Take The 3d1x1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions!

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1. Which computer system vulnerability is NOT one in a computer system?

Explanation

The given answer, "Attacker's lack of ability," is not a computer system vulnerability because it refers to the attacker's inability to exploit a flaw, rather than a vulnerability within the computer system itself. Vulnerabilities typically refer to weaknesses or flaws within the system that can be exploited by attackers, such as software bugs or misconfigurations. The other options mentioned, such as the attacker's capability to exploit the flaw, the system's susceptibility to a flaw, and the attacker's access to the flaw, all describe different aspects of computer system vulnerabilities.

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About This Quiz
Take The 3d1x1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions! - Quiz

Take the 3D1X1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper to assess your knowledge in Air Force specialties such as Radio Frequency Transmission, Cable and Antenna Systems, and more. This... see morequiz prepares you for responsibilities like deployment, sustainment, and troubleshooting within the Air Force framework. see less

2. The UCMJ is derived from what USC?

Explanation

The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, which stands for the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code. Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the organization and regulation of the United States Armed Forces, and it covers a wide range of topics related to military law and justice.

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3. What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support b/t the National Command Authority, DoD, aircraft, and ships of the US gov't during peacetime, contingency situations, and war?

Explanation

The Global HF system is the correct answer because it is the system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network that provides rapid, reliable, non-dedicated communications support between the National Command Authority, Department of Defense (DoD), aircraft, and ships of the US government during peacetime, contingency situations, and war. The other options, Mystic Star, DCS entry, and SITFAA, are not mentioned or associated with the specific purpose of providing communications support in the given context.

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4. Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

Explanation

When a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system, a classified message incident occurs. This refers to a situation where classified information is unintentionally or mistakenly sent to an unauthorized recipient. It could be due to human error, technical glitches, or inadequate security measures. This incident poses a risk to the confidentiality and integrity of the classified information, as it may end up in the wrong hands and potentially compromise national security.

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5. What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

Explanation

The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures to ensure maximum protection against hazards.

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6. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is Duty position task. According to AFI 36-2201, the supervisor is responsible for assigning duty position tasks as part of the Air Force Training Program. Duty position tasks are specific tasks that individuals are expected to perform in their assigned positions. These tasks are essential for the successful execution of their duties and responsibilities within the organization.

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7. Who is the supervisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Explanation

AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing all matters related to a specific career field within the Air Force. They provide guidance, support, and direction to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping and developing the career field, making them the supervisor for all matters affecting it.

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8. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS, CDC, etc.?

Explanation

The AFCFM (Air Force Career Field Manager) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS (Air Force Specialty), CDC (Career Development Course), etc. The AFCFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the career field and has the authority to make decisions regarding training requirements and waivers.

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9. How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

Explanation

There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules may include being concise and clear in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of jargon or slang, being mindful of your tone and language, using appropriate subject lines, and proofreading before sending. Following these rules can help ensure that your e-mail is professional, effective, and easily understood by the recipient.

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10. What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to connect together?

Explanation

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) is a network routing protocol that allows multiple autonomous systems to connect together. It is specifically designed for interconnecting different autonomous systems, making it the correct answer to the question. OSPF, IGP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are primarily used within a single autonomous system and do not provide the same capability to connect multiple autonomous systems together.

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11. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining the service desk operations, the organization can enhance its ability to respond to and resolve IT issues effectively and promptly. This consolidation eliminates redundancies, reduces response times, and optimizes resource allocation, ultimately leading to improved productivity and customer satisfaction.

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12. What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

Explanation

Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can lead to serious injuries. Slippery floors, loose carpets, or objects obstructing walkways can cause employees to trip and fall. Additionally, using unstable chairs or ladders improperly can also result in falls. It is important for employers to maintain a safe environment by addressing potential fall hazards and implementing measures such as proper signage, regular maintenance, and employee training to prevent accidents.

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13. What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

Explanation

Linear is another name for a bus topology because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable called the "bus." This cable acts as a backbone, and all devices are connected to it in a linear manner. Data is transmitted in both directions along the bus, and each device receives the data and determines if it is intended for it. Therefore, the term "linear" accurately describes the physical arrangement of devices in a bus topology.

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14. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1?

Explanation

The correct answer is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The question asks which option does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The TO 00-5-1 is a technical manual that provides guidance on the management and use of Technical Orders (TOs). It includes information on resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs. However, it does not specifically address Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures, which are a separate set of instructions for addressing time-sensitive maintenance requirements.

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15. What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

Explanation

When star networks are interconnected, they rely heavily on a central node point to manage and control the network. If this central node point fails, it can lead to the isolation of large portions of the network. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, causing a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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16. What two levels are JTF divided into?

Explanation

JTF, or Joint Task Force, is divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and strategic planning, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on tactical execution and implementation of the plans. This division allows for efficient and effective command and control of military operations.

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17. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper TOs?

Explanation

ETIMS, which stands for Enterprise Training Information Management System, is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper TOs (Training Orders). It is responsible for handling the logistics and administration of training orders, ensuring that the necessary documents are printed and distributed to the appropriate individuals or departments. ETIMS streamlines the process and helps to ensure that training orders are efficiently managed and executed.

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18. Which governing body is the authority for IT communications within the DoD and every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DoD) and oversees every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their control. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and IT services to support the military's mission. They play a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient communication and information sharing within the DoD.

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19. How many workflow capabilities are available on Sharepoint Server?

Explanation

There are three workflow capabilities available on SharePoint Server.

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20. What three parts make up CSIR?

Explanation

CSIR stands for Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. The three parts that make up CSIR are the administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary documentation related to the management and organization of CSIR. The drawing record contains technical drawings and diagrams that are essential for research and development activities. The maintenance record consists of records related to the maintenance and upkeep of equipment and facilities. These three parts are crucial for the smooth functioning and efficient operation of CSIR.

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21. Which classified document marking appears on the face of each US document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Classification authority". The classification authority marking appears on the face of each US document and indicates the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification. This marking is essential for identifying who has the authority to classify the document and for how long it should remain classified.

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22. How would you determine if an IDS is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

Explanation

By completing a risk assessment, you can determine if an IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is required or if another supplemental control is sufficient. A risk assessment helps identify and evaluate potential risks and vulnerabilities in an organization's systems and infrastructure. Based on the findings of the risk assessment, you can determine the level of threat and the need for additional security measures like an IDS. This process allows for a comprehensive understanding of the organization's security needs and helps make informed decisions regarding the implementation of appropriate controls.

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23. Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and coverts it to a digital image?

Explanation

A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. It does this by using a light source to illuminate the image or object, and then capturing the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. The sensor converts the light into electrical signals, which are then processed and transformed into a digital image that can be saved, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner specifically focuses on capturing and digitizing physical images or objects.

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24. What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

Explanation

The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices. Ports within this range are often associated with popular services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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25. An employee or employer relationship...?

Explanation

The correct answer is Covered Relationships. Covered relationships refer to situations where an employee has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a business transaction or decision-making process that could potentially create a conflict of interest. These relationships can include family members, close friends, or romantic partners. It is important to identify and disclose these relationships to ensure transparency and prevent any misuse of position or non-public information that could arise from such connections.

