CDC 3S051 Vol 2

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1/45 Questions

In order for joint doctrine to promote a perspective that is used to plan, train, and conduct military operations, it represents what is
- Believed what is wrong or incorrect (that is, what is not working properly).
- Taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (that is, what works best).
- Thought of as joint military operations.
- Thought of as US military war blueprints.

About This Quiz

This CDC 3S051 Vol 2 quiz assesses knowledge in joint doctrine, operation planning, and total force accountability, focusing on logistics and personnel services in military operations. It is crucial for those in or aspiring to roles in the US Air Force, enhancing skills in strategic planning and effective mission accomplishment.

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2.

What process guides the combatant commanders (CCDR) in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises?
- Mobilization planning.
- Deployment planning.
- Joint operation planning.
- Employment planning.
Correct Answer

A. Joint operation planning.

Explanation

Joint operation planning is the process that guides the combatant commanders in developing plans for the possible employment of the military instrument of national power to meet contingencies and respond to unforeseen crises. Joint operation planning involves the coordination and integration of efforts among multiple military services and agencies to achieve strategic objectives. It includes the development of operational plans, the identification of required resources, and the establishment of command and control structures. By utilizing joint operation planning, combatant commanders can effectively plan and execute military operations in a unified and coordinated manner.

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3.

The provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until successful mission accomplishment describes
- Joint operation planning.
- Operations planning.
- Redeployment planning.
- Sustainment planning.
Correct Answer

A. Sustainment planning.

Explanation

Sustainment planning involves the provision of logistics and personnel services to ensure the continuous support and maintenance of operations until the successful completion of a mission. This includes activities such as supplying resources, maintaining equipment, and providing necessary personnel support to sustain operations. It focuses on ensuring the availability of resources and support needed to prolong operations and achieve mission objectives.

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4.

Total force accountability is defined as the accurate accounting for all Air Force at all times
- And their dependents.
- Regardless of location.
- Even if they have an approved retirement date on file.
- Even if they have not deployed within the last year.
Correct Answer

A. Regardless of location.

Explanation

The correct answer is "regardless of location." This means that total force accountability requires accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel and their dependents, regardless of where they are located. It is important to keep track of everyone within the Air Force, regardless of whether they are stationed domestically or deployed internationally. This ensures that the Air Force can effectively manage and support its personnel and their families, regardless of their geographical location.

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5.

Total force accountability can be expanded by the theater commander or the supported command to include all of the following except
- DOD emergency civilians.
- DOD essential contractor personnel.
- Dependents.
- Allied forces.
Correct Answer

A. Dependents.

Explanation

Total force accountability refers to the responsibility of the theater commander or the supported command to account for all personnel involved in a military operation. This includes military personnel, DOD emergency civilians, DOD essential contractor personnel, and allied forces. However, dependents, who are family members of military personnel, are not typically included in total force accountability as they are not directly involved in the operation. Therefore, the correct answer is dependents.

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6.

PERSCO maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed and designated geographically separated location, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes which element of total force accountability?
- Total force.
- Unit.
- Replacement.
- Strength.
Correct Answer

A. Strength.

Explanation

This question is asking which element of total force accountability is described when PERSCO maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients, at their deployed and designated geographically separated location, regardless of status, according to component command policies. The term "strength" refers to the number of personnel in a unit, so this answer is correct because PERSCO is responsible for maintaining accountability over the personnel (or strength) of the unit.

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7.

The guard is a unique institution with both
- State and county missions.
- Federal and state missions.
- Federal and overseas missions.
- USAF, Marine, and Coast Guard missions.
Correct Answer

A. Federal and state missions.

Explanation

The correct answer is federal and state missions. This means that the guard has responsibilities at both the federal and state levels. This could include tasks such as supporting federal military operations and also assisting with state emergencies or disaster response.

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8.

