Ure 2f051: A Pretest Quiz On U.S. Airforce!

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1. What is the capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?

Explanation

The capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank is 6,000 gallons.

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About This Quiz
Ure 2f051: A Pretest Quiz On U.S. Airforce! - Quiz

URE 2F051: A Pretest Quiz on U. S. Airforce!
Founded in 1907 and serving as one of the five branches of the United States Armed Forces, the U. S.... see moreAir Force is responsible for all matters concerning aerial warfare. In the following quiz, we’re going to find out what you know about the U. S. Airforce, its brief but intriguing history, and also some of the requirements needed to make it onto the team! What can you tell us?
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2. Which of the following is NOT a position on the Oshkosh R-11 pumping mode selector valve?

Explanation

The Oshkosh R-11 pumping mode selector valve has four positions: Defuel, Low-flow, High-flow, and Single point. Therefore, the correct answer is "Single point" because it is one of the positions on the valve.

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3. (620) Who must perform a walkaround inspection before each use of a vehicle?

Explanation

The operator must perform a walkaround inspection before each use of a vehicle. This is important to ensure that the vehicle is in proper working condition and safe to use. The operator is responsible for checking various components of the vehicle such as tires, lights, brakes, and fluid levels to identify any potential issues or defects. By conducting a walkaround inspection, the operator can prevent accidents and ensure the vehicle's reliability.

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4. What method is used to extract data from BSM-E databases?

Explanation

The method used to extract data from BSM-E databases is through queries. Queries are used to retrieve specific information from a database by specifying the criteria and conditions. They allow users to extract the desired data by requesting it from the database management system.

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5. What type of cylinder is used to perform the API gravity test?

Explanation

A graduated cylinder is used to perform the API gravity test. A graduated cylinder is a cylindrical container with markings or graduations on its side, allowing for precise measurement of liquid volume. In the API gravity test, the density or specific gravity of petroleum products is measured, and a graduated cylinder is the most suitable tool for accurately measuring the volume of the liquid being tested.

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6. Equipment on QC hold will not be used for servicing

Explanation

The correct answer is "until laboratory personnel have completed required samples with satisfactory results". This means that equipment on QC hold will not be used for servicing until the laboratory personnel have finished testing the required samples and the results are deemed satisfactory. This ensures that the equipment is safe and meets the necessary standards before it is used for servicing.

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7. Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers?

Explanation

Falls are the principle cause of disabling injuries to office workers. This is because office workers often have to navigate through staircases, ramps, or slippery surfaces, which increases the risk of tripping or slipping. Additionally, office workers may also fall from chairs, ladders, or other elevated surfaces while performing tasks. Falls can result in serious injuries such as fractures, sprains, or head injuries, which can lead to long-term disability. Therefore, it is crucial for office workers to take precautions and maintain a safe working environment to prevent falls and minimize the risk of disabling injuries.

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8. What should be done first when fighting an electrical fire?

Explanation

When fighting an electrical fire, the first step should be to disable the circuit. This is important because it will cut off the source of electricity, which is crucial in preventing the fire from spreading and causing further damage. By disabling the circuit, the risk of electrocution is also minimized, making it safer to approach and extinguish the fire. Once the circuit is disabled, other actions such as using a fire extinguisher or contacting the base interior electric shop can be taken to fully address the situation.

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9. Which of the following types of measurement may be used to express pressure?

Explanation

Pounds per square inch (psi) is a unit of measurement commonly used to express pressure. Pressure is defined as the force exerted on a surface per unit area, and psi represents the amount of force in pounds applied to one square inch of area. Kilograms, pounds, and tons are units of mass or weight, not pressure. Therefore, pounds per square inch is the appropriate measurement to express pressure.

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10. A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicates

Explanation

A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a LOX/LIN transfer hose indicates that the inner hose is damaged. When the inner hose is damaged, it can cause a leakage of the liquid oxygen or liquid nitrogen, which then freezes on the outer hose. This freeze spot is a visible sign that there is a problem with the inner hose and it needs to be repaired or replaced.

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11. Which fuels can be used to operate the engine on the R-14C Fuel servicing module? (801)

Explanation

The engine on the R-14C Fuel servicing module can be operated using jet fuel and diesel fuel.

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12. What actions must be taken when driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night?

Explanation

When driving a fuel servicing vehicle while approaching a taxiing aircraft at night, it is important to prioritize safety and avoid any potential hazards. The correct answer suggests that the driver should move out of the taxi path to ensure a clear path for the aircraft, stop the vehicle to avoid any sudden movements, turn the headlights off to prevent blinding the pilot or distracting other drivers, and leave the clearance light on to remain visible to others. This combination of actions ensures that the driver is considerate of the aircraft's movements and maintains safety during the fuel servicing process.

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13. As a pollution control precaution, dike drains

Explanation

Dike drains must be locked in the closed position when the dikes are not being drained as a pollution control precaution. This is because if the drains are left open, the dikes will not be able to contain any potential spills or leaks, leading to environmental pollution. By locking the drains closed when not in use, any liquids that accumulate in the dikes can be properly managed and disposed of, preventing contamination of surrounding areas.

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14. What is the lifting force of liquid called?

Explanation

Buoyancy is the correct answer because it refers to the upward force exerted on an object immersed in a fluid, such as a liquid. This lifting force is caused by the difference in pressure between the top and bottom of the object, with the pressure being higher at the bottom. The buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object, and it allows objects to float or be suspended in a liquid.

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15. Responsibility for maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net rests on the fuels

Explanation

The responsibility for maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net rests on the controllers.

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16. What is the major cause of chemical contamination of fuel?

Explanation

Carelessness is the major cause of chemical contamination of fuel. When individuals handling fuel are not cautious or attentive, they can accidentally introduce contaminants into the fuel supply. This can occur through improper storage, mishandling of equipment, or careless practices during the fueling process. Carelessness can lead to the introduction of foreign substances such as dirt, water, or other chemicals into the fuel, which can affect its quality and performance. It is important to exercise caution and follow proper procedures to prevent fuel contamination.

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17. When should the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?

Explanation

The Gammon Aqua Glo water detector should be calibrated daily prior to the first use because it ensures accurate and reliable readings. Calibrating the detector before its initial use helps to establish a baseline for future measurements and ensures that any potential discrepancies or errors are identified and corrected before the device is put into regular use. This daily calibration practice helps to maintain the detector's effectiveness and ensures that it is functioning optimally to detect water accurately.

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18. When performing a FSII analysis, how long should the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken?

Explanation

During a FSII analysis, the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel should be shaken for 5 minutes. Shaking for this duration ensures proper mixing and separation of the fuel and water components. This allows for accurate measurement and analysis of the fuel sample.

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19. What is the maximum time interval permitted by a vehicle identification reader (VIR) in which to make a pump selection?

Explanation

A vehicle identification reader (VIR) is a device used to identify vehicles and make pump selections. The maximum time interval permitted by the VIR to make a pump selection is 999 seconds. This means that the VIR allows up to 999 seconds for the vehicle identification process before a pump selection needs to be made.

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20. When preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, complete all of the following procedures except (806)

Explanation

When preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, it is necessary to drain all fuel from the unit, install dust caps on all fittings, and thoroughly clean the unit to remove dirt and debris. However, removing the filter elements is not a required procedure for shipment preparation.

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21. How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before using a tape and bob to determine the level of the fuel?

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 because it is necessary to wait for a certain amount of time after filling the tank before using a tape and bob to measure the fuel level. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize, ensuring an accurate measurement. Waiting for 30 minutes is a reasonable amount of time for the fuel to settle and is therefore the correct answer.

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22. A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction should classify in what spill category?

Explanation

A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction would classify as a Class I spill. Class I spills are considered minor spills and pose a low risk to the environment and human health. They are typically small in scale and can be easily contained and cleaned up without causing significant damage or requiring extensive remediation efforts.

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23. The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

Explanation

Electric current refers to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction. It is the flow of electric charge through a conductor, such as a wire. When there is a potential difference (voltage) applied across the conductor, the electrons are pushed and start moving in a coordinated manner, creating an electric current. This movement of electrons is responsible for the transfer of electrical energy from one point to another.

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24. The shell of the valence electrons that determines whether a material is a good or poor conductor of electricity is the

Explanation

The outermost shell of an atom is known as the valence shell, which contains the valence electrons. These electrons are responsible for the bonding and interaction of atoms in a material. In terms of electrical conductivity, the outermost shell plays a crucial role because it determines how easily electrons can move through the material. A material with a filled valence shell or a shell close to being filled tends to be a poor conductor of electricity, while a material with an incomplete valence shell tends to be a good conductor. Therefore, the outermost shell is the shell that determines whether a material is a good or poor conductor of electricity.

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25. What type of determinable variance should a product loss caused by a pipeline rupture be categorized as?

Explanation

A product loss caused by a pipeline rupture should be categorized as a peacetime loss because it refers to a loss that occurs during a period of peace, without any major conflicts or wars. This type of variance is associated with normal operational risks and can be mitigated through appropriate safety measures and maintenance protocols.

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26. The API gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near

Explanation

The API gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near 60F. This is because the API gravity test measures the density of petroleum liquids, and temperature can affect the density of the fuel. By conducting the test at a temperature close to 60F, the density measurement will be more accurate and reliable.

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27. The correct place to take a reading for the API gravity test is at the

Explanation

The correct place to take a reading for the API gravity test is at the point at which the principle surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale. This is because the API gravity test measures the density of a liquid relative to the density of water. The hydrometer is a device used to measure the density of a liquid, and it has a scale that indicates the API gravity. The principle surface of the liquid refers to the level of the liquid where it meets the hydrometer. By taking the reading at this point, we can accurately determine the API gravity of the liquid.

