3d1x5 CDC Pool Of 100

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 247
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  • 1/577 Questions

    What characteristic of frequency does a radar target moving towards the radar exhibit?

    • A lower frequency than the original broadcast
    • A higher frequency than the original broadcast
    • No apparent frequency change than the original broadcast
    • Oscillating lower and higher frequency changes in respect to the original broadcast
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About This Quiz


For use by 3D1X5 personnel for the purpose of CDC EOC testing.

3d1x5 CDC Pool Of 100 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What radar subassembly allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna?

    • Synchronizer

    • Transmitter

    • Modulator

    • Duplexer

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplexer
    Explanation
    A duplexer is a radar subassembly that allows the radar system to transmit and receive from the same antenna. It is responsible for separating the outgoing and incoming signals, allowing them to be transmitted and received without interference. This component is crucial in radar systems as it enables the system to alternate between transmitting and receiving signals using a single antenna, thereby optimizing the use of resources and ensuring efficient radar operation.

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  • 3. 

    An antenna is said to be reciprocal if

    • It is nonlinear

    • It transmits patterns

    • It contains ferrite devices

    • Its transmit and receive patterns are identical

    Correct Answer
    A. Its transmit and receive patterns are identical
    Explanation
    A reciprocal antenna is one that exhibits the same transmit and receive patterns. This means that the antenna will radiate electromagnetic waves in the same way when it is used for transmitting as it does when it is used for receiving signals. In other words, the antenna does not discriminate between transmitting and receiving signals and behaves in a symmetrical manner. This property is important in various applications, such as wireless communication systems, where the antenna's performance needs to be consistent for both transmitting and receiving signals.

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  • 4. 

    Which feedhorn is used only for receiving?

    • Active

    • Linear

    • Passive

    • Circular

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive
    Explanation
    Passive feedhorns are used only for receiving signals. Unlike active feedhorns, which can both receive and transmit signals, passive feedhorns are designed solely for the purpose of receiving signals. They do not have any active components or electronics that would allow for signal transmission. Therefore, passive feedhorns are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 5. 

    The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar’s

    • Gain

    • Location

    • Purpose

    • Power

    Correct Answer
    A. Purpose
    Explanation
    The shape of the beam of radar energy and its antenna pattern depend on the radar's purpose. Different radar systems are designed for specific purposes, such as air traffic control, weather monitoring, or military surveillance. Each purpose requires a different beam shape and antenna pattern to effectively detect and track the desired targets. Therefore, the purpose of the radar system determines the specific characteristics of the beam and antenna pattern.

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  • 6. 

    What causes delayed, but separate, pulses?

    • Simultaneous reception of pulse-type information

    • Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information

    • Electromagnetic (EM) waves reach the receiving antenna by direct paths

    • EM waves reach the receiving antenna by indirect paths

    Correct Answer
    A. Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information
    Explanation
    Near-simultaneous reception of pulse-type information causes delayed, but separate, pulses. This means that the pulses are received in close succession, but with a slight delay between each pulse. This could be due to factors such as the distance between the transmitter and receiver, the speed of the electromagnetic waves, or any obstacles or interference that the waves encounter along their path. As a result, the pulses arrive at the receiving antenna at slightly different times, causing the delay in their reception.

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  • 7. 

    What type of radar system uses a B-scan indicator?

    • Long-range surveillance

    • Airport surveillance

    • Precision approach

    • Weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Precision approach
    Explanation
    A radar system that uses a B-scan indicator is typically used for precision approach. Precision approach radar systems are designed to provide accurate and detailed information about the position and movement of aircraft during the final stages of landing. The B-scan indicator is a display feature that shows a cross-sectional view of the radar echoes, allowing for precise measurement of the aircraft's altitude and alignment with the runway. This type of radar system is crucial for ensuring safe and accurate landings, especially in low visibility conditions.

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  • 8. 

    What target information is provided by a plan-position indicator?

    • Azimuth only

    • Elevation only

    • Range and azimuth

    • Elevation and range

    Correct Answer
    A. Range and azimuth
    Explanation
    A plan-position indicator (PPI) provides information about the range and azimuth of a target. The range indicates the distance between the radar and the target, while the azimuth indicates the target's position in relation to the radar's reference point. By displaying both range and azimuth, the PPI can provide a comprehensive view of the target's location and movement in a two-dimensional plane.