The air and space expeditionary force’s (AEF) primary purpose is
- To provide predictability to Airmen.
- To provide stability to Airmen.
- Warfighter support.
- To disseminate Airmen across the tempo bands fairly.
Correct Answer

A. Warfighter support.

Explanation

The correct answer is "warfighter support." The primary purpose of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is to provide support to the warfighters. This means they are responsible for ensuring that the Airmen have the necessary resources, equipment, and training to effectively support military operations and combat missions. This support can include a wide range of tasks such as logistics, intelligence, communications, and transportation. By focusing on warfighter support, the AEF helps to enhance the overall effectiveness and readiness of the Air Force in carrying out its mission.

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9.

Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations that are postured in unit type codes. These unit type codes are aligned in
- The unit manning personnel roster (UPMR).
- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
- The member’s unit mobility folder.
- One of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries.
Correct Answer

A. One of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries.

Explanation

Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations that are postured in unit type codes. These unit type codes are aligned in one of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries. This means that Airmen are assigned to specific units based on the manpower requirements outlined in the UMD authorizations. These unit type codes are organized and categorized in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Enabler libraries, which serve as references for unit assignments and deployments.

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10.

The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through which concept?
- Air and space expeditionary force (AEF).
- Operations plan (OPLAN).
- Unit type code (UTC).
- Global warfare.
Correct Answer

A. Air and space expeditionary force (AEF).

Explanation

The Air Force presents its force capabilities to satisfy commander requirements through the concept of Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). AEF is a deployment concept that ensures the Air Force can rapidly respond to global requirements by organizing and presenting forces in a predictable and standardized manner. It allows commanders to have a clear understanding of the capabilities and resources available to them, enabling effective planning and execution of missions.

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11.

Global Force Management (GFM) is a process to align
- Tempo bands “A”, “B”, “E”, and “N”.
- And group all of the adversaries vulnerabilities.
- Force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements.
- AEF cycle with the Enabler library.
Correct Answer

A. Force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the defense strategy and in support of joint force availability requirements.

Explanation

Global Force Management (GFM) involves the process of determining how forces should be allocated, assigned, and apportioned to support the defense strategy and joint force availability requirements. This process includes considering various methodologies for distributing forces effectively. By aligning the tempo bands "A", "B", "E", and "N" and grouping adversaries' vulnerabilities, GFM ensures that forces are deployed in a way that optimizes their availability and supports the overall defense strategy.

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12.

Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES timephased force deployment data are used in support of all the following except
- Operations plan (OPLAN).
- Concept of operations (CONPLAN).
- Operations order (OPORD).
- Schedule of events (SOE).
Correct Answer

A. Schedule of events (SOE).

Explanation

The JOPES/DCAPES timephased force deployment data is used to support operations plan (OPLAN), concept of operations (CONPLAN), and operations order (OPORD). These documents require accurate information about manpower and logistics requirements, which is provided by the JOPES/DCAPES data. However, the schedule of events (SOE) is a separate document that outlines the specific timeline and sequence of events for an operation. While the JOPES/DCAPES data may inform the development of the SOE, it is not directly used in its support.

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13.

A unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once
- It is registered in the TUCHA without MFE and/or equipment detail.
- It is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.
- It is registered in the UTC Availability.
- All of the agencies have coordinated on the UTC.
Correct Answer

A. It is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail.

Explanation

The correct answer is "it is registered in the TUCHA with all MFE and/or equipment detail." This means that a unit type code (UTC) is considered complete once it has been registered in the TUCHA system and all the necessary MFE (Mission Essential Functions) and equipment details have been provided. This ensures that all the relevant information about the UTC is available and documented in the system.

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14.

Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for all of the following except
- Deployment.
- Movement planning.
- Sustainment actions.
- Plan execution.
Correct Answer

A. Sustainment actions.

Explanation

Standard unit type codes (UTC) are used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistic requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution. However, sustainment actions are not directly related to identifying manpower and logistic requirements, but rather involve the ongoing support and maintenance of deployed forces. Therefore, sustainment actions are not included in the use of UTCs in JOPES/DCAPES.

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15.