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28. Which testing method is the most accurate way to determine total solid content in a fuels sample?

Explanation

The bottle method is the most accurate way to determine total solid content in a fuels sample. This method involves filling a bottle with a known volume of the sample, allowing any solid particles to settle at the bottom, and then measuring the weight of the solids. This provides an accurate measurement of the total solid content in the sample. Correlation sample, single weight monitor, and matched weight monitor are not specifically designed for determining solid content and may not provide accurate results in this context.

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29. What type of dye is used for the AEL detector pad?

Explanation

Sodium fluorescein is used as the dye for the AEL detector pad. This dye is commonly used in various applications, including as a fluorescent tracer and in medical diagnostics. It has a high level of fluorescence, which makes it suitable for detection purposes. Zinc chloride, phthalic anhydride, and methanesulfonic acid are not typically used as dyes and do not possess the necessary properties for detection in the AEL detector pad.

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30. When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied to the steel tape?

Explanation

Fuel-finding paste should be applied 3-inches above and below the estimated product depth on the steel tape. This is done to ensure accurate measurement of the fuel level in the tank. By applying the paste at these specific intervals, any fuel present within this range will be marked on the tape, allowing for an accurate reading of the fuel level.

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31. (614) What action, if any, should be taken if, during a concurrent servicing operation of a cargo/passenger aircraft, fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck?

Explanation

If fuel flow does not stop during the fuel flow precheck, it is necessary to stop the operation and not resume until the problem has been resolved. This is because it indicates a potential issue with the fuel system, which could pose a safety risk if not addressed. Continuing the operation without resolving the problem could lead to further complications or accidents. Therefore, it is essential to stop and address the issue before proceeding.

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32. What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R-14C fuels servicing module? (801)

Explanation

The rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the R-14C fuels servicing module is 600 gpm.

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33. What directive requires that an effective Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program be established within the fuels flight?

Explanation

AFI 91-301 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that specifically addresses Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) programs. This directive outlines the requirements and procedures for establishing an effective OSH program within the Air Force, including the fuels flight. It provides guidance on risk management, hazard communication, training, and other aspects of OSH to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel.

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34. What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together by means of a conductor?

Explanation

Bonding is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together by means of a conductor. This is done to ensure that there is a continuous electrical path between the objects, which helps to prevent the buildup of static electricity or the occurrence of electrical shocks. By bonding the objects, any potential difference between them is equalized, reducing the risk of electrical hazards.

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35. Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?

Explanation

Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar emits electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause safety hazards. By maintaining a distance of 300 feet, the risk of interference and accidents can be minimized, ensuring the safety of both the aircraft and the personnel involved in fuel servicing operations.

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36. Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of fire?

Explanation

Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on Class A fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, and fabric. Water, being a cooling agent, helps to lower the temperature of the fire and suppresses the flames. It also helps to soak the fuel, preventing re-ignition. Therefore, water pressure fire extinguishers are suitable for tackling Class A fires.

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37. At a minimum, reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered how many times prior to re-issue to aircraft?

Explanation

Reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered at least two times prior to re-issue to aircraft. This ensures that any contaminants or impurities that may have been introduced during the return process are removed, reducing the risk of potential damage or malfunction when the product is used again. Filtering the product twice helps to ensure its quality and safety for aircraft use.

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38. (613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneous refueling of an aircraft while other maintenance activities take place?

Explanation

Concurrent servicing involves simultaneous refueling of an aircraft while other maintenance activities take place. This allows for efficient use of time and resources, as the aircraft can be refueled while other necessary tasks are being performed. It is a common practice in the aviation industry to minimize downtime and ensure that all necessary operations are carried out in a timely manner.

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39. The engine on the Oshkosh R-11 can operate on all of the following fuels except

Explanation

The Oshkosh R-11 engine is capable of operating on JP-5, JP-8, and diesel fuels, but not on MOGAS.

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40. When entering analysis results in the BSM-E quality control module, the amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample should be entered in which block?

Explanation

In the BSM-E quality control module, the "SAMPLE SIZE" block should be used to enter the amount of fuel obtained to perform the sample. This block is specifically designed to record the quantity of the sample, allowing for accurate analysis results. By entering the sample size in this block, the system can calculate and compare the expected values with the actual results, ensuring quality control in the fuel analysis process.

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41. An underwiter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to

Explanation

An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to allow the tank to breathe properly and keep the vent unobstructed. This is important to prevent pressure build-up in the tank, which could lead to potential hazards such as explosions or leaks. The vent cap ensures that air can flow in and out of the tank, maintaining a balanced pressure and preventing any obstructions that could hinder the venting process.

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42. (622) What type of fuel servicing operations would not require an expediter?

Explanation

Ground fuel servicing operations would not require an expediter because they involve the refueling of aircraft on the ground, which does not require coordination with other fuel sources or the concurrent servicing of multiple aircraft. An expediter is typically needed for operations that involve complex logistics and coordination, such as multiple source refueling or concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft. Therefore, ground fuel servicing operations can be carried out without the need for an expediter.

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43. Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

Explanation

Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal environmental laws and regulations. This is because these laws and regulations are put in place to protect the environment and ensure the proper handling and disposal of hazardous materials. By following these guidelines, the risk of contamination and harm to the environment can be minimized.

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44. Which of the following is the definition of density?

Explanation

Density is defined as the weight of a substance per unit volume. It represents how tightly packed the molecules are in a given volume. The correct answer, "weight per unit volume," accurately describes this concept. It means that the density of a substance is determined by dividing its weight by its volume. This measurement is commonly used in various scientific fields to compare the mass of different substances in a standardized way.

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45. Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?

Explanation

Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, etc. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or damage to human tissue upon contact due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, which can be hazardous. Additionally, if allowed to evaporate in a confined area, it can build up tremendous pressure. However, it does not have the property of burning or exploding when it comes into contact with oil, grease, jet fuel, or similar substances.

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46. What type of meter is installed on the TPI4T4A additive injector?  (807)

Explanation

The correct answer is "no meter is installed." This means that there is no meter installed on the TPI4T4A additive injector. A meter is a device used to measure the flow rate of a liquid or gas, and in this case, there is no such device installed on the injector.

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47. Prior to performing off loading operations in an unsecure area, danger signs should be placed how many feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks?

Explanation

Danger signs should be placed 50 feet in the front and to the rear of tank trucks before performing offloading operations in an unsecure area. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible to approaching vehicles from both directions, providing them with adequate warning of the potential hazards associated with the offloading process. Placing the signs at this distance helps to enhance safety and prevent accidents or incidents that may occur due to unawareness or negligence.

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48. (620) What action must be taken before a refueling unit can be used after having a bonding cable replaced?

Explanation

Before a refueling unit can be used after having a bonding cable replaced, a continuity check for ohms resistance must be performed. This is necessary to ensure that there is a continuous flow of electrical current through the bonding cable, which is essential for proper grounding and safety during refueling operations. The continuity check helps to verify that there are no breaks or interruptions in the electrical circuit, which could potentially lead to electrical hazards or equipment malfunctions.

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49. The forward area manifold cart engine can run on all of the following  types of fuel except

Explanation

The forward area manifold cart engine is designed to run on military fuels such as JP-5 and JP-8, as well as diesel. However, it cannot run on gasoline. Gasoline has different properties and combustion characteristics compared to the other mentioned fuels, which may not be compatible with the engine's design and requirements. Therefore, the engine can run on all of the listed fuels except gasoline.

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50. What kind of dye, if any, is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel during a visual sample?

Explanation

Food coloring is used to aid in distinguishing water from fuel during a visual sample. Food coloring is a safe and easily accessible dye that can be added to water to give it a distinct color, making it easier to differentiate from fuel. This helps in preventing accidental mixing or contamination of water and fuel, especially in situations where visual identification is necessary.

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51. Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required

Explanation

Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required when the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached. This means that if the meter can be calibrated and give a reading of zero conductivity even with the probe attached, there is no need to clean the probe before testing. This suggests that the probe is already clean and free from any contaminants that could affect the accuracy of the conductivity measurement.

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52. During a flash point analysis, what action must be taken if the sample flashes upon first application of the flame?

Explanation

If the sample flashes upon first application of the flame during a flash point analysis, it indicates that the flash point of the sample is lower than the temperature at which the test was conducted. This could be due to various factors such as the sample being contaminated or the test conditions not being suitable. In order to obtain accurate and reliable results, it is necessary to perform a new flash point test using proper procedures and conditions.

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53. When receiving fuel at the service station, the quantity shown as shipped will be accepted as the quantity received provided

Explanation

The correct answer is that the seal numbers agree with those annotated on the shipping document. This means that the seals on the fuel shipment match the numbers recorded on the shipping document. This is important because it ensures that the fuel has not been tampered with or replaced during transportation. By comparing the seal numbers, the service station can verify the integrity of the shipment and accept it as the correct quantity received. The other options mentioned in the question, such as evidence of tampering on the seals or capacity markers, or a visual examination of a sample of the product, are not mentioned as criteria for accepting the quantity received.

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54. (610) You are performing servicing operations on the C-300/C-301. What position do you place the transmission lever in?

Explanation

When performing servicing operations on the C-300/C-301, the transmission lever should be placed in the "N" position. This stands for "Neutral" and it disengages the transmission from the engine, allowing the wheels to spin freely without power. This is important during servicing to prevent any accidental movement of the vehicle while work is being done.

