being highly productive and accomplishing tasks at a rapid pace. The combination of increased energy and productivity is a hallmark feature of manic behavior.

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20. What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

Explanation

A panic attack is characterized by an intense fear or discomfort that arises suddenly and reaches its peak within minutes. The key characteristic of a panic attack is that the fear experienced is not related to any identifiable stressor or trigger. This means that the fear is not caused by a specific event or situation, but rather emerges seemingly out of nowhere. This is what distinguishes a panic attack from other anxiety-related conditions, where the fear is typically linked to a specific stressor.

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21. In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with medical, legal, or social issues, this is called

Explanation

Coexisting conditions refers to the situation when a patient has both alcoholism or substance abuse and other medical, legal, or social issues. This term is used to describe the simultaneous presence of multiple conditions that can complicate the treatment process. It acknowledges that the patient's alcohol or substance abuse problem is not the only concern, but that there are other factors that need to be addressed in order to provide comprehensive care.

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22. Which of the following forms the basis of treatment reccommendations for the substance using patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is "information obtained in all six ASAM dimensions." The ASAM (American Society of Addiction Medicine) dimensions are a comprehensive assessment tool used to evaluate a patient's substance use disorder and determine the appropriate treatment recommendations. These dimensions include the patient's acute intoxication/withdrawal potential, biomedical conditions and complications, emotional/behavioral/cognitive conditions and complications, readiness to change, relapse/continued use/continued problem potential, and recovery environment. Gathering information in all six dimensions allows for a thorough understanding of the patient's needs and helps guide the treatment planning process.

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23. What is a primary component of glue and plastic cement?

Explanation

Toluene is a primary component of glue and plastic cement. It is a clear, colorless liquid that is commonly used as a solvent in various industrial applications. Toluene has excellent solvent properties, which make it effective in dissolving and bonding different materials, including glue and plastic. It is also known for its fast evaporation rate, which allows for quick drying of adhesives and cement. Therefore, toluene is an essential ingredient in the production of glue and plastic cement.

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24. In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?

Explanation

Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships require a level of closeness and trust between the therapist and the client. The personal space zone is typically defined as the distance of about 1.5 to 4 feet between individuals, which allows for a comfortable and intimate interaction while still maintaining a sense of personal boundaries. In this zone, individuals can engage in open and honest communication, which is crucial for the success of therapeutic relationships.

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25. Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?

Explanation

A 3 level tech is not typically part of the TSR team. The other options, such as a social worker, community readiness consultant, and 7 level tech, are more likely to be part of the TSR team. The term "TSR" is not defined in the question, so it is assumed to refer to a specific team or organization.

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26. According to the AF's TSR guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month, and/or impacts work or social functioning.

Explanation

According to the AF's TSR guidelines, seeking assistance is recommended when symptoms last for over a month and/or impact work or social functioning. Flashbacks are a symptom that refers to the re-experiencing of a traumatic event, which can significantly affect an individual's daily life and functioning. Therefore, it is essential to seek assistance if flashbacks persist for an extended period and interfere with work or social activities.

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27. What is the most popular club drug?

Explanation

MDMA, also known as ecstasy, is considered the most popular club drug due to its euphoric and empathogenic effects. It enhances mood, increases sociability, and intensifies sensory experiences, making it a popular choice among partygoers and clubbers. The drug stimulates the release of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, leading to feelings of happiness, energy, and emotional closeness. Its popularity in club settings is also attributed to its ability to enhance the enjoyment of music and dancing.

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28. Which is an essential feature of PTSD?

Explanation

Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD. It refers to a mental process where a person disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, memories, or sense of identity as a way to cope with trauma. Individuals with PTSD often experience dissociation as a defense mechanism to protect themselves from the overwhelming emotions and distress associated with their traumatic experiences. This can manifest as feeling detached from oneself or one's surroundings, experiencing amnesia or gaps in memory, or feeling as if things are unreal or dreamlike. Dissociation is a common symptom of PTSD and plays a crucial role in understanding and diagnosing the disorder.

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29. Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpertrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?

Explanation

The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims is the lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence. This stereotype has led to a focus on providing services and support to female victims, while neglecting the needs of male victims. As a result, there is a lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims and a limited availability of services tailored to their specific needs.

