3D156 : US Air Force Quiz On Airfield Systems! Trivia

79 Questions | Total Attempts: 159

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3D156 : US Air Force Quiz On Airfield Systems! Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The visibility measurement set, AN/GMQ–32, has how many main assemblies?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 2. 
    The visibility measurement set, AN/GMQ–32, projector and receiver, are a maximum of how many feet apart?
    • A. 

      200

    • B. 

      300

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      500

  • 3. 
    Where are the barometers/altimeters, AN/ML–102, usually located?
    • A. 

      In a place with direct sunlight.

    • B. 

      In a place with indirect sunlight.

    • C. 

      In a place where the temperature changes.

    • D. 

      In a place where the temperature is constant.

  • 4. 
    What is the range of wind speeds that can be measured by the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19, wind sensor?
    • A. 

      0 – 130 miles per hour (mph).

    • B. 

      0 – 100 mph.

    • C. 

      10 – 130 mph.

    • D. 

      10 – 100 mph.

  • 5. 
    What is the maximum number of cloud bases the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19, ceilometer can detect?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 6. 
    What is the purpose of the blower located in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19, relative humidity/air temperature sensor?
    • A. 

      Stop snow from accumulating around the indicator probe.

    • B. 

      Maintain a steady air temperature for accurate measurements.

    • C. 

      Prevent damage to electronic components during extremely hot weather.

    • D. 

      Provide fresh air to the dewpoint indicator probe for accurate measurements.

  • 7. 
    How do the three barometer outputs provide barometric pressure data in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19?
    • A. 

      The output with the highest value is used to determine station pressure.

    • B. 

      The output with the lowest value is used to determine station pressure.

    • C. 

      The three barometer output values are averaged in order to determine station pressure.

    • D. 

      The three barometer output values are added together in order to determine station pressure

  • 8. 
    What action occurs when freezing rain accumulates on the freezing-rain sensor probe in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19?
    • A. 

      The probe’s vibrational frequency decreases.

    • B. 

      The probe’s vibrational frequency increases.

    • C. 

      The probe’s capacitance decreases.

    • D. 

      The probe’s capacitance increases.

  • 9. 
    In the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19, which sensor group normally contains a complete set of sensors?
    • A. 

      Primary sensor group.

    • B. 

      Midfield sensor group.

    • C. 

      Secondary sensor group.

    • D. 

      Mid-infrared pathogen sensor group.

  • 10. 
    When would an automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ–19, midfield sensor group be installed?
    • A. 

      When an airfield location must meet Category I criteria.

    • B. 

      When an airfield location must meet Category II criteria.

    • C. 

      When an airfield location must meet Category III criteria.

    • D. 

      When an airfield location must meet Category IV criteria.

  • 11. 
    A typical air traffic control tower console is made up of how many operator positions in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 12. 
    Where is the enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position located?
    • A. 

      In the bottom floor of the air traffic control (ATC) tower.

    • B. 

      In the central equipment racks.

    • C. 

      At the transmit/receive site.

    • D. 

      In the ATC tower cab.

  • 13. 
    What capabilities can be provided at the enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position?
    • A. 

      System monitor capability only.

    • B. 

      The same as at any operator position.

    • C. 

      All functions accept operator position monitor.

    • D. 

      All functions accept active tower-to-aircraft channels.

  • 14. 
    What piece of equipment is the primary means of communication control and the interface between the operator and central equipment in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
    • A. 

      Operator communications unit.

    • B. 

      Tower electronic device.

    • C. 

      Operator control unit.

    • D. 

      Touch entry display.

  • 15. 
    What operating system does the supervisor configuration terminal of the enhanced terminal voice switch use?
    • A. 

      DOS.

    • B. 

      Linux.

    • C. 

      Windows 98.

    • D. 

      Windows XP.

  • 16. 
    Which enhanced terminal voice switch assembly is capable of changing system passwords and displaying system fault location?
    • A. 

      Local position.

    • B. 

      Flight data position.

    • C. 

      Supervisory configuration terminal.

    • D. 

      Configuration and control subsystem.

  • 17. 
    Redundancy of the enhanced terminal voice switch is accomplished by allowing how many radio processor cards to be associated with each frequency?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      One.

  • 18. 
    Which enhanced terminal voice switch assembly is responsible for interfacing between the demarcation panel and radio processor cards?
    • A. 

      Radio distribution panel.

    • B. 

      Radio conferencer panel.

    • C. 

      Supervisory configuration terminal.

    • D. 

      Radio subsystem configuration panel.

  • 19. 
    How many telephone lines are provided by each telephone processor in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Two.

    • D. 

      One.

  • 20. 
    In the enhanced terminal voice switch during radio communications, in what form does microphone audio travel from the operator position to the central equipment?
    • A. 