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55. Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

Explanation

Heat can be transferred in cryotainers through conduction, convection, and radiation. Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects or particles. Convection involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves. In cryotainers, heat can be transferred from the surroundings to the contents or vice versa through these three methods.

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56. (616) What tupe of special servicing operation involves the use of more than one refueler or a combination of refuelers and hydrant servicing equipment to rapidly service large frame aircraft?

Explanation

Multi-source refuel is the correct answer because it involves the use of more than one refueler or a combination of refuelers and hydrant servicing equipment to quickly service large frame aircraft. This method is used when a single refueler is not sufficient to meet the fueling needs of the aircraft, and it allows for a faster turnaround time during servicing operations.

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57. A technical order file authorized in a fuels flight that contains only those technical orders required to accomplish maintenance and other responsibilities of the fuels flight is called

Explanation

An operational file is a technical order file that is authorized in a fuels flight and contains only the necessary technical orders to carry out maintenance and other responsibilities of the fuels flight. This file is specifically designed to support the operational activities of the fuels flight and ensure that the necessary instructions and procedures are readily available. It helps streamline the maintenance and operational processes by providing easy access to the required technical orders.

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58. When using the Air Force Technical Order Catalog, you would locate a technical order when only the technical order series is known by typing the

Explanation

When using the Air Force Technical Order Catalog, you would locate a technical order when only the technical order series is known by typing the series number in the "TO number" block. This means that if you only know the series of the technical order, you can enter that number in the "TO number" block to find the specific technical order you are looking for.

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59. The cansisters in the FFU-15E filter separator are constructed of
(805)

Explanation

The cansisters in the FFU-15E filter separator are constructed of aluminum. This material is commonly used in filter separators due to its lightweight yet durable properties. Aluminum is resistant to corrosion and can withstand high temperatures, making it suitable for filtering and separating various substances. Additionally, aluminum is easily recyclable, making it an environmentally friendly choice.

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60. When preparing the PMU-27M for shipment, complete all of the following steps except  (811)

Explanation

When preparing the PMU-27M for shipment, all of the given steps should be completed except for removing the filter elements from the separator. This step should not be done as the filter elements are an essential part of the PMU-27M and should remain in the separator during shipment.

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61. What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes?

Explanation

The minimum safe distance that should be maintained from the front and sides of jet intakes is 25 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential hazards or accidents that could be caused by the powerful air intake of a jet engine. Being too close to the jet intakes can pose a risk of being sucked in or injured by the strong airflow generated by the engines. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a safe distance of 25 feet to avoid any potential dangers.

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62. What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?

Explanation

The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 60 minutes. This means that these walls are designed to resist fire for at least 60 minutes, providing a barrier to prevent the spread of fire and smoke between the laboratory and other areas of the building. This is an important safety measure to protect occupants and limit the potential damage caused by fire.

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63. (620) All assigned vehicles must be inspected at least once every

Explanation

The correct answer is 7 days because it states that all assigned vehicles must be inspected at least once every 7 days. This means that it is mandatory to inspect the vehicles within a maximum time frame of 7 days to ensure their safety and proper functioning. Inspecting the vehicles at shorter intervals helps in identifying any potential issues or maintenance needs promptly, reducing the chances of accidents or breakdowns.

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64. (621) Which item is not recorded on the AF Form 1807?

Explanation

The AF Form 1807 is used to document discrepancies and defects found during inspections. The options provided are all related to the types of items that are recorded on the form. However, "Discrepancies completed from the old form" does not fit into this category as it suggests that discrepancies from a previous form are being transferred or completed on the AF Form 1807. Therefore, this option is not recorded on the AF Form 1807.

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65. (609) What is the capacity of the C-300/C-301 storage tank?

Explanation

The capacity of the C-300/C-301 storage tank is 1,200 gallons.

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66. What percent of additional expansion space is built into the Kovatch-series R-11 storage tank?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3. This suggests that the Kovatch-series R-11 storage tank is built with an additional expansion space of 3 percent. This means that the tank is designed to accommodate an increase in volume by 3 percent, providing flexibility for any expansion or contraction of the stored material.

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67. Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point analysis on all DF-2 received between

Explanation

Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point analysis on all DF-2 received between October through March. This is because during these months, the temperature is most likely to drop to levels that can cause clouding of the fuel. By conducting cloud point analysis, the base can determine the lowest temperature at which the fuel will still flow freely without clouding. This helps ensure that the fuel is suitable for use in cold weather conditions and prevents any operational issues that may arise due to fuel clouding.

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68. Who within the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining the keys to the QC hold box?

Explanation

Fuels laboratory personnel are responsible for maintaining the keys to the QC hold box. The QC hold box is likely used to store and secure samples or materials that are being held for quality control purposes. As the fuels laboratory personnel are directly involved in testing and analyzing fuel samples, it makes sense for them to be responsible for the keys to the hold box to ensure the integrity and security of the samples.

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69. What type dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

Explanation

A dual dispensing, single product unit has two meters to measure the amount of product being dispensed, but only one pump within its housing. This means that the unit is capable of dispensing the same product through two different outlets simultaneously or independently. It is useful in situations where multiple dispensing points are required for the same product, such as in a gas station with two fueling stations sharing the same fuel source.

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70. (622) Which is not a duty of the fuels expediter?

Explanation

The fuels expediter is responsible for assessing fueling operations, taking action to correct deficiencies, and providing assistance for hydrant servicing operations. However, coordinating and directing cryogenic servicing operations is not listed as one of their duties.

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71. During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad"?

Explanation

During type IV hydrant system operations, the hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad". This role involves overseeing the process of refueling the aircraft while it is still running, ensuring safety protocols are followed, and coordinating with the hot refueling crewman. The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for managing the entire operation and ensuring that the aircraft is positioned correctly on the designated area for refueling.

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72. Specialized publications include

Explanation

Specialized publications refer to specific documents that provide detailed instructions or information on a particular subject. In this context, technical orders are a type of specialized publication that contains precise instructions, procedures, and guidelines for performing specific tasks or operations. These orders are typically used in technical fields, such as engineering or aviation, to ensure accuracy and consistency in the execution of complex procedures. Therefore, technical orders are a suitable answer as they fall under the category of specialized publications mentioned in the question.

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73. Where in the file cabinet will the lowest numbered standard publication in a file be found?

Explanation

The lowest numbered standard publication in a file will be found in the upper left corner of the file cabinet. This is because files are typically organized in ascending order, with the lowest numbers being placed at the beginning or top left of the filing system.

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74. Much time and expense are involved in investigating and

Explanation

Investigating and solving accidents requires a significant amount of time and resources. This process involves gathering evidence, conducting interviews, analyzing data, and determining the causes and contributing factors of the accidents. Once the investigation is complete, the findings need to be reported to the relevant authorities and stakeholders. This reporting is crucial for ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to prevent similar accidents in the future. It helps in identifying trends, implementing safety measures, and improving overall safety standards. Therefore, reporting accidents is an essential step in the accident investigation and prevention process.

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75. In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, how many feet will signs be posted from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits?

Explanation

In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel storage areas, signs will be posted 50 feet away from diked areas, tank vents, low point drains, and lateral control pits.

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76. Where should fuel-soaked rags be placed after use?

Explanation

Fuel-soaked rags should be placed in self-closing metal containers after use. This is because self-closing metal containers provide a safe and secure way to store and dispose of flammable materials like fuel-soaked rags. These containers are designed to prevent the escape of vapors and minimize the risk of fire or explosion. Placing the rags in solid waste disposal pits, containers filled with water, or hazardous waste storage areas may not provide the same level of safety and could potentially lead to accidents or environmental hazards.

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77. Who acts as the first line of defense in fuel quality assurance?

Explanation

The fuels laboratory acts as the first line of defense in fuel quality assurance. This is because the laboratory is responsible for conducting various tests and analyses on fuel samples to ensure that they meet the required quality standards. By performing these tests, the laboratory can detect any contaminants or impurities in the fuel, thereby preventing the use of substandard fuel that could potentially harm equipment or compromise operations. Therefore, the fuels laboratory plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and integrity of fuel used by the organization.

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78. When dispatching an operator to refuel an aircraft, a fuels controller must provide all of the following information to an operator except the

Explanation

The fuels controller must provide the authorized delivery point, grade of fuel to be serviced, and the refueling vehicle registration number to the operator when dispatching them to refuel an aircraft. However, they do not need to provide the estimated quantity of the refuel, as this information is not necessary for the operator to carry out their task.

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79. (608) Ensure the sump tank on the Beta-International R-12 is below 2/3 fullduring a refueling operation with the ground servicing hoses to

Explanation

During a refueling operation with the ground servicing hoses, it is important to ensure that the sump tank on the Beta-International R-12 is below 2/3 full to prevent the sump tank from overfilling. This is necessary to avoid any potential damage or overflow of fuel, which could lead to safety hazards or contamination. Keeping the sump tank below 2/3 full ensures that there is enough space to accommodate the fuel being pumped in without risking overflow.

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80. What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?

Explanation

The maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading is 24 hours. This means that as long as the sample is collected within 24 hours, it can be analyzed for conductivity accurately. Any time beyond that may lead to potential changes in the sample composition, affecting the conductivity reading.

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81. What is the maximum allowable nozzle pressure when servicing with the Beta-International R-12?

Explanation

The maximum allowable nozzle pressure when servicing with the Beta-International R-12 is 55 psi. This means that when using this specific equipment, the pressure should not exceed 55 psi to ensure safe and proper functioning.

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82. What step should you take if you discover condensation in the air filter of the Beta-International R-12?