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30. An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?

Explanation

The NCO is likely experiencing a situationally bound panic attack. This type of panic attack is triggered by a specific situation or event, in this case, the thought of giving a speech. The NCO's anxiety and fear are specifically tied to this situation, causing them to feel as though they are dying. This is different from an expected panic attack, which would occur in anticipation of a situation but not necessarily tied to a specific event. It is also different from an unexpected panic attack, which occurs without any apparent trigger. Finally, situationally predisposed panic attacks are more likely to occur in certain situations but are not necessarily bound to them.

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31. Which term describes adjustment disorder symptoms that have been present for less than 6 months?

Explanation

Acute is the correct answer because it refers to symptoms that have been present for a short duration, typically less than 6 months. This term is used to describe adjustment disorder symptoms that arise in response to a stressful event or situation and resolve within a relatively short period of time. It is important to differentiate acute symptoms from chronic or persistent symptoms, which last for a longer duration.

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32. A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a

Explanation

A patient who is constantly seeking attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior. Individuals with this disorder often have an intense need for approval and validation from others, and they may engage in dramatic or provocative behavior to gain attention. They may also have difficulty establishing and maintaining appropriate boundaries in relationships.

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33. A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of

Explanation

A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability of experiencing some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because the body and brain have already gone through the process of withdrawal before, making them more sensitive to the effects of substance withdrawal. Therefore, when the person discontinues substance use again, they are more likely to experience withdrawal symptoms.

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34. What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?

Explanation

Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to having mixed feelings or contradictory thoughts about a particular issue or behavior. Motivational interviewing aims to help individuals explore and resolve this ambivalence by increasing their motivation and commitment to change. By addressing ambivalence, motivational interviewing can assist individuals in overcoming their internal conflicts and moving towards positive behavior change.

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35. What is the role of the counselor in supporting self efficacy?

Explanation

The counselor's role in supporting self-efficacy is to share a belief with the patient that they are capable of making change. By expressing this belief, the counselor helps to build the patient's confidence and belief in their own abilities. This support encourages the patient to take ownership of their actions and empowers them to make the necessary changes in their life. It creates a positive and empowering therapeutic relationship, where the patient feels supported and motivated to achieve their goals.

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36. What is the time frame of binge behavior?

Explanation

The time frame of binge behavior is less than two hours. Binge behavior refers to engaging in a specific activity excessively or compulsively within a short period of time. In this case, it suggests that binge behavior occurs within a time frame of less than two hours. This means that individuals who engage in binge behavior spend a significant amount of time engaging in the activity in a concentrated and excessive manner, but for a duration that is shorter than two hours.

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37. What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?

Explanation

Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient. It is a crucial aspect of building a therapeutic alliance, as it creates a comfortable and open environment for effective communication and collaboration. Developing rapport involves establishing a connection, understanding, and empathy with the patient, which ultimately contributes to the success of the therapeutic relationship.

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38. A family genogram will assist you in which feature of the biopsychosocial model?

Explanation

A family genogram is a visual representation of a person's family history that includes information about biological relationships, such as parents, siblings, and grandparents. It provides a detailed overview of the biological factors that can influence an individual's health and well-being. Therefore, a family genogram assists in understanding the biological aspect of the biopsychosocial model, which emphasizes the interaction between biological, psychological, and social factors in determining health outcomes.

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39. Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality disorders?

Explanation

Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to Cluster A of personality disorders. Cluster A includes disorders such as paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. These disorders are characterized by unusual or eccentric behavior, social detachment, and distorted thinking patterns. People with Cluster A personality disorders may exhibit odd or peculiar beliefs, difficulty forming close relationships, and a preference for solitude.

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40. The best benefit the patient recieves from the therapeutic alliance is

Explanation

The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is being able to take more responsibility for his or her life. Through the therapeutic alliance, the patient develops a strong and trusting relationship with the counselor, which allows them to feel empowered and take ownership of their own actions and decisions. This sense of responsibility can lead to personal growth, increased self-awareness, and the ability to make positive changes in their life based on their own choices and values.