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  • 9. 

    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT)

    • Prevents implosion if the CRT is broken

    • Keeps the phosphor coating from burning

    • Eliminates static charges on the deflection plates

    • Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules
    Explanation
    The vacuum in a cathode-ray tube (CRT) prevents collisions between electrons in the beam and air molecules. When the CRT is in operation, an electron beam is produced and accelerated towards the screen. If there was air or any other gas present inside the tube, the electrons would collide with the gas molecules, causing scattering and loss of energy. This would result in a distorted image on the screen. By creating a vacuum inside the CRT, the path of the electrons remains unobstructed, allowing them to travel in a straight line and accurately hit the phosphor coating on the screen, producing a clear and focused image.

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  • 10. 

    An X pulse is present in a selective identification feature code train when

    • A Mode 4 reply is being received

    • The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile

    • The aircraft is declaring a military emergency

    • It is requested by the radar operator to identify the aircraft position

    Correct Answer
    A. The aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile
    Explanation
    The presence of an X pulse in a selective identification feature code train indicates that the aircraft is a pilotless drone or missile. This is because the X pulse is specifically associated with pilotless drones or missiles, and is used as a means of identification in radar systems.

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  • 11. 

    How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead costs of data transmission?

    • Communicates in parallel format

    • Blocks many characters together for transmission

    • Eliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent

    • Uses low cost equipment to support synchronous transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocks many characters together for transmission
    Explanation
    Synchronous transmission reduces the overhead costs of data transmission by blocking many characters together for transmission. This means that multiple characters are sent as a single unit, reducing the number of start and stop bits needed for each character. By reducing the number of control bits required, more message data can be sent in a shorter amount of time, resulting in lower overhead costs.

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  • 12. 

    Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic cable?

    • The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables reduces security risks

    • Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable

    • Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables

    • Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable

    Correct Answer
    A. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables are not affected by electromagnetic fields. This is because they use light signals to transmit data, rather than electrical signals. Unlike copper-based cables, which can be affected by electromagnetic interference, fiber optic cables are immune to such interference. This makes them more reliable and less susceptible to disruptions in signal quality.

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  • 13. 

    Most fiber optic links use infrared light and consist of what frequency range?

    • 400 to 750 nm

    • 750 to 1500 nm

    • 400 to 750 mm

    • 750 to 1500 mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 750 to 1500 nm
    Explanation
    Fiber optic links use infrared light because it has a longer wavelength and can travel long distances without significant loss of signal. The frequency range of 750 to 1500 nm falls within the infrared spectrum, making it suitable for transmitting data through fiber optic cables. The other options, 400 to 750 nm and 400 to 750 mm, are not within the correct frequency range for fiber optic links.

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  • 14. 

    What occurs because of imperfections in an optical fiber’s basic structure?

    • Absorption

    • Scattering

    • Reflection

    • Dispersion

    Correct Answer
    A. Scattering
    Explanation
    Imperfections in an optical fiber's basic structure cause scattering. Scattering refers to the phenomenon where light rays traveling through the fiber get redirected in different directions due to these imperfections. This can result in the loss of signal strength and degradation of the transmitted data.

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  • 15. 

    What is the most useful way to classify fiber optic cable?

    • Fiber material and number of fibers

    • Buffer type and application method

    • Numerical aperture and cable elements

    • Refractive index profile and number of modes

    Correct Answer
    A. Refractive index profile and number of modes
    Explanation
    The most useful way to classify fiber optic cable is by considering its refractive index profile and the number of modes it supports. The refractive index profile determines how light propagates through the fiber, while the number of modes refers to the number of different paths that light can take within the fiber. These characteristics are crucial in determining the performance and capabilities of the fiber optic cable, making them the most relevant factors for classification.

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  • 16. 

