CDC 2A651: Air Force Certification Test! Trivia Quiz

44 Questions | Total Attempts: 7284

SettingsSettingsSettings
CDC 2A651: Air Force Certification Test! Trivia Quiz

Study for 2A651 EOC. The program will randomly pick 25% of the questions to ask you. Passing is 65%, but you always want to strive for better. Remember this is NOT a substitute for actually opening up your volumes, make sure you read the books too! Good luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying

    • B. 

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance

    • C. 

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance

  • 2. 
    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visiblility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

      Operations support center

    • B. 

      Logistics support squadron

    • C. 

      Operations support squadron

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center

  • 3. 
    (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
    • A. 

      Supervisors

    • B. 

      Flight commanders

    • C. 

      Group commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders

  • 4. 
    (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
    • A. 

      Debrief

    • B. 

      Training

    • C. 

      Specialist

    • D. 

      Deployment

  • 5. 
    (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      60

  • 6. 
    (003) Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
    • A. 

      ORM

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      AFOSH

    • D. 

      Flightline safety

  • 7. 
    (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    • A. 

      91

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      127

    • D. 

      161

  • 8. 
    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      21-101

    • D. 

      36-2108

  • 9. 
    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the work stands

    • B. 

      Check the AFTO Form 781K

    • C. 

      Check the intake for FOD

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

  • 10. 
    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear

    • B. 

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear

    • C. 

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

    • D. 

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear

  • 11. 
    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust balst, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      400

  • 12. 
    (005) FOD is normally caused by
    • A. 

      People

    • B. 

      Animals

    • C. 

      Weather

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure

  • 13. 
    (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    • A. 

      Quality assurance

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Production supervisor

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 14. 
    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
    • A. 

      Acetone

    • B. 

      Toluene

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide

  • 15. 
    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

      Aerosols

    • B. 

      Liquids

    • C. 

      Solids

    • D. 

      Gases

  • 16. 
    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Hospital

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Enviromental

  • 17. 
    (007) Hazardous waste storage area must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions

    • B. 

      Unauthorized entry

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials

  • 18. 
    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
    • A. 

      Dilution

    • B. 

      Incineration

    • C. 

      Land disposal

    • D. 

      Biodegradation

  • 19. 
    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Incineration

    • B. 

      Land disposal

    • C. 

      Biodegradation

    • D. 

      Chemico-physical treatment

  • 20. 
    (008) A specialzed fucntion of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair

    • B. 

      Service

    • C. 

      Disposal

    • D. 

      Retrieval

  • 21. 
    (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    • A. 

      Base system

    • B. 

      Weapons system

    • C. 

      Inventory system

    • D. 

      Geographical system

  • 22. 
    (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    • A. 

      Depot Level Repair System

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System

    • D. 

      Precious Metal Recovery System

  • 23. 
    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul

    • B. 

      Retest OK

    • C. 

      Time change

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 24. 
    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document  numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04)

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • D. 

      Repair Cucle Asset Management Listing (D23)

  • 25. 
    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organizaiton?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Location

    • D. 

      Type of aircraft

  • 26. 
    (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    • A. 

      Origin of an item

    • B. 

      Why the item is broke

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center

  • 27. 
    (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1574

  • 28. 
    (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    • A. 

      23-110

    • B. 

      23-254

    • C. 

      91-110

    • D. 

      91-254

  • 29. 
    (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting part or maintenance?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577-2

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-3

  • 30. 
    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactory  over a specified period of time?
    • A. 

      Supply

    • B. 

      Shelf-life

    • C. 

      Inspection

    • D. 

      Bench stock

  • 31. 
    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned self-life period that may be extended

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • C. 

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested

  • 32. 
    (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • B. 

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only)

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

  • 33. 
    (013) Within how many hours must Categor I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      72

  • 34. 
    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
    • A. 

      Self-life

    • B. 

      Bench stock

    • C. 

      Hazardous materials

    • D. 

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data

  • 35. 
    (014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Supply cheif

  • 36. 
    (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 37. 
    (015) The second part of a TO number gives the
    • A. 

      TO classification

    • B. 

      Type of equipment in the TO

    • C. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • D. 

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO

  • 38. 
    (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    • A. 

      Index

    • B. 

      Preliminary

    • C. 

      Methods and proceedure

    • D. 

      Operational and maintenance

  • 39. 
    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General equipment

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Fault isolation

    • D. 

      Job guide

  • 40. 
    (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
    • A. 

      Rapid action changes

    • B. 

      Operational supplements

    • C. 

      Urgent recommendations

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order

  • 41. 
    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction

    • B. 

      Numerical index

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list

    • D. 

      Reference designation index

  • 42. 
    (018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Urgent action

    • C. 

      Routine action

    • D. 

      Immediate action

  • 43. 
    (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-5-2

    • C. 

      00-20-1

    • D. 

      00-20-2

  • 44. 
    (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    • A. 

      The text or picture will be marked in color

    • B. 

      The text or picture will be highlighted yellow

    • C. 

      The word "changed" will be marked on the text or picture

    • D. 

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture