Ure 2f051: A Pretest Quiz On U.S. Airforce!

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Ure 2f051: A Pretest Quiz On U.S. Airforce! - Quiz

URE 2F051: A Pretest Quiz on U. S. Airforce!
Founded in 1907 and serving as one of the five branches of the United States Armed Forces, the U. S. Air Force is responsible for all matters concerning aerial warfare. In the following quiz, we’re going to find out what you know about the U. S. Airforce, its brief but intriguing history, and also some of the requirements needed to make it onto the team! What can you tell us?


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A technical order that lists all of the technical orders applicable to a specific militaty system is called a

    • A.

      Technical order index

    • B.

      Technical order catalog

    • C.

      List of applicable publications (LOAP)

    • D.

      Numerical index and requirements tables (NI&RT)

    Correct Answer
    C. List of applicable publications (LOAP)
    Explanation
    A list of applicable publications (LOAP) is a technical order that provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and applicable to a specific military system. It serves as a reference guide for personnel involved in the maintenance, operation, and support of the military system, ensuring that they have access to the necessary technical information and instructions. The LOAP helps streamline the process of finding and accessing the relevant technical orders, making it easier for personnel to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 2. 

    Specialized publications that cover installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibration, servicing, or handling of AF military systems are

    • A.

      Index technical orders

    • B.

      Time compliance technical orders (TCTO)

    • C.

      Operations and maintenance technical orders

    • D.

      Methods and procedures technical orders (MPTO)

    Correct Answer
    C. Operations and maintenance technical orders
    Explanation
    Operations and maintenance technical orders are specialized publications that cover various aspects of AF military systems. These orders provide instructions and guidelines for the installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibration, servicing, and handling of these systems. They are specifically designed to assist personnel in effectively managing and maintaining the equipment. Therefore, operations and maintenance technical orders are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 3. 

    Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

    • A.

      Safety

    • B.

      Abbreviated

    • C.

      Time compliance

    • D.

      Methods and procedures

    Correct Answer
    C. Time compliance
    Explanation
    Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders are specifically designed to address time-sensitive issues that pose a significant risk to personnel or equipment. TCTOs ensure that necessary corrective actions are taken promptly to mitigate potential hazards and ensure the safety of individuals involved.

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  • 4. 

    A technical order file authorized in a fuels flight that contains only those technical orders required to accomplish maintenance and other responsibilities of the fuels flight is called

    • A.

      A work copy file

    • B.

      An unlimited file

    • C.

      An operational file

    • D.

      A functional master file

    Correct Answer
    C. An operational file
    Explanation
    An operational file is a technical order file that is authorized in a fuels flight and contains only the necessary technical orders to carry out maintenance and other responsibilities of the fuels flight. This file is specifically designed to support the operational activities of the fuels flight and ensure that the necessary instructions and procedures are readily available. It helps streamline the maintenance and operational processes by providing easy access to the required technical orders.

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  • 5. 

    The technical order that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is

    • A.

      TO 00-2-1

    • B.

      TO 00-5-1

    • C.

      TO 00-5-2

    • D.

      TO 00-1-01

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00-5-1
    Explanation
    TO 00-5-1 is the correct answer because it is the technical order that specifically addresses the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs. The other options are not relevant to this topic.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the two forms used to report TO deficiencies would you most likely use?

    • A.

      AF Form 457

    • B.

      AF Form 847

    • C.

      AF Form 22

    • D.

      AF Form 422

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 22
    Explanation
    The most likely form to be used to report TO deficiencies is AF Form 22.

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  • 7. 

    Technical order emergency recommendation reports require the responsible technical content manager to take action within how many hours?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    D. 48
    Explanation
    Technical order emergency recommendation reports require the responsible technical content manager to take action within 48 hours. This means that when an emergency recommendation report is received, the manager must review the report and take appropriate action within two days. This ensures that urgent technical issues are addressed promptly and efficiently, minimizing any potential negative impacts on operations or safety.

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  • 8. 

    Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

    • A.

      Urgent

    • B.

      Routine

    • C.

      Emergency

    • D.

      Critical hazard

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    The technical order (TO) improvement recommendation labeled as "Urgent" suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition. This implies that the recommendation needs to be implemented as soon as possible to address the potential danger or risk associated with the condition.