      Encrypted.

    • B. 

      Digital.

    • C. 

      Analog.

    • D. 

      Cipher.

  • 21. 
    In the digital voice recording system (DVRS), what controls the operation of the digital recording unit?
    • A. 

      Touch entry display.

    • B. 

      Supervisor configuration terminal.

    • C. 

      DVRS workstation.

    • D. 

      Gateway interface cards.

  • 22. 
    The uninterruptible power supply for the digital voice recording system is designed to provide power for
    • A. 

      One minute.

    • B. 

      Two minutes.

    • C. 

      Three minutes.

    • D. 

      Five minutes.

  • 23. 
    In the digital voice recording system, what is the recording capacity of each digital audiotape?
    • A. 

      100 linear hours.

    • B. 

      500 linear hours.

    • C. 

      750 linear hours.

    • D. 

      1000 linear hours.

  • 24. 
    In the digital voice recording system, how many satellites need to be acquired by the global positioning system receiver for an accurate time stamp?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 25. 
    The alarms on the digital voice recording system alerts users when channels are
    • A. 

      Inactive.

    • B. 

      Shifting.

    • C. 

      Off-key.

    • D. 

      Active.

  • 26. 
    When does the digital voice recording system digital recording unit copy hard drive information to a digital audiotape?
    • A. 

      Continuously.

    • B. 

      Every 15 minutes.

    • C. 

      Every 30 minutes.

    • D. 

      Only when prompted by an operator.

  • 27. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, provides radio navigation information for up to how many aircraft simultaneously?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      120.

    • C. 

      150.

    • D. 

      170.

  • 28. 
    Upon the detection of parameter faults, the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, transponder will
    • A. 

      Stop emitting squitter.

    • B. 

      Switch frequencies.

    • C. 

      Ignore all faults.

    • D. 

      Shutdown.

  • 29. 
    Based on technical data, how many people does it take to set up the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, in less than one hour?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 30. 
    The antenna height of the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, is adjustable between
    • A. 

      1.5 and 8.5 feet above ground level.

    • B. 

      3.5 and 8.5 feet above ground level.

    • C. 

      6.5 and 10 feet above ground level.

    • D. 

      7.5 and 10 feet above ground level.

  • 31. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, antenna support consists of how many major components?
    • A. 

      Five.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Two.

  • 32. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, has time-coded pulses transmitted on any one of the
    • A. 

      126 channels spaced 1-MHz apart.

    • B. 

      128 channels spaced 1-MHz apart.

    • C. 

      126 channels spaced 2-MHz apart.

    • D. 

      128 channels spaced 2 MHz apart.

  • 33. 
    Which parameter is continuously monitored by the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN– 26’s, radio frequency monitor?
    • A. 

      Peak power.

    • B. 

      Sideband amplitude.

    • C. 

      Modulation percentage.

    • D. 

      Antenna rotation speed.

  • 34. 
    Under normal operating conditions at remote locations, what powers the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26?
    • A. 

      Direct current generator set.

    • B. 

      120 volt alternation current generator.

    • C. 

      Nickel-cadmium rechargeable battery.

    • D. 

      Silver-zinc rechargeable battery.

  • 35. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, requires what operating voltage?
    • A. 

      12 VDC.

    • B. 

      24 VDC.

    • C. 

      28 VDC.

    • D. 

      32 VDC.

  • 36. 
    How many test interrogations per second do the radio frequency monitors route into the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26?
    • A. 

      7200.

    • B. 

      900.

    • C. 

      100.

    • D. 

      25.

  • 37. 
    What does the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, receiver-transmitter do to hold the average output power level constant?
    • A. 

      Increases reply pulse spacing.

    • B. 

      Increases antenna rotation rate.

    • C. 

      Adjusts output modulation levels.

    • D. 

      Inserts random squitter transmissions.

  • 38. 
    What determines the rotational speed of the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, antenna drive motor?
    • A. 

      Applied current.

    • B. 

      Applied voltage.

    • C. 

      Phase of applied voltage.

    • D. 

      Frequency of applied voltage.

  • 39. 
    How many parasitic director elements are mounted on the drum of the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, antenna?
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      10

  • 40. 
    The power supply in the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–26, converts the primary power to secondary regulated voltages of
    • A. 

      +200, +25.2, +12.6, and –12.6 volts direct current (DC).

    • B. 

      +200, +25.2, +12.6, and –12.6 volts alternating current (AC).

    • C. 

      +25.2, +12.6, and –12.6 volts DC.

    • D. 

      +25.2, +12.6, and –12.6 volts AC.

  • 41. 
    A lightweight, portable, tactical air navigation system designed to provide a combat control team with a navigational aid is the
    • A. 

      AN/GMQ–33.

    • B. 

      AN/TMQ–36.

    • C. 