    Which feature of the Fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

    • Circuit jacks

    • Rotary switch

    • Range pushbutton

    • Touch-hold pushbutton

    Correct Answer
    A. Rotary switch
    Explanation
    The rotary switch is used to select various measurement functions on the Fluke 8025A multimeter. This switch allows the user to easily switch between different modes, such as voltage, current, resistance, and continuity. By turning the rotary switch to the desired function, the user can quickly and accurately measure different electrical quantities.

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  • 17. 

    Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?

    • Microamps direct current (DC)

    • Microamps AC

    • Milliamps/amp DC

    • Milliamps/amp AC

    Correct Answer
    A. Milliamps/amp AC
    Explanation
    To measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC) on the Fluke 8025A, you would select the "Milliamps/amp AC" current range. This range is specifically designed to measure AC current in milliamps, making it the appropriate choice for this measurement.

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  • 18. 

    What is caused by low-insulation resistance between conductors?

    • High-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise

    • Fresnel reflection, dispersion, and scattering

    • High-impedance, capacitance, and rectification

    • Low-attenuation, electromagnetic immunity, and absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. High-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise
    Explanation
    Low-insulation resistance between conductors can cause high-attenuation, crosstalk, and noise. When the insulation resistance is low, it means that there is a leakage of current between the conductors. This leakage can lead to the attenuation of the signal, causing it to weaken or lose strength. Additionally, the leakage current can interfere with other nearby conductors, resulting in crosstalk, where signals from one conductor are unintentionally picked up by another. This can introduce unwanted noise into the system, further degrading the signal quality.

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  • 19. 

    When using the AN/PSM–2 megger, how do you apply the correct regulated output voltage?

    • Turn the hand-crank until an arc is present

    • Turn the hand-crank until the needle set has stopped moving

    • Turn the hand-crank and monitor the megger’s output with another meter

    • Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that when using the AN/PSM-2 megger, the correct way to apply the regulated output voltage is to turn the hand-crank at a rate to keep the indicator lights at a steady glow. This implies that the indicator lights on the megger are used as a reference to determine the correct voltage output. By keeping the lights at a steady glow, it ensures that the voltage is regulated and maintained at the desired level.

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  • 20. 

    How many probes are normally used for an earth ground tester?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    An earth ground tester typically uses 3 probes. These probes are used to measure the resistance between the ground and the earth electrode, ensuring that the grounding system is functioning properly. The use of 3 probes allows for a more accurate measurement, as it provides a better representation of the overall resistance of the system.

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  • 21. 

    What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?

    • 10 Hz to 10 kHz

    • 20 Hz to 20 kHz

    • 10 kHz to 10GHz

    • 20 kHz to 35 MHz

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
    Explanation
    The frequency range of an audio signal generator is typically between 20 Hz and 20 kHz. This range covers the audible frequencies that humans can hear, with 20 Hz being the lowest frequency and 20 kHz being the highest frequency. Audio signal generators are commonly used in audio testing and equipment calibration.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?

    • Verifying transmitter frequencies

    • Troubleshooting receivers

    • Checking antenna systems

    • Aligning galvanometers

    Correct Answer
    A. Aligning galvanometers
    Explanation
    Aligning galvanometers is not an application of a radio frequency generator. A radio frequency generator is used for tasks such as verifying transmitter frequencies, troubleshooting receivers, and checking antenna systems. However, aligning galvanometers is a separate task that involves adjusting and calibrating the position of galvanometers, which are devices used to measure small electrical currents. This task does not require the use of a radio frequency generator.

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  • 23. 

    If someone says, “we doubled our transmitter power;” how much is the gain in dB?

    • 3 dB

    • 6 dB

    • 9 dB

    • 12 dB

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 dB
    Explanation
    When someone says "we doubled our transmitter power," it means that the power has increased by a factor of 2. In terms of decibels (dB), a doubling of power corresponds to a gain of 3 dB. This is because the dB scale is logarithmic, and a gain of 3 dB represents a doubling of power. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 dB.

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  • 24. 

    The airport surveillance radar (ASR) is used in which air traffic control (ATC) radar mission?