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  • 9. 

    The technical content manager must take action within 40 days on what type of recommendations?

    • A.

      Urgent

    • B.

      Routine

    • C.

      Emergency

    • D.

      Critical hazard

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent
    Explanation
    The technical content manager must take action within 40 days on urgent recommendations. This suggests that there are certain recommendations that require immediate attention and cannot be delayed. These recommendations may involve addressing critical issues or potential risks that need to be resolved promptly. The time frame of 40 days emphasizes the importance of timely action in order to prevent any further complications or hazards.

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  • 10. 

    Specialized publications include

    • A.

      Journals

    • B.

      Staff digests

    • C.

      Technical orders

    • D.

      Narrative summaries

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical orders
    Explanation
    Specialized publications refer to specific documents that provide detailed instructions or information on a particular subject. In this context, technical orders are a type of specialized publication that contains precise instructions, procedures, and guidelines for performing specific tasks or operations. These orders are typically used in technical fields, such as engineering or aviation, to ensure accuracy and consistency in the execution of complex procedures. Therefore, technical orders are a suitable answer as they fall under the category of specialized publications mentioned in the question.

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  • 11. 

    An example of a directive standard publication is a

    • A.

      Bulletin

    • B.

      Pamphlet

    • C.

      Supplement

    • D.

      Staff digest

    Correct Answer
    C. Supplement
    Explanation
    A supplement is an additional publication that is added to a directive standard. It provides extra information or updates to the original publication. It is usually used to address specific topics or issues that may arise after the initial publication. Therefore, a supplement is an example of a directive standard publication as it enhances or expands upon the original document.

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  • 12. 

    Publications that set up standards of management and control the official business of the Air Force is called

    • A.

      Manuals

    • B.

      Pamphlets

    • C.

      Instructions

    • D.

      Operating instructions

    Correct Answer
    C. Instructions
    Explanation
    Instructions are publications that set up standards of management and control the official business of the Air Force. These documents provide guidance and direction on how to carry out specific tasks and procedures within the organization. They outline the steps to be followed, the rules to be adhered to, and the protocols to be observed. Instructions help ensure consistency, efficiency, and compliance with established policies and regulations. They serve as a reference for personnel to understand and execute their duties effectively.

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  • 13. 

    What type of publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder?

    • A.

      Alphabetical indexes

    • B.

      Standard publications

    • C.

      Abbreviated technical orders

    • D.

      Time compliance technical orders

    Correct Answer
    B. Standard publications
    Explanation
    Standard publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder. This is because three-ring binders provide a convenient and organized way to store and access documents. Standard publications, such as manuals, guides, and handbooks, are commonly used in various industries and are often referenced for information and procedures. Storing them in a three-ring binder allows for easy flipping through pages, adding or removing documents, and keeping them protected and in order.

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  • 14. 

    Where in the file cabinet will the lowest numbered standard publication in a file be found?

    • A.

      Upper left corner

    • B.

      Lower left corner

    • C.

      Upper right corner

    • D.

      Lower right corner

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper left corner
    Explanation
    The lowest numbered standard publication in a file will be found in the upper left corner of the file cabinet. This is because files are typically organized in ascending order, with the lowest numbers being placed at the beginning or top left of the filing system.

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  • 15. 

    When using the Air Force Technical Order Catalog, you would locate a technical order when only the technical order series is known by typing the

    • A.

      Series in the "TO Date" block

    • B.

      Title in the "Stock Number" block

    • C.

      Series number in the "TO number" block

    • D.

      Title in the "Word Search on Title" block

    Correct Answer
    C. Series number in the "TO number" block
    Explanation
    When using the Air Force Technical Order Catalog, you would locate a technical order when only the technical order series is known by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This means that if you only know the series of the technical order, you can enter that number in the "TO number" block to find the specific technical order you are looking for.

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  • 16. 

    What characteristic refers to the ease that a liquid will change into a vapor state?

    • A.

      Volatility

    • B.

      Viscosity

    • C.

      Boiling point

    • D.