Which unit type code (UTC) attribute is a code identifying the deployment status of a UTC?
- Unit level
- Total short tons.
- Passengers.
- Deployment indicator.
Correct Answer

A. Deployment indicator.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Deployment indicator." The deployment indicator is a UTC attribute code that identifies the deployment status of a UTC. This code is used to indicate whether a UTC is currently deployed or not. It provides information about the operational status of the unit and helps in tracking and managing deployments effectively.

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16.

Personnel unit types codes (UTC) are generally built to accommodate how many days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel?
- 15
- 30
- 45
- 60
Correct Answer

A. 30

Explanation

Personnel unit types codes (UTC) are generally built to accommodate 30 days of sustained capability before having to be resupplied or augmented with new supplies or personnel. This means that the UTC is designed to operate efficiently for a month without requiring additional resources or personnel support.

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17.

Which of these agencies can initiate unit type code (UTC) development except
- Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional area manager (FAM)
- Major command (MAJCOM)
- Air National Guard (ANG)
- Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS)
Correct Answer

A. Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS)

Explanation

The Base Level Military Personnel Section (MPS) cannot initiate unit type code (UTC) development. UTC development is typically initiated by higher-level agencies such as the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) functional area manager (FAM), Major command (MAJCOM), and Air National Guard (ANG). The MPS is responsible for managing personnel records and providing administrative support at the base level, but they do not have the authority to initiate UTC development.

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0
18.

When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be canceled?
- MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).
- Major command (MAJCOM).
- Wing Plans (XP)
- Personnel readiness function (PRF)
Correct Answer

A. MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).

Explanation

The MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA) can request the cancellation of a unit type code (UTC) when it is no longer needed. The MRA is responsible for managing and coordinating the use of UTCs within the organization. They have the authority to determine when a UTC is no longer necessary and can initiate the process to cancel it. This ensures that resources are efficiently allocated and that UTCs are only used when they are needed for specific missions or tasks.

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19.

Unit types codes (UTC) that are canceled remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for how many years?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct Answer

A. One

Explanation

Canceled unit types codes (UTC) remain in the MEFPAK and TUCHA for one year.

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20.

All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the
- Base level manpower personnel (MANPER-B) module
- Unit type code (UTC) availability.
- Unit manning document (UMD)
- Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer

A. Unit type code (UTC) availability.

Explanation

All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF), which means that their availability and deployment status must be tracked and managed. The unit type code (UTC) availability refers to the system that records and monitors the availability of different unit types for deployment. By utilizing the UTC availability, the Air Force can ensure that all authorizations are properly postured and accounted for in the deployment process. This system helps in efficiently managing and coordinating personnel for various missions and operations.

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21.

Specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the
- AFCSM 36-699, Military Personnel Data System.
- AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Excecution.
- AEFC AEF Online Web site.
- HQ AFPC readiness Web site.
Correct Answer

A. AEFC AEF Online Web site.

Explanation

The correct answer is AEFC AEF Online Web site. The explanation for this answer is that the specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff FAM prioritization and sequencing instructions. These instructions can be found on the AEFC AEF Online Web site. This website provides the necessary information and guidelines for determining the UTCs and their sequencing in accordance with the Air Force's operational planning and execution.

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22.

A-UTCs are postured in the UTC availability and aligned to the
- Air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.
- Tempo bands.
- Needs of the combatant commander.
- Needs of the Chief of Staff (CSAF)
Correct Answer

A. Air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.

Explanation

The correct answer is "air expeditionary force (AEF) libraries". This means that UTCs (Unit Type Codes) are positioned in the availability and alignment of the AEF libraries. AEF libraries refer to the set of pre-defined force packages that are organized to meet the needs of combatant commanders. These libraries contain specific UTCs that are tailored to the requirements of various missions and operational scenarios. By aligning UTCs to the AEF libraries, the Air Force ensures that it can rapidly deploy the necessary forces and capabilities to support the combatant commander's needs.

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23.