      AN/TRN–26.

    • D. 

      AN/TRN–41.

  • 42. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, can provide azimuth, distance, and identification information for how many aircraft simultaneously?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      120.

    • C. 

      150.

    • D. 

      170.

  • 43. 
    The primary power source for the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, is
    • A. 

      A nickel-cadmium rechargeable battery.

    • B. 

      A silver-zinc rechargeable battery.

    • C. 

      Any 115/220 volts, alternating current source.

    • D. 

      A diesel powered generator.

  • 44. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41 as a system, can operate on what tactical air navigation (TACAN) channels?
    • A. 

      All “Y” channels.

    • B. 

      All “X” channels.

    • C. 

      All TACAN channels.

    • D. 

      “X” high band channels only.

  • 45. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41 antenna is an all band, direct drive, mechanically rotated antenna that operates over the whole range of the TACAN frequencies from
    • A. 

      962–1213MHz.

    • B. 

      962–1413MHz.

    • C. 

      1062–1213 MHz.

    • D. 

      1062–1413 MHz.

  • 46. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41 antenna support assembly allows the antenna to be set up on a slope of up to
    • A. 

      4 degrees.

    • B. 

      7.5 degrees.

    • C. 

      10 degrees.

    • D. 

      15 degrees.

  • 47. 
    The external power amplifier in the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41 provides how much gain to double the output of the receiver-transmitter twice?
    • A. 

      One dB.

    • B. 

      Three dB.

    • C. 

      Six dB.

    • D. 

      Nine dB.

  • 48. 
    The power output of the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41 is greater than
    • A. 

      100 watts peak.

    • B. 

      200 watts peak.

    • C. 

      300 watts peak.

    • D. 

      1000 watts peak.

  • 49. 
    How long does it take the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, antenna to come up to its operating speed?
    • A. 

      5 seconds.

    • B. 

      10 seconds.

    • C. 

      30 seconds.

    • D. 

      60 seconds.

  • 50. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, the battery can supply power for full system operation for
    • A. 

      72 hours.

    • B. 

      24 hours.

    • C. 

      12 hours.

    • D. 

      4 hours.

  • 51. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, has how many modes of operation?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 52. 
    In which tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, mode does the antenna not rotate but the receiver-transmitter still transmits squitter, distance replies, and identification?
    • A. 

      Tactical air navigation mode.

    • B. 

      Distance measuring equipment only mode.

    • C. 

      Demand only mode.

    • D. 

      Continuous wave jamming avoidance mode.

  • 53. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, can provide azimuth and identity information to how many aircraft simultaneously?
    • A. 

      Up to 100.

    • B. 

      Up to 120.

    • C. 

      Up to 150.

    • D. 

      An unlimited number.

  • 54. 
    Which of the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, pulse-modulated signals has the highest transmission priority?
    • A. 

      Station identification.

    • B. 

      North reference burst.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary reference burst.

    • D. 

      Distance measuring signal.

  • 55. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, overall reply delay for “X” channel interrogations is
    • A. 

      30±0.1 μs.

    • B. 

      50±0.1 μs.

    • C. 

      70±0.1 μs.

    • D. 

      75±0.1 μs.

  • 56. 
    The total interrogation plus squitter rate for the tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, is
    • A. 

      2500± 90 pulses per second.

    • B. 

      2700± 90 pulses per second.

    • C. 

      3500± 90 pulses per second.

    • D. 

      7200± 90 pulses per second.

  • 57. 
    The tactical air navigation system, AN/TRN–41, will indicate an alarm condition if a monitored parameter exceeds its alarm limits continuously for approximately
    • A. 

      30 seconds.

    • B. 

      15 seconds.

    • C. 

      10 seconds.

    • D. 

      5 seconds.

  • 58. 
    Relative distance information is provided to aircraft by the mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN–45, by
    • A. 

      Mobile microwave marker beacons.

    • B. 

      Elevation transmitting equipment.

    • C. 

      Azimuth transmitting equipment.

    • D. 

      Distance measuring equipment/precision transponder equipment.

  • 59. 
    When a mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN–45, is installed as a collocated site, where are the azimuth and elevation stations placed?
    • A. 

      At opposite ends of the runway.

    • B. 

      Together near the runway stop end.

    • C. 

      Together near the runway approach end.

    • D. 

      At opposite ends of the runway taxiway.

  • 60. 
    What category of operation is the mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN–45, capable of when installed in a split-site configuration?
    • A. 

      CAT I or CAT II.

    • B. 

      CAT II or CAT III.

    • C. 

      CAT I only.

    • D. 

      CAT II only.

  • 61. 
    What information is supplied to the aircraft by the basic and auxiliary data transmission in the mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN–45?
    • A. 

      Distance to runway threshold.

    • B. 