      Vapor pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Volatility
    Explanation
    Volatility refers to the ease with which a liquid will change into a vapor state. It is a measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate. A liquid with high volatility evaporates easily and quickly, while a liquid with low volatility evaporates slowly. The term is commonly used in chemistry to describe the evaporation rate of a substance and is often associated with the volatility of solvents or fuels.

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  • 17. 

    What term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize?

    • A.

      Volatility

    • B.

      Flash point

    • C.

      Fire point

    • D.

      Boiling point

    Correct Answer
    D. Boiling point
    Explanation
    The term "boiling point" is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize. When the temperature of a liquid reaches its boiling point, the vapor pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure, causing the liquid to rapidly convert into a gas. This is different from the other options provided: volatility refers to the tendency of a substance to vaporize, flash point is the lowest temperature at which a substance can ignite in the presence of an ignition source, and fire point is the temperature at which a substance can sustain combustion.

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  • 18. 

    Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than

    • A.

      100F

    • B.

      120F

    • C.

      140F

    • D.

      150F

    Correct Answer
    A. 100F
    Explanation
    Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than 100F because the flashpoint is the minimum temperature at which a liquid can emit enough vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air. Therefore, if a liquid has a flashpoint higher than 100F, it means that it requires a higher temperature to reach the point where it can ignite.

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  • 19. 

    Which fuel has the highest vapor pressure?

    • A.

      Automotive gasoline

    • B.

      JP-4 jet fuel

    • C.

      JP-5 jet fuel

    • D.

      JP-8 jet fuel

    Correct Answer
    A. Automotive gasoline
    Explanation
    Automotive gasoline has the highest vapor pressure among the given options. Vapor pressure refers to the pressure exerted by a vapor in equilibrium with its liquid form at a certain temperature. Higher vapor pressure indicates that a substance is more volatile and tends to evaporate more easily. In the case of automotive gasoline, its high vapor pressure allows for efficient combustion in engines, as it readily vaporizes and mixes with air for ignition. On the other hand, jet fuels like JP-4, JP-5, and JP-8 have lower vapor pressures to ensure safe storage and handling at high altitudes and in aircraft fuel tanks.

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  • 20. 

    The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid will give off sufficient vapors when mixed with air to support combustion is known as a product's

    • A.

      Fire point

    • B.

      Flash point

    • C.

      Lower flammable limit

    • D.

      Autoignition temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire point
    Explanation
    The fire point is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid will release enough vapors to sustain combustion when mixed with air. It is higher than the flash point, which is the temperature at which the liquid gives off enough vapors to ignite momentarily. The lower flammable limit refers to the minimum concentration of vapor in the air that is required for combustion, while the autoignition temperature is the minimum temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite without an external ignition source.

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  • 21. 

    What is the freeze point for JP-8?

    • A.

      -51C

    • B.

      -58C

    • C.

      -51F

    • D.

      -58F

    Correct Answer
    D. -58F
    Explanation
    The freeze point for JP-8 is -58F. This means that at temperatures below -58F, JP-8 will solidify and become a solid. It is important to know the freeze point of JP-8 as it is commonly used as a fuel for aircraft and vehicles in cold weather conditions. If the temperature drops below -58F, precautions must be taken to prevent the fuel from freezing and causing operational issues.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is the definition of density?

    • A.

      Weight per unit volume

    • B.

      Weight per unit gallon

    • C.

      Ratio of product at 60F to an equal amount of water

    • D.

      Ratio of water at 60F to an equal amount of product

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight per unit volume
    Explanation
    Density is defined as the weight of a substance per unit volume. It represents how tightly packed the molecules are in a given volume. The correct answer, "weight per unit volume," accurately describes this concept. It means that the density of a substance is determined by dividing its weight by its volume. This measurement is commonly used in various scientific fields to compare the mass of different substances in a standardized way.

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  • 23. 

    What manner of fuel poisoning is the most common way for fuel to enter the body?

    • A.

      Ingestion

    • B.

      Rejection

    • C.

      Inhalation

    • D.

      Absorption

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhalation
    Explanation
    Inhalation is the most common way for fuel to enter the body. When fuel is inhaled, it enters the respiratory system and can be absorbed into the bloodstream. This can lead to fuel poisoning, which can cause various symptoms and health issues. Ingestion refers to consuming fuel orally, rejection refers to the body's rejection of fuel, and absorption refers to fuel entering the body through the skin. However, inhalation is the most common and direct route for fuel to enter the body.