Explanation

If you discover condensation in the air filter of the Beta-International R-12, the appropriate step to take is to drain the condensation. Condensation in the air filter can restrict airflow and potentially damage the filter, so it is important to remove the excess moisture to ensure proper functioning of the air filter and prevent any potential issues.

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83. Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

Explanation

The appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR) must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts. This is because the QAR is responsible for ensuring the quality of the products and making decisions regarding their disposition. They have the knowledge and authority to determine the appropriate actions to be taken in case of excessive contamination.

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84. (613) Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a CSO/CSG?

Explanation

The concurrent servicing supervisor is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a CSO/CSG. This means that they oversee and manage the servicing operations, ensuring that they are carried out safely and efficiently. They are in charge of coordinating and supervising the various tasks and personnel involved in the servicing process. This includes monitoring fuel servicing, hot refueling, and other related activities. The concurrent servicing supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining the smooth operation of the CSO/CSG and ensuring that all necessary tasks are completed effectively.

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85. The DESC Form 702 is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day that runs from

Explanation

The correct answer is 2400 to 2400. This is because the DESC Form 702 is prepared to cover the entire 24-hour duty day, and the time format of 2400 to 2400 represents a full day from midnight to midnight.

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86. When obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG), what key on the tank control unit is used access the main menu?

Explanation

In order to access the main menu on the tank control unit of an automated tank gauging system, the key that needs to be pressed is ESC. This key is commonly used as a shortcut to exit or go back to the main menu in many electronic devices and systems.

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87. When setting up the TPI-4T-4A, where should the corrosion inhibitor adn the static dissapater additive tanks be placed?  (808)

Explanation

The corrosion inhibitor and static dissipater additive tanks should be placed on top of the injector cage.

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88. Which fuel spill classification should be given to a spill involving an area not more than 10 feet in any direction?

Explanation

A spill involving an area not more than 10 feet in any direction would be classified as Class II. Class II fuel spills are considered minor spills that can be contained and cleaned up relatively easily. They typically do not pose a significant risk to the environment or human health.

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89. Who should be contacted if a fire extinguisher with a broken seal is discovered?

Explanation

If a fire extinguisher with a broken seal is discovered, the fire department should be contacted. They are the appropriate authority to handle fire-related emergencies and have the necessary expertise and equipment to safely deal with the situation. It is important to involve the fire department as they can assess the severity of the situation, provide guidance on evacuation procedures, and ensure that the fire extinguisher is properly replaced or repaired to maintain fire safety in the area.

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90. Waiting or current defuels are dispalyed on the BSM-E logsheet in what color text?

Explanation

The waiting or current defuels are displayed in red text on the BSM-E logsheet. This color is likely used to draw attention to these specific defuels, indicating that they require immediate action or attention. Red is commonly associated with urgency or danger, so using red text helps ensure that these defuels are easily noticed and addressed promptly.

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91. Which function key should be used to enter a home station aircraft request in the BSM-E logsheet?

Explanation

The function key F2 should be used to enter a home station aircraft request in the BSM-E logsheet.

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92. In order to verify billing data, all VIL key requests should be coordinated through

Explanation

The unit financial resource advisor should be responsible for coordinating all VIL key requests in order to verify billing data. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to handle financial matters and ensure that the billing data is accurate and reliable. This role is crucial in maintaining financial accountability and transparency within the unit.

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93. All of the following items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except

Explanation

The SF 91 form is a Motor Vehicle Accident Report form, which is not typically needed or relevant for regular servicing tasks. The other forms listed are commonly used in servicing and maintenance procedures. Therefore, the SF 91 form is the only one that does not need to be included in each servicing clipboard.

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94. What type of sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination?

Explanation

A drum thief is a type of sampling device primarily used to obtain samples from barrels for visual examination. It is designed to extract samples from the top layer of liquid in a barrel without disturbing the contents. The drum thief typically consists of a long, narrow tube with a handle, allowing the user to insert it into the barrel and extract a small sample for inspection. This device is commonly used in industries such as food and beverage, oil and gas, and chemical, where visual examination of the contents is necessary for quality control purposes.

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95. Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award of the 5-skill level except

Explanation

The correct answer is "completion of a minimum of 15 months on-the-job training". This is because the question asks for the requirement that is NOT needed for the award of the 5-skill level. While the other options are all requirements that must be met, the completion of a minimum of 15 months on-the-job training is not mentioned as a requirement.

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96. Which fuel has the highest vapor pressure?

Explanation

Automotive gasoline has the highest vapor pressure among the given options. Vapor pressure refers to the pressure exerted by a vapor in equilibrium with its liquid form at a certain temperature. Higher vapor pressure indicates that a substance is more volatile and tends to evaporate more easily. In the case of automotive gasoline, its high vapor pressure allows for efficient combustion in engines, as it readily vaporizes and mixes with air for ignition. On the other hand, jet fuels like JP-4, JP-5, and JP-8 have lower vapor pressures to ensure safe storage and handling at high altitudes and in aircraft fuel tanks.

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97. When must the injectors on hte TPI-4T-4A additive injector be purged of all additives?  (808)

Explanation

The injectors on the TPI-4T-4A additive injector must be purged of all additives when the unit will be inoperative for more than 72 hours. This is because leaving additives in the injectors for an extended period of time without operation can cause clogging or build-up, which can impact the performance and effectiveness of the injector system. Therefore, it is necessary to purge the injectors to ensure they are clean and ready for use when the unit is started again after 72 hours of inactivity.

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98. Which of the following statements regarding cryogenic production is true?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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99. (609) What C-300/C-301 component allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations?

Explanation

The vent valve allows the tank to breathe during loading and unloading operations. It is responsible for releasing excess pressure or vacuum inside the tank, ensuring that the tank does not become overpressurized or underpressurized. This is important for the safety and proper functioning of the tank during these operations.

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100. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the "hot pad" should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

Explanation

A dry break coupler located inside the hose will automatically close, preventing fuel from spilling onto the "hot pad" if the hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation.

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101. During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed how far in front and to the rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area?

Explanation

During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed 50 feet to the front and rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area. This distance ensures that the signs are visible to approaching vehicles from both directions, providing ample warning of the potential hazards associated with the offloading process. Placing the signs at this distance helps to maintain a safe buffer zone around the truck, reducing the risk of accidents or unauthorized access to the area.

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102. Type III, IV, and V hydrants should be flushed

Explanation

Type III, IV, and V hydrants should be flushed regularly to ensure their proper functioning and prevent any potential issues. Flushing these hydrants monthly helps to remove any sediment or debris that may accumulate in the system, ensuring that the hydrants are always ready for use in case of an emergency. This frequent flushing schedule helps to maintain the hydrants' performance and prolong their lifespan.

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103. What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

Explanation

Permanently installed gauges on cryotainers are necessary to monitor and maintain the optimal conditions inside the containers. Pressure and quantity gauges are the most crucial ones as they provide essential information about the internal pressure and the amount of substance present in the cryotainer. Pressure gauge helps in ensuring that the pressure levels are within the safe operating range, while the quantity gauge allows for accurate measurement of the substance inside, preventing overfilling or depletion. These gauges are vital for the proper functioning and safety of cryotainers.

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104. A technical order that lists all of the technical orders applicable to a specific militaty system is called a

Explanation

A list of applicable publications (LOAP) is a technical order that provides a comprehensive list of all the technical orders that are relevant and applicable to a specific military system. It serves as a reference guide for personnel involved in the maintenance, operation, and support of the military system, ensuring that they have access to the necessary technical information and instructions. The LOAP helps streamline the process of finding and accessing the relevant technical orders, making it easier for personnel to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

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105. Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than

Explanation

Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than 100F because the flashpoint is the minimum temperature at which a liquid can emit enough vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air. Therefore, if a liquid has a flashpoint higher than 100F, it means that it requires a higher temperature to reach the point where it can ignite.

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106. The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is refueling   (810)

Explanation

The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is refueling small aircraft.

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107. To facilitate priming, the PMU-27M self priming pump is provided with a priming    (810)

Explanation

The PMU-27M self-priming pump is designed to facilitate priming, which is the process of removing air from the pump and filling it with liquid to ensure proper operation. To achieve this, the pump is equipped with a valve. This valve helps to create a vacuum within the pump, allowing air to be expelled and replaced with liquid, thus priming the pump. The valve plays a crucial role in the priming process and ensures that the pump is ready for operation.

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108. The 117 MSRP kit is equipped wiht how many 500 gallon sealed drums?  (811)

Explanation

The correct answer is Four. The question asks about the number of 500 gallon sealed drums in the 117 MSRP kit. The answer states that there are four drums in the kit.

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109. Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of

Explanation

Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of 110 to 130 decibels. This is because aircraft engines are extremely loud, especially during takeoff and landing. The noise produced by the engines can reach levels that are harmful to human hearing. The high noise levels are a result of the powerful engines and the high speeds at which aircraft operate. Additionally, the noise can be further amplified by factors such as the size and design of the aircraft, as well as the proximity of the observer to the aircraft.

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110. What ABFDS tank component prevents the buildup of fuel vapors inside the aircraft?  (812)

Explanation

The correct answer is the Automatic vapor eliminator. This component prevents the buildup of fuel vapors inside the aircraft. It is designed to eliminate any excess vapors from the fuel system, ensuring that the aircraft remains safe and free from potential hazards.

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111. The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

Explanation

The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. Atmospheric pressure refers to the force exerted by the weight of the air in the atmosphere on a unit of area. This pressure is commonly measured in pounds per square inch (psi). 14.7 psi is considered the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level.