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41. During which phase of the group informational briefings would you provide credible information to assist in managing destructive rumor control, decrease anxiety, of the unknown, and allow the the victims to regain a sense of control?

Explanation

In the fact revelation phase of group informational briefings, credible information is provided to help manage destructive rumors, decrease anxiety of the unknown, and allow the victims to regain a sense of control. This phase focuses on presenting accurate facts and addressing any misconceptions or rumors that may be circulating. By providing reliable information, it helps to establish trust and credibility among the group, reducing anxiety and promoting a sense of control and understanding.

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42. What is the final phase of a group informational briefing?

Explanation

The final phase of a group informational briefing is self aid and buddy care. This phase focuses on empowering individuals to take care of themselves and their peers in case of an emergency or crisis situation. It emphasizes the importance of providing immediate medical assistance and support to those in need, promoting a sense of responsibility and teamwork within the group. This phase ensures that individuals are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to address any injuries or medical emergencies effectively, contributing to the overall safety and well-being of the group.

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43. The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is

Explanation

The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on evaluating and addressing any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive issues that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It involves assessing the individual's mental health, identifying any co-occurring conditions, and developing a treatment plan that addresses both the substance use disorder and the mental health condition. This dimension recognizes the importance of addressing the interconnectedness of mental health and substance use in order to provide comprehensive and effective treatment.

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44. Glue-sniffing has resulted in sudden deaths of its users due to what physiological event?

Explanation

Glue-sniffing can lead to sudden deaths due to arrhythmia, which is an abnormal heart rhythm. Inhaling glue fumes can cause chemical imbalances in the body, specifically affecting the electrical signals that regulate the heart. This disruption can result in irregular heartbeats, causing the heart to beat too fast, too slow, or in an erratic pattern. If left untreated, arrhythmias can be life-threatening and can lead to cardiac arrest and sudden death.

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45. What is the most common side effect of chronic opiod usage?

Explanation

Chronic opioid usage commonly leads to constipation as a side effect. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, causing a decrease in motility and an increase in water absorption, resulting in slower movement of stool through the intestines. This can lead to difficulty in passing stool, bloating, and discomfort. Constipation is a well-known and frequently encountered side effect of opioid use, affecting a significant number of individuals who use these medications chronically.

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46. This role in the chemically dependent family is often deemed the troublemaker.

Explanation

In a chemically dependent family, the scapegoat is often seen as the troublemaker. This person is typically blamed for the family's problems and is often the target of criticism, anger, and blame. They may act out or rebel in response to the dysfunction within the family system. The scapegoat role serves as a distraction from the real issues within the family and allows other members to avoid taking responsibility for their own actions and behaviors.

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47. What is an important consideration in using self-disclosure?

Explanation

An important consideration in using self-disclosure is understanding the reason for disclosing. This means that before sharing personal information, one should have a clear understanding of why they are choosing to disclose it. By understanding the reason for disclosing, individuals can ensure that their self-disclosure is purposeful and appropriate for the given situation. This consideration helps to avoid unnecessary or inappropriate disclosure, and allows individuals to make informed decisions about what information to share and when.

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48. As the dosage of PCP increases, an individual breathing, blood pressure, and pulse will begin to

Explanation

As the dosage of PCP increases, an individual's breathing, blood pressure, and pulse will begin to decrescendo. This means that these vital signs will gradually decrease or become less intense. This could be due to the sedative effects of PCP, which can cause a decrease in respiratory rate, blood pressure, and pulse rate. It is important to monitor these vital signs closely when administering PCP to ensure the individual's safety and well-being.

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49. A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last three weeks. Which symptoms of mania is this behavior evidence of?

Explanation

This behavior of spending a large amount of money on shoes in a short period of time is evidence of indiscretion. Indiscretion refers to a lack of judgment or restraint in one's actions, often leading to impulsive and irresponsible behavior. In this case, the patient's excessive spending on shoes demonstrates a lack of consideration for the consequences and a disregard for financial responsibility.

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50. Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?

Explanation

Acceptance is the correct answer because when a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance of the patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without criticizing or evaluating them. This allows the patient to feel safe and supported, fostering a trusting therapeutic relationship. It also encourages the patient to openly express themselves and explore their emotions without fear of judgment, ultimately leading to a more effective counseling process.