      Vertical and horizontal guidance.

    • C. 

      Category of approach information.

    • D. 

      Course and glidepath width information.

  • 62. 
     A condition that will cause a complete shutdown of the mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN–45, is the shutdown of the
    • A. 

      Azimuth equipment.

    • B. 

      Elevation equipment.

    • C. 

      Distance measuring equipment/precision (DME/P) and elevation equipment.

    • D. 

      DME/P equipment.

  • 63. 
    A failed built-in test will be displayed in the mobile microwave landing system, AN/TRN– 45, at the
    • A. 

      DME/P electronic unit (DEU) only.

    • B. 

      Remote control/display unit (RC/DU) only.

    • C. 

      DEU, RC/DU, or elevation (EL) control electronic unit (CEU) only.

    • D. 

      DEU, RC/DU, EL CEU, or azimuth (AZ) CEU.

  • 64. 
    How many functional groups is the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7, composed of?
    • A. 

      Four.

    • B. 

      Five.

    • C. 

      Six.

    • D. 

      Seven.

  • 65. 
    On improved roads the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7, can be driven up to
    • A. 

      50 mph.

    • B. 

      55 mph.

    • C. 

      60 mph.

    • D. 

      65 mph.

  • 66. 
    During normal operation of the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7, what voltage powers most shelter equipment?
    • A. 

      +12 VDC.

    • B. 

      +28 VDC.

    • C. 

      +48 VDC.

    • D. 

      115 VAC.

  • 67. 
    How many sensors within the meteorological functional group provide wind speed, wind direction, and temperature data in the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7?
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Five.

  • 68. 
    In the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7, how many VHF/UHF amplitude modulated portable transceivers in the communications shelter functional group?
    • A. 

      Five.

    • B. 

      Six.

    • C. 

      Seven.

    • D. 

      Eight.

  • 69. 
    What assembly monitors the various functional groups in the tactical control tower, AN/MSN–7?
    • A. 

      Monitor control panel.

    • B. 

      Local operating network.

    • C. 

      Environmental control unit.

    • D. 

      Land mobile radio.

  • 70. 
    How many radios are there in the normal configuration of the runway control structure?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 71. 
    What encompasses the majority of the missions the AN/TRC–176 radio is used for?
    • A. 

      Air-to-ground.

    • B. 

      Air-to-air.

    • C. 

      Ground-to-ground.

    • D. 

      Ground-to-air.

  • 72. 
    What major improvement does the AN/GRC–171BV4 Have-Quick-Radio possess that the AN/GRC–171 radio does not have?
    • A. 

      Amplitude modulation capability.

    • B. 

      Frequency demodulation capability.

    • C. 

      Hydraulic actuated servo tuning.

    • D. 

      Electronically tuned preselector which replaces the servo.

  • 73. 
    What radio system provides simplex HF radio communications capabilities in the 1.6 to 29.999 MHz (10 Hz synthesized steps) frequency range?
    • A. 

      AN/GRC–171.

    • B. 

      AN/URC–119.

    • C. 

      AN/FRN–45.

    • D. 

      AN/FMQ–19.

  • 74. 
    What radio system normally provides up to 500 watts of transmitted power with a power amplifier?
    • A. 

      AN/FMQ–19.

    • B. 

      AN/FRN–45.

    • C. 

      AN/GRC–171.

    • D. 

      AN/URC–119.

  • 75. 
    What is the primary radar coverage of the AN/MPN–14K radar shelter?
    • A. 

      30 nm.

    • B. 

      60 nm.

    • C. 

      90 nm.

    • D. 

      120 nm.

  • 76. 
    What item is required to provide opposite direction runway operations of the AN/MPN– 14K radar shelter?
    • A. 

      Transportable turntable.

    • B. 

      Bi-directional coupler.

    • C. 

      Secondary radar.

    • D. 

      Primary radar.

  • 77. 
    The precision approach radar in the AN/TPN–19 provides both azimuth and elevation information from?
    • A. 

      20 nautical miles (nm) to touchdown.

    • B. 

      19 nm to touchdown.

    • C. 

      18 nm to touchdown.

    • D. 

      17nm to touchdown.

  • 78. 
    What type of equipment could be used to determine ionospheric conditions and how they would affect radio propagation impacting Department of Defense systems?
    • A. 

      AN/TPN–19.

    • B. 

      AN/FMQ–12.

    • C. 

      AN/MPN–12.

    • D. 

      AN/GRC–171B(V)4.

  • 79. 
    Light guns serve the purpose of signaling the aircraft, vehicles, and personnel on the
    • A. 

      Adjacent roads.

    • B. 

      Runways and taxiways.

    • C. 

      Roads adjacent to the navigational equipment.

    • D. 

      Gravel pavement adjacent to the navigational equipment.