    • Local control

    • Terminal control area

    • Air route traffic control

    • Precision approach radar control

    Correct Answer
    A. Terminal control area
    Explanation
    The airport surveillance radar (ASR) is used in the Terminal Control Area (TCA) air traffic control radar mission. The TCA is an airspace surrounding an airport where ATC provides control services for aircraft departing from, arriving at, or transiting through the area. The ASR helps ATC monitor and maintain separation between aircraft within the TCA, ensuring safe and efficient operations.

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  • 25. 

    In the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR), the data loop interface logic circuitry used in each of the subsystems is commonly called

    • One’s complement

    • Repeater logic

    • Closed-loop

    • Open-loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeater logic
    Explanation
    Repeater logic is the correct answer because in the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar, the data loop interface logic circuitry used in each subsystem is commonly referred to as repeater logic. This suggests that the circuitry is designed to repeat or replicate the data signals within the system, allowing for accurate and reliable transmission of information between subsystems.

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  • 26. 

    In the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR), the stabilized master oscillator (STAMO) multiplies the continuous wave (CW) transmitter drive signal to the

    • L-band

    • S-band

    • W-band

    • X-band

    Correct Answer
    A. X-band
    Explanation
    The correct answer is X-band. In the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR), the stabilized master oscillator (STAMO) multiplies the continuous wave (CW) transmitter drive signal to the X-band.

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  • 27. 

    The purpose of the traveling wave tube (TWT) radar modulator A6 in the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR) transmitter is to

    • Provide voltage amplification and trigger shaping to the TWT modulator trigger

    • Produce excitation voltage for the cathode of the TWT modulator trigger

    • Modulate the incoming video for conversion to intermediate frequency (IF)

    • Provide pulse shaping for stable master oscillator

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide voltage amplification and trigger shaping to the TWT modulator trigger
    Explanation
    The purpose of the traveling wave tube (TWT) radar modulator A6 in the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) transmitter is to provide voltage amplification and trigger shaping to the TWT modulator trigger. This means that the modulator A6 is responsible for increasing the voltage of the signal and shaping the trigger signal that activates the TWT modulator. This is important because the TWT modulator requires a specific voltage level and trigger signal to function properly. By providing voltage amplification and trigger shaping, the modulator A6 ensures that the TWT modulator trigger operates efficiently and accurately.

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  • 28. 

    In the scan mode, the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR) can direct the radio frequency (RF) beam to how many separate beam positions?

    • 443

    • 439

    • 423

    • 421

    Correct Answer
    A. 439
    Explanation
    The AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) in scan mode can direct the radio frequency (RF) beam to 439 separate beam positions.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is an off-line test performed on the antenna position control unit (APCU) in the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR)?

    • Mode control

    • Open loop

    • Closed loop

    • Rebound

    Correct Answer
    A. Rebound
    Explanation
    The rebound test is an offline test performed on the antenna position control unit (APCU) in the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR). This test is conducted to assess the APCU's ability to respond to abrupt changes in antenna position and to ensure that it can quickly recover and stabilize the antenna after such movements. By performing the rebound test, the functionality and performance of the APCU can be evaluated, ensuring that it is capable of accurately and efficiently controlling the antenna position during radar operations.

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  • 30. 

    The AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar’s (PAR) transmit/receive (T/R) section

    • Filters out unwanted frequencies

    • Provides amplification of the transmitted pulse

    • Produces the second intermediate frequency

    • Prevents receiver damage by the transmitter high-power pulse

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents receiver damage by the transmitter high-power pulse
    Explanation
    The AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar's (PAR) transmit/receive (T/R) section prevents receiver damage by the transmitter high-power pulse. This means that the T/R section is designed to protect the receiver from being damaged by the powerful pulse of energy that is transmitted by the radar. By preventing receiver damage, the T/R section ensures the radar can continue to function properly and accurately detect and track targets without any interruptions or malfunctions caused by the high-power pulse.

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  • 31. 

    Which AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR) dual-redundant receiver module performs the filtering, limiting, phase detection, analog-to-digital (A/D) conversion, decommutation, and integration of the azimuth and elevation signals?

