Take The 3d1x1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions!

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  • 1/177 Questions

    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

    • Core task
    • Duty competency
    • Core competency
    • Duty position task
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About This Quiz

Take the 3D1X1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper to assess your knowledge in Air Force specialties such as Radio Frequency Transmission, Cable and Antenna Systems, and more. This quiz prepares you for responsibilities like deployment, sustainment, and troubleshooting within the Air Force framework.

Take The 3d1x1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who is the supervisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • UTM

    • BFM

    • MFM

    • AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCFM
    Explanation
    AFCFM stands for Air Force Career Field Manager. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing all matters related to a specific career field within the Air Force. They provide guidance, support, and direction to personnel within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and training to succeed. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping and developing the career field, making them the supervisor for all matters affecting it.

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  • 3. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS, CDC, etc.?

    • UTM

    • BFM

    • MFM

    • AFCFM

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCFM
    Explanation
    The AFCFM (Air Force Career Field Manager) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP), AFS (Air Force Specialty), CDC (Career Development Course), etc. The AFCFM is responsible for managing and overseeing the career field and has the authority to make decisions regarding training requirements and waivers.

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  • 4. 

    Occupational surveys are used to develop the SKT, what else?

    • Modify

    • Allocate

    • Develop CDC

    • Assist

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop CDC
    Explanation
    Occupational surveys are used to gather information about various job roles and responsibilities. This data is then used to develop the Skill and Knowledge Taxonomy (SKT), which is a framework that categorizes and organizes the skills and knowledge required for different occupations. The SKT is an important tool for workforce planning, training, and development. Therefore, the correct answer is "Develop CDC" as the surveys are used to develop the Career Development Center (CDC) by creating a taxonomy of skills and knowledge needed for different job roles.

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  • 5. 

    What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their speciality?

    • CFETP

    • WAPS

    • OJT

    • Occupational Analysis Program

    Correct Answer
    A. OJT
    Explanation
    OJT stands for On-the-Job Training, which is a program that provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This type of training allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their actual job environment, under the guidance and supervision of experienced professionals. OJT is a practical and hands-on approach to training, which helps individuals gain the necessary expertise and competence in their specific field.

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  • 6. 

    What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new IG inspection of unit effectiveness?

    • MI

    • UEI

    • CUI

    • CCIP

    Correct Answer
    A. UEI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UEI, which stands for Unit Effectiveness Inspection. This type of inspection combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to assess the overall effectiveness of a unit. It evaluates the unit's ability to meet mission requirements, maintain compliance with regulations, and ensure readiness for future operations. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and identifies areas for improvement.

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  • 7. 

    Automated info. system manages entire life cycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement?

    • Remedy

    • Training Business Area

    • Telephone Management System

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System

    Correct Answer
    A. Remedy
    Explanation
    Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is designed to manage the entire life cycle of IT assets, from procurement through retirement. It helps in tracking and managing IT assets, including their acquisition, deployment, maintenance, and disposal. Remedy streamlines the process and ensures efficient management of IT assets throughout their life cycle, making it the most suitable option among the given choices.

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  • 8. 

    The UCMJ is derived from what USC?

    • Title 3

    • Title 8

    • Title 10

    • Title 18

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Title 10. The UCMJ, which stands for the Uniform Code of Military Justice, is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code. Title 10 is the primary legal foundation for the organization and regulation of the United States Armed Forces, and it covers a wide range of topics related to military law and justice.

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  • 9. 

    An employee or employer relationship...?

    • Misuse of Position

    • Covered Relationships

    • Non-public Info.

    • Personal Conflict of Interest

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered Relationships
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Covered Relationships. Covered relationships refer to situations where an employee has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a business transaction or decision-making process that could potentially create a conflict of interest. These relationships can include family members, close friends, or romantic partners. It is important to identify and disclose these relationships to ensure transparency and prevent any misuse of position or non-public information that could arise from such connections.

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  • 10. 

    Member of a household or relatives...?

    • Misuse of Position

    • Covered Relationships

    • Personal Conflict of Interest

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Covered Relationships
    Explanation
    Covered Relationships refers to the situation where a person in a position of power or authority has a personal relationship with someone who could potentially benefit from their decisions or actions. This could include immediate family members, close relatives, or even close friends. Such relationships can create conflicts of interest and may lead to the misuse of power or favoritism. Therefore, the correct answer is Covered Relationships.