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26. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Explanation

Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two entities were specifically tasked with handling and overseeing cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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27. What characteristic is the major difference b/t RAM and ROM?

Explanation

The major difference between RAM and ROM is their volatility. Volatility refers to the ability of a storage device to retain data when the power is turned off. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning it retains data even without power. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, meaning it requires power to retain data. Therefore, the correct answer is "ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile."

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28. Member of a household or relatives...?

Explanation

Covered Relationships refers to the situation where a person in a position of power or authority has a personal relationship with someone who could potentially benefit from their decisions or actions. This could include immediate family members, close relatives, or even close friends. Such relationships can create conflicts of interest and may lead to the misuse of power or favoritism. Therefore, the correct answer is Covered Relationships.

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29. Records that are considered to be in draft format

Explanation

Draft format records are not finalized and can be modified before they are officially released. These records are still in the editing phase and may undergo changes or revisions. However, since they are not officially released, they may not be considered as the final version or have the necessary approvals. Therefore, they can be altered but are not yet officially released.

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30. What portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupt headers and discord them?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Header Checksum." The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupt headers and discard them. It is a simple error-checking mechanism that verifies the integrity of the IP header by calculating a checksum value and comparing it with the value stored in the Header Checksum field. If the calculated checksum does not match the stored value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded to maintain data integrity.

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31. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an AFPD?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM) are directive publications that expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited lifespan and are subject to being replaced or updated by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. Therefore, AFPMs are not considered as permanent or long-term directives within the Air Force.

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32. Who may post an update to a TO if they are trained/authorized?

Explanation

Any user may post an update to a TO if they are trained/authorized. This means that anyone who has received the necessary training and authorization can make changes or updates to a TO (Training Order). The question is asking who has the ability to post updates to a TO, and the correct answer is that any user who meets the training and authorization requirements can do so.

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33. What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

Explanation

When encountering a fire, the first action that should be taken is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate immediately. By sounding the fire alarm, people are made aware of the potential danger and can take necessary actions to ensure their safety. This step is important before attempting to extinguish the fire or calling the fire department, as it ensures that everyone is aware of the situation and can evacuate in a timely manner.

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34. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

Explanation

Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to identify and counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats actively, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. Both active and reactive defenses are essential in protecting against cyber threats and minimizing the impact of successful intrusions.

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35. Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

Explanation

Encryption is the best described wireless local area network (WLAN) security method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting data into a secret code or cipher, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. This ensures that even if the message is intercepted, it cannot be understood without the decryption key. Encryption provides a high level of security and is widely used to protect sensitive information transmitted over WLANs.

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36. Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since the information...etc.?

Explanation

End-to-end encryption provides the greatest degree of protection since it ensures that the information is encrypted at the source and can only be decrypted by the intended recipient. This means that even if the data is intercepted during transmission or stored on intermediate servers, it remains secure and unreadable to unauthorized parties. Other types of encryption, such as bulk encryption, only protect the data while it is being transmitted but may not provide the same level of security once it reaches its destination. Link encryption, on the other hand, only encrypts the data while it is traveling over a specific network link, leaving it vulnerable at other points in the communication pathway.

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37. What characteristic is NOT an advantage of fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The cost to install and train technicians is not an advantage of fiber optic cable. Fiber optic cable is known for its high installation and training costs compared to other types of cables. However, it offers several other advantages such as electromagnetic immunity, low attenuation, and enhanced security.

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38. Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

Explanation

A virtual private network (VPN) provides a private tunnel through the Internet. It allows users to securely connect to a private network over a public network, such as the Internet. This ensures that data transmitted between the user's device and the private network remains encrypted and protected from unauthorized access. VPNs are commonly used by individuals and organizations to establish secure remote access to their internal networks or to bypass geographical restrictions and access restricted content.

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39. Occupational surveys are used to develop the SKT, what else?

Explanation

Occupational surveys are used to gather information about various job roles and responsibilities. This data is then used to develop the Skill and Knowledge Taxonomy (SKT), which is a framework that categorizes and organizes the skills and knowledge required for different occupations. The SKT is an important tool for workforce planning, training, and development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Develop CDC" as the surveys are used to develop the Career Development Center (CDC) by creating a taxonomy of skills and knowledge needed for different job roles.

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40. What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the UNIX system software that interacts most closely with the hardware. It is the core component of the operating system and is responsible for managing the system's resources, such as memory, processes, and input/output devices. The kernel acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the user programs, providing an interface for the user programs to access the hardware resources. It handles tasks such as device drivers, memory management, and process scheduling, making it the software component that directly interacts with the hardware.

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41. What Microsoft application allows users to create a desktop database?

Explanation

Access is a Microsoft application that allows users to create a desktop database. It provides a user-friendly interface for creating, managing, and manipulating databases. With Access, users can easily create tables, forms, queries, and reports to store and retrieve data. It is widely used for small to medium-sized database projects and is especially useful for businesses and organizations that need to organize and analyze large amounts of data efficiently.

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42. What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?

Explanation

Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft. It is primarily used as an email application, but it also includes features such as a calendar, task manager, contact manager, note-taking, journal, and web browsing. Outlook allows users to organize and manage their personal information in one place, making it an effective personal information manager.

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43. What step is the fourth in the firefighting process?

Explanation

The fourth step in the firefighting process is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of the personnel involved and ensure that they are trained to handle fire suppression equipment effectively. Extinguishing the fire as quickly as possible can help prevent further damage and potential harm to people and property.

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44. What AF publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Explanation

Non-directive AF publications provide information and guidance that can be adapted or modified to suit different situations. These publications offer suggestions and recommendations rather than strict instructions or directives. They allow individuals to exercise their own judgment and make decisions based on the specific circumstances they are facing. This flexibility allows for greater adaptability and customization, ensuring that the guidance provided can be effectively applied in various scenarios.

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45. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their speciality?

Explanation

OJT stands for On-the-Job Training, which is a program that provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This type of training allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their actual job environment, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. OJT is a practical and hands-on approach to training, which helps individuals gain the necessary expertise and competence in their specific field.

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46. Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

Explanation

Spyware is computer software that is specifically designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent. It is a type of malicious software that secretly monitors and gathers sensitive data such as passwords, credit card numbers, and browsing habits. Unlike adware, which displays unwanted advertisements, spyware operates covertly and without the user's knowledge. It can be installed on a computer through various methods, such as clicking on malicious links or downloading infected files. Once installed, spyware can track and transmit the collected information to third parties, posing a significant threat to user privacy and security.

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47. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Explanation

Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type and capabilities of military units. They provide a common language and framework for organizing and coordinating forces during planning and deployments. By using unit type codes, commanders and planners can quickly and accurately identify the units available for a mission, their capabilities, and their requirements, which helps ensure effective and efficient operations.

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48. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction to the Department of Defense in their strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense should follow in order to effectively secure cyberspace and protect national security interests.

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49. What ITIL stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Explanation

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the ITIL stage that focuses on constantly improving the quality of services provided. CSI aims to identify areas for improvement, gather data, analyze trends, and implement changes to enhance service quality. It involves monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying opportunities for improvement, and implementing corrective actions. By continuously evaluating and enhancing service quality, CSI ensures that the organization's services align with changing business needs and customer expectations.