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51. Many eating disorders go undetected because

Explanation

The correct answer is "of poor screening measures." This means that many eating disorders go undetected because there are ineffective methods in place to identify and screen for these disorders. This could be due to a lack of awareness or training among healthcare professionals, limited access to appropriate screening tools, or a failure to prioritize the early detection of eating disorders. Without proper screening measures, individuals with eating disorders may not receive the necessary support and treatment they need.

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52. Which substances will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during crash?

Explanation

Amphetamine users often experience agitation during the crash phase, which is the period when the effects of the drug wear off. To manage this agitation, they may turn to substances that can help calm them down. Alcohol and heroin are commonly used by amphetamine users to alleviate the agitation and discomfort associated with the crash. These substances have sedative effects that can help counteract the stimulant effects of amphetamines, providing a temporary relief from the agitation.

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53. Which personality disorder is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?

Explanation

Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a person feeling very uncomfortable in close personal relationships and displaying odd or eccentric behavior. Individuals with this disorder often have difficulties with social interactions, have peculiar beliefs or thoughts, and may exhibit unconventional behavior or appearance. They may also experience perceptual distortions or magical thinking. Therefore, schizotypal is the correct answer as it aligns with the description provided in the question.

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54. Which diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?

Explanation

Delusional Disorder is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month. In this disorder, the individual firmly holds false beliefs despite evidence to the contrary. These delusions are not bizarre or implausible, and they do not significantly impair the person's functioning. Unlike schizophrenia, which involves a range of symptoms such as hallucinations and disorganized thinking, Delusional Disorder primarily revolves around persistent delusions. Schizoaffective Disorder involves a combination of schizophrenia symptoms and mood disorder symptoms, while Schizophreniform Disorder involves symptoms similar to schizophrenia but lasting for a shorter duration.

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55. After ingesting MDMA, how many hours does the effect last?

Explanation

After ingesting MDMA, the effects typically last for a duration of 4-6 hours. MDMA is a psychoactive drug that affects the brain's neurotransmitters, causing feelings of euphoria, increased energy, and heightened sensory perception. The effects usually peak within a few hours of ingestion and gradually subside. It is important to note that individual experiences may vary, and factors such as dosage, purity, and individual metabolism can influence the duration of the effects.

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56. Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of all of the following except

Explanation

Marijuana has been linked to the treatment of Crohn's disease, multiple sclerosis, and arthritis, but not insomnia. While marijuana is known to have sedative effects and can help with sleep, it is not commonly used specifically for treating insomnia. Other medications and therapies are usually recommended for managing insomnia, such as sleep hygiene practices, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and prescription sleep aids.

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57. A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess

Explanation

One common mistake in assessing a patient with a diagnosis of substance abuse is failing to assess the need for detoxification. Detoxification is the process of removing toxic substances from the body, and it is often necessary for individuals who are dependent on drugs or alcohol. Failure to assess the need for detoxification can result in inadequate treatment and support for the patient, as detoxification is an important first step in the recovery process. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's level of substance dependence and determine if detoxification is necessary to ensure their safety and well-being.

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58. What physiological effect of GHB is considered the most dangerous?

Explanation

GHB, or gamma-hydroxybutyrate, is a central nervous system depressant that can cause various physiological effects. Among these effects, respiratory duress is considered the most dangerous. GHB can suppress the respiratory system, leading to shallow or slowed breathing, and in severe cases, respiratory arrest. This can result in a lack of oxygen to the brain and other vital organs, leading to serious complications or even death. Therefore, respiratory duress caused by GHB is a significant concern and requires immediate medical attention.

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59. Which progressive stage of alcoholism is typically the easiest to treat?

Explanation

The progressive stage of alcoholism that is typically the easiest to treat is the crucial stage. At this stage, individuals may have started experiencing negative consequences of their alcohol use, such as relationship problems or work issues, but they have not yet developed severe physical or psychological dependence. Treatment interventions at this stage can be effective in helping individuals recognize the harmful effects of alcohol and make positive changes in their drinking behavior.

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60. In which personal space do formal interactions occur?