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112. How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that protons have a positive charge because they contain positively charged particles called "quarks." On the other hand, electrons have a negative charge because they are fundamental particles with a negative charge. This difference in charges between protons and electrons is what allows them to attract each other and form an electrically neutral atom.

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113. A positive ion is an atom that

Explanation

A positive ion is formed when an atom loses an electron. This results in an unequal number of protons and electrons, with the ion having more protons than electrons.

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114. Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladder come in all sezes except

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 1/2 inch. This is because the question states that sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladder come in all sizes except for 6 1/2 inch. Therefore, 6 1/2 inch is the only option that is not included in the available sizes of sealing clamps for emergency repair.

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115. (608) Prior to servicing with the Beta-International R-12, ensure that the surge suppressor pressure gauge reads

Explanation

The correct answer is 90 psi. This means that before servicing with the Beta-International R-12, the surge suppressor pressure gauge should read 90 psi. This is important as it ensures that the pressure is at the correct level for the servicing process.

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116. What is the difference between the motors used un the self-contained single dispensing and dual dispensing units?

Explanation

The difference between the motors used in the self-contained single dispensing and dual dispensing units is that the dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating. This means that the dual dispensing motors are more powerful and capable of delivering a higher amount of force compared to the single dispensing motors. The higher horsepower rating allows the dual dispensing units to handle heavier loads or dispense materials at a faster rate.

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117. (614) For concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft, which action must the SPR monitor take before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft?

Explanation

Before connecting the nozzle to the aircraft, the SPR monitor must visually inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal for serviceability. This is important to ensure that the locking mechanism is functioning properly and that there are no leaks in the seal, which could lead to fuel spillage or other safety hazards during refueling. Checking the strainer coupling quick disconnect device, setting the tank refuel switches to open, and performing the fuel preflow check are all important steps in the refueling process, but they do not specifically address the need to inspect the locking pins/lugs and seal.

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118. Which component records all of the transaction data for a service station issue?

Explanation

The master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) is the component that records all of the transaction data for a service station issue. It is responsible for capturing and storing information related to vehicle identification, such as license plate numbers and vehicle details. This data is crucial for tracking and managing transactions at the service station. The other options mentioned, including pedestal, vehicle identification link (VIL), and satellite vehicle identification reader, do not fulfill the specific role of recording transaction data like the MVIR does.

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119. What mesh screen strainer is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60. In a type III hydrant system receiving strainer, a mesh screen strainer with a rating of 60 is used. This means that the strainer has a finer mesh size compared to the other options (20, 40, and 80). A finer mesh size allows the strainer to effectively filter out smaller particles and debris from the water flowing into the hydrant system, ensuring that the water remains clean and free from clogs or blockages.

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120. On the type III hydrant system, what will make the automatic bypass valve open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receicing fuel by cross-country pipeline?

Explanation

When receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline, the automatic bypass valve on the type III hydrant system will open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when the differential pressure (DP) across the receiving filter separator reaches 20 pounds per square inch (psi). This indicates that the filter separator is becoming clogged and unable to handle the flow of fuel effectively. Opening the bypass valve allows fuel to bypass the filter separator and continue flowing without causing damage to the system.

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121. (609) The C-300/C-301 is equipped with emergency shutoff handles in all of the following locations except

Explanation

The C-300/C-301 is equipped with emergency shutoff handles in multiple locations for easy access in case of an emergency. These locations include on top of the tank, behind the driver's door, and the right rear of the truck. However, the emergency shutoff handle is not located in the pumping compartment.

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122. (611) Personnel involved in hot refueling operations must be certified

Explanation

Personnel involved in hot refueling operations must be certified annually. This means that they need to undergo a certification process once every year. This ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to safely carry out hot refueling operations. Regular certification helps to maintain and update their understanding of the procedures, safety protocols, and any new developments in the field. By requiring annual certification, the organization can ensure that the personnel are up to date and competent in their roles, reducing the risk of accidents and ensuring the smooth operation of hot refueling activities.

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123. Specialized publications that cover installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibration, servicing, or handling of AF military systems are

Explanation

Operations and maintenance technical orders are specialized publications that cover various aspects of AF military systems. These orders provide instructions and guidelines for the installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, calibration, servicing, and handling of these systems. They are specifically designed to assist personnel in effectively managing and maintaining the equipment. Therefore, operations and maintenance technical orders are the correct answer for this question.

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124. Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause a severe or fatal injury?

Explanation

Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) are issued to correct unsafe conditions that could cause severe or fatal injuries. These orders are specifically designed to address time-sensitive issues that pose a significant risk to personnel or equipment. TCTOs ensure that necessary corrective actions are taken promptly to mitigate potential hazards and ensure the safety of individuals involved.

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125. What manner of fuel poisoning is the most common way for fuel to enter the body?

Explanation

Inhalation is the most common way for fuel to enter the body. When fuel is inhaled, it enters the respiratory system and can be absorbed into the bloodstream. This can lead to fuel poisoning, which can cause various symptoms and health issues. Ingestion refers to consuming fuel orally, rejection refers to the body's rejection of fuel, and absorption refers to fuel entering the body through the skin. However, inhalation is the most common and direct route for fuel to enter the body.

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126. What fuel bladder component is used for removing water from the bladder

Explanation

The Vertical Vent pipe is used for removing water from the fuel bladder. This component allows air to escape from the bladder while preventing water from entering. By providing a pathway for air to flow out, the Vertical Vent pipe helps to maintain the integrity and functionality of the fuel bladder system.

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127. How many feet from the fuels laboratory must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?

Explanation

A 55-gallon waste drum must be positioned 50 feet away from the fuels laboratory.

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128. (619) On the ADC system, what maximum number of dial retries can the UIT be configured to attempt?

Explanation

The ADC system allows the UIT to be configured to attempt a maximum of 99 dial retries.

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129. Which Fuels Manager window allows operators to modify tank parameters?

Explanation

The Tank details window allows operators to modify tank parameters. This window provides detailed information about the tanks, such as tank capacity, tank type, tank level, and tank temperature. Operators can use this window to make changes to the tank parameters, such as adjusting the tank capacity or changing the tank type. This allows for better management and control of the fuel tanks in the system.

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130. After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, how much time should be allowed to elapse before dissembling the sampler?

Explanation

After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, it is recommended to allow 60 seconds to elapse before disassembling the sampler. This time period allows for proper settling of the sample and ensures accurate analysis. Disassembling the sampler too soon may result in sample loss or contamination, while waiting for too long may lead to sample degradation. Hence, 60 seconds is the optimal duration to wait before disassembling the sampler.

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131. Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels submitted to off-base laboratories will be a minimum of

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 gallons because it is stated that all samples of aviation fuels submitted to off-base laboratories will be a minimum of 2 gallons. This implies that any sample submitted must be at least 2 gallons in quantity.

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132. When equipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in

Explanation

The model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in hazardous locations because it is equipped with the proper batteries. This indicates that the meter has been designed and tested to meet the safety requirements and standards for operating in environments that may contain flammable gases, vapors, or combustible dust. It is important for the meter to be approved for use in hazardous locations to ensure the safety of the user and prevent any potential accidents or explosions.

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133. (609) The C-300/C-301 is equipped with how many feet of 1 ½ inch diameter hose?

Explanation

The C-300/C-301 is equipped with 100 feet of 1 ½ inch diameter hose.

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134. How many selectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle indentification reader (MVIR) have the capacity to control?

Explanation

The master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) has the capacity to control 8 selectable fuel product pumps. This means that the MVIR can manage and control the operation of up to 8 different fuel product pumps simultaneously.

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135. How many times can the memory chip in the vehicle identification link (VIL) be encoded or revised by fuels management?

Explanation

The memory chip in the vehicle identification link (VIL) can be encoded or revised by fuels management up to 10,000 times. This means that the VIL can be updated or modified multiple times before reaching its maximum capacity.

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136. What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel, is completely solid-state with no moving parts, and indicates an emergency is occurring?

Explanation

An alarm annunciator is a type III hydrant system component that is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel. It is completely solid-state with no moving parts. Its purpose is to indicate when an emergency is occurring.

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137. At what pressure will the pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter separator unit open and send fuel to the sump tank?

Explanation

The pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter separator unit will open and send fuel to the sump tank at a pressure of 175 psi.

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138. What is the best way to slow down the heat transfer by convection in a cryotainer?

Explanation

Removing the air from the annular space is the best way to slow down heat transfer by convection in a cryotainer. Air is a good conductor of heat, so by removing it from the annular space, there will be less opportunity for heat to be transferred through convection. This will help to insulate the inner tank and reduce heat loss.

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139. When placed in the low mobility position, what is the maximum ramp angle the R-14C can negotiate?

Explanation

802

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140. What is the freeze point for JP-8?

Explanation

The freeze point for JP-8 is -58F. This means that at temperatures below -58F, JP-8 will solidify and become a solid. It is important to know the freeze point of JP-8 as it is commonly used as a fuel for aircraft and vehicles in cold weather conditions. If the temperature drops below -58F, precautions must be taken to prevent the fuel from freezing and causing operational issues.

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141. At atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to how many feet of gaseous oxygen?

Explanation

At atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to 860 feet of gaseous oxygen. This expansion occurs because liquid oxygen is stored at extremely low temperatures, and when it is exposed to atmospheric pressure, it rapidly vaporizes and expands. This expansion ratio is important to consider when handling and storing liquid oxygen, as it can result in a significant increase in volume.