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50. Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area network (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. Unlike LANs and MANs, which cover smaller geographic areas, WANs cover larger areas and allow for communication between different locations. This makes WANs suitable for connecting remote offices or branches of an organization. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this case.

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51. What major program does the GCSS-AF provides as a single point of reference for services and information for AF personnel?

Explanation

The Air Force Portal is a major program provided by GCSS-AF that serves as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel. It provides a centralized platform where personnel can access various resources, tools, and applications related to their roles and responsibilities. The Air Force Portal helps streamline communication, collaboration, and information sharing within the Air Force community, making it an essential program for AF personnel.

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52. Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

Explanation

The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a consistent and ongoing manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, while applying it continuously would be impractical and resource-intensive. Therefore, it is important to integrate risk management into operations and planning at all levels to effectively manage risks.

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53. What action is the main purpose of a system cache?

Explanation

The main purpose of a system cache is to reduce CPU access time to stored data. A cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it without having to access the slower main memory. By reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, the cache improves overall system performance.

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54. The OSHA is a part of the US Department of?

Explanation

The correct answer is Labor. OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is a part of the US Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training, and conducting inspections.

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55. Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an AF installation?

Explanation

The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an AF installation. They provide guidance and support to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed, and they work to prevent accidents and promote a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

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56. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Explanation

Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers failure to obey an order or regulation. In this case, the failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey a regulation, thus falling under Article 92.

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57. Which agency is responsible for... identification, prioritization... GIG infrastructure?

Explanation

The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is responsible for the identification, prioritization, and management of the Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure includes all the information systems, networks, and telecommunications used by the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA's role is to ensure that the GIG infrastructure is secure, reliable, and able to support the needs of the DoD. They are responsible for the planning, development, and operation of the GIG, as well as coordinating with other agencies and organizations to ensure interoperability and information sharing.

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58. Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of IT investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

Explanation

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of IT investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB is responsible for overseeing the federal budget and ensuring that agencies are effectively managing their resources, including IT investments. They play a crucial role in evaluating and guiding agencies in their IT decision-making processes to ensure the best use of taxpayer funds and the achievement of government objectives.

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59. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new IG inspection of unit effectiveness?

Explanation

The correct answer is UEI, which stands for Unit Effectiveness Inspection. This type of inspection combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, maintain compliance with regulations, and ensure readiness for future operations. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement.

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60. Automated info. system manages entire life cycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement?

Explanation

Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. It helps in tracking and managing IT assets, including their acquisition, deployment, maintenance, and disposal. Remedy streamlines the process and ensures efficient management of IT assets throughout their life cycle, making it the most suitable option among the given choices.

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61. What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer on the OSI model layer?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Data Transport and Application." The OSI model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the lower layers (Physical, Data Link, Network, and Transport) and the upper layers (Session, Presentation, and Application). The Data Transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer between network devices, while the Application layer provides services and interfaces for user applications to access the network. Therefore, the layers that make up the two categories are Data Transport and Application.

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62. The LLC sublayer is part of the OSI model layer?

Explanation

The LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer is indeed part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two directly connected nodes over a physical link. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error checking of the data being transmitted. It ensures that the data is properly encapsulated and delivered to the correct destination.

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63. What three sub-categories make up human factors?

Explanation

The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and conditions in which individuals work, such as ergonomics and equipment design. Physiological factors relate to the physical and mental capabilities and limitations of individuals, including perception, cognition, and workload. Organizational factors involve the social and organizational aspects of work, such as communication, teamwork, leadership, and culture. These three sub-categories encompass various aspects of human performance and behavior in the context of work and can influence safety, productivity, and well-being.

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64. Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?

Explanation

The SBU IP Data or NIPRNET network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user. This network is specifically designed for sensitive but unclassified information and is used by the Department of Defense and other government agencies. It provides a secure and reliable means of communication for users who do not require access to classified information.

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65. Which network provides DoD customers with centralized and protected access to public Internet?

Explanation

NIPRNET (Non-classified Internet Protocol Router Network) provides DoD customers with centralized and protected access to the public Internet. It is a network that allows for the transmission of unclassified information and is used for day-to-day operations. SBU IP Data refers to Sensitive But Unclassified information and is not the correct answer in this context. JWICS IP Data and TS/SCI IP Data are both classified networks used for transmitting classified information and are not related to providing centralized and protected access to the public Internet.

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66. Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network writing etc.?

Explanation

Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. They deal with the cables and antennas that are essential for transmitting and receiving signals in a network. This includes setting up and maintaining the physical infrastructure required for communication systems to function properly.

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67. What USC title authorizes the creation of DOD as an executive component of Army, Navy, AF, Marine Corps?

Explanation

Title 10 of the United States Code authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title outlines the organization, structure, and responsibilities of the DOD, including the roles and functions of each branch of the military. It provides the legal framework for the DOD's operations and ensures its compliance with federal laws and regulations.

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68. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing DoD, AF, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Explanation

Air Force Instructions (AFI) are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing DoD, AF, or higher departmental policies and/or laws. These instructions outline specific procedures, processes, and requirements that must be followed within the Air Force. They serve as a reference for personnel to ensure compliance with policies and laws and provide detailed guidance on how to carry out specific tasks or responsibilities. AFIs are an important tool for standardizing practices and ensuring consistency across the Air Force.

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69. What tests your understanding of the original message blah

Explanation

A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message by requiring you to condense the main points and key information into a concise and coherent form. It demonstrates your ability to comprehend and accurately convey the main idea of the message without losing important details. A summary should effectively capture the essence of the original message while being clear and succinct.

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70. What year did the AF institute Remedy?

Explanation

The AF Institute implemented Remedy in 2010.

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71. The commander, COMAFFOR commands an AETF and provides unity of command to a?

Explanation

The commander, COMAFFOR, is responsible for commanding an AETF (Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force) and providing unity of command. The Joint Force Commander (JFC) is the commander who is responsible for overall command and control of joint forces in a theater of operations. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as they have the authority to command the COMAFFOR and other component commanders such as the CFAAC, JFACC, and CNAF.

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72. What policy outlines US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations?

Explanation

The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations by the US Armed Forces. This policy specifically focuses on military operations in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to effectively and securely conduct cyber operations to protect national security interests. It is a specific strategy that addresses the unique challenges and opportunities presented by cyberspace, ensuring that the US Armed Forces are prepared to defend and operate effectively in this domain.

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73. Which AFI defines an "official government record"?

Explanation

AFI 33-322 defines an "official government record".

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74. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Explanation

Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for the purpose of documenting official activities or decisions. While they may contain valuable information and be curated by experts, they are not part of the official record-keeping process of the government. Official government records typically include documents such as published doctrines, geographical base maps, and photographs of ceremonies that are created and maintained by government agencies for administrative, legal, or historical purposes.

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75. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Explanation

The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management of records within the office and has the power to designate individuals who will be responsible for maintaining and safeguarding the records.

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76. What entity assigns numbers to DoD issuances based on the established subject groups?

Explanation

The Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS) assigns numbers to DoD issuances based on the established subject groups.

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77. When ANG personnel in Title 32 status... cyber operations, what title status...?

