CDC 2A651: Air Force Certification Test! Trivia Quiz
Study for 2A651 EOC. The program will randomly pick 25% of the questions to ask you. Passing is 65%, but you always want to strive for better. Remember this is NOT a substitute for actually opening up your volumes, make sure you read the books too!
Good luck!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
- C.
Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assuranceExplanation
The squadrons that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These squadrons are responsible for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft, as well as maintaining quality standards and assurance.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visiblility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations support center
- B.
Logistics support squadron
- C.
Operations support squadron
- D.
Maintenance operations center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations centerExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. This means that they oversee the scheduling of flights and maintenance activities, ensuring that they are carried out efficiently and effectively. They also keep track of the overall health of the fleet, monitoring indicators such as maintenance needs and performance data.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Flight commanders
- C.
Group commanders
- D.
Squadron commanders
Correct Answer
A. SupervisorsExplanation
QA recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors. The supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that the necessary corrective actions are implemented. They have direct control and authority over their team members, making them the appropriate level to receive recommendations from QA. Flight commanders, group commanders, and squadron commanders may also be involved in the decision-making process, but the initial recommendations would typically be directed towards supervisors.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
- A.
Debrief
- B.
Training
- C.
Specialist
- D.
Deployment
Correct Answer
C. SpecialistExplanation
As an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your expertise and responsibilities will mainly revolve around the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. The Specialist flight is specifically designated for personnel with specialized skills and knowledge in specific areas, such as engines, avionics, or weapons systems. Therefore, it is the most suitable and logical assignment for an engine troop in an aircraft maintenance squadron.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, you are eligible to attend the ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that the ALS is a program designed for more experienced individuals who have spent a significant amount of time in the Air Force. Attending the ALS allows individuals to further develop their leadership skills and advance in their military career.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(003) Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
- A.
ORM
- B.
MSDS
- C.
AFOSH
- D.
Flightline safety
Correct Answer
C. AFOSHExplanation
AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. Its purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. AFOSH establishes and enforces safety standards and regulations, conducts inspections, and provides training and guidance to promote a culture of safety within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91Explanation
Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series 91.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Which Air Force instruction defines maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101Explanation
Air Force instruction 21-101 defines maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the work stands
- B.
Check the AFTO Form 781K
- C.
Check the intake for FOD
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraftExplanation
To ensure safety before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This step is crucial as it allows for effective communication and coordination among the maintenance team, ensuring that everyone is aware of the tasks being performed and any potential hazards or risks. By checking with other personnel, any concerns or issues can be addressed, and necessary precautions can be taken to maintain a safe working environment. This collaborative approach helps to prevent accidents and ensures that maintenance procedures are carried out safely.Rate this question:
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- 10.
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rearExplanation
The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) To avoid the engine exhaust balst, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
- A.
100
- B.
200
- C.
300
- D.
400
Correct Answer
B. 200Explanation
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft should be 200. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential harm or damage caused by the forceful blast of the engine exhaust. Being too close to the rear of the aircraft can be dangerous due to the high temperatures, strong winds, and debris that may be present in the exhaust blast. Therefore, maintaining a minimum distance of 200 feet is crucial for safety.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(005) FOD is normally caused by
- A.
People
- B.
Animals
- C.
Weather
- D.
Mechanical failure
Correct Answer
A. PeopleExplanation
FOD, which stands for Foreign Object Debris, is usually caused by people. This refers to any foreign object, such as tools, parts, or debris, that is accidentally left on or near an aircraft during maintenance or construction. People can unintentionally leave objects behind, which can pose a safety risk for the aircraft. Animals, weather, and mechanical failure can also cause FOD in some cases, but people are the most common cause.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
- A.
Quality assurance
- B.
Squadron commander
- C.
Production supervisor
- D.
Maintenance group commander
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance group commanderExplanation
The maintenance group commander is the person who has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the program is implemented effectively and that all necessary measures are taken to prevent FOD incidents. As the commander of the maintenance group, they have the authority and accountability to oversee the program and ensure its success.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone
- B.
Toluene
- C.
Carbon dioxide
- D.