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  • 11. 

    What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

    • Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

    • Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

    • Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

    • Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
    Explanation
    Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission. This suggests that these two entities were specifically tasked with handling and overseeing cyberspace operations within the Air Force.

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  • 12. 

    What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

    • Active and reactive.

    • Evasive and decisive.

    • Subversive and divisive.

    • Offensive and defensive.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active and reactive.
    Explanation
    Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to identify and counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats actively, such as deploying intrusion detection systems or conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as isolating compromised systems, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting incident response activities. Both active and reactive defenses are essential in protecting against cyber threats and minimizing the impact of successful intrusions.

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  • 13. 

    What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

    • Strategic Considerations

    • Military Strategic Framework

    • Implementation and Assessment

    • Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This document provides guidance and direction to the Department of Defense in their strategic planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the priorities, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense should follow in order to effectively secure cyberspace and protect national security interests.

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  • 14. 

    Which agency is responsible for... identification, prioritization... GIG infrastructure?

    • Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

    • National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

    • Defense Information System Agency (DISA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information System Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The Defense Information System Agency (DISA) is responsible for the identification, prioritization, and management of the Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. The GIG infrastructure includes all the information systems, networks, and telecommunications used by the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA's role is to ensure that the GIG infrastructure is secure, reliable, and able to support the needs of the DoD. They are responsible for the planning, development, and operation of the GIG, as well as coordinating with other agencies and organizations to ensure interoperability and information sharing.

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  • 15. 

    What reason is the main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

    • Manpower

    • Efficiency

    • Reduce costs.

    • DoD 8570 mandate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Efficiency
    Explanation
    The main purpose for consolidating NCC and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing and streamlining the service desk operations, the organization can enhance its ability to respond to and resolve IT issues effectively and promptly. This consolidation eliminates redundancies, reduces response times, and optimizes resource allocation, ultimately leading to improved productivity and customer satisfaction.

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  • 16. 

    What two levels are JTF divided into?

    • Subordinate unified command and geographical command

    • Unified command and subordinate unified command

    • Functional command and geographical command

    • Unified command and functional command

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified command and subordinate unified command
    Explanation
    JTF, or Joint Task Force, is divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall coordination and strategic planning, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on tactical execution and implementation of the plans. This division allows for efficient and effective command and control of military operations.

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  • 17. 

    What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

    • Coding

    • Positioning

    • Tempo bands

    • Unit type code

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit type code
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that identify the type and capabilities of military units. They provide a common language and framework for organizing and coordinating forces during planning and deployments. By using unit type codes, commanders and planners can quickly and accurately identify the units available for a mission, their capabilities, and their requirements, which helps ensure effective and efficient operations.

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  • 18. 

    What ITIL stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

    • Continual Service Improvement

    • Service Transition

    • Service Strategy

    • Service Design

    Correct Answer
    A. Continual Service Improvement
    Explanation
    Continual Service Improvement (CSI) is the correct answer because it is the ITIL stage that focuses on constantly improving the quality of services provided. CSI aims to identify areas for improvement, gather data, analyze trends, and implement changes to enhance service quality. It involves monitoring and measuring service performance, identifying opportunities for improvement, and implementing corrective actions. By continuously evaluating and enhancing service quality, CSI ensures that the organization's services align with changing business needs and customer expectations.

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  • 19. 

    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

    • Article 32

    • Article 40

    • Article 92

    • Article 100

    Correct Answer
    A. Article 92
    Explanation
    Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers failure to obey an order or regulation. In this case, the failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a failure to obey a regulation, thus falling under Article 92.

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  • 20. 

    How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?

    • Two

    • Four

    • Six

    • Eight

    Correct Answer
    A. Six
    Explanation
    There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. These rules may include being concise and clear in your message, using proper grammar and punctuation, avoiding the use of jargon or slang, being mindful of your tone and language, using appropriate subject lines, and proofreading before sending. Following these rules can help ensure that your e-mail is professional, effective, and easily understood by the recipient.

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  • 21. 

    How many workflow capabilities are available on Sharepoint Server?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three 

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three 
    Explanation
    There are three workflow capabilities available on SharePoint Server.