Explanation

When ANG personnel are in Title 32 status, they are not authorized to conduct cyber operations. Title 32 status refers to the National Guard being under state control, and they do not have the authority to engage in cyber operations. On the other hand, Title 10 status refers to the National Guard being under federal control, and in this status, they have the authority to conduct cyber operations. Therefore, the correct answer is Title 10.

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78. What personnel oversees TO requirements and distribution w/in an organization?

Explanation

The Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO) is responsible for overseeing TO (Technical Order) requirements and distribution within an organization. They ensure that the necessary technical orders are available to the personnel who need them and coordinate the distribution process. The TODO plays a crucial role in managing and maintaining the technical documentation necessary for the organization's operations.

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79. Which type of TO has a numerical designator beginning with "31"?

Explanation

A TO with a numerical designator beginning with "31" refers to a Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO). This type of TO provides guidance and instructions on the standard practices and procedures for installing various equipment and systems. It ensures that installations are done correctly and in accordance with established standards to maintain operational efficiency and safety.

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80. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?

Explanation

The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by the Base Records Manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and organization of records at a specific military base or installation. They ensure that records are properly maintained, accessible, and secure. The Base Records Manager also provides support and guidance to other personnel in regards to records management procedures and practices.

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81. Who develops standards for IP&E electronic components under ANSI designation of EIA standards?

Explanation

The Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA) develops standards for IP&E (Interconnect, Passive, and Electro-Mechanical) electronic components under the ANSI (American National Standards Institute) designation of EIA (Electronic Industries Alliance) standards. ECIA is a trade association that represents the electronic component industry and works to promote industry standards and best practices. They collaborate with manufacturers, distributors, and suppliers to develop and maintain standards that ensure compatibility, reliability, and safety of electronic components.

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82. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the DoD?

Explanation

The Deputy Secretary is the second-highest ranking official in the DoD. While the President is the highest-ranking official, the Deputy Secretary holds the second-highest position within the Department of Defense. This individual assists the Secretary of Defense in managing the department and may act as the Secretary's representative in various matters. The Chief of Staff and the Vice President may hold important positions, but they do not hold the second-highest ranking position in the DoD.

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83. What type of DODD establishes DoD information systems shall receive initial IA awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

Explanation

DODD 8570.01 establishes that DoD information systems shall receive initial IA awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness. This means that all individuals who have access to DoD information systems are required to undergo an initial IA awareness orientation to understand the security protocols and requirements. Additionally, they must also complete annual IA refresher awareness to stay updated with any changes or updates in the IA policies and procedures. This ensures that individuals are continuously aware of the importance of information security and are equipped to handle any potential threats or vulnerabilities.

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84. Who is responsible for scheduling STRT?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFCFM w/ TPM. AFCFM stands for Air Force Comptroller Flight Manager, who is responsible for managing financial operations. TPM stands for Transportation Planning and Management, which involves scheduling and coordinating transportation activities. Therefore, the AFCFM with TPM would be responsible for scheduling STRT, which is not further defined in the question.

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85. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Explanation

MILDEC activities are designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception of friendly operations, capabilities, and intentions. Since MISO and PA target the same audience, MILDEC can be used to support their efforts by spreading false information or creating a false impression to confuse the enemy. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing enemy intelligence activities, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information from being exploited by adversaries, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information to support military operations.

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86. What methodology is used by AF for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Explanation

The methodology used by AF for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR) is Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF). This means that the AF organizes and presents its forces in a structured and rotational manner, ensuring that the CCDRs have access to the necessary capabilities and resources to fulfill their missions. The AEF system allows for the efficient deployment and sustainment of forces, ensuring readiness and responsiveness to global requirements.

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87. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks... worldwide operations?

Explanation

The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks worldwide. This system is designed to provide comprehensive cyber command and control capabilities, allowing the Air Force to effectively manage and defend its cyberspace operations. It enables the Air Force to maintain situational awareness, coordinate cyber operations, and protect critical information systems, ensuring the availability and integrity of network resources for global operations.

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88. Which stage is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages?

Explanation

The stage that is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages is "Service Contact." The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. "Service Contact" is not a recognized stage in the ITIL framework.

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89. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs, and DRUs with their respective units?

Explanation

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD) prescribe the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and relationships of MAJCOMs (Major Commands), FOAs (Field Operating Agencies), and DRUs (Direct Reporting Units) with their respective units. These directives provide guidance and instructions on how these entities should operate and interact with their subordinate units. They help ensure consistency and alignment in the execution of the Air Force's mission across different commands and units.

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90. What type of non-directive AF publication is not subject to frequent change?

Explanation

AF Handbook (AFH) is a type of non-directive AF publication that is not subject to frequent change. This type of publication provides detailed guidance and procedures on specific topics within the Air Force. Unlike AF Doctrine, AF Pamphlet (AFPAM), and AF Visual Aid (AFVA), which may require frequent updates to reflect changes in policies or procedures, AF Handbooks are designed to provide more stable and long-lasting information. They serve as a reference for Air Force personnel and are not intended to be changed frequently.

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91. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in QA program?

Explanation

An essential element in a QA program is Quality Assurance, which involves ensuring that the products or services meet the required quality standards. Quality Assessments are also essential as they involve evaluating and measuring the quality of the products or services. The Quality System is another essential element as it provides the framework and processes for maintaining and improving quality. However, Trend Analysis is not an essential element in a QA program as it is a tool or technique used to analyze patterns or trends in data, which can be helpful in identifying areas for improvement but is not a fundamental component of QA.

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92. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a QA program?

Explanation

In a QA program, evaluations are conducted to assess various aspects of the program. Technical, personnel, and managerial evaluations are all types of assessments that can be conducted to evaluate different aspects of the program. However, "Standard" is not a type of evaluation in a QA program. It is likely that this option refers to a set of standards or guidelines that are used in the evaluation process rather than being a specific type of evaluation itself.

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93. What Cyberspace Weapon System identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Explanation

The Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system helps in identifying potential weaknesses in the cyberspace infrastructure and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate and defend against cyber threats. The other options mentioned are not focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment as the Cyberspace Vulnerabilities Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

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94. Which QA essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, etc.?

Explanation

Trend Analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, and analyzing data to identify patterns and trends over time. This process helps in understanding the direction in which quality is moving and allows for proactive measures to be taken to address any potential issues or opportunities for improvement. It is an essential element in quality assurance as it provides valuable insights into the performance of a system or process. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments are not specifically focused on the collection and analysis of data for trend identification.

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95. What publications are orders issued by the SECAF that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions w/in specified areas of responsibilities by Air Force activities?

Explanation

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD) are orders issued by the SECAF that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibilities by Air Force activities. These directives provide clear guidance and instructions to Air Force personnel on how to carry out their duties and responsibilities in accordance with established policies. They serve as a framework for decision-making and ensure consistency and uniformity in the implementation of policies across the Air Force. AFPDs are an essential tool for effective management and operation of the Air Force.

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96. Which unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

Explanation

The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is the correct answer because they are responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to do this task anywhere and at any time, making them an essential unit for ensuring effective communication and command systems for military operations.