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142. For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have

Explanation

Grounded plugs are necessary for safety measures in Air Force electrical equipment because they provide a direct path for electrical current to flow into the ground in the event of a fault or electrical surge. This grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks, fires, and damage to the equipment. By connecting the equipment to the ground, any excess electrical charge is safely dissipated, reducing the risk of electrical accidents. Therefore, grounded plugs are essential to ensure the safety and reliability of Air Force electrical equipment.

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143. What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?

Explanation

The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. This means that any tank with a capacity of 661 gallons or more would need to have a dike area. The dike area is necessary to contain any potential spills or leaks from the tank, preventing them from spreading and causing environmental damage.

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144. What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?

Explanation

Most fuel dispensing systems use a bi-rotor, positive displacement meter. This type of meter is designed to accurately measure the volume of fuel being dispensed. It consists of two rotors that rotate in opposite directions, creating chambers that fill and empty with fuel as it flows through the meter. This design ensures precise measurement and reduces the risk of fuel leakage or loss.

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145. At what temperature are membrane filters dried prior to use for a bottle method test?

Explanation

Membrane filters are dried prior to use for a bottle method test at a temperature of 194°F. This temperature is necessary to ensure that the filters are completely dry and free from any moisture or contaminants that could affect the accuracy of the test results. Drying the filters at a high temperature helps to remove any residual water or solvents, ensuring that the filters are ready for use in the test.

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146. When cleaning sample bottles for use in fiber analysis, how many times should the bottles be rinsed?

Explanation

To ensure proper cleaning for fiber analysis, the sample bottles should be rinsed twice. This is necessary to remove any residue or contaminants that may affect the accuracy of the analysis. Rinsing the bottles twice helps to ensure that any remaining particles or substances are thoroughly removed, providing a clean and reliable sample for analysis.

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147. What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

Explanation

The surge suppressor gauge on the R-20 multi-aircraft servicing unit should indicate 90 psi when the fueling system is not operating. This pressure is likely the standard pressure for the system when it is idle or not in use. It is important for the gauge to accurately display this pressure to ensure the proper functioning of the fueling system and to prevent any potential issues or damage.

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148. What percentage of wax does DF-2 contain?

Explanation

DF-2 contains 6 to 8 percent of wax. This means that for every 100 units of DF-2, 6 to 8 units are made up of wax.

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149. You are driving through deep snow. What forward position will you place the transmission selector on the Kovatch-series R-11

Explanation

The forward position that you should place the transmission selector on the Kovatch-series R-11 when driving through deep snow is 1. This is because the "1" position indicates the first gear, which provides more torque and power to the wheels, allowing for better traction and control in slippery conditions like deep snow.

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150. To what component is the differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system connected?

Explanation

The differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system is connected to a venturi. A venturi is a device that is used to measure the flow rate of a fluid by creating a pressure difference. It consists of a converging section, a throat, and a diverging section. As the fluid flows through the venturi, its velocity increases and the pressure decreases. The differential pressure transmitter measures the pressure difference between the converging and diverging sections, providing an accurate indication of the flow rate.

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151. Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck?

Explanation

If the DD Form 250, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck, the Quality Assurance Representative (QAR) should be contacted. The QAR is responsible for ensuring that the delivery of fuel or other materials meets the required quality standards. They will be able to verify the delivery and address any issues or concerns regarding the missing documentation.

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152. What is the maximum flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump?

Explanation

The maximum flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump is 300 gpm. This means that the pump is capable of pumping a maximum of 300 gallons of fuel per minute.

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153. When manually gauging a tank for temperature, how many minutes must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?

Explanation

To ensure an accurate temperature reading when manually gauging a tank for temperature, the thermometer must be left in the fuel for 5 minutes. This duration allows the thermometer to adjust and stabilize to the temperature of the fuel, providing a more accurate measurement. Leaving the thermometer for a shorter duration may result in an inaccurate reading as it may not have fully adjusted to the fuel's temperature. Similarly, leaving it for a longer duration may not significantly improve the accuracy and may be unnecessary.

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154. Which of the following components is used to relieve excessive pressure in the inner tank of a cryotainer?

Explanation

A rupture disc is used to relieve excessive pressure in the inner tank of a cryotainer. This disc is designed to rupture at a specific pressure, allowing the release of pressure and preventing the tank from exploding or being damaged. It acts as a safety mechanism to protect the tank and its contents in case of overpressure situations. Unlike a release valve or discharge valve, a rupture disc is a one-time use device that needs to be replaced after it has ruptured. A safety disc is not specifically designed for relieving pressure in a cryotainer, making it an incorrect option.

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155. What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose?

Explanation

Glass wool is commonly used as insulation in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen transfer hose. Glass wool is a type of thermal insulation made from spun glass fibers. It has excellent thermal insulation properties and is able to withstand the extreme temperatures and pressures involved in transferring LOX/LIN. Additionally, glass wool is non-combustible and resistant to moisture, making it a suitable choice for this application.

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156. (618) Which form is used to record fuel issues to aircraft not assigned to home station?

Explanation

DD Form 1898 is the correct answer because it is the form used to record fuel issues to aircraft that are not assigned to the home station. AF Form 1233 and AF Form 1235 are incorrect because they do not pertain to fuel issues for aircraft. DD Form 1896 is also incorrect because it is not the designated form for recording fuel issues for non-home station aircraft.

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157. Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition?

Explanation

The technical order (TO) improvement recommendation labeled as "Urgent" suggests improvements involving a potentially hazardous condition. This implies that the recommendation needs to be implemented as soon as possible to address the potential danger or risk associated with the condition.

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158. What type of publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder?

Explanation

Standard publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder. This is because three-ring binders provide a convenient and organized way to store and access documents. Standard publications, such as manuals, guides, and handbooks, are commonly used in various industries and are often referenced for information and procedures. Storing them in a three-ring binder allows for easy flipping through pages, adding or removing documents, and keeping them protected and in order.

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159. What is the purpose of the float valve on the R-22 pump assembly?

Explanation

803

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160. What are the color coding requirements for JP-8+100 vehicle clipboards?

Explanation

The color coding requirements for JP-8+100 vehicle clipboards are a yellow clipboard with green stripes. This color combination helps to easily identify and differentiate the clipboards used for JP-8+100 vehicles. The yellow color signifies that it is specifically for JP-8+100, while the green stripes further distinguish it from other clipboards. This color coding system ensures that the correct clipboard is used for the appropriate vehicles, promoting efficiency and preventing any potential errors or confusion.

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161. What type of overpacking should not be used for samples of aviation fuels because of the potential for sample contamination?

Explanation

Vermiculite should not be used for overpacking samples of aviation fuels because it has the potential to contaminate the samples. Vermiculite is a mineral that expands when heated, and it is commonly used as a packing material. However, it is not suitable for aviation fuel samples because it can easily break down and release particles that can contaminate the sample. This can lead to inaccurate test results and potentially compromise the quality and safety of the aviation fuel.

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162. Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally manufactured

Explanation

The round aluminum disc is used to identify the tank vent valve. This suggests that the disc is specifically designed for this purpose and is likely to be durable and resistant to the elements. Aluminum is a lightweight and corrosion-resistant material, making it suitable for outdoor applications. The round shape of the disc may also make it easily recognizable and distinguishable from other labels or placards.

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163. For normal operation, both pointers on the dual brake air pressure gauge on the Kovatch-series R-11 should register equal air pressure between

Explanation

In normal operation, both pointers on the dual brake air pressure gauge should register equal air pressure between 90 and 135 psi. This means that the air pressure in the brake system should be within this range for the gauge to indicate proper functioning. If the pressure falls below 90 psi or goes above 135 psi, it could indicate a problem with the brake system that needs to be addressed.

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164. How often should GPC cardholders reconcile the statement of account via electronic access system?

Explanation

GPC cardholders should reconcile their statement of account via the electronic access system on a monthly basis. This allows them to review and verify their transactions, ensuring accuracy and identifying any discrepancies or unauthorized charges promptly. Reconciling monthly also helps in budgeting and tracking expenses effectively. Quarterly, daily, or weekly reconciliations may not be as frequent or timely, potentially leading to delayed detection of errors or fraudulent activities.

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165. When making a telephone purchase, GPC cardholders should inform vendors to include all of the following information on a shipping document except

Explanation

When making a telephone purchase, GPC cardholders should inform vendors to include their name, cardholder's telephone number, and the term "Government-wide Purchase Card" on the shipping document. However, they should not include their GPC account number. This is because the GPC account number is sensitive information that should not be shared with vendors or included on shipping documents to ensure the security of the account.

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166. When using the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft (depending on type) can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes?

Explanation

The type IV hydrant system allows for hot refueling of two aircraft simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes. This means that two aircraft can be refueled at the same time using this system, which helps to save time and increase efficiency in the refueling process.

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167. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

Explanation

The correct answer is four; 50,000. This means that the type IV hydrant system uses four tanks, and each tank has a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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168. When should the Fuel Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent review the AFTO Form 39?

Explanation

The Fuel Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent should review the AFTO Form 39 on a monthly basis. This allows them to stay updated on the fuel management activities and ensure that all necessary documentation is in order. Reviewing the form monthly also helps in identifying any potential issues or discrepancies in a timely manner, allowing for prompt resolution and efficient fuel management operations.

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169. Tank gauge readings are entered on the DESC Form 700 in feet, inches, and

Explanation

Tank gauge readings are entered on the DESC Form 700 in 1/8-inch fractions for both fuel and water. This means that the readings for both fuel and water levels are recorded in increments of 1/8 inch. This allows for more precise measurements and ensures accurate tracking of the levels of both fuel and water in the tank. Using 1/8-inch fractions for both fuel and water simplifies the recording process and provides consistency in the measurement units used.

