# CDC 3D156 Volume 1

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CDC URE Test

• 1.

### What AFMAN lists the specific duties of the Airfield Systems technician?

• A.

36-2108

• B.

36-2101

• C.

21-116

• D.

11-225

A. 36-2108
Explanation
AFMAN 36-2108 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Manual that specifically lists the duties of the Airfield Systems technician. This manual provides detailed information and guidance on the responsibilities and tasks that the technician is expected to perform in their role. It serves as a reference for the technician to ensure that they are carrying out their duties correctly and efficiently.

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• 2.

### How much electric current is of sufficient intensity to prevent voluntary control of muscles?

• A.

15 mA

• B.

14 mA

• C.

12 mA

• D.

10 mA

D. 10 mA
Explanation
An electric current of 10 mA is of sufficient intensity to prevent voluntary control of muscles. At this level, the current can cause involuntary muscle contractions and potentially lead to loss of control over voluntary movements. Higher currents can cause more severe effects, such as respiratory paralysis or cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to be cautious around electric currents and ensure safety measures are in place to prevent accidents and injuries.

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• 3.

### What is the minimum amount of electric current needed to be fatal?

• A.

10 mA

• B.

100 mA

• C.

125 mA

• D.

150 amps

B. 100 mA
Explanation
A current of 100 mA (milliamperes) is considered to be the minimum amount of electric current needed to be fatal. At this level, the current can disrupt the normal functioning of the heart and cause ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to cardiac arrest and death. It is important to note that the actual effects of electric current on the body can vary depending on factors such as the path of the current, duration of exposure, and individual susceptibility.

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• 4.

### What poisonous substances can eat away flesh on contact?

• A.

Inflammables

• B.

Electrolytes

• C.

Corrosives

• D.

Irritants

C. Corrosives
Explanation
Corrosives are substances that can eat away flesh on contact. They are highly reactive and can cause severe damage to living tissues, including the skin. Corrosives typically have a high pH or are strong acids, which enables them to break down proteins and other organic matter. Examples of corrosive substances include strong acids like sulfuric acid and hydrochloric acid, as well as strong bases like sodium hydroxide. These substances should be handled with extreme caution and proper protective measures should be taken to prevent any contact with the skin or eyes.

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• 5.

### General-purpose detergents (spray and wipe) used in most work centers are

• A.

Corrosive

• B.

Eye irritants

• C.

Skin irritants

• D.

Respiratory irritants

B. Eye irritants
Explanation
General-purpose detergents used in most work centers can be eye irritants. This means that they have the potential to cause irritation or discomfort to the eyes if they come into contact with them. This could result in symptoms such as redness, itching, or stinging in the eyes. It is important to handle these detergents with care and take necessary precautions to avoid any eye irritation or injury.

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• 6.

### In addition to the eyes, what organs of the body is/are susceptible to overexposure to radio frequency (RF) radiation?

• A.

Brain

• B.

Kidneys

• C.

Appendages

• D.

Reproductive Organs

D. Reproductive Organs
Explanation
Reproductive organs are susceptible to overexposure to radio frequency (RF) radiation. RF radiation can cause damage to the DNA in reproductive cells, leading to genetic mutations and potentially affecting fertility and reproductive health. It is important to limit exposure to RF radiation, especially in close proximity to reproductive organs, to minimize potential risks.

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• 7.

### The two categories of hazards that are considered human factors are

• A.

Job related and domestic

• B.

Physical and emotional

• C.

Job related and mental

• D.

Mental and physical

D. Mental and physical
Explanation
The correct answer is mental and physical. Human factors refer to the psychological and physiological characteristics of individuals that influence their behavior and performance in a particular environment. Job-related hazards can affect both the mental and physical well-being of individuals, such as stress, fatigue, and exposure to harmful substances. Therefore, mental and physical hazards are the two categories that fall under human factors.

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• 8.

### Being distracted from a task while thinking of personal problems is an example of which type of human hazard factor?

• A.

Emotional

• B.

Domestic

• C.

Physical

• D.

Mental

D. Mental
Explanation
Being distracted from a task while thinking of personal problems is an example of a mental hazard factor. Mental hazards refer to factors that affect a person's cognitive abilities, such as concentration, focus, and decision-making. In this case, the individual's personal problems are causing a distraction, which hampers their mental focus and ability to perform the task effectively.

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• 9.

### The weather-related hazards of climbing are rain, wind and

• A.

Ice

• B.

Cold

• C.