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97. Which action is a physiological factor?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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98. What speed is the maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SS transfer mode?

Explanation

The maximum data transfer rate of USB 3.0 SS transfer mode is five GB/S. This means that data can be transferred at a speed of five gigabytes per second. USB 3.0 SuperSpeed (SS) is an enhanced version of USB 3.0 that offers faster data transfer rates compared to previous versions. With a maximum speed of five GB/S, USB 3.0 SS allows for quicker and more efficient transfer of large files and data.

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99. What system provides a secure communications path for control and command information in support of the AF' strategic aircraft and missile functions?

Explanation

SACCS stands for Strategic Automated Command and Control System. This system provides a secure communications path for control and command information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. It is specifically designed to ensure the security and reliability of communication between command centers and strategic assets, such as long-range bombers and intercontinental ballistic missiles. SACCS plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and readiness of the Air Force's strategic capabilities.

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100. Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and identify potential health hazards in the environment and provide recommendations on how to control and minimize these risks. Their role is crucial in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in a given environment by implementing appropriate controls and preventive measures.

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101. What is a peripheral device?

Explanation

A peripheral device is not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external. Peripheral devices are additional hardware devices that are connected to the computer to enhance its functionality. Examples of peripheral devices include printers, scanners, keyboards, and mice. These devices are not essential for the computer to function, but they provide additional features and capabilities to the user. They can be connected to the computer either internally, such as a sound card, or externally, such as a USB drive.

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102. How many impact classifications do hardhats have?

Explanation

Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The classifications typically include a lower impact rating for minor bumps and a higher impact rating for more severe impacts. Having two impact classifications allows hardhats to provide appropriate protection in different work environments and situations.

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103. What requirements mandate to develop of AF architecture?

Explanation

The development of AF architecture is mandated at the federal level. This means that it is a requirement set by the federal government for the development of the architecture. It indicates that the development of AF architecture is not optional or discretionary, but rather a mandatory obligation that must be fulfilled at the federal level. This suggests that there are specific regulations, laws, or policies at the federal level that dictate the need for AF architecture development.

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104. Which device is used as a transceiver that converts the electrical signal utilized in copper UTP network cabling to light waves for fiber optic cabling.

Explanation

A media converter is a device that is used to convert the electrical signal used in copper UTP network cabling to light waves for fiber optic cabling. It acts as a transceiver, allowing the transmission of data between different types of media. This conversion is necessary when connecting copper-based networks to fiber optic networks, as the two types of cabling use different signaling methods. Therefore, a media converter is the correct device to use in this scenario.

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105. Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

Explanation

Banner Lines are the classified document markings that identify the highest level of classification. They are typically placed at the top and bottom of each page of a classified document and contain information such as the classification level, the agency or organization that classified the document, and any special handling instructions. Banner Lines are crucial in ensuring that the document is properly protected and accessed only by individuals with the appropriate clearance level.

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106. According to the CDC office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?

Explanation

According to the CDC, office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers. This means that the risk of experiencing a fall-related injury is significantly higher for individuals working in office settings compared to those in non-office occupations.

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107. What chapter in the AFI 91-203 provides specific guidance on office safety?

Explanation

Chapter 10 in AFI 91-203 provides specific guidance on office safety.

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108. Which part of CSIR depicts physical layouts of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

Explanation

The drawing record in CSIR depicts physical layouts of communications and information systems and provides engineering data. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the arrangement and connections of various components in the systems. It is an important resource for engineers and technicians to understand and maintain the systems effectively.

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109. What action is the purpose of a sliding window in TCP?

Explanation

A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the sender and receiver. It allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data before waiting for an acknowledgment from the receiver. The size of the sliding window determines the number of packets that can be sent without acknowledgment. By regulating the flow of data, the sliding window helps to optimize network performance and prevent congestion.

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110. What functions do the layers of the OSI reference model specify?

Explanation

The layers of the OSI reference model specify the functions related to networking. This includes tasks such as routing, addressing, and packet switching. The network layer is responsible for establishing and maintaining connections between different networks, ensuring that data packets are properly addressed and routed to their destination. It also handles tasks such as fragmentation and reassembly of packets, as well as error detection and correction. Overall, the network layer plays a crucial role in ensuring efficient and reliable communication between different networks.

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111. Which event is NOT a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classification materials?

Explanation

Cleaning the storage container is not a valid reason to change the combination on a container storing classification materials. The combination should only be changed when there is a suspected compromise of the combination or when the container is placed in service or removed from service. Cleaning the container does not pose a security risk that would warrant changing the combination.

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112. Who has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials Friday-Sunday?

Explanation

The Security Manager has the authority to grant permission to ship classified materials Friday-Sunday. This role is responsible for overseeing the security protocols and procedures within an organization, including the handling and transportation of classified information. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the risks and ensure that proper security measures are in place before granting permission for shipping classified materials during the specified time period.

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113. Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classifications if an electric current is introduced?

Explanation

When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This is because Class C fuels are those that can conduct electricity and are flammable. Therefore, when an electric current is applied to Class A or B fuels, they become conductive and pose a higher risk of fire or explosion, thus changing their classification to Class C.

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114. What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, etc. to achieve information superiority?

Explanation

The system that includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, etc. to achieve information superiority is the DODIN (Department of Defense Information Network). The DODIN is a globally interconnected set of information capabilities, processes, and personnel that enables the collection, processing, storage, dissemination, and management of information on demand to warfighters, policy makers, and support personnel. It provides the foundation for the Department of Defense's information sharing, collaboration, and decision-making capabilities.

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115. Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

Explanation

Wireless local area networks (WLANs) use Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data. CSMA/CA is a protocol that allows devices to check if the wireless channel is clear before transmitting data. If the channel is busy, the device waits for a random period of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to prevent collisions between multiple devices trying to transmit simultaneously and ensures more efficient and reliable data transmission in WLANs.

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116. What network device provides a remote network with connectivity to a host network?

Explanation

A gateway is a network device that provides connectivity between two different networks, allowing communication and data transfer between them. In this case, a gateway would provide a remote network with the ability to connect to a host network, enabling users in the remote network to access resources and services in the host network. It acts as an entry point or exit point for data packets traveling between the two networks, ensuring seamless connectivity and routing of network traffic. A switch, modem, or converter does not typically perform the same function as a gateway in this context.

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117. Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or a server within a small geographic area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or school. It allows these devices to share a common communications line and typically share resources, such as a printer or a server. LANs are commonly used in small-scale settings where the distance between devices is relatively short.

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118. What year did the IEEE ratify the use of GbE?

Explanation

In 1999, the IEEE ratified the use of GbE. This means that in that year, the IEEE officially approved and standardized the use of Gigabit Ethernet (GbE) technology. Ratification by the IEEE indicates that the technology has met certain standards and can be widely adopted and implemented in various networking applications.

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119. COMPUSEC vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?

Explanation

COMPUSEC vulnerabilities are broken down into 8 categories. These categories help in identifying and addressing different types of vulnerabilities that can exist in computer systems. By categorizing vulnerabilities, it becomes easier to understand and mitigate the risks associated with each category.

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120. What system is the priority component of the DODIN that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chief of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities? 