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  • 24. 

    At atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to how many feet of gaseous oxygen?

    • A.

      500

    • B.

      760

    • C.

      800

    • D.

      860

    Correct Answer
    D. 860
    Explanation
    At atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to 860 feet of gaseous oxygen. This expansion occurs because liquid oxygen is stored at extremely low temperatures, and when it is exposed to atmospheric pressure, it rapidly vaporizes and expands. This expansion ratio is important to consider when handling and storing liquid oxygen, as it can result in a significant increase in volume.

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  • 25. 

    Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

    • A.

      Reduces the concentration of oxygen

    • B.

      Will freeze or badly damage human tissue upon contact

    • C.

      Will burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, etc

    • D.

      Builds up to tremendous pressure if allowed to evaporate in a confined area

    Correct Answer
    C. Will burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, etc
    Explanation
    Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, etc. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or damage to human tissue upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, which can be hazardous. Additionally, if allowed to evaporate in a confined area, it can build up tremendous pressure. However, it does not have the property of burning or exploding when it comes into contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, or similar substances.

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  • 26. 

    Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

    • A.

      Solving accidents

    • B.

      Discovering accidents

    • C.

      Reporting accidents

    • D.

      Validating accidents

    Correct Answer
    C. Reporting accidents
    Explanation
    Investigating and solving accidents requires a significant amount of time and resources. This process involves gathering evidence, conducting interviews, analyzing data, and determining the causes and contributing factors of the accidents. Once the investigation is complete, the findings need to be reported to the relevant authorities and stakeholders. This reporting is crucial for ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to prevent similar accidents in the future. It helps in identifying trends, implementing safety measures, and improving overall safety standards. Therefore, reporting accidents is an essential step in the accident investigation and prevention process.

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  • 27. 

    What directive requires that an effective Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program be established within the fuels flight?

    • A.

      AFM 50-23

    • B.

      AFM 88-15

    • C.

      AFI 127-12

    • D.

      AFI 91-301

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 91-301
    Explanation
    AFI 91-301 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) programs. This directive outlines the requirements and procedures for establishing an effective OSH program within the Air Force, including the fuels flight. It provides guidance on risk management, hazard communication, training, and other aspects of OSH to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel.

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  • 28. 

    Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, how often must the fuels safety monitor brief all personnel on safety matters?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    D. Semiannually
    Explanation
    Under the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program, the fuels safety monitor is required to brief all personnel on safety matters semiannually. This means that the briefing should take place twice a year. It is important for the fuels safety monitor to provide regular updates and reminders about safety procedures and protocols to ensure that all personnel are informed and aware of how to maintain a safe working environment when dealing with fuels. Regular briefings help to reinforce safety practices and prevent accidents or incidents from occurring.

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  • 29. 

    Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

    • A.

      Falls

    • B.

      Using hand tools

    • C.

      Handling heavy equipment

    • D.

      Striking against material or equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers. This is because office workers often have to navigate through staircases, ramps, or slippery surfaces, which increases the risk of tripping or slipping. Additionally, office workers may also fall from chairs, ladders, or other elevated surfaces while performing tasks. Falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head injuries, which can lead to long-term disability. Therefore, it is crucial for office workers to take precautions and maintain a safe working environment to prevent falls and minimize the risk of disabling injuries.

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  • 30. 

    For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have

    • A.

      Explosion-proof plugs

    • B.

      Grounded plugs

    • C.

      Single insulation

    • D.

      Double insulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Grounded plugs
    Explanation
    Grounded plugs are necessary for safety measures in Air Force electrical equipment because they provide a direct path for electrical current to flow into the ground in the event of a fault or electrical surge. This grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks, fires, and damage to the equipment. By connecting the equipment to the ground, any excess electrical charge is safely dissipated, reducing the risk of electrical accidents. Therefore, grounded plugs are essential to ensure the safety and reliability of Air Force electrical equipment.

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  • 31. 

    What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together by means of a conductor?

    • A.

      Bonding

    • B.

      Grounding

    • C.

      Equalizing

    • D.

