Take The 3d1x1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions!

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, etc.?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and other related responsibilities. This specialty deals with the transmission of radio frequencies, which involves the operation and maintenance of communication systems, ensuring effective transmission and reception of signals.

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  • 2. 

    Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network writing etc.?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmissions

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. They deal with the cables and antennas that are essential for transmitting and receiving signals in a network. This includes setting up and maintaining the physical infrastructure required for communication systems to function properly.

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  • 3. 

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duty position task. According to AFI 36-2201, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks as part of the Air Force Training Program. Duty position tasks are specific tasks that individuals are expected to perform in their assigned positions. These tasks are essential for the successful execution of their duties and responsibilities within the organization.

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  • 4. 

    Who is the supervisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      BFM

    • C.

      MFM

    • D.

      AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM
    Explanation
    AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing all matters related to a specific career field within the Air Force. They provide guidance, support, and direction to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping and developing the career field, making them the supervisor for all matters affecting it.

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  • 5. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS, CDC, etc.?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      BFM

    • C.

      MFM

    • D.

      AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM
    Explanation
    The AFCFM (Air Force Career Field Manager) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS (Air Force Specialty), CDC (Career Development Course), etc. The AFCFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the career field and has the authority to make decisions regarding training requirements and waivers.

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  • 6. 

    Who serves as the MAJCOM voting rep. during U&TW?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      BFM

    • C.

      MFM

    • D.

      AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    C. MFM
    Explanation
    During U&TW (Unit Training Workshop), the MAJCOM (Major Command) voting representative is the MFM (Mission Support Functional Manager). They are responsible for representing their MAJCOM and voting on behalf of their command during discussions and decisions made at the workshop.

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  • 7. 

    Who assists with identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) of SKT/CDC?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      BFM

    • C.

      MFM

    • D.

      AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM
    Explanation
    AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. In the context of the question, AFCFM is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) of SKT/CDC. This means that AFCFM helps in finding individuals who have the necessary expertise and knowledge in the specific career field to provide guidance and support.

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  • 8. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station 3D NCO?

    • A.

      UTM

    • B.

      BFM

    • C.

      MFM

    • D.

      AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    B. BFM
    Explanation
    The title normally assigned to the on-station 3D NCO is BFM.

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  • 9. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the SKT, what else?

    • A.

      Modify

    • B.

      Allocate

    • C.

      Develop CDC

    • D.

      Assist

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop CDC
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about various job roles and responsibilities. This data is then used to develop the Skill and Knowledge Taxonomy (SKT), which is a framework that categorizes and organizes the skills and knowledge required for different occupations. The SKT is an important tool for workforce planning, training, and development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Develop CDC" as the surveys are used to develop the Career Development Center (CDC) by creating a taxonomy of skills and knowledge needed for different job roles.

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  • 10. 

    What action is the main goal of U&TW?

    • A.

      Conduct

    • B.

      Develop CDC

    • C.

      Review

    • D.

      Establish CFETP

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish CFETP
    Explanation
    The main goal of U&TW is to establish CFETP. CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training and education requirements for a specific career field. By establishing CFETP, U&TW aims to provide a clear and structured framework for training and development within the organization.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for scheduling STRT?

    • A.

      MFM & TPM

    • B.

      AFCFM w/ SME

    • C.

      MFM w/ SME 

    • D.

      AFCFM w/ TPM

    Correct Answer
    D. AFCFM w/ TPM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFCFM w/ TPM. AFCFM stands for Air Force Comptroller Flight Manager, who is responsible for managing financial operations. TPM stands for Transportation Planning and Management, which involves scheduling and coordinating transportation activities. Therefore, the AFCFM with TPM would be responsible for scheduling STRT, which is not further defined in the question.

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  • 12. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their speciality?

    • A.

      CFETP

    • B.

      WAPS

    • C.

      OJT

    • D.