Explanation

The NMCC (National Military Command Center) is the priority component of the DODIN (Department of Defense Information Network) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chief of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities. The NMCC serves as the primary command and control center for the Department of Defense during peacetime, crisis, and war, providing strategic coordination and communication between the highest levels of leadership. It ensures the flow of information, decision-making, and execution of military operations, making it a critical system for the DODIN.

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121. Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This means that if a person were to be exposed to a current of 50 milliamps, it could disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart and potentially lead to a life-threatening condition. It is important to note that this is the threshold for cardiac arrest under normal conditions, and individual factors such as overall health and pre-existing heart conditions may vary.

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122. Which system of the GCCS-AF monitors the status of resources and training systems ensuring that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available to the for mission completion?

Explanation

GSORTS stands for Global Status of Resources and Training System. It is a system used in the GCCS-AF (Global Command and Control System - Air Force) to monitor the status of resources and training systems. It ensures that decision makers have the most accurate snapshot of the resources available for mission completion. Therefore, GSORTS is the system that fulfills the given requirement.

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123. What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur due to accidents or mishaps. It focuses on implementing measures and practices that ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and the preservation of valuable resources. By prioritizing the prevention of harm, the program aims to create a safer environment for everyone involved.

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124. How many volumes make up the DODAF specification?

Explanation

The DODAF specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume focuses on different aspects of the DODAF framework, including the overall architecture, systems and services descriptions, data and information descriptions, and the implementation and migration plans. These volumes provide a comprehensive guide for developing and managing architectures within the Department of Defense.

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125. What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a TO or other guidance can be accomplished?

Explanation

Before a work task not governed by a TO or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards and risks associated with the task, evaluating the likelihood and severity of those risks, and implementing appropriate control measures to mitigate them. This ensures that the task can be performed safely and minimizes the chances of accidents or injuries occurring.

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126. What AF form is used to report ground mishaps?

Explanation

The AF form 978 is used to report ground mishaps.

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127. What does the MAC sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The MAC sublayer of the data link layer manages the protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network communicate with the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless signals. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices can access the medium in an orderly and efficient manner, preventing collisions and managing the flow of data. It is responsible for assigning unique addresses to devices, controlling the timing of transmissions, and handling error detection and correction.

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128. Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, etc.?

Explanation

Radio Frequency Transmission is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and other related responsibilities. This specialty deals with the transmission of radio frequencies, which involves the operation and maintenance of communication systems, ensuring effective transmission and reception of signals.

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129. Who serves as the MAJCOM voting rep. during U&TW?

Explanation

During U&TW (Unit Training Workshop), the MAJCOM (Major Command) voting representative is the MFM (Mission Support Functional Manager). They are responsible for representing their MAJCOM and voting on behalf of their command during discussions and decisions made at the workshop.

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130. What title is normally assigned to the on-station 3D NCO?

Explanation

The title normally assigned to the on-station 3D NCO is BFM.

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131. What action is the main goal of U&TW?

Explanation

The main goal of U&TW is to establish CFETP. CFETP stands for Career Field Education and Training Plan, which is a comprehensive document that outlines the training and education requirements for a specific career field. By establishing CFETP, U&TW aims to provide a clear and structured framework for training and development within the organization.

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132. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the US to secure cyberspace?

Explanation

The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to ensure the security of cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for government agencies, private sector organizations, and individuals to protect critical infrastructure, information systems, and data from cyber threats. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace focuses on establishing partnerships, enhancing information sharing, promoting innovation, and strengthening cybersecurity capabilities to safeguard the nation's digital assets.

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133. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

Explanation

The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyber infrastructure and ensuring its resilience against cyber threats. It outlines the government's approach to securing cyberspace and emphasizes the importance of collaboration between the public and private sectors to enhance cybersecurity measures.

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134. What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN?

Explanation

The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the AFIN. This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's intranet, which is a private network used for internal communication and information sharing within the Air Force. It acts as a defense mechanism against cyber threats and ensures the security and control of the Air Force's network infrastructure.

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135. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

Explanation

An Area Processing Center (APC) is a regional computing and data center that provides enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for managing and maintaining the IT infrastructure and systems that support these services for an organization. They ensure that employees have access to the necessary tools and resources to communicate, access information, and store data securely. The APCs play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of enterprise services for the organization.

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136. How many types of DODI are there?

Explanation

There are two types of DODI.

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137. What type of DODD establishes OSD component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Explanation

Chartering Directives establish the official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships, and authority of OSD component heads and other agencies. These directives provide a framework for the functioning and operations of these entities within the Department of Defense.

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138. What JP is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

Explanation

JP 6-0, Communications System is the correct answer because it specifically mentions "Communications System" in its title, indicating that it is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications. JP 5-0, Joint Communications System and JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning do not mention "Communications System" in their titles, making them incorrect. JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series also does not mention "Communications System" in its title, making it an incorrect choice as well.

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139. The vision of EIM is to provide tools to empower users to?

Explanation

The vision of EIM is to provide tools that enable users to make full use of information. This means leveraging the available data and extracting valuable insights from it. By "exploiting" information, users can gain a competitive advantage, make informed decisions, and drive innovation. This aligns with the overall goal of EIM, which is to maximize the value and potential of the organization's information assets.

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140. Which unit within the AFNetOps community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Explanation

The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the AFNetOps community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This means that the ESU focuses on streamlining and optimizing training processes to make them more efficient and effective. By doing so, they can ensure that warfighters are adequately prepared for their roles and responsibilities, ultimately increasing their capacity to carry out their missions successfully. The ESU's goal aligns with the broader objective of maximizing the military's operational capabilities while minimizing unnecessary training burdens.

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141. Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 91-202. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) implements the Mishap Prevention Program. It provides guidance and procedures for preventing mishaps and promoting safety in the Air Force. AFI 91-200, AFMAN 91-200, and AFMAN 91-202 are not the correct publications for implementing the Mishap Prevention Program.

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142. When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's?

Explanation

The word "topology" refers to the arrangement or layout of a network. When used alone, it often refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical connections between devices in a network. This includes the physical layout of cables, devices, and their interconnections. Transport topology refers to the way data is transported in a network, physical medium refers to the actual physical material used for network connections, and logical topology refers to the way data flows in a network abstractly, regardless of the physical connections.

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143. What topology offers centralized management of a network?

Explanation

The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which acts as a central point of control. This allows for easy monitoring and management of the network, as any changes or updates can be made at the central hub and are automatically propagated to all connected devices. Additionally, the star topology provides better fault tolerance, as a failure in one device does not affect the rest of the network.

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144. What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?

Explanation

A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and IP address. This combination is used to establish a connection between two devices over a network. The port number identifies a specific application or service running on a device, while the IP address identifies the device itself. Together, they form a unique address that allows data to be transmitted between the sender and receiver.

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145. How are fires classified?

Explanation

Fires are classified based on the type of fuel that is burning. Different types of fuels, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, produce different types of fires with varying characteristics. By categorizing fires based on fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can better understand the behavior and potential dangers associated with each fire, allowing them to develop appropriate strategies and tactics to combat the fire effectively.

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146. Maximum value of an octet in IPv4?