Carbon monoxide
Correct Answer
D. Carbon monoxideExplanation
During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to carbon monoxide is possible. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing fuels. It can be present in engine exhaust and other sources in these environments. Carbon monoxide is highly toxic and can cause symptoms such as headaches, dizziness, nausea, and even death in high concentrations. Therefore, it is important for individuals working in these areas to be aware of the potential presence of carbon monoxide and take appropriate safety measures to minimize their exposure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
- A.
Aerosols
- B.
Liquids
- C.
Solids
- D.
Gases
Correct Answer
D. GasesExplanation
Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because gases are easily inhaled and can quickly enter the respiratory system. Once inhaled, gases can easily be absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body, leading to rapid toxic effects. Additionally, gases can easily penetrate barriers such as the skin or protective clothing, increasing the risk of exposure and toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Enviromental
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and experience to educate employees on the proper procedures and guidelines for using personal protective equipment. They ensure that employees understand the importance of wearing protective equipment and are trained to use it effectively to ensure their safety in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(007) Hazardous waste storage area must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthorized entry
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entryExplanation
The correct answer is unauthorized entry. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of both the stored materials and the surrounding environment. Unauthorized access can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can have serious consequences such as spills, leaks, or even explosions. Therefore, implementing measures to restrict access and ensure only authorized personnel can enter the storage area is crucial in preventing potential hazards and maintaining the integrity of the hazardous waste storage.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
- A.
Dilution
- B.
Incineration
- C.
Land disposal
- D.
Biodegradation
Correct Answer
A. DilutionExplanation
Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or another liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the harmful effects of the waste by spreading it out and making it less potent. Dilution is often used for liquid or soluble hazardous waste, as it allows for easier handling and transportation. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most effective or environmentally friendly method of waste disposal, and other methods such as incineration or land disposal may be more appropriate depending on the specific characteristics of the waste.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
- A.
Incineration
- B.
Land disposal
- C.
Biodegradation
- D.
Chemico-physical treatment
Correct Answer
A. IncinerationExplanation
Incineration is the most suitable method for hazardous waste disposal because it involves burning the waste at high temperatures, which helps to reduce its volume and destroy any harmful substances. This method is effective for disposing of hazardous materials that cannot be safely recycled or treated through other means. Incineration also helps to minimize the risk of contamination to the environment and public health by ensuring that the waste is completely destroyed. Additionally, it allows for the recovery of energy through the use of waste-to-energy technologies. Therefore, incineration is a justifiable option for hazardous waste disposal by the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(008) A specialzed fucntion of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair
- B.
Service
- C.
Disposal
- D.
Retrieval
Correct Answer
C. DisposalExplanation
A specialized function of the supply mission is disposal. This means that the supply mission is responsible for getting rid of or disposing of items or materials that are no longer needed or are no longer usable. This could include disposing of waste, recycling materials, or properly disposing of hazardous materials. The supply mission ensures that these items are disposed of in a safe and environmentally friendly manner.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
- A.
Base system
- B.
Weapons system
- C.
Inventory system
- D.
Geographical system
Correct Answer
B. Weapons systemExplanation
The RSS manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that it focuses on the supply and management of weapons and related equipment. This perspective ensures that the necessary weapons and resources are available to support military operations and maintain readiness. It involves tracking inventory, coordinating procurement, and ensuring the proper maintenance and distribution of weapons within the system.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
- A.
Depot Level Repair System
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System
- C.
Standard Base Supply System
- D.
Precious Metal Recovery System
Correct Answer
B. Repair Cycle Support SystemExplanation
The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and tracking the repair process for equipment and supplies. It ensures that repairs are completed efficiently and in a timely manner, minimizing downtime and maximizing the availability of equipment for use. This system also helps in managing repair resources, such as spare parts and repair facilities, to support the repair cycle effectively.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul
- B.
Retest OK
- C.
Time change
- D.
Repair cycle support
Correct Answer
A. OverhaulExplanation
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics, function, or application, are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific items need to undergo a comprehensive examination, repair, and replacement of worn-out components to restore them to their original condition and ensure their proper functioning. Overhaul is necessary to address any issues or damage that may have occurred during the equipment's use, ensuring its reliability and longevity.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18)
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04)
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
- D.