      Occupational Analysis Program

    Correct Answer
    C. OJT
    Explanation
    OJT stands for On-the-Job Training, which is a program that provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This type of training allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their actual job environment, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. OJT is a practical and hands-on approach to training, which helps individuals gain the necessary expertise and competence in their specific field.

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  • 13. 

    Which one of these is NOT an essential element in QA program?

    • A.

      Quality Assessments

    • B.

      Quality Assurance

    • C.

      Quality System

    • D.

      Trend Analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    An essential element in a QA program is Quality Assurance, which involves ensuring that the products or services meet the required quality standards. Quality Assessments are also essential as they involve evaluating and measuring the quality of the products or services. The Quality System is another essential element as it provides the framework and processes for maintaining and improving quality. However, Trend Analysis is not an essential element in a QA program as it is a tool or technique used to analyze patterns or trends in data, which can be helpful in identifying areas for improvement but is not a fundamental component of QA.

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  • 14. 

    Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a QA program?

    • A.

      Technical

    • B.

      Personnel

    • C.

      Managerial

    • D.

      Standard

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard
    Explanation
    In a QA program, evaluations are conducted to assess various aspects of the program. Technical, personnel, and managerial evaluations are all types of assessments that can be conducted to evaluate different aspects of the program. However, "Standard" is not a type of evaluation in a QA program. It is likely that this option refers to a set of standards or guidelines that are used in the evaluation process rather than being a specific type of evaluation itself.

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  • 15. 

    Which QA essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, etc.?

    • A.

      Trend Analysis

    • B.

      Quality System

    • C.

      Quality Assessments 

    • D.

      Managerial Assessments 

    Correct Answer
    A. Trend Analysis
    Explanation
    Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, and analyzing data to identify patterns and trends over time. This process helps in understanding the direction in which quality is moving and allows for proactive measures to be taken to address any potential issues or opportunities for improvement. It is an essential element in quality assurance as it provides valuable insights into the performance of a system or process. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on the collection and analysis of data for trend identification.

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  • 16. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new IG inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • A.

      MI

    • B.

      UEI

    • C.

      CUI

    • D.

      CCIP

    Correct Answer
    B. UEI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UEI, which stands for Unit Effectiveness Inspection. This type of inspection combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, maintain compliance with regulations, and ensure readiness for future operations. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement.

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  • 17. 

    Automated info. system manages entire life cycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement?

    • A.

      Remedy

    • B.

      Training Business Area

    • C.

      Telephone Management System

    • D.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. It helps in tracking and managing IT assets, including their acquisition, deployment, maintenance, and disposal. Remedy streamlines the process and ensures efficient management of IT assets throughout their life cycle, making it the most suitable option among the given choices.

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  • 18. 

    What USC title authorizes the creation of DOD as an executive component of Army, Navy, AF, Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Title 10

    • B.

      Title 18

    • C.

      Title 32

    • D.

      Title 68

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    Title 10 of the United States Code authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the DOD, including the roles and functions of each branch of the military. It provides the legal framework for the DOD's operations and ensures its compliance with federal laws and regulations.

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  • 19. 

    The UCMJ is derived from what USC?

    • A.

      Title 3

    • B.

      Title 8

    • C.

      Title 10

    • D.

      Title 18

    Correct Answer
    C. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, which stands for the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code. Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the organization and regulation of the United States Armed Forces, and it covers a wide range of topics related to military law and justice.

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  • 20. 

    What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the US to secure cyberspace?

    • A.

      National Military Cyberspace Strategy

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • C.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace

    • D.

      National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to ensure the security of cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for government agencies, private sector organizations, and individuals to protect critical infrastructure, information systems, and data from cyber threats. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace focuses on establishing partnerships, enhancing information sharing, promoting innovation, and strengthening cybersecurity capabilities to safeguard the nation's digital assets.

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  • 21. 

    Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

    • A.