Explanation

The maximum value of an octet in IPv4 is 255. In IPv4, an IP address is divided into four octets, each consisting of 8 bits. Since each bit can have a value of either 0 or 1, the maximum value that can be represented in an octet is 2^8-1, which is 255. Any value greater than 255 is not valid for an octet in IPv4.

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147. What classification do flammable liquids receive?

Explanation

Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. Class B classification is specifically for flammable liquids, which are substances that have a flashpoint below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. These liquids can easily catch fire and ignite, making them potentially hazardous. It is important to handle and store flammable liquids with caution to prevent accidents and ensure safety.

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148. Which AF form records the destruction of TS information?

Explanation

AF Form 143 is the correct answer because it is the form specifically used to record the destruction of Top Secret (TS) information. This form is used to document the proper destruction process, including the method used, the date of destruction, and the individuals involved in the process. It ensures that there is a record of the destruction for accountability and security purposes.

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149. In general, how many OS task categories are there?

Explanation

There are six OS task categories in general.

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150. How many T1 DSN access circuits do STEP terminals offer?

Explanation

STEP terminals offer 7 T1 DSN access circuits.

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151. Which ladder practice is not prohibited?

Explanation

Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical currents is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material and does not conduct electricity. Therefore, it is safer to use a wooden ladder in such situations compared to ladders made of conductive materials like metal.

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152. Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?

Explanation

Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.

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153. Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

Explanation

BCS-F is the correct answer because it is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system. It takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays the information on a scope.

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154. Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for the flow of information from the US or rear echelon locations to deployed forces?

Explanation

GBS stands for Global Broadcast Service, which is a space-based high data rate communications link. It is specifically designed to facilitate the flow of information from the US or rear echelon locations to deployed forces. GBS enables the transmission of large amounts of data, such as video, imagery, and other critical information, in real-time to support military operations. This system plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and situational awareness for deployed forces, enhancing their operational capabilities and decision-making processes.

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155. Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems... coverage of large geographical areas?

Explanation

The Aerial Layer service provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to cover large geographical areas. This means that it utilizes aircraft and drones to enhance communication capabilities in areas where traditional communication infrastructure may be limited or unavailable. Aerial Layer can be deployed to establish temporary communication networks during emergencies or to extend coverage in remote locations. It offers a flexible and efficient solution for expanding communication capacity over vast areas.

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156. Who assists with identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) of SKT/CDC?

Explanation

AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. In the context of the question, AFCFM is responsible for assisting with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) of SKT/CDC. This means that AFCFM helps in finding individuals who have the necessary expertise and knowledge in the specific career field to provide guidance and support.

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157. Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting TS material?

Explanation

The correct answer is Information Assurance Officer. The Information Assurance Officer is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information systems and data. They are knowledgeable about security protocols and procedures, including the transportation of TS (Top Secret) material. They can provide guidance and information on the proper handling and transportation of such material to ensure its security.

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158. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an AF organization or contractor to perform records management?

Explanation

A Functional Area Records Manager is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an AF organization or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies regarding record-keeping. They oversee the creation, organization, retrieval, and disposal of records, ensuring that they are accurate, complete, and accessible when needed. The Functional Area Records Manager plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and efficiency of record-keeping processes within the organization.

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159. Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for command and control (C2) and crisis management?

Explanation

DRSN stands for Defense Red Switched Network, which is a secure telecommunications network used for command and control (C2) and crisis management. It is specifically designed to provide high-quality and secure communications for military operations. DRSN ensures that sensitive information is protected and allows for effective communication during critical situations. Therefore, DRSN is the correct answer for the given question.

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160. Which system is the primary network used to transmit Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the NMCC to the warfighting commanders in the field?

Explanation

SACCS (Strategic Automated Command and Control System) is the primary network used to transmit Emergency Action Messages (EAM) generated by the NMCC (National Military Command Center) to the warfighting commanders in the field. SACCS is a secure and reliable communication system that ensures the timely and accurate transmission of critical information during emergency situations. It enables effective command and control of military forces by providing a direct line of communication between the NMCC and the commanders in the field, allowing them to quickly and efficiently respond to emergency situations.

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161. The risk management process includes how many steps?

Explanation

The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are identification, assessment, mitigation, monitoring, and review. Identification involves identifying potential risks that could affect a project or organization. Assessment involves analyzing the identified risks to determine their impact and likelihood. Mitigation involves developing strategies to minimize or eliminate the risks. Monitoring involves continuously monitoring the risks to ensure that the mitigation strategies are effective. Finally, review involves evaluating the overall risk management process and making any necessary adjustments.

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162. What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization's mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

Explanation

Hostile information operations refer to deliberate and malicious activities carried out by individuals or groups with the intention of disrupting, sabotaging, or stealing an organization's mission-critical information. These operations can involve hacking, espionage, social engineering, or any other form of cyber attack. Unlike other threats like malware or DoS attacks, hostile information operations are specifically targeted towards compromising an organization's communication and information systems. Therefore, they pose the greatest threat to an organization's mission-critical information.

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163. Which part of the CSIR is normally retained in the production work center?

Explanation

In a production work center, the part of the CSIR that is normally retained is the maintenance record. This record contains important information regarding the maintenance activities carried out on the equipment and machinery in the work center. It includes details such as the date of maintenance, the type of maintenance performed, any repairs or replacements made, and the name of the technician or engineer responsible for the maintenance. Retaining the maintenance record is crucial for tracking the history of maintenance activities, ensuring equipment reliability, and planning future maintenance schedules.

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164. Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?

Explanation

Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the IPv4 addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network, while the last octet is used to identify the hosts within that network. Since the last octet can have values from 0 to 255, excluding the network and broadcast addresses, this allows for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. Class A and Class B addresses have larger address spaces and therefore can accommodate more hosts per network, while Class D addresses are used for multicasting purposes and do not represent individual networks.

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165. How many air defenses sectors is the BCS-F divided into?

Explanation

The BCS-F is divided into two air defense sectors.

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166. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Explanation

Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of the Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

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167. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Explanation

The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role ensures that these managers are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively manage records within their respective bases. The command records manager plays a crucial role in ensuring compliance with record-keeping policies and procedures, as well as promoting best practices in records management throughout the organization.

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168. What class is reserved for multicast addressing?

Explanation

Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. In IP addressing, multicast allows a single packet to be sent to multiple hosts simultaneously. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, and they are used for various multicast applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing. These addresses are not assigned to individual hosts but are used by multicast groups.

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169. What cyberspace weapons system includes the I-NOSC, ESU, APC functions?

Explanation

The correct answer, Air Force Cyber Security and Control System, is a cyberspace weapons system that includes the I-NOSC, ESU, and APC functions. This system is designed to provide security and control over cyberspace operations within the Air Force. It helps to protect sensitive information, networks, and infrastructure from cyber threats. The I-NOSC (Installation Network Operations and Security Center) is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's network infrastructure. The ESU (Enterprise Service Unit) provides essential services and support for cyber operations. The APC (Access Point Controller) function controls access to the network and ensures secure connections.

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170. Describe a network bridge.

Explanation

A network bridge is a device or software set that operates at the Data Link layer of the network protocol stack. It is responsible for connecting multiple network segments or LANs together, allowing them to communicate with each other. The bridge forwards data packets between the connected segments based on their MAC addresses, creating a single logical network. By operating at the Data Link layer, the bridge can effectively filter and control the flow of network traffic, improving network performance and security.