      Strapping

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding
    Explanation
    Bonding is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together by means of a conductor. This is done to ensure that there is a continuous electrical path between the objects, which helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity or the occurrence of electrical shocks. By bonding the objects, any potential difference between them is equalized, reducing the risk of electrical hazards.

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  • 32. 

    How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before using a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30 because it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time after filling the tank before using a tape and bob to measure the fuel level. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize, ensuring an accurate measurement. Waiting for 30 minutes is a reasonable amount of time for the fuel to settle and is therefore the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    What actions must be taken when driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night?

    • A.

      Move out of the taxi path, slow down, and turn off the headlights and clearance lights.

    • B.

      Move out of the taxi path, stop the vehicle, and leave the headlights and clearance lights on.

    • C.

      Move out of the taxi path, slow down, leave the headlights on, and turn the clearance lights off.

    • D.

      Move out of the taxi path, stop the vehicle, turn the headlights off, and leave the clearance light on.

    Correct Answer
    D. Move out of the taxi path, stop the vehicle, turn the headlights off, and leave the clearance light on.
    Explanation
    When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to prioritize safety and avoid any potential hazards. The correct answer suggests that the driver should move out of the taxi path to ensure a clear path for the aircraft, stop the vehicle to avoid any sudden movements, turn the headlights off to prevent blinding the pilot or distracting other drivers, and leave the clearance light on to remain visible to others. This combination of actions ensures that the driver is considerate of the aircraft's movements and maintains safety during the fuel servicing process.

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  • 34. 

    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?

    • A.

      100

    • B.

      150

    • C.

      200

    • D.

      300

    Correct Answer
    D. 300
    Explanation
    Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar emits electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause safety hazards. By maintaining a distance of 300 feet, the risk of interference and accidents can be minimized, ensuring the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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  • 35. 

    A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction should classify in what spill category?

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I
    Explanation
    A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction would classify as a Class I spill. Class I spills are considered minor spills and pose a low risk to the environment and human health. They are typically small in scale and can be easily contained and cleaned up without causing significant damage or requiring extensive remediation efforts.

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  • 36. 

    Which fuel spill classification should be given to a spill involving an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?

    • A.

      Class I

    • B.

      Class II

    • C.

      Class III

    • D.

      Class IV

    Correct Answer
    B. Class II
    Explanation
    A spill involving an area not more than 10 feet in any direction would be classified as Class II. Class II fuel spills are considered minor spills that can be contained and cleaned up relatively easily. They typically do not pose a significant risk to the environment or human health.

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  • 37. 

    Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of

    • A.

      40 to 90 decibels

    • B.

      80 to 100 decibels

    • C.

      90 to 110 decibels

    • D.

      110 to 130 decibels

    Correct Answer
    D. 110 to 130 decibels
    Explanation
    Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of 110 to 130 decibels. This is because aircraft engines are extremely loud, especially during takeoff and landing. The noise produced by the engines can reach levels that are harmful to human hearing. The high noise levels are a result of the powerful engines and the high speeds at which aircraft operate. Additionally, the noise can be further amplified by factors such as the size and design of the aircraft, as well as the proximity of the observer to the aircraft.

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  • 38. 

    What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      25

    • D.

      50

    Correct Answer
    C. 25
    Explanation
    The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential hazards or accidents that could be caused by the powerful air intake of a jet engine. Being too close to the jet intakes can pose a risk of being sucked in or injured by the strong airflow generated by the engines. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a safe distance of 25 feet to avoid any potential dangers.

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  • 39. 

    In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits?

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      100

    • D.

      200

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, signs will be posted 50 feet away from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits.

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  • 40. 

    How often should fillstand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly
    Explanation
    Fillstand emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. Regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Monthly testing allows for prompt identification and resolution of any issues or malfunctions, minimizing the risk of accidents or damage to the system.

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  • 41. 

    What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

    • A.

      561 gallons

    • B.

      661 gallons

    • C.

      561 barrels

    • D.

      661 barrels

    Correct Answer
    B. 661 gallons
    Explanation
    The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any tank with a capacity of 661 gallons or more would need to have a dike area. The dike area is necessary to contain any potential spills or leaks from the tank, preventing them from spreading and causing environmental damage.

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  • 42. 