Snow

• D.

Lightning

A. Ice
Explanation
Ice is a weather-related hazard of climbing because it can make surfaces slippery and increase the risk of falls. Ice can form on rocks, trails, and other surfaces, making it difficult to maintain proper footing. Climbers may also encounter ice on their equipment, such as ice forming on ropes or crampons, which can affect their ability to safely ascend or descend. Ice can also increase the chances of avalanches or icefalls, which can be extremely dangerous. Therefore, ice is a significant weather-related hazard that climbers need to be aware of and prepared for.

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• 10.

### While climbing, the hazard posed by bulky clothing is

• A.

Decreased flexibility increasing your chances of slipping

• B.

Getting snagged and losing your balance

• C.

• D.

Heat related stress

B. Getting snagged and losing your balance
Explanation
Bulky clothing can increase the risk of getting snagged on objects while climbing, which can cause you to lose your balance and potentially fall. The extra fabric can get caught on rocks, branches, or other protrusions, hindering your movement and making it more difficult to maintain stability. This hazard is particularly dangerous because losing balance while climbing can lead to serious injuries or accidents. Therefore, it is important to wear clothing that allows for maximum flexibility and minimizes the risk of getting snagged.

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• 11.

### Some of the common elements of a fixed base are fixed

• A.

Navigation systems and a temporary control tower

• B.

• C.

Navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower

• D.

Navigation systems, weather systems, passenger service terminal, and a permanent control tower

C. Navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower
Explanation
The correct answer is navigation systems, weather systems, and a permanent control tower. This is because these elements are commonly found in a fixed base. Navigation systems are essential for guiding aircraft, weather systems help monitor and predict weather conditions, and a permanent control tower serves as the central command center for air traffic control. These elements ensure safe and efficient operations at the fixed base.

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• 12.

### At a fixed base, what must always be in the forefront of your mind?

• A.

Maintaining inspection and maintenance records

• B.

Readiness to deploy and support the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) needs

• C.

Supervising airfield systems maintenance activities

• D.

Performing preventive maintenance on airfield systems

B. Readiness to deploy and support the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) needs
Explanation
The correct answer is readiness to deploy and support the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) needs. This means that at a fixed base, it is important to always prioritize being prepared and available to support the needs of the AEF. This includes being ready to deploy and provide assistance whenever necessary. This could involve tasks such as maintaining equipment, ensuring supplies are stocked, and being trained and prepared for any potential missions or operations.

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• 13.

### What determines the type of eqiupment used at a deployed base?

• A.

Unit type code (UTC)

• B.

Chief of maintenance

• C.

Mission of the base

• D.

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 36-2108

C. Mission of the base
Explanation
The type of equipment used at a deployed base is determined by the mission of the base. The equipment needed will vary depending on the specific objectives and tasks that need to be accomplished in order to fulfill the mission. The mission could require specialized equipment or tools that are specific to the tasks at hand. Therefore, understanding the mission of the base is crucial in determining the appropriate type of equipment to be used.

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• 14.

### What is the most important part of being an air expeditionary force (AEF) airman?

• A.

Performing only the responsibilities as prescribed in the unit type code (UTC)

• B.

Performing only the tasks of an Airfield Systems Technician

• C.

• D.

Being flexible and maintaining good health

B. Performing only the tasks of an Airfield Systems Technician
Explanation
Being flexible and able to adapt to your surroundings is the most important part of being an air expeditionary force (AEF) airman. This is because AEF airmen are often deployed to different locations and environments, and they need to be able to quickly adjust and operate effectively in unfamiliar settings. This flexibility allows them to successfully carry out their duties and contribute to the mission.

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• 15.

### When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains

• A.

Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband

• B.

Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

• C.

Upper sideband and modulating signal

• D.

Carrier and modulating signal

B. Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
Explanation
When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains the carrier signal, as well as the upper sideband and lower sideband. The carrier signal is the high-frequency signal that is modulated by the modulating signal, which carries the information. The upper sideband represents the frequencies above the carrier frequency, while the lower sideband represents the frequencies below the carrier frequency. Therefore, the correct answer is carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

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• 16.

### If a carrier frequency of 1 megahertz (MHz) and a modulating tone of 10 kilohertz (kHz) goes to the modulator, the output signal include

• A.

1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz

• B.

1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.9 MHz

• C.

1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.99 MHz

• D.