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171. What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications b/t air, land, and sea-based users?

Explanation

HF-GCS stands for High Frequency Global Communications System. Its mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air, land, and sea-based users. HF-GCS uses high-frequency radio waves to transmit signals over long distances, making it ideal for communication in remote areas or during emergencies. This system ensures that users can stay connected and exchange information efficiently, regardless of their location or the mode of transportation they are using.

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172. Which system is the AF' primary ISR collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system?

Explanation

DCGS stands for Distributed Common Ground System, which is the primary ISR (Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination system used by the Air Force. It is a network-centric system that enables the integration of various intelligence sources and provides real-time information to support military operations. DCGS allows for the fusion of data from multiple sensors, platforms, and databases, enhancing situational awareness and decision-making capabilities.

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173. What does the LLC sublayer of the data link layer manage?

Explanation

The LLC sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This means that it is responsible for establishing and maintaining a reliable connection between two devices that are connected by a single link. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is properly transmitted and received between the devices, and it handles any necessary error detection and correction. It also manages flow control, which regulates the rate at which data is transmitted to prevent overload. Overall, the LLC sublayer plays a crucial role in managing communication between devices over a single link of a network.

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174. What cyberspace weapons system resulted from... MAJCOM... stove-piped networks into centrally managed and controlled networks under I-NOSC?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from merging the stove-piped networks of MAJCOM into centrally managed and controlled networks under the I-NOSC. It is designed to enhance cyber security and provide control over the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

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175. What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers?

Explanation

DISN, which stands for Defense Information System Network, is a telecommunications network that meets the requirements of being interoperable and global. It is divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. DISN is specifically designed to support the communication needs of the Department of Defense (DOD) and is operated by the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). Therefore, DISN is the correct answer to the question.

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176. Which system is the DoD's command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler?

Explanation

GCCS stands for Global Command and Control System, which is the DoD's command and control (C2) system of record and full spectrum dominance enabler. It is a computerized system that provides commanders with the ability to plan, execute, and assess military operations. GCCS integrates information from multiple sources, including sensors, intelligence systems, and other command and control systems, to provide a comprehensive picture of the battlefield and enable effective decision-making.

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177. What AF form is used to report a hazard?

Explanation

The AF form 475 is used to report a hazard.

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Which computer system vulnerability is NOT one in a computer system?
The UCMJ is derived from what USC?
What system of the Global High Frequency (HF) Network provides rapid,...
Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data...
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards...
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in...
Who is the supervisor for all matters affecting the career field?
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training...
How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
What network routing protocols allow multiple autonomous systems to...
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the...
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in TO...
What negative effect could occur when star networks are...
What two levels are JTF divided into?
What system manages the distribution and printing of paper TOs?
Which governing body is the authority for IT communications within the...
How many workflow capabilities are available on Sharepoint Server?
What three parts make up CSIR?
Which classified document marking appears on the face of each US...
How would you determine if an IDS is required or another supplemental...
Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and...
What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
An employee or employer relationship...?
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to...
What characteristic is the major difference b/t RAM and ROM?
Member of a household or relatives...?
Records that are considered to be in draft format
What portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with...
What directive publications expire one year after their effective date...
Who may post an update to a TO if they are trained/authorized?
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and...
Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best...
Which type of encryption provides the greatest degree of protection...
What characteristic is NOT an advantage of fiber optic cable?
Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
Occupational surveys are used to develop the SKT, what else?
What UNIX system software interacts most closely with the hardware?
What Microsoft application allows users to create a desktop database?
What Microsoft application is a personal information manager?
What step is the fourth in the firefighting process?
What AF publications are informational and suggest guidance that you...
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and...
Which computer software is designed to collect personal information...
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and...
What document directs the development of the National Military...
What ITIL stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service...
Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and...
What major program does the GCSS-AF provides as a single point of...
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
What action is the main purpose of a system cache?
The OSHA is a part of the US Department of?
Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers,...
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN...
Which agency is responsible for... identification, prioritization......
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality...
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with...
Automated info. system manages entire life cycle of IT assets from...
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer on the OSI...
The LLC sublayer is part of the OSI model layer?
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
Which network supports unclassified e-mail service to the user?
Which network provides DoD customers with centralized and protected...
Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include the...
What USC title authorizes the creation of DOD as an executive...
What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on...
What tests your understanding of the original message blah
What year did the AF institute Remedy?
The commander, COMAFFOR commands an AETF and provides unity of command...
What policy outlines US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic...
Which AFI defines an "official government record"?
Which document is NOT considered an official government record?
Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of...
What entity assigns numbers to DoD issuances based on the established...
When ANG personnel in Title 32 status... cyber operations, what title...
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Which type of TO has a numerical designator beginning with...
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Who is the second-highest ranking official in the DoD?
What type of DODD establishes DoD information systems shall receive...
Who is responsible for scheduling STRT?
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public...
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What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission...
Which stage is NOT one of the ITIL Service Life Cycle stages?
What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of...
What type of non-directive AF publication is not subject to frequent...
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in QA program?
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a QA program?
What Cyberspace Weapon System identifies vulnerabilities and provides...
Which QA essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, etc.?
What publications are orders issued by the SECAF that contain...
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Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with...
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Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of...
According to the CDC office workers are how many times more likely to...
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Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what...
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COMPUSEC vulnerabilities are broken down into how many categories?
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Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause...
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What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
How many volumes make up the DODAF specification?
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a...
What AF form is used to report ground mishaps?
What does the MAC sublayer of the data link layer manage?
Which 3D Air Force Speciality (AFS) responsibilities include...
Who serves as the MAJCOM voting rep. during U&TW?
What title is normally assigned to the on-station 3D NCO?
What action is the main goal of U&TW?
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the US to...
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's...
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry...
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services...
How many types of DODI are there?
What type of DODD establishes OSD component heads and other agencies...
What JP is the keystone document for the communications-system series...
The vision of EIM is to provide tools to empower users to?
Which unit within the AFNetOps community has a goal to reduce training...
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a...
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
How are fires classified?
Maximum value of an octet in IPv4?
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
Which AF form records the destruction of TS information?
In general, how many OS task categories are there?
How many T1 DSN access circuits do STEP terminals offer?
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with...
Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on...
Which system is a space-based high data rate communications link for...
Which of the following services provides additional communications...
Who assists with identification of qualified subject matter experts...
Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting TS...
Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within...
Which network provides high-quality, secure telecommunications for...
Which system is the primary network used to transmit Emergency Action...
The risk management process includes how many steps?
What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an...
Which part of the CSIR is normally retained in the production work...
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
How many air defenses sectors is the BCS-F divided into?
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of...
Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for...
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
What cyberspace weapons system includes the I-NOSC, ESU, APC...
Describe a network bridge.
What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way...
Which system is the AF' primary ISR collection, processing,...
What does the LLC sublayer of the data link layer manage?
What cyberspace weapons system resulted from... MAJCOM... stove-piped...
What system is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange...
Which system is the DoD's command and control (C2) system of...
What AF form is used to report a hazard?
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