The purpose of mobilization planning is the means by which
- Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities work with other countries to work out the differences.
- Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks.
- Organizations work with other organizations to improve their war-planning procedures.
- Governmental agencies determine whether they required help from the ARC.
Correct Answer

A. Organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks.

Explanation

The correct answer is organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities define policies and document procedures to accomplish tasks. This answer is supported by the statement that mobilization planning is the means by which organizations charged with mobilization responsibilities work with other countries to work out the differences. This implies that these organizations are responsible for defining policies and documenting procedures in order to accomplish their mobilization tasks.

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24.

Normally, Push-Pull will not be recommended unless all of the following factors are present except
- Large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages.
- Shortages can be predicted in terms of AFSC, quantity, and timing.
- Major contingencies involve large deployments.
- Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.
Correct Answer

A. Major contingencies involve large deployments.

Explanation

The correct answer is major contingencies involve large deployments. This is because the question is asking for the factor that is not necessary for Push-Pull to be recommended. Push-Pull is a personnel management strategy that involves using both pre-trained individual manpower (PIM) resources and traditional recruiting methods to meet personnel shortages. The other three factors listed in the question (large deployments of Air Force forces, shortages that can be predicted, and PIM resources as the best source) are all necessary for Push-Pull to be recommended.

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25.

Once the separation, personnel data system (PDS) action flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to
- 17.
- 18.
- 19.
- 20.
Correct Answer

A. 20.

Explanation

The given answer, 20, suggests that the HAF records status changes from 10 to 20. This implies that the personnel data system (PDS) action flows from the base to the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and results in a change in status from 10 to 20.

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26.

When will the flow of data from the active file to the ANG/USAFR file occur?
- 120 days before the separation projection.
- At the time of the initial separation projection.
- 120 days after the separation projection.
- On the separation date plus one day.
Correct Answer

A. At the time of the initial separation projection.

Explanation

The flow of data from the active file to the ANG/USAFR file will occur at the time of the initial separation projection. This means that the data transfer will happen when the initial projection for separation is made. It does not specify any specific time frame such as before or after the separation projection, but rather emphasizes that it will occur during the initial projection itself.

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27.

In order to demobilize a member, demobilization orders are not required. The personnelist needs what two documents to verify the deactivation?
- Copy of contingency TDY orders and copy of the paid travel voucher.
- DD Form 214 and a copy of the contingency TDY orders.
- DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.
- Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.
Correct Answer

A. DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher. These two documents are needed to verify the deactivation of a member. The DD Form 214 is a Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, which provides information about the member's service and reason for separation. The paid travel voucher is necessary to confirm that the member has completed their travel and received reimbursement for any expenses incurred during their service.

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28.

Individuals may request retention on active duty because of all of the following except
- Educational hardship.
- Personal hardship.
- Financial hardship.
- Medical hardship.
Correct Answer

A. Educational hardship.

Explanation

This question asks for an explanation of the answer choice "educational hardship" as the exception for individuals requesting retention on active duty. In this context, "retention on active duty" refers to individuals wanting to continue their service in the military. The other answer choices, personal hardship, financial hardship, and medical hardship, are all valid reasons that individuals may request to stay on active duty. However, educational hardship is not typically considered a valid reason for requesting retention, as it does not directly relate to the individual's ability to continue their military service.

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29.

Once the wing/installation commander completes the installation deployment officer (IDO) and alternate IDO appointment letter, all of these receive a copy except
- Command post.
- Security forces.
- Respective MAJCOM/A4.
- Battle staff/crisis action team (BS/CAT).
Correct Answer

A. Security forces.

Explanation

The installation deployment officer (IDO) and alternate IDO appointment letters are important documents that need to be distributed to various individuals or departments involved in the deployment process. The command post, respective MAJCOM/A4, and battle staff/crisis action team (BS/CAT) are all key stakeholders who should receive a copy of these letters. However, security forces, although an important component of the installation, may not necessarily need a copy of these letters as their role may not directly involve deployment operations.

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30.