1.111 MHZ, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz

A. 1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz
Explanation
When a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz are used in modulation, the output signal will include frequencies that are the sum and difference of the carrier and modulating frequencies. The sum will be 1.01 MHz (1 MHz + 10 kHz), the carrier frequency will remain at 1 MHz, and the difference will be 0.99 MHz (1 MHz - 10 kHz). Therefore, the correct answer is 1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

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• 17.

### The bandwidth of an amplitude modulation signal refers to the amount of

• A.

Data that can be carried from one point to another in a given period of time

• B.

Frequency deviation divided by the frequency of the modulating signal

• C.

Change in the carrier frequency as a result of the modulation process

• D.

Space the transmitted signal will occupy in the frequency spectrum

D. Space the transmitted signal will occupy in the frequency spectrum
Explanation
The correct answer is "space the transmitted signal will occupy in the frequency spectrum." The bandwidth of an amplitude modulation signal refers to the range of frequencies that the signal occupies in the frequency spectrum. It represents the width of the frequency range that is needed to transmit the signal without significant distortion. The greater the bandwidth, the more frequencies are required to transmit the signal, and therefore, the more space it occupies in the frequency spectrum.

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• 18.

### If an oscilloscope displays a modulation envelope having Emax of 200 volts and an Emin of 20 volts, what is the modulation percentage?

• A.

81.8

• B.

85.5

• C.

88

• D.

122

A. 81.8
Explanation
The modulation percentage is calculated by taking the difference between the maximum and minimum values of the modulation envelope and dividing it by the sum of the maximum and minimum values, then multiplying by 100. In this case, the difference between Emax and Emin is 200 - 20 = 180 volts. The sum of Emax and Emin is 200 + 20 = 220 volts. Therefore, the modulation percentage is (180/220) * 100 = 81.8%.

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• 19.

### Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?

• A.

Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics

• B.

Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics

• C.

Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's increased amplitude

• D.

Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's decreased amplitude

A. Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics
Explanation
Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics. When a signal is overmodulated, it means that the amplitude of the carrier wave is being increased beyond its normal range. This causes distortion in the signal, resulting in the production of harmonics. Harmonics are additional frequencies that are generated and added to the original signal. These extra frequencies increase the overall bandwidth of the signal, as more frequency components are present. Therefore, overmodulating a signal leads to an increase in bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

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• 20.

### Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

• A.

More total power

• B.

A reduction in carrier power

• C.

No reduction in carrier power

• D.

A reduction in carrier and sideband power

C. No reduction in carrier power
Explanation
When modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent, it means that the amplitude of the carrier signal is not affected by the modulating signal. In other words, the carrier power remains unchanged. The reduction in modulation only affects the sideband power, which is the power contained in the frequency bands surrounding the carrier signal. Therefore, there is no reduction in carrier power.

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• 21.

### The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each

• A.

Positive half cycle of the carrier

• B.

Negative half cycle of the carrier

• C.

Positive half cycle of the modulating signal

• D.

Negative half cycle of the modulating signal

A. Positive half cycle of the carrier
Explanation
In frequency modulation (FM), the output of the oscillator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the carrier. This means that as the carrier signal goes through its positive half cycle, the frequency of the output signal from the oscillator also increases.

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• 22.

### In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of the oscillator frequency change is

• A.

Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

• B.

Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

• C.

Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

• D.

Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal

B. Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
Explanation
In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of the oscillator frequency change is directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the frequency of the oscillator also increases. This relationship allows for the encoding of information in the frequency variations of the carrier signal, making FM a commonly used modulation technique in telecommunications and broadcasting.

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• 23.

### In frequency modulation, sidebands are considered significant when containing at least what percent of total transmitted power?

• A.

1

• B.

3

• C.

10

• D.

12

A. 1
Explanation
In frequency modulation, sidebands are considered significant when containing at least 1% of the total transmitted power. This means that even a small percentage of power in the sidebands can have a noticeable impact on the overall signal. Sidebands are the frequencies that are produced above and below the carrier frequency in FM modulation, and they carry the information being transmitted. Therefore, it is important for the sidebands to contain a significant amount of power to ensure the fidelity and clarity of the transmitted signal.

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• 24.

### What is the formula to finf the modulating index?

• A.

Deviation divided by frequency of modulation

• B.

Deviation times frequency of modulation

• C.

Sideband divided by carrier frequency

• D.

Sideband times carrier frequency

A. Deviation divided by frequency of modulation
Explanation
The modulating index is calculated by dividing the deviation (the maximum displacement of the carrier wave from its original frequency) by the frequency of modulation (the frequency of the modulating signal). This ratio represents the extent to which the carrier wave is modulated by the modulating signal, determining the strength and characteristics of the resulting modulated signal.