      National Security Policy

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cybersecurity  Initiative

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace
    Explanation
    The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyber infrastructure and ensuring its resilience against cyber threats. It outlines the government's approach to securing cyberspace and emphasizes the importance of collaboration between the public and private sectors to enhance cybersecurity measures.

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  • 22. 

    What policy outlines US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations?

    • A.

      National Security Policy

    • B.

      National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

    • C.

      Comprehensive National Cyberspace Initiative

    • D.

      National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations
    Explanation
    The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations by the US Armed Forces. This policy specifically focuses on military operations in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to effectively and securely conduct cyber operations to protect national security interests. It is a specific strategy that addresses the unique challenges and opportunities presented by cyberspace, ensuring that the US Armed Forces are prepared to defend and operate effectively in this domain.

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  • 23. 

    When ANG personnel in Title 32 status... cyber operations, what title status...?

    • A.

      Title 10

    • B.

      Title 30

    • C.

      Title 50

    • D.

      Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    When ANG personnel are in Title 32 status, they are not authorized to conduct cyber operations. Title 32 status refers to the National Guard being under state control, and they do not have the authority to engage in cyber operations. On the other hand, Title 10 status refers to the National Guard being under federal control, and in this status, they have the authority to conduct cyber operations. Therefore, the correct answer is Title 10.

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  • 24. 

    An employee or employer relationship...?

    • A.

      Misuse of Position

    • B.

      Covered Relationships

    • C.

      Non-public Info.

    • D.

      Personal Conflict of Interest

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered Relationships
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Covered Relationships. Covered relationships refer to situations where an employee has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a business transaction or decision-making process that could potentially create a conflict of interest. These relationships can include family members, close friends, or romantic partners. It is important to identify and disclose these relationships to ensure transparency and prevent any misuse of position or non-public information that could arise from such connections.

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  • 25. 

    Member of a household or relatives...?

    • A.

      Misuse of Position

    • B.

      Covered Relationships

    • C.

      Personal Conflict of Interest

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Covered Relationships
    Explanation
    Covered Relationships refers to the situation where a person in a position of power or authority has a personal relationship with someone who could potentially benefit from their decisions or actions. This could include immediate family members, close relatives, or even close friends. Such relationships can create conflicts of interest and may lead to the misuse of power or favoritism. Therefore, the correct answer is Covered Relationships.

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  • 26. 

    What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
    Explanation
    The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN. This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, which is a private network used for internal communication and information sharing within the Air Force. It acts as a defense mechanism against cyber threats and ensures the security and control of the Air Force's network infrastructure.

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  • 27. 

    What cyberspace weapons system includes the I-NOSC, ESU, APC functions?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
    Explanation
    The correct answer, Air Force Cyber Security and Control System, is a cyberspace weapons system that includes the I-NOSC, ESU, and APC functions. This system is designed to provide security and control over cyberspace operations within the Air Force. It helps to protect sensitive information, networks, and infrastructure from cyber threats. The I-NOSC (Installation Network Operations and Security Center) is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's network infrastructure. The ESU (Enterprise Service Unit) provides essential services and support for cyber operations. The APC (Access Point Controller) function controls access to the network and ensures secure connections.

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  • 28. 

    What cyberspace weapons system resulted from... MAJCOM... stove-piped networks into centrally managed and controlled networks under I-NOSC?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from merging the stove-piped networks of MAJCOM into centrally managed and controlled networks under the I-NOSC. It is designed to enhance cyber security and provide control over the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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  • 29. 

    Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

    • A.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System 

    • C.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • D.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
    Explanation
    Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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  • 30. 

    What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks... worldwide operations?

    • A.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

    • C.

      Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
    Explanation
    The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks worldwide. This system is designed to provide comprehensive cyber command and control capabilities, allowing the Air Force to effectively manage and defend its cyberspace operations. It enables the Air Force to maintain situational awareness, coordinate cyber operations, and protect critical information systems, ensuring the availability and integrity of network resources for global operations.