Who determines the frequency and scope of exercises based on what is necessary to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy?
- Unit deployment manager.
- Installation deployment officer.
- Wing/installation commander.
- Unit commander.
Correct Answer

A. Wing/installation commander.

Explanation

The wing/installation commander is responsible for determining the frequency and scope of exercises to ensure the deployment process runs efficiently and that all units, including Associate units, are prepared to deploy. They have the authority and oversight to make decisions regarding the readiness and training of the units under their command. The unit deployment manager, installation deployment officer, and unit commander may have roles in the deployment process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the wing/installation commander.

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31.

At a minimum, each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks what percent of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs identified in the UTC Availability?
- 10.
- 15.
- 20.
- 25.
Correct Answer

A. 25.

Explanation

Each wing/installation must conduct at least one deployment exercise per 20-month AEF cycle that tasks 25% of personnel and equipment of all P-coded UTCs identified in the UTC Availability.

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32.

The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within how many hours?
- 48.
- 96.
- 144.
- 192.
Correct Answer

A. 96.

Explanation

The wing/installation commander ensures procedures are established to notify Airmen of a tasking within 96 hours. This means that the commander is responsible for implementing protocols to inform Airmen of their assigned tasks within a maximum of 96 hours after the tasking is received. This ensures timely communication and allows Airmen to prepare and carry out their duties effectively.

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33.

The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for all of the following except
- Supports and assists the installation deployment officer (IDO) in resolving issues at the lowest level.
- Supports the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness.
- Facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process.
- Coordinates with the Logistic Readiness Squadron commander (LRS/CC) and the IDO and recommends to the wing/installation commander the frequency and scope of installation exercises.
Correct Answer

A. Facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process.

Explanation

The mission support group commander (MSG/CC) is responsible for supporting and assisting the installation deployment officer (IDO) in resolving issues at the lowest level, supporting the IDO to ensure that assigned units maintain a state of readiness, and coordinating with the Logistic Readiness Squadron commander (LRS/CC) and the IDO to recommend the frequency and scope of installation exercises to the wing/installation commander. However, the MSG/CC is not responsible for facilitating the installation reclama shortfall process.

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34.

All of the these make up the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) except
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- Personnel readiness function (PRF).
- Logistics readiness flight (LGRR).
- Unit manpower document (UMD).
Correct Answer

A. Unit manpower document (UMD).

Explanation

The question asks for the option that does not make up the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC). The IDRC is a unit responsible for ensuring the readiness of personnel and logistics for deployment. The installation deployment officer (IDO), personnel readiness function (PRF), and logistics readiness flight (LGRR) are all components of the IDRC. However, the unit manpower document (UMD) is not directly related to the readiness of personnel and logistics for deployment, making it the correct answer.

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35.

Within how many hours of an emergency event will HQ AFPC/Prc publish a message or email to the MAJCOM CAT directors with a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 representative outlining accountability procedures requiring all bases to identify personnel who are TDY, on a base, or on leave from their base?
- 24
- 48
- 72
- 96
Correct Answer

A. 48

Explanation

Within 48 hours of an emergency event, HQ AFPC/Prc will publish a message or email to the MAJCOM CAT directors with a courtesy copy to the MAJCOM CAT/A1 representative outlining accountability procedures requiring all bases to identify personnel who are TDY, on a base, or on leave from their base.

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36.

What category title will the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) make provisions to include evacuation plans on?
- 1
- 5
- 10
- 32
Correct Answer

A. 32

Explanation

The Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) will make provisions to include evacuation plans under category title 32.

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37.

Who will each MAJCOM and the National Guard Bureau (NGB) direct to ensure all wing/installation commanders and geographically separated units (GSU) have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place to account for all personnel in the event of a natural disaster or national emergency?
- HQ AFPC/DPA.
- Plans and Requirements (A5).
- HQ AFPC/CAT.
- HQ AFPC/PA.
Correct Answer

A. Plans and Requirements (A5).

Explanation

The correct answer is "Plans and Requirements (A5)". This answer is the most logical because the question asks who will direct the MAJCOM and the National Guard Bureau to ensure that all wing/installation commanders and geographically separated units have evacuation plans and tracking procedures in place. The Plans and Requirements (A5) department would be responsible for overseeing and coordinating such plans and procedures, making them the most suitable choice for directing the MAJCOM and NGB in this matter.