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• 25.

### A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?

• A.

5

• B.

0.5

• C.

0.3

• D.

3

D. 3
Explanation
The modulation index is a measure of the extent to which a modulating signal causes a deviation in the carrier frequency. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is capable of causing a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index is calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency, which gives a value of 3. This means that the modulating signal is causing the carrier frequency to deviate by a factor of 3 times its own frequency.

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• 26.

### A narrow frequency band between adjacent stations to prevent frequency modulation sidebands from overlapping is called

• A.

Space

• B.

Guard band

• C.

Buffer zone

• D.

Prevention field

B. Guard band
Explanation
A narrow frequency band between adjacent stations is called a guard band. It is used to prevent frequency modulation sidebands from overlapping. By having a guard band, interference and signal distortion are minimized, ensuring that each station's signal remains clear and distinct. This allows for efficient and reliable communication without any cross-interference between neighboring stations.

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• 27.

### What modulation technique is used especially for data transmission?

• A.

Frequency

• B.

Amplitude

• C.

Height

• D.

Phase

D. Phase
Explanation
Phase modulation is a modulation technique that is used especially for data transmission. In this technique, the phase of the carrier signal is modified in order to represent the data being transmitted. By changing the phase of the carrier signal, different symbols or bits can be encoded and transmitted. This modulation technique is widely used in various communication systems, such as digital communication, satellite communication, and wireless communication, to transmit data efficiently and reliably.

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• 28.

### In phase modulation, the carrier's

• A.

Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

• B.

Phase is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal

• C.

Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal

• D.

Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal

A. Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal
Explanation
In phase modulation, the phase of the carrier signal is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal. This means that as the modulating signal changes, the phase of the carrier signal also changes accordingly. The amount of phase shift is directly proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal. This allows for the encoding of information in the phase of the carrier signal, making phase modulation a commonly used technique in communication systems.

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• 29.

### In phase modulation, the amount of phase shift is

• A.

Proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal

• B.

Proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

• C.

Inversely proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal

• D.

Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal

B. Proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal
Explanation
In phase modulation, the amount of phase shift is proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. This means that as the amplitude of the modulating signal increases, the phase shift also increases. Phase modulation is a technique where the phase of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with the modulating signal. The amplitude of the modulating signal determines the extent to which the phase of the carrier signal is shifted.

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• 30.

### What is the first stepin the pulse code modulation process?

• A.

Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

• B.

A binary code number is assigned to the sample

• C.

The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses

• D.

The analog signal is band-limited

D. The analog signal is band-limited
Explanation
In the pulse code modulation process, the first step is to band-limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside of a certain range. Band-limiting is important because it ensures that the signal can be accurately represented using discrete amplitudes and binary code numbers. By removing unwanted frequencies, the band-limited signal can be properly sampled and quantized, leading to an accurate digital representation of the original analog signal.

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• 31.

### What part of the pulse code modulation process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?

• A.

Sampling

• B.

Rectifying

• C.

Oscillating

• D.

Band limiting

A. Sampling
Explanation
Sampling is the part of the pulse code modulation process that converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal. In this process, the continuous time signal is sampled at regular intervals to obtain a series of discrete samples. These samples represent the amplitude of the continuous signal at specific points in time. By converting the continuous time signal into a discrete time signal through sampling, it becomes easier to process and transmit the signal digitally.

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• 32.

### What type of pulse modulation changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary accordingly to the amplitude of the input signal?

• A.

Width

• B.

Position

• C.

Duration

• D.

Amplitude

D. Amplitude
Explanation
Amplitude modulation is a type of pulse modulation that changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary accordingly to the amplitude of the input signal. This means that the amplitude of the pulses in the pulse train will increase or decrease in proportion to the amplitude of the input signal.

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• 33.

### In asynchronous transmissions , what is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly?

• A.

Control bit

• B.

Parity bit

• C.

Start bit

• D.

Stop bit

B. Parity bit
Explanation
The receiving device uses the parity bit to verify that the transmission was received correctly in asynchronous transmissions. The parity bit is an extra bit added to each transmitted character. It is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the data being transmitted. The receiving device then checks the parity bit to ensure that the number of 1s in the received data matches the parity bit. If there is a mismatch, it indicates that an error occurred during transmission.

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• 34.