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  • 31. 

    What Cyberspace Weapon System identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

    • A.

      Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

    • B.

      Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

    • C.

      Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon Sytem

    • D.

      Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
    Explanation
    The Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the cyberspace infrastructure and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate and defend against cyber threats. The other options mentioned are not focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment as the Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

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  • 32. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • B.

      Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • C.

      Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two entities were specifically tasked with handling and overseeing cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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  • 33. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • A.

      Active and reactive.

    • B.

      Evasive and decisive.

    • C.

      Subversive and divisive.

    • D.

      Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to identify and counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats actively, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. Both active and reactive defenses are essential in protecting against cyber threats and minimizing the impact of successful intrusions.

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  • 34. 

    Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

    • A.

      Counterintelligence (CI)

    • B.

      Operation Security (OPSEC)

    • C.

      Military Deception (MILDEC)

    • D.

      Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

    Correct Answer
    C. Military Deception (MILDEC)
    Explanation
    MILDEC activities are designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception of friendly operations, capabilities, and intentions. Since MISO and PA target the same audience, MILDEC can be used to support their efforts by spreading false information or creating a false impression to confuse the enemy. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited by adversaries, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information to support military operations.

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  • 35. 

    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

    • A.

      Strategic Considerations

    • B.

      Military Strategic Framework

    • C.

      Implementation and Assessment

    • D.

      Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

    Correct Answer
    D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction to the Department of Defense in their strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense should follow in order to effectively secure cyberspace and protect national security interests.

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  • 36. 

    Which agency is responsible for... identification, prioritization... GIG infrastructure?

    • A.

      Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

    • B.

      Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

    • C.

      National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

    • D.

      Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    Correct Answer
    D. Defense Information System Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is responsible for the identification, prioritization, and management of the Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure includes all the information systems, networks, and telecommunications used by the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA's role is to ensure that the GIG infrastructure is secure, reliable, and able to support the needs of the DoD. They are responsible for the planning, development, and operation of the GIG, as well as coordinating with other agencies and organizations to ensure interoperability and information sharing.

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  • 37. 

    Which unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

    • A.

      644th Combat Communication Squadron

    • B.

      85th Engineering Installation Squadron

    • C.

      83rd Network Operations Squadron

    • D.

      4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

    Correct Answer
    B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron
    Explanation
    The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is the correct answer because they are responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to do this task anywhere and at any time, making them an essential unit for ensuring effective communication and command systems for military operations.

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  • 38. 

    Which unit within the AFNetOps community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the AFNetOps community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This means that the ESU focuses on streamlining and optimizing training processes to make them more efficient and effective. By doing so, they can ensure that warfighters are adequately prepared for their roles and responsibilities, ultimately increasing their capacity to carry out their missions successfully. The ESU's goal aligns with the broader objective of maximizing the military's operational capabilities while minimizing unnecessary training burdens.

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  • 39. 

    What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • C.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • D.

      Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    B. Area Processing Center (APC)
    Explanation
    An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure and systems that support these services for an organization. They ensure that employees have access to the necessary tools and resources to communicate, access information, and store data securely. The APCs play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of enterprise services for the organization.

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  • 40. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • A.

      Manpower

    • B.

      Efficiency

    • C.

      Reduce costs.

    • D.

      DoD 8570 mandate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining the service desk operations, the organization can enhance its ability to respond to and resolve IT issues effectively and promptly. This consolidation eliminates redundancies, reduces response times, and optimizes resource allocation, ultimately leading to improved productivity and customer satisfaction.

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  • 41. 

    What year did the AF institute Remedy?

    • A.

      2009

    • B.

      2010

    • C.

      2011

    • D.

      2012

    Correct Answer
    B. 2010
    Explanation
    The AF Institute implemented Remedy in 2010.

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  • 42. 

    What two levels are JTF divided into?

    • A.