    • IF down converter

    • Error detector

    • Frequency converter

    • MTI detector

    Correct Answer
    A. Error detector
    Explanation
    The error detector performs the filtering, limiting, phase detection, analog-to-digital (A/D) conversion, decommutation, and integration of the azimuth and elevation signals in the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR) dual-redundant receiver module.

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  • 32. 

    In the dual redundant receiver of the AN/GPN–22 precision approach radar (PAR), which of the following best describes the fault hierarchy for the automatic fault testing?

    • The last module on the chain is tested first

    • The testing is randomly selected by the TDC

    • Modules are prewired to a fixed testing sequence

    • Modules that affect the testing of others are tested first

    Correct Answer
    A. Modules that affect the testing of others are tested first
    Explanation
    In the dual redundant receiver of the AN/GPN-22 precision approach radar (PAR), the fault hierarchy for the automatic fault testing is such that modules that have an impact on the testing of other modules are tested first. This approach ensures that any faults or issues in these critical modules are identified early on, as they can potentially affect the overall performance and reliability of the system. By prioritizing the testing of these modules, any necessary repairs or replacements can be made promptly, minimizing downtime and maintaining the accuracy of the PAR system.

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  • 33. 

    What identifies and blanks returns from targets beyond the operating range of the radar?

    • Phase detector

    • Coherent canceller

    • Analog to digital converter

    • Second-time-around reduction circuits

    Correct Answer
    A. Second-time-around reduction circuits
    Explanation
    Second-time-around reduction circuits identify and blank returns from targets beyond the operating range of the radar. These circuits are designed to eliminate or reduce the detection of echoes that are caused by reflections from the ground or other objects that have already been detected in a previous radar pulse. By blanking these returns, the radar can focus on detecting new targets within its operating range and improve its overall accuracy and efficiency.

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  • 34. 

    In remoting signals, line attenuation is greatest at the

    • Higher frequencies

    • Intermediate and higher frequencies

    • Lower frequencies

    • Intermediate and lower frequencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher frequencies
    Explanation
    In remoting signals, line attenuation refers to the loss of signal strength as it travels through the transmission medium. Higher frequencies tend to experience greater attenuation compared to lower frequencies. This is because higher frequencies have shorter wavelengths and are more susceptible to interference and absorption by the transmission medium. Therefore, at higher frequencies, the signal strength weakens more significantly, resulting in greater line attenuation.

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  • 35. 

    The primary function of the refresh memory (RM) in the precision approach radar (PAR) indicator system is to

    • Clear the indicator when overloaded

    • Allow new data to be entered during operation

    • Allow the indicator to be reset during operation

    • Maintain a flicker-free presentation for the display

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain a flicker-free presentation for the display
    Explanation
    The refresh memory (RM) in the precision approach radar (PAR) indicator system is responsible for maintaining a flicker-free presentation for the display. This means that the RM continuously updates the display to prevent any flickering or flashing of the information being shown. By constantly refreshing the display, the RM ensures that the information is presented smoothly and without any distractions or disruptions. This is important for the PAR system as it allows for clear and accurate visualization of the radar data, enhancing the overall effectiveness and reliability of the system.

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  • 36. 

    The AN/UPM–145 output frequency can be adjusted between

    • 6.4 and 10.4 GHz

    • 7.4 and 10 GHz

    • 8.4 and 10 GHz

    • 8.4 and 9.4 GHz

    Correct Answer
    A. 8.4 and 10 GHz
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8.4 and 10 GHz. This is because the AN/UPM-145 output frequency can be adjusted within this range. It cannot be adjusted to any of the other frequency ranges mentioned in the options.

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  • 37. 

    The output voltage adjustment for the AN/GPN–20 airport surveillance radar (ASR) high voltage power supply is located

    • On the high-voltage power supply rectifier circuit card

    • On the high-voltage power supply regulator circuit card

    • Behind the transmitter front panel control assembly

    • On the transmitter front panel

    Correct Answer
    A. On the transmitter front panel
    Explanation
    The correct answer is on the transmitter front panel. This means that the adjustment for the output voltage of the AN/GPN-20 airport surveillance radar's high voltage power supply can be made directly on the front panel of the transmitter.

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  • 38. 