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170. How far from the parking apron must the tanks be placed if the ABFDS is used to resupply the R-14 fuel servicing module? (802)

Explanation

The tanks must be placed 100 feet away from the parking apron when using the ABFDS to resupply the R-14 fuel servicing module. This distance is necessary to ensure safety and prevent any potential accidents or damage that could occur from the fuel transfer process. By placing the tanks at this distance, there is sufficient space for the ABFDS to operate effectively and minimize any risks associated with fuel handling.

Submit
171. What must be taken into consideration when determining a convenient location to set up the R-14 fuel servicing module? (802)

Explanation

When determining a convenient location to set up the R-14 fuel servicing module, the type of aircraft to be serviced must be taken into consideration. This is because different aircraft have different requirements and specifications for fuel servicing. The module must be set up in a location that can accommodate the specific needs of the aircraft, such as the type of fuel required, the fueling equipment needed, and any safety measures that need to be in place. Therefore, understanding the type of aircraft to be serviced is crucial in determining the appropriate location for the R-14 fuel servicing module.

Submit
172. An example of a directive standard publication is a

Explanation

A supplement is an additional publication that is added to a directive standard. It provides extra information or updates to the original publication. It is usually used to address specific topics or issues that may arise after the initial publication. Therefore, a supplement is an example of a directive standard publication as it enhances or expands upon the original document.

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173. Hearing protection must be worn when working within how many feet of hte R-14C operation? ( (802)

Explanation

According to the given information, hearing protection must be worn when working within a certain distance of the R-14C operation. The correct answer is 50 feet, which means that when working within 50 feet of the R-14C operation, it is necessary to wear hearing protection.

Submit
174. Which of the following is not a type of postive displacement pump?

Explanation

The correct answer is centrifugal because centrifugal pumps are not considered positive displacement pumps. Unlike positive displacement pumps, centrifugal pumps work by converting rotational energy into kinetic energy to increase the velocity of the fluid, rather than trapping and displacing a fixed volume of fluid. Positive displacement pumps, on the other hand, use reciprocating or rotating mechanisms to physically displace a specific volume of fluid with each cycle or rotation.

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175. What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electrical power is watts. Watts measure the rate at which energy is consumed or produced in an electrical circuit. It is a measure of the amount of work done per unit of time, indicating the rate at which electrical energy is transferred or used. Volts measure electrical potential difference, amps measure electrical current, and ohms measure electrical resistance, but none of these units directly measure power. Therefore, the correct answer is watts.

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176. What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from an higher voltage to a lower voltage?

Explanation

Direct current cannot be transformed from a higher voltage to a lower voltage. This is because direct current flows in only one direction and does not alternate like alternating current. In order to transform voltage, a transformer is typically used, which relies on the changing magnetic field produced by alternating current. Since direct current does not have this alternating nature, it cannot be easily transformed to a lower voltage.

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177. A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are

Explanation

A 100 mesh strainer refers to a strainer with 100 evenly spaced holes per inch. The mesh size indicates the size of the particles that can pass through the strainer. In this case, a 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are 150 microns or larger. This means that any particles smaller than 150 microns will be trapped by the strainer and not pass through.

Submit
178. With how many feet of communication wire is each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform equipped?

Explanation

Each R-20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with 1,500 feet of communication wire.

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179. The PMU-27M hoses are inspected daily for all of the following except

Explanation

The PMU-27M hoses are inspected daily for cracking, worn spots, and deterioration to ensure their integrity and functionality. However, loose mountings are not inspected as part of the daily inspection routine. This may be because loose mountings are less likely to occur or have a significant impact on the performance of the hoses compared to the other mentioned issues.

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180. How often should the sump pump on the R-19 filter separator unit be drained?

Explanation

The sump pump on the R-19 filter separator unit should be drained daily. This suggests that the sump pump collects a significant amount of water or liquid that needs to be removed regularly to ensure proper functioning of the unit. Draining it daily helps prevent any potential overflow or damage to the system.

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181. How long should documents received and/or generated by a GPC cardholder to support transactions be retained?

Explanation

Documents received and/or generated by a GPC cardholder to support transactions should be retained for 36 months. This retention period ensures that there is sufficient documentation available for auditing purposes and to comply with any legal or regulatory requirements. By keeping the documents for 36 months, it allows for a reasonable amount of time to pass while still maintaining the necessary records.

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182. What type of valve is found on the suction line in the self-contained storage tank?

Explanation

A foot valve is a type of valve that is commonly found on the suction line in a self-contained storage tank. It is designed to prevent the backflow of liquid or gas into the tank when the pump is not in operation. The foot valve has a one-way mechanism that allows the liquid or gas to flow into the tank but prevents it from flowing back out. This helps to maintain the integrity of the tank and ensures that the contents are not contaminated.

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183. What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18 pumping unit's hand-held remote?

Explanation

The correct answer is RUN and IDLE. The throttle switch on the R-18 pumping unit's hand-held remote has two positions: RUN and IDLE. The RUN position is used when the unit is operating at full speed, while the IDLE position is used when the unit is running at a lower speed or is not in use.

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184. How many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) and a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR) control?

Explanation

One master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) can control up to eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR). Therefore, the total number of fuel dispensing pumps that can be controlled is 8 times the number of SVIR. Since the maximum number of SVIR is eight, the total number of fuel dispensing pumps that can be controlled is 8 multiplied by 8, which equals 64. Therefore, the correct answer is 72.

Submit
185. How many days (minimum) can the battery in the type III hydrant system maintain the microprocessor's memory?

Explanation

The battery in the type III hydrant system can maintain the microprocessor's memory for a minimum of 30 days.

Submit
186. On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

Explanation

The LED in the battery backup system in each microprocessor on the type III hydrant system will indicate a problem at least 3 days in advance before the battery becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory.

Submit
187. When emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit, what must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir?

Explanation

When emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit, the override button must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir. This is because the override button allows the fuel to bypass the float valve and continue flowing out of the unit, even when the fuel level is above the float valve reservoir. This ensures that the fuel can be emptied completely without any interruption or restriction caused by the float valve.

Submit
188. The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the

Explanation

The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers. This seal ensures that there is no leakage of oil or air into the pump chambers, which could reduce the efficiency of the pump. Without a proper seal, the pump would not be able to maintain the required level of vacuum, resulting in decreased performance. Therefore, the oil seal plays a crucial role in ensuring the effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump.

Submit
189. What component on the collapsible coated fabric fuel tank allows for removal of water? (801)

Explanation

The tank vent pipe assembly allows for the removal of water from the collapsible coated fabric fuel tank. This component is designed to vent any excess pressure or vapor buildup in the tank, ensuring proper functioning and preventing damage. It also serves as an outlet for any water that may have accumulated in the tank, allowing it to be removed and preventing contamination of the fuel.

Submit
190. How often should fillstand emergency shutdown switches be tested for proper operation while the system is operating?

Explanation

Fillstand emergency shutdown switches should be tested for proper operation while the system is operating on a monthly basis. Regular testing ensures that the switches are functioning correctly and can effectively shut down the system in case of an emergency. Monthly testing allows for prompt identification and resolution of any issues or malfunctions, minimizing the risk of accidents or damage to the system.

Submit
191. What component on a filter separator prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

Explanation

The air eliminator is the component on a filter separator that prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems. It removes air from the system, ensuring a consistent and controlled pressure for dispensing.

Submit
192. What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?

Explanation

Absolute pressure is the term used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas. It is the sum of the atmospheric pressure and the gauge pressure. Absolute pressure is measured relative to a perfect vacuum, and it includes both the pressure exerted by the gas itself and the pressure exerted by the atmosphere. This term is commonly used in various fields such as physics, engineering, and meteorology to accurately measure and describe the pressure of a gas.

Submit
193. (608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Frieghtliner R-12, how often must the deadman control be re-activated to prevent automatic shutdown?

Explanation

During fueling operations with the Beta-Frieghtliner R-12, the deadman control must be re-activated every 120 seconds to prevent automatic shutdown.

Submit
194. Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the

Explanation

The correct answer is the expeditionary LRS at the forward location. When a MRSP kit is transferred, it is temporarily the responsibility of the expeditionary LRS at the forward location. This means that they are accountable for the kit and must ensure its proper use and maintenance until it is transferred again or returned to the home LRS customer service element.

Submit
195. When performing a bottle method analysis, on what type of fuel is a flow reducer ring not used?

Explanation

In a bottle method analysis, a flow reducer ring is not used on JP-5 fuel.

Submit
196. The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 is powered by a

Explanation

The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 is powered by a 110 AC, 20-ampere outside power supply. This means that the system requires a power supply that provides 110 volts of alternating current (AC) and has a capacity of 20 amperes. The higher amperage rating ensures that the power supply can handle the electrical load of the winterization system, which may require more power to operate effectively. The use of an outside power supply suggests that the system is not self-contained and requires an external power source for operation.

Submit
197. What is the desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations in the Kovatch-International R-11?

Explanation

The desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations in the Kovatch-International R-11 is 1,000±50 rpm. This means that the engine should ideally be running at a speed of 1,000 revolutions per minute, with a tolerance of plus or minus 50 rpm. This specific engine speed is likely determined based on the optimal performance and efficiency of the equipment during low flow servicing operations.

Submit
198. For safe dispersal of fuel vapors, how many feet must an automotive fuel storage tank vent pipe placed next to a building extend above the roof line?