      Subordinate unified command and geographical command

    • B.

      Unified command and subordinate unified command

    • C.

      Functional command and geographical command

    • D.

      Unified command and functional command

    Correct Answer
    B. Unified command and subordinate unified command
    Explanation
    JTF, or Joint Task Force, is divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and strategic planning, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on tactical execution and implementation of the plans. This division allows for efficient and effective command and control of military operations.

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  • 43. 

    The commander, COMAFFOR commands an AETF and provides unity of command to a?

    • A.

      Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFAAC)

    • B.

      Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)

    • C.

      Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)

    • D.

      Joint Force Commander (JFC)

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint Force Commander (JFC)
    Explanation
    The commander, COMAFFOR, is responsible for commanding an AETF (Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force) and providing unity of command. The Joint Force Commander (JFC) is the commander who is responsible for overall command and control of joint forces in a theater of operations. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as they have the authority to command the COMAFFOR and other component commanders such as the CFAAC, JFACC, and CNAF.

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  • 44. 

    What methodology is used by AF for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

    • A.

      Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

    • B.

      Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)

    • C.

      Unit type codes (UTC)

    • D.

      Stratum levels (SL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)
    Explanation
    The methodology used by AF for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR) is Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF). This means that the AF organizes and presents its forces in a structured and rotational manner, ensuring that the CCDRs have access to the necessary capabilities and resources to fulfill their missions. The AEF system allows for the efficient deployment and sustainment of forces, ensuring readiness and responsiveness to global requirements.

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  • 45. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • A.

      Coding

    • B.

      Positioning

    • C.

      Tempo bands

    • D.

      Unit type code

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type and capabilities of military units. They provide a common language and framework for organizing and coordinating forces during planning and deployments. By using unit type codes, commanders and planners can quickly and accurately identify the units available for a mission, their capabilities, and their requirements, which helps ensure effective and efficient operations.

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  • 46. 

    Which stage is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages?

    • A.

      Service Transition

    • B.

      Service Strategy

    • C.

      Service Contact

    • D.

      Service Design

    Correct Answer
    C. Service Contact
    Explanation
    The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is "Service Contact." The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. "Service Contact" is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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  • 47. 

    What ITIL stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • A.

      Continual Service Improvement

    • B.

      Service Transition

    • C.

      Service Strategy

    • D.

      Service Design

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the ITIL stage that focuses on constantly improving the quality of services provided. CSI aims to identify areas for improvement, gather data, analyze trends, and implement changes to enhance service quality. It involves monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying opportunities for improvement, and implementing corrective actions. By continuously evaluating and enhancing service quality, CSI ensures that the organization's services align with changing business needs and customer expectations.

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  • 48. 

    The vision of EIM is to provide tools to empower users to?

    • A.

      Safeguard info.

    • B.

      Exploit info.

    • C.

      Improve the effectiveness

    • D.

      Improve the efficiency 

    Correct Answer
    B. Exploit info.
    Explanation
    The vision of EIM is to provide tools that enable users to make full use of information. This means leveraging the available data and extracting valuable insights from it. By "exploiting" information, users can gain a competitive advantage, make informed decisions, and drive innovation. This aligns with the overall goal of EIM, which is to maximize the value and potential of the organization's information assets.

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  • 49. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • A.

      Article 32

    • B.

      Article 40

    • C.

      Article 92

    • D.

      Article 100

    Correct Answer
    C. Article 92
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers failure to obey an order or regulation. In this case, the failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey a regulation, thus falling under Article 92.

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  • 50. 

    How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Four

    • C.

      Six

    • D.

      Eight

    Correct Answer
    C. Six
    Explanation
    There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules may include being concise and clear in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of jargon or slang, being mindful of your tone and language, using appropriate subject lines, and proofreading before sending. Following these rules can help ensure that your e-mail is professional, effective, and easily understood by the recipient.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 13, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Joe Mama
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