    A passive feedhorn is used to achieve greater control over

    • High-altitude “holes”

    • Received ground reflections

    • Low-altitude gaps and coverage

    • Clutter caused by severe weather

    Correct Answer
    A. Received ground reflections
    Explanation
    A passive feedhorn is used to achieve greater control over received ground reflections. When signals are transmitted from a satellite, they can bounce off the ground and create reflections that interfere with the original signal. By using a passive feedhorn, the receiver can better manage and control these ground reflections, allowing for clearer and more accurate reception of the desired signals.

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  • 39. 

    What should be the basis for adjusting the intermediate frequency (IF) gain in the AN/GPN–20 airport surveillance radar (ASR)?

    • Black hole video

    • Signal-to-noise ratio

    • Minimum video limiting

    • Barely visible “grass” on the indicator

    Correct Answer
    A. Signal-to-noise ratio
    Explanation
    The basis for adjusting the intermediate frequency (IF) gain in the AN/GPN-20 airport surveillance radar (ASR) should be the signal-to-noise ratio. This is because the signal-to-noise ratio determines the quality of the received signal. By adjusting the IF gain based on the signal-to-noise ratio, the radar can optimize the clarity and accuracy of the radar readings.

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  • 40. 

    The maximum amount of landline allowed between the AN/GPN–20 airport surveillance radar (ASR) and operations sites is

    • 1,000 feet

    • 1,200 feet

    • 10,000 feet

    • 12,000 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 12,000 feet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12,000 feet. This distance refers to the maximum amount of landline allowed between the AN/GPN-20 airport surveillance radar (ASR) and operations sites. It is important to have a sufficient distance between these two sites to ensure effective communication and coordination. A longer landline distance allows for better coverage and flexibility in the radar system's operations.

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  • 41. 

    What is the primary advantage of having two operator keyboards for each control indicator group?

    • Provides a backup keyboard in the event of master indicator keyboard failure

    • Enables the lead controller to override a trainee’s incorrect data entry during routine air traffic training

    • Enables the on-duty chief controller to invoke system inquiries without encroachment to the drop/suspend list priority

    • Enables one controller to “work” active traffic and the remaining controller to perform flight data entry/modification, handoffs, etc

    Correct Answer
    A. Enables one controller to “work” active traffic and the remaining controller to perform flight data entry/modification, handoffs, etc
    Explanation
    Having two operator keyboards for each control indicator group enables one controller to focus on actively managing traffic while the other controller can handle tasks such as flight data entry, modification, and handoffs. This division of responsibilities allows for more efficient and streamlined operations, ensuring that both critical tasks are being performed simultaneously without one controller being overwhelmed or distracted. This advantage helps to optimize air traffic control operations and maintain a smooth flow of traffic.

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  • 42. 

    To maintain synchronization with air route traffic control center (ARTCC) equipment, an interfacility communications adapter (ICA) at idle

    • Continually retransmits previous data

    • Severs connection and redial as required

    • Transmits a pattern of ones and zeroes continually until the start of data

    • Transmits odd-parity search strings every 3.2 seconds to maintain the handshake

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmits a pattern of ones and zeroes continually until the start of data
    Explanation
    The ICA transmits a pattern of ones and zeroes continually until the start of data in order to maintain synchronization with the ARTCC equipment. This continuous transmission helps to ensure that the communication between the ICA and the ARTCC remains stable and synchronized, allowing for efficient and accurate data transfer.

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  • 43. 

    When the system computer is disengaged, the OD–153 airport surveillance radar (ASR) indicator operates as

    • A conventional plan-position indicator (PPI)

    • An A-scan indicator

    • A B-scan indicator

    • A J-scan indicator

    Correct Answer
    A. A conventional plan-position indicator (PPI)
    Explanation
    When the system computer is disengaged, the OD-153 airport surveillance radar (ASR) indicator operates as a conventional plan-position indicator (PPI). This means that the radar display shows the position of aircraft and other objects in relation to a fixed point on the radar screen. The PPI display provides a two-dimensional view of the radar coverage area, with the radar antenna at the center of the screen. This allows the operator to easily identify the location of targets and track their movement.

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  • 44. 