    Prior to performing off loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    Danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks before performing offloading operations in an unsecure area. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible to approaching vehicles from both directions, providing them with adequate warning of the potential hazards associated with the offloading process. Placing the signs at this distance helps to enhance safety and prevent accidents or incidents that may occur due to unawareness or negligence.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following statements regarding cryogenic production is true?

    • A.

      Cryogenic production should cease when electrical storms are within 1 nautical mile.

    • B.

      Cryogenic production must be stopped when electrical storms are within 3 nautical miles.

    • C.

      Cryogenic production will be discontinued when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles.

    • D.

      Cryogenic production may continue during electrical storms.

    Correct Answer
    D. Cryogenic production may continue during electrical storms.
  • 44. 

    What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

    • A.

      30 minutes

    • B.

      60 minutes

    • C.

      90 minutes

    • D.

      120 minutes

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 minutes
    Explanation
    The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 60 minutes. This means that these walls are designed to resist fire for at least 60 minutes, providing a barrier to prevent the spread of fire and smoke between the laboratory and other areas of the building. This is an important safety measure to protect occupants and limit the potential damage caused by fire.

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  • 45. 

    Self-closing metal containers used for disposal of combustible waste in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted

    • A.

      Red with yellow letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE

    • B.

      Yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE

    • C.

      Yellow with red band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside of red band

    • D.

      Red with yellow band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside of yellow band

    Correct Answer
    B. Yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE
    Explanation
    Self-closing metal containers used for disposal of combustible waste in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE. This color combination and lettering help to clearly indicate the nature of the waste and ensure proper handling and disposal. The yellow color is often associated with caution or warning, while the red letters provide clear visibility and contrast against the yellow background. This labeling system helps to prevent accidents and promote safety in the laboratory environment.

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  • 46. 

    How many feet from the fuels laboratory must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    C. 50
    Explanation
    A 55-gallon waste drum must be positioned 50 feet away from the fuels laboratory.

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  • 47. 

    What minimum of time must pass to allow for static charges to dissipate before disassembling an in-line sampler?

    • A.

      4 minutes

    • B.

      3 minutes

    • C.

      2 minutes

    • D.

      1 minute

    Correct Answer
    D. 1 minute
    Explanation
    Static charges can accumulate on the surface of an in-line sampler due to friction or contact with other objects. These charges can pose a safety risk if not properly discharged before disassembling the sampler. The minimum time required for static charges to dissipate depends on various factors such as the humidity and conductivity of the environment. However, in general, a minimum of 1 minute is considered sufficient for static charges to dissipate and ensure safe disassembly of the in-line sampler.

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  • 48. 

    Where should fuel-soaked rags be placed after use?

    • A.

      Solid waste disposal pits

    • B.

      Containers filled with water

    • C.

      Self-closing metal containers

    • D.

      Hazardous waste storage area

    Correct Answer
    C. Self-closing metal containers
    Explanation
    Fuel-soaked rags should be placed in self-closing metal containers after use. This is because self-closing metal containers provide a safe and secure way to store and dispose of flammable materials like fuel-soaked rags. These containers are designed to prevent the escape of vapors and minimize the risk of fire or explosion. Placing the rags in solid waste disposal pits, containers filled with water, or hazardous waste storage areas may not provide the same level of safety and could potentially lead to accidents or environmental hazards.

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  • 49. 

    What should be done first when fighting an electrical fire?

    • A.

      Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.

    • B.

      Contact the base interior electric shop.

    • C.

      Locate a water-type fire extinguisher.

    • D.

      Disable the circuit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Disable the circuit.
    Explanation
    When fighting an electrical fire, the first step should be to disable the circuit. This is important because it will cut off the source of electricity, which is crucial in preventing the fire from spreading and causing further damage. By disabling the circuit, the risk of electrocution is also minimized, making it safer to approach and extinguish the fire. Once the circuit is disabled, other actions such as using a fire extinguisher or contacting the base interior electric shop can be taken to fully address the situation.

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  • 50. 

    Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire?

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on Class A fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, and fabric. Water, being a cooling agent, helps to lower the temperature of the fire and suppresses the flames. It also helps to soak the fuel, preventing re-ignition. Therefore, water pressure fire extinguishers are suitable for tackling Class A fires.

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