Explanation

Formal interactions typically occur in public spaces. Public spaces are areas that are accessible to and used by a large number of people, such as offices, conference rooms, or public venues. These spaces are designed to facilitate professional and formal interactions, such as business meetings, interviews, or presentations. In contrast, personal, intimate, and social spaces are more suitable for informal or personal interactions.

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61. What class of drug is PCP?

Explanation

PCP, also known as phencyclidine, is classified as a dissociative anesthetic. It acts by blocking the NMDA receptors in the brain, leading to a dissociative state and producing hallucinogenic effects. It inhibits the transmission of pain signals, leading to anesthesia. PCP also affects the central nervous system, causing depressant effects, including sedation, muscle relaxation, and decreased respiratory and heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is dissociative anesthetic.

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62.  under which feature of the biopsychosocial model should you identify the catalyst internally that facilitated a clients first drug use?

Explanation

In the context of the biopsychosocial model, identifying the catalyst internally that facilitated a client's first drug use falls under the psychological feature. This feature focuses on the individual's thoughts, emotions, and behaviors, and how they contribute to their overall well-being. In this case, understanding the client's psychological factors, such as their mindset, motivations, and coping mechanisms, can help determine the internal catalyst that led to their first drug use.

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63. What is the fatty liver disease accompanied by inflammation?

Explanation

Steatohepatitis is a form of fatty liver disease that is accompanied by inflammation. It is characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver, which can lead to liver damage and inflammation. This condition is often associated with excessive alcohol consumption, but it can also occur in non-alcoholic individuals, typically due to obesity, diabetes, or high cholesterol levels. Steatohepatitis can progress to more severe liver diseases, such as cirrhosis, if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and manage this condition to prevent further complications.

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64. What phase is dominated by the involuntary loss of control over drinking?

Explanation

The phase that is dominated by the involuntary loss of control over drinking is the crucial phase. In this phase, individuals experience a loss of control over their drinking behavior, meaning that they are unable to stop or limit their alcohol consumption despite negative consequences. This phase is characterized by a progressive worsening of alcohol-related problems and an increasing dependence on alcohol.

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65. Essential in the treatment of the alcoholic is

Explanation

The lack of treatment program funding is essential in the treatment of the alcoholic. Without sufficient funding, treatment programs may not have the necessary resources to provide comprehensive care and support to individuals struggling with alcoholism. This can result in limited access to therapy, medication, and other essential services that are crucial for successful recovery. Insufficient funding may also lead to overcrowded treatment facilities and long waiting lists, further exacerbating the problem. Therefore, addressing the issue of funding is crucial to ensure that individuals receive the necessary support and resources to overcome alcohol addiction.

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66. Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?

Explanation

Generation Nexters are more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications. This is because Generation Nexters are typically young adults who are more proactive and assertive about their healthcare needs. They are more likely to research and educate themselves about different treatments and medications, and they are comfortable advocating for their own healthcare. Veterans, Baby Boomers, and Generation Xers may also approach providers for specific procedures or medications, but Generation Nexters are generally more proactive in seeking out specific treatments.

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67. Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patients normal level of functioning?

Explanation

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68. Which aging theory states that the elderly possess their own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?

Explanation

The Disengagement Theory of Aging suggests that as individuals age, they gradually withdraw and disengage from society. According to this theory, the elderly develop their own set of norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors that are different from those of younger generations. This theory proposes that this disengagement is a natural and inevitable part of the aging process, allowing older individuals to adjust to the physical and social changes that come with aging.

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69. How is alcoholism detected among elderly patients?

Explanation

Alcoholism among elderly patients can be detected through histories obtained from family members of the elderly patient. Family members often have firsthand knowledge of the patient's drinking habits and can provide valuable information about any signs or symptoms of alcohol abuse. This method of detection relies on the cooperation and honesty of family members in sharing accurate information about the patient's alcohol consumption.

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70. The average adult can oxidize approximately how many drinks in 180 minutes?

Explanation

In the given question, the correct answer is 6. This means that on average, an adult can oxidize approximately 6 drinks in 180 minutes. Oxidation refers to the process by which the body breaks down and eliminates alcohol. This answer suggests that within a span of 3 hours, the average adult can metabolize and eliminate the alcohol content of 6 drinks.

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