Repair Cucle Asset Management Listing (D23)
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04)Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This register keeps track of the documents processed, allowing organizations to easily review and track their daily document activity. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means for reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organizaiton?
- A.
Mission
- B.
Contract
- C.
Location
- D.
Type of aircraft
Correct Answer
A. MissionExplanation
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the difference in each organization's mission. Each organization has its own specific goals and objectives, and the parts needed for their mission may vary. Therefore, Base Supply must prioritize and deliver the necessary parts based on the unique requirements of each organization's mission.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item
- B.
Why the item is broke
- C.
How long the item will take to repair
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an itemExplanation
A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair of equipment. By completing this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information for tracking and accountability purposes.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AFTO Form 349
- C.
AFTO Form 350
- D.
DD Form 1574
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005Explanation
If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is specifically designed for requesting and tracking parts in the Air Force. AFTO Form 349 and AFTO Form 350 are maintenance forms used for different purposes, and DD Form 1574 is a document used for issuing property.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
- A.
23-110
- B.
23-254
- C.
91-110
- D.
91-254
Correct Answer
A. 23-110Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for the source of detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries. The answer options include AFMAN 23-110 and AFMAN 23-254. Since the question specifically mentions the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, it is logical to choose the option that includes these codes, which is AFMAN 23-110.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting part or maintenance?
- A.
DD Form 1574
- B.
DD Form 1575
- C.
DD Form 1577-2
- D.
DD Form 1577-3
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1575Explanation
DD Form 1575 is attached to items that are awaiting part or maintenance. This form is used to record the status and location of the item, as well as any actions taken to repair or replace the item. It helps to track and manage the maintenance process for these items, ensuring that they are properly accounted for and that any necessary repairs or parts are obtained in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactory over a specified period of time?
- A.
Supply
- B.
Shelf-life
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Bench stock
Correct Answer
B. Shelf-lifeExplanation
To ensure satisfactory performance over a specified period of time, a storage time period must be assigned to the item's shelf-life. Shelf-life refers to the length of time that a product can be stored before it becomes unfit for use or consumption. By assigning a specific shelf-life to an item, it ensures that it will be used or consumed within its designated timeframe, thus guaranteeing its satisfactory performance.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned self-life period that may be extended
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date
- C.
Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
- D.
Should be inspected or tested
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-lifeExplanation
A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its designated shelf-life period. It cannot be extended or used after the expiration date. It is important to adhere to this shelf-life requirement to ensure the item's quality and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager
- B.
Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only)
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a systemExplanation
A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that if the deficiency is not addressed, it has the potential to result in significant harm or damage to the equipment or system in question. This type of DR is critical because it highlights the urgent need for corrective action to prevent major consequences.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(013) Within how many hours must Categor I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
- A.
8
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
72
Correct Answer
C. 24Explanation
Categor I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any incident or event that falls under Categor I DR must be reported and forwarded to the screening point within a maximum of 24 hours from the time it occurred. This ensures that the appropriate authorities are promptly informed and can take necessary actions to address the situation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
- A.
Self-life
- B.
Bench stock
- C.
Hazardous materials
- D.
Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
Correct Answer
D. Equipment Authorization Inventory DataExplanation
The CA/CRL (Cataloging Activity/Commodity Research List) must reflect the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This means that any items related to equipment authorization, such as authorized equipment, inventory data, or information related to equipment authorization, should be included in the CA/CRL. This ensures that the cataloging activity and commodity research list accurately reflect the inventory and authorization status of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Supply cheif
Correct Answer
C. CommanderExplanation
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the authority to appoint individuals to specific roles and responsibilities within an organization. As an equipment custodian, it is crucial to have the trust and confidence of the commander, as they are responsible for overseeing the overall operations and ensuring that equipment is properly managed and maintained. Therefore, the commander's appointment is necessary to fulfill the role of an equipment custodian effectively.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO
- D.
Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
Correct Answer
C. Category and type of equipment in the TOExplanation
The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment in the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific category and type of equipment that the TO pertains to. It helps in organizing and categorizing the TOs based on the equipment they are associated with, making it easier for users to locate the relevant TO for a specific piece of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(015) The second part of a TO number gives the
- A.