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38.

In the event a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, members are encouraged to report their status to
- Their supervisor.
- Their unit commander.
- Their flight chief.
- Any responding agency.
Correct Answer

A. Any responding agency.

Explanation

In a situation where a member is stranded in a crisis area with no communications available, it is important for them to report their status to any responding agency. This is because these agencies are trained and equipped to handle emergency situations and can provide the necessary assistance and support. Reporting to their supervisor, unit commander, or flight chief may not be possible if there is no communication available, whereas any responding agency would be actively working to provide help in crisis situations.

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39.

Whose responsibility is it to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location in the event the member and/or their families are required to relocate?
- Unit commmander.
- HQ AFPC/PRC
- MAJCOM
- NGB
Correct Answer

A. Unit commmander.

Explanation

The responsibility to ensure UCCs are trained and in place for members to report their evacuation location in the event of relocation lies with the unit commander. This individual is in charge of overseeing the training and readiness of their unit, including emergency preparedness and evacuation procedures. They are responsible for ensuring that all members are aware of the proper channels to report their evacuation location and that the necessary UCCs are established and functioning effectively.

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40.

MAJCOMs own base-level GCCS-AF equipments and are responsible for all of the following except
- Software upgrades.
- Warranty information.
- Initial load of software.
- Replacement parts.
Correct Answer

A. Initial load of software.

Explanation

MAJCOMs (Major Commands) are responsible for various tasks related to base-level GCCS-AF (Global Command and Control System-Air Force) equipments. These tasks include software upgrades, warranty information, and replacement parts. However, the initial load of software is not their responsibility. This task is usually performed by the manufacturer or a designated organization before the equipment is delivered to the MAJCOMs.

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41.

Personnel planners are reponsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT) and equipment are scheduled with what team?
- RFL01
- RFL02
- RFL03
- ADVON
Correct Answer

A. ADVON

Explanation

Personnel planners are responsible for ensuring sufficient personnel support for contingency operation teams (PT) and equipment. The term "ADVON" stands for Advanced Echelon, which refers to a small group of personnel who are sent ahead of the main force to prepare for their arrival. Therefore, ADVON is the correct team with which personnel and equipment are scheduled in order to support contingency operations.

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42.

Which unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team?
- RFPF1
- RFPF2
- RFPF3
- RFPF4
Correct Answer

A. RFPF1

Explanation

The correct answer is RFPF1. The RFPF1 unit type code (UTC) is considered or called the personnel support for contingency operation (PERSCO) accountability team. This team is responsible for maintaining accountability of personnel during contingency operations.

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43.

Which unit type code (UTC) is a dependent team consisting of four individuals and cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location?
- RFPF1
- RFPF2
- RFPF3
- RFPF4
Correct Answer

A. RFPF2

Explanation

A dependent team consisting of four individuals that cannot deploy without a RFPF1 team or FSS IPR present at the deployed location is referred to as RFPF2.

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44.

Training is the primary factor of what deployment phase?
- Training
- Sustainment
- Redeployment
- Planning
Correct Answer

A. Planning

Explanation

The question is asking about the primary factor of the deployment phase, and the correct answer is "Planning." During the deployment phase, planning plays a crucial role as it involves creating a detailed plan for the implementation and execution of the project. This includes determining the resources needed, setting goals and objectives, creating timelines, and identifying potential risks. Training, sustainment, and redeployment are important aspects of the overall project, but they are not the primary factors of the deployment phase.

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45.

Who serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members?
- MSG/CC
- FSS commander
- FSS superintendent
- FSS UDM
Correct Answer

A. FSS UDM

Explanation

The FSS UDM (Unit Deployment Manager) serves at the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial/recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for personnel support for contingency operation team (PT) members. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the training and deployment activities of the team members, ensuring that they are properly trained and prepared for their duties during contingency operations.

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CDC 3S051 Vol 2

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