    The type of remote control unit (RCU) used with the digital bright radar indicator tower equipment’s (DBRITE) is determined by the

    • Number of displays in use

    • Physical location of the system

    • Number of RCUs required for facility operation

    • Type of automation system connected to the digital scan converter (DSC) cabinet

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of automation system connected to the digital scan converter (DSC) cabinet
    Explanation
    The type of remote control unit (RCU) used with the digital bright radar indicator tower equipment (DBRITE) is determined by the type of automation system connected to the digital scan converter (DSC) cabinet. This means that the RCU used will depend on the automation system that is connected to the DSC cabinet. The RCU needs to be compatible with the automation system in order to effectively control and operate the DBRITE equipment. The number of displays in use, physical location of the system, and number of RCUs required for facility operation do not determine the type of RCU used.

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  • 45. 

    In the AN/GPN–30 DASR, what is the purpose of the two processing channels in each receiver/excitor /signal data processor (REX/SDP)?

    • Separate slow and fast moving targets

    • Prevent overload during heavy air traffic

    • Process target and weather returns separately

    • Provide redundancy in event one channel fails

    Correct Answer
    A. Process target and weather returns separately
    Explanation
    The purpose of the two processing channels in each receiver/excitor/signal data processor (REX/SDP) is to process target and weather returns separately. This allows for a more efficient and accurate analysis of the radar data by separating the information related to targets from the information related to weather conditions. By processing these returns separately, the system can provide more precise and reliable target tracking and identification, as well as accurate weather information.

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  • 46. 

    In the AN/GPN–30 digital airport surveillance radar (DASR), what prevents you, the technician from having to reload software in the event of a power failure for up to 20 minutes?

    • Radar interference suppressor (RIS)

    • Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)

    • Facility monitoring and control (FMAC)

    • Upconverter

    Correct Answer
    A. Uninterruptable power supply (UPS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Uninterruptable power supply (UPS). A UPS is a device that provides backup power to a system in the event of a power failure. It is designed to supply power for a short period of time, typically up to 20 minutes, allowing the technician to safely shut down the system or switch to an alternative power source without losing any data or having to reload software. By using a UPS, the technician can ensure that the AN/GPN-30 digital airport surveillance radar remains operational and does not require software reloading during a power failure.

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  • 47. 

    When speaking of the monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR), the Sum, Difference, and control patterns are created by the

    • Large vertical aperture (LVA) antenna

    • Plot processor

    • Target tracker

    • Transmitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Large vertical aperture (LVA) antenna
    Explanation
    The Sum, Difference, and control patterns in the monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) are created by the Large Vertical Aperture (LVA) antenna. The LVA antenna is responsible for transmitting and receiving signals from aircraft, and it uses its large vertical aperture to generate the Sum and Difference patterns. These patterns are used to accurately determine the location and identification of aircraft. The LVA antenna plays a crucial role in the functioning of the MSSR system.

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  • 48. 

    Upon detection of an interrogator fault in the operating channel, which monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) unit switches to the standby interrogator channel?

    • Processor

    • Remote site monitor

    • Control and monitor system

    • RF changeover unit (RFCO)

    Correct Answer
    A. RF changeover unit (RFCO)
    Explanation
    When an interrogator fault is detected in the operating channel of a monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) unit, the RF changeover unit (RFCO) switches to the standby interrogator channel. The RFCO is responsible for managing the transition between the operating and standby channels, ensuring uninterrupted surveillance capability in case of faults or failures. It facilitates the seamless switch to the standby channel, allowing the MSSR unit to continue functioning without interruption and maintaining communication with aircraft transponders.

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  • 49. 

    The airborne unit that responds to monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) interrogation pulses is the

    • Transponder

    • Transmitter

    • Receiver

    • Tracker

    Correct Answer
    A. Transponder
    Explanation
    The correct answer is transponder. A transponder is a device that receives interrogation pulses from monopulse secondary surveillance radar (MSSR) and responds by transmitting a unique code back to the radar system. This allows the radar to identify and track the aircraft. The transponder plays a crucial role in air traffic control and helps ensure the safety and efficiency of air travel.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 15, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 15, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 17, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Matthoef

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