TO classification
- B.
Type of equipment in the TO
- C.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- D.
Model and series for equipment type in the TO
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equipment type in the TOExplanation
The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can determine the specific model and series of the equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for accurately identifying and accessing the correct set of instructions and guidelines for that particular equipment.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
- A.
Index
- B.
Preliminary
- C.
Methods and proceedure
- D.
Operational and maintenance
Correct Answer
A. IndexExplanation
In the given question, the correct answer is "Index". An index is a type of TO (Technical Order) that provides a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. It serves as a reference guide or directory to easily locate the relevant TOs related to a particular equipment category. The index helps users quickly find the specific TO they need without having to search through all the TOs individually.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General equipment
- B.
General system
- C.
Fault isolation
- D.
Job guide
Correct Answer
D. Job guideExplanation
A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions for carrying out specific maintenance actions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
- A.
Rapid action changes
- B.
Operational supplements
- C.
Urgent recommendations
- D.
Time compliance technical order
Correct Answer
C. Urgent recommendationsExplanation
Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) typically provide various types of additional data to aid users in their tasks. Rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders are all examples of additional data that can be found in IETMs. However, urgent recommendations are not typically provided in IETMs. These recommendations may require immediate attention and action, and therefore may be communicated through other means such as alerts, notifications, or separate documents.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group assembly parts list
- D.
Reference designation index
Correct Answer
A. IntroductionExplanation
The Introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview of the purpose and structure of the IPB, as well as information on how to interpret and use the coding system. It helps users understand the meaning and significance of the codes used throughout the IPB, ensuring that they can effectively navigate and utilize the information provided.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
D. Immediate actionExplanation
Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of personnel.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-5-2
- C.
00-20-1
- D.
00-20-2
Correct Answer
A. 00-5-1Explanation
TO 00-5-1 covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
- A.
The text or picture will be marked in color
- B.
The text or picture will be highlighted yellow
- C.
The word "changed" will be marked on the text or picture
- D.
A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture
Correct Answer
D. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or pictureExplanation
When the text or picture in a TO has been changed, it will be indicated by a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
- A.
Job guides
- B.
Work cards
- C.
Preliminary TOs
- D.
Methods and procedures TOs
Correct Answer
C. Preliminary TOsExplanation
An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator
- B.
Commander
- C.
Supervisor of initiator
- D.
Product improvement office
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiatorExplanation
The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. They oversee the work of the initiator and have the authority to review and approve the form before it is submitted. This ensures that all necessary information is included and that the form meets the required standards. The supervisor plays a crucial role in quality control and ensuring that proper procedures are followed.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
- A.
Urgent
- B.
Special
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
Correct Answer
A. UrgentExplanation
Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation as "Urgent" is necessary when there is a potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment or property. This indicates that immediate action is required to prevent any harm or further damage. It is crucial to prioritize and address these issues promptly to ensure the safety of personnel and the preservation of equipment and property.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
- A.
Evident and hidden
- B.
Potential and evident
- C.
Hidden and functional
- D.
Potential and functional
Correct Answer
D. Potential and functionalExplanation
The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. These failures are often identified through proactive maintenance strategies. On the other hand, functional failures are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the system's performance or functionality. These failures are typically identified through reactive maintenance strategies.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time
- B.
Lubrication
- C.
On condition
- D.
Failure finding
Correct Answer
C. On conditionExplanation
On condition maintenance is a preventative maintenance task in RCM that involves scheduled inspections to detect potential failure conditions. This type of maintenance is performed based on the condition of the equipment or system, rather than a fixed time interval. By regularly inspecting and monitoring the equipment, any potential issues or failure conditions can be identified early on, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to prevent further damage or breakdowns.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions
Correct Answer
C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failuresExplanation
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any degradation in the performance of turbine engines at an early stage. This is important because early detection can help prevent or limit damage to the engines. By monitoring the performance of the engines, any signs of degradation or potential failures can be identified and addressed before they become more serious issues. This proactive approach helps to ensure the safety and reliability of the turbine engines.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Aug 17, 2009Quiz Created by
Wafbprops
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