### If an error occurs in transmission, what data is lost in an synchronous transmission?

• A.

Synchronous bit

• B.

One character

• C.

Block of data

• D.

A parity bit

C. Block of data
Explanation
In synchronous transmission, data is transmitted in blocks. Each block of data is accompanied by control bits that help in synchronization and error detection. If an error occurs in transmission, it means that one or more bits in the block of data have been corrupted or lost. Therefore, the correct answer is "Block of data".

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• 35.

### When using a vertical redundancy check, the number of ones in a data bit pattern determines

• A.

Parity

• B.

Transmission rate

• C.

Whether transmission is in American standard code for information interchange (ASCII) format

• D.

Whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous

A. Parity
Explanation
A vertical redundancy check is a method used to detect errors in data transmission. It involves counting the number of ones in a data bit pattern and adding an additional bit, known as a parity bit, to make the total number of ones either even or odd. This parity bit is then transmitted along with the data. By checking the parity bit at the receiving end, errors can be detected. Therefore, the correct answer is "parity" as it refers to the role played by the number of ones in determining the parity bit.

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• 36.

### When using the longitudinal redundancy check method for error correction, what does the receiver compare with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data?

• A.

The checksum

• B.

Block check character

• C.

The sum of transmitted bits

• D.

The ASCII character set

B. Block check character
Explanation
The receiver compares the block check character with the transmitter to ensure an accurate transmission of data. The block check character is a value calculated by the transmitter based on the data being sent. The receiver then recalculates the block check character using the received data and compares it with the one sent by the transmitter. If the two values match, it indicates that the data was transmitted accurately.

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• 37.

### What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?

• A.

Checksum and cyclic redundancy check

• B.

Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum

• C.

Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check

• D.

Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check

D. Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check
Explanation
The correct answer is Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check. These two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. Vertical redundancy check involves adding a parity bit to each column of data, while longitudinal redundancy check involves adding a parity bit to each row of data. By using both methods, errors can be detected in both the vertical and horizontal directions, increasing the overall effectiveness of error detection.

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• 38.

### What error detection method adds stacked characters, divide it by 225, and disregards the answer except for the remainder?

• A.

Checksum

• B.

Block check character

• C.

Cyclic redundancy check

• D.

Vertical redundancy check

A. Checksum
Explanation
Checksum is an error detection method that involves adding the ASCII values of all the characters in a message, dividing the sum by 225, and considering only the remainder. This remainder is then appended to the message and sent along with it. Upon receiving the message, the recipient performs the same calculation and compares the calculated checksum with the received checksum. If they match, it is assumed that the message was transmitted without errors.

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• 39.

### What error-correction technique sends a retransmittal request by the receiver to the sender if it finds an error in a received frame?

• A.

Error-correcting code

• B.

Forward error control

• C.

Redundant data transfer

• D.

Automatic retransmit on request

D. Automatic retransmit on request
Explanation
The correct answer is "Automatic retransmit on request." This error-correction technique involves the receiver sending a retransmittal request to the sender if it detects an error in a received frame. This allows for the sender to retransmit the frame, ensuring that the error is corrected and the data is received accurately.

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• 40.

### In the AN/GRT-21 and AN/GRT-22, what circuit sets the audio frequency response?

• A.

Filter circuit in the A4 module

• B.

Detector circuit in the A4 module

• C.

Amplifier circuit in the A1 module

• D.

Compression circuit in the A1 module

A. Filter circuit in the A4 module
Explanation
The audio frequency response in the AN/GRT-21 and AN/GRT-22 is set by the filter circuit in the A4 module.

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• 41.

### In the AN/GRT-22 transmitter, the purpose of the E/L relay in a linear power amp (LPA) when operating in the 50-watt mode is to

• A.

Bypass the LPA in the event of high voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)

• B.

Route the high current directly to the antenna

• C.

Bypass the LPA in the event of overmodulation

• D.

Bypass the antenna in the event of high VSWR

A. Bypass the LPA in the event of high voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)
Explanation
The purpose of the E/L relay in a linear power amp (LPA) when operating in the 50-watt mode is to bypass the LPA in the event of high voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR). This means that if the VSWR becomes too high, indicating a mismatch between the transmitter and the antenna, the relay will bypass the LPA and prevent damage to the amplifier. By doing so, it ensures that the high voltage caused by the high VSWR does not reach the LPA, protecting it from potential harm.

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• Current Version
• Nov 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• May 01, 2012
Quiz Created by
Jsamo84

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