Explanation

To ensure safe dispersal of fuel vapors, an automotive fuel storage tank vent pipe placed next to a building must extend at least 2 feet above the roof line. This height allows the vapors to disperse effectively and prevents any potential hazards or risks associated with the accumulation of fuel vapors near the building.

Submit
199. An entry is required in columns J (TIME IN) and K (TIME OUT) on the AF Form 1231 for products received by

Explanation

The correct answer is tank truck. This is because columns J and K on the AF Form 1231 are used to record the time in and time out for products received. Tank trucks are vehicles that transport liquids, including petroleum products, in large tanks. Therefore, when products are received by tank truck, it is necessary to record the time in and time out on the form.

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200. Who is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received on an AF Form 834 and entering the gain (loss) on the receipt form?

Explanation

The fuels service center is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received on an AF Form 834 and entering the gain (loss) on the receipt form.

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What is the capacity of the Oshkosh R-11 storage tank?
Which of the following is NOT a position on the Oshkosh R-11 pumping...
(620) Who must perform a walkaround inspection before each use of a...
What method is used to extract data from BSM-E databases?
What type of cylinder is used to perform the API gravity test?
Equipment on QC hold will not be used for servicing
Which source of accidents is the principle cause of disabling injuries...
What should be done first when fighting an electrical fire?
Which of the following types of measurement may be used to express...
A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid...
Which fuels can be used to operate the engine on the R-14C Fuel...
What actions must be taken when driving a fuel servicing vehicle while...
As a pollution control precaution, dike drains
What is the lifting force of liquid called?
Responsibility for maintaining radio transmission discipline over the...
What is the major cause of chemical contamination of fuel?
When should the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
When performing a FSII analysis, how long should the fuel/water...
What is the maximum time interval permitted by a vehicle...
When preparing the FFU-15E for shipment, complete all of the following...
How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before using a tape...
A fuel spill less than 2 feet in any direction should classify in what...
The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called
The shell of the valence electrons that determines whether a material...
What type of determinable variance should a product loss caused by a...
The API gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is...
The correct place to take a reading for the API gravity test is at the
Which testing method is the most accurate way to determine total solid...
What type of dye is used for the AEL detector pad?
When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be...
(614) What action, if any, should be taken if, during a concurrent...
What is the rated capacity of the positive displacement meter on the...
What directive requires that an effective Air Force Occupational...
What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects...
Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet...
Water pressure fire extinguishers are effective on which class of...
At a minimum, reclaimed product that has been returned to storage...
(613) What type of special servicing operation involves simultaneous...
The engine on the Oshkosh R-11 can operate on all of the following...
When entering analysis results in the BSM-E quality control module,...
An underwiter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to
(622) What type of fuel servicing operations would not require an...
Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed...
Which of the following is the definition of density?
Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
What type of meter is installed on the TPI4T4A additive...
Prior to performing off loading operations in an unsecure area, danger...
(620) What action must be taken before a refueling unit can be used...
The forward area manifold cart engine can run on all of the...
What kind of dye, if any, is used to aid in distinguishing water from...
Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required
During a flash point analysis, what action must be taken if the sample...
When receiving fuel at the service station, the quantity shown as...
(610) You are performing servicing operations on the C-300/C-301. What...
Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by
(616) What tupe of special servicing operation involves the use of...
A technical order file authorized in a fuels flight that contains only...
When using the Air Force Technical Order Catalog, you would locate a...
The cansisters in the FFU-15E filter separator are constructed of...
When preparing the PMU-27M for shipment, complete all of the following...
What minimum safe distance (feet) should be maintained from the front...
What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the...
(620) All assigned vehicles must be inspected at least once every
(621) Which item is not recorded on the AF Form 1807?
(609) What is the capacity of the C-300/C-301 storage tank?
What percent of additional expansion space is built into the...
Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point...
Who within the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining...
What type dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained...
(622) Which is not a duty of the fuels expediter?
During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for...
Specialized publications include
Where in the file cabinet will the lowest numbered standard...
Much time and expense are involved in investigating and
In instances where security fences are not provided around fuel...
Where should fuel-soaked rags be placed after use?
Who acts as the first line of defense in fuel quality assurance?
When dispatching an operator to refuel an aircraft, a fuels controller...
(608) Ensure the sump tank on the Beta-International R-12 is below 2/3...
What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a...
What is the maximum allowable nozzle pressure when servicing with the...
What step should you take if you discover condensation in the air...
Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive...
(613) Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects...
The DESC Form 702 is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day...
When obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank...
When setting up the TPI-4T-4A, where should the corrosion...
Which fuel spill classification should be given to a spill involving...
Who should be contacted if a fire extinguisher with a broken seal is...
Waiting or current defuels are dispalyed on the BSM-E logsheet in what...
Which function key should be used to enter a home station aircraft...
In order to verify billing data, all VIL key requests should be...
All of the following items must be contained in each servicing...
What type of sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples from...
Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award of...
Which fuel has the highest vapor pressure?
When must the injectors on hte TPI-4T-4A additive injector be purged...
Which of the following statements regarding cryogenic production is...
(609) What C-300/C-301 component allows the tank to breathe during...
On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling...
During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed how far in...
Type III, IV, and V hydrants should be flushed
What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?
A technical order that lists all of the technical orders applicable to...
Combustible liquids have a flashpoint higher than
The secondary purpose of the PMU-27M self-priming pump is...
To facilitate priming, the PMU-27M self priming pump is provided with...
The 117 MSRP kit is equipped wiht how many 500 gallon sealed...
Operating aircraft can produce noise levels of
What ABFDS tank component prevents the buildup of fuel vapors inside...
The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many...
How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?
A positive ion is an atom that
Sealing clamps used for emergency repair of fuel bladder come in all...
(608) Prior to servicing with the Beta-International R-12, ensure that...
What is the difference between the motors used un the self-contained...
(614) For concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft, which...
Which component records all of the transaction data for a service...
What mesh screen strainer is used in the type III hydrant system...
On the type III hydrant system, what will make the automatic bypass...
(609) The C-300/C-301 is equipped with emergency shutoff handles in...
(611) Personnel involved in hot refueling operations must be certified
Specialized publications that cover installation, operation,...
Which technical order is issued to correct unsafe conditions that...
What manner of fuel poisoning is the most common way for fuel to enter...
What fuel bladder component is used for removing water from the...
How many feet from the fuels laboratory must a 55-gallon waste drum be...
(619) On the ADC system, what maximum number of dial retries can the...
Which Fuels Manager window allows operators to modify tank parameters?
After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, how much time should...
Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels submitted to...
When equipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity...
(609) The C-300/C-301 is equipped with how many feet of 1 ½...
How many selectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle...
How many times can the memory chip in the vehicle identification link...
What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end...
At what pressure will the pressure relief valve on the R-19 filter...
What is the best way to slow down the heat transfer by convection in a...
When placed in the low mobility position, what is the maximum ramp...
What is the freeze point for JP-8?
At atmospheric pressure, 1 cubic foot of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands...
For safety measures, all Air Force electrical equipment must have
What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would...
What type of meter is used on most fuel dispensing systems?
At what temperature are membrane filters dried prior to use for a...
When cleaning sample bottles for use in fiber analysis, how many times...
What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R-20...
What percentage of wax does DF-2 contain?
You are driving through deep snow. What forward position will you...
To what component is the differential pressure transmitter on the type...
Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Bill of Lading, or...
What is the maximum flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump?
When manually gauging a tank for temperature, how many minutes must...
Which of the following components is used to relieve excessive...
What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid...
(618) Which form is used to record fuel issues to aircraft not...
Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation suggests...
What type of publications are normally filed in a three-ring binder?
What is the purpose of the float valve on the R-22 pump assembly?
What are the color coding requirements for JP-8+100 vehicle...
What type of overpacking should not be used for samples of aviation...
Fuels personnel identify the tank vent valve by using a locally...
For normal operation, both pointers on the dual brake air pressure...
How often should GPC cardholders reconcile the statement of account...
When making a telephone purchase, GPC cardholders should inform...
When using the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft (depending on...
How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many...
When should the Fuel Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels...
Tank gauge readings are entered on the DESC Form 700 in feet, inches,...
How far from the parking apron must the tanks be placed if the ABFDS...
What must be taken into consideration when determining a convenient...
An example of a directive standard publication is a
Hearing protection must be worn when working within how many feet of...
Which of the following is not a type of postive displacement pump?
What is the unit of measurement for electrical power?
What type(s) of current flow cannot be transformed from an higher...
A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are
With how many feet of communication wire is each R-20 multi-aircraft...
The PMU-27M hoses are inspected daily for all of the following except
How often should the sump pump on the R-19 filter separator unit be...
How long should documents received and/or generated by a GPC...
What type of valve is found on the suction line in the self-contained...
What are the two positions of the throttle switch located on the R-18...
How many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification...
How many days (minimum) can the battery in the type III hydrant system...
On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the...
When emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling...
The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the
What component on the collapsible coated fabric fuel tank allows for...
How often should fillstand emergency shutdown switches be tested for...
What component on a filter separator prevents pressure surges from...
What term is used to describe the total pressure acting as a gas?
(608) During fueling operations with the Beta-Frieghtliner R-12, how...
Accountability for a transferred MRSP kit temporary rests with the
When performing a bottle method analysis, on what type of fuel is a...
The winterization system on the Oshkosh R-11 is powered by a
What is the desired engine speed for LOW FLOW servicing operations in...
For safe dispersal of fuel vapors, how many feet must an automotive...
An entry is required in columns J (TIME IN) and K (TIME OUT) on the AF...
Who is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received...
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