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  • 22. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • Can be altered and are not officially released

    • Can't be altered, but are officially released

    • Can't be altered and are officially signed

    • Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    Draft format records are not finalized and can be modified before they are officially released. These records are still in the editing phase and may undergo changes or revisions. However, since they are not officially released, they may not be considered as the final version or have the necessary approvals. Therefore, they can be altered but are not yet officially released.

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  • 23. 

    What AF publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

    • Directive

    • Non-directive

    • AFPAM

    • AFPD

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-directive
    Explanation
    Non-directive AF publications provide information and guidance that can be adapted or modified to suit different situations. These publications offer suggestions and recommendations rather than strict instructions or directives. They allow individuals to exercise their own judgment and make decisions based on the specific circumstances they are facing. This flexibility allows for greater adaptability and customization, ensuring that the guidance provided can be effectively applied in various scenarios.

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  • 24. 

    What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an AFPD?

    • Air Force Instructions (AFI)

    • Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

    • Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

    • Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM) are directive publications that expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD). This means that AFPMs have a limited lifespan and are subject to being replaced or updated by higher-level directives such as AFPDs. Therefore, AFPMs are not considered as permanent or long-term directives within the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1?

    • Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

    • Resources required to manage and use TOs

    • Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

    • Training to manage and use TOs

    Correct Answer
    A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The question asks which option does NOT describe information outlined in TO 00-5-1. The TO 00-5-1 is a technical manual that provides guidance on the management and use of Technical Orders (TOs). It includes information on resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs. However, it does not specifically address Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures, which are a separate set of instructions for addressing time-sensitive maintenance requirements.

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  • 26. 

    What system manages the distribution and printing of paper TOs?

    • ETIMS

    • Office Automation System (OAS)

    • Decision Support System (DSS)

    • Training Business Area (TBA)

    Correct Answer
    A. ETIMS
    Explanation
    ETIMS, which stands for Enterprise Training Information Management System, is the system that manages the distribution and printing of paper TOs (Training Orders). It is responsible for handling the logistics and administration of training orders, ensuring that the necessary documents are printed and distributed to the appropriate individuals or departments. ETIMS streamlines the process and helps to ensure that training orders are efficiently managed and executed.

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  • 27. 

    Who may post an update to a TO if they are trained/authorized?

    • TODA

    • TODO

    • Library custodian

    • Any user

    Correct Answer
    A. Any user
    Explanation
    Any user may post an update to a TO if they are trained/authorized. This means that anyone who has received the necessary training and authorization can make changes or updates to a TO (Training Order). The question is asking who has the ability to post updates to a TO, and the correct answer is that any user who meets the training and authorization requirements can do so.

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  • 28. 

    The OSHA is a part of the US Department of?

    • Commerce

    • The Treasury

    • Defense 

    • Labor

    Correct Answer
    A. Labor
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Labor. OSHA, which stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is a part of the US Department of Labor. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards, providing training, and conducting inspections.

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  • 29. 

    Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an AF installation?

    • Air Staff

    • Civil Engineering

    • Squadron Commander

    • Installation Safety Office

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation Safety Office
    Explanation
    The Installation Safety Office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an AF installation. They provide guidance and support to ensure that safety protocols and procedures are followed, and they work to prevent accidents and promote a safe working environment for everyone on the installation.

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  • 30. 

    What three sub-categories make up human factors?

    • Physiological, Physical, Stress

    • Physiological, Physical, Social

    • Stress, Organizational, Physical

    • Physical, Physiological, Organizational

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical, Physiological, Organizational
    Explanation
    The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and conditions in which individuals work, such as ergonomics and equipment design. Physiological factors relate to the physical and mental capabilities and limitations of individuals, including perception, cognition, and workload. Organizational factors involve the social and organizational aspects of work, such as communication, teamwork, leadership, and culture. These three sub-categories encompass various aspects of human performance and behavior in the context of work and can influence safety, productivity, and well-being.

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  • 31. 

    What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards?

    • Isolating operations

    • Providing administrative controls

    • Use of PPE

    • Substitution of a less hazardous material or process

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of PPE
    Explanation
    The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it is not as effective as other methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures to ensure maximum protection against hazards.

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  • 32. 

    What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

    • Falls

    • Poor lighting

    • Horseplay

    • Poor ergonomics

    Correct Answer
    A. Falls
    Explanation
    Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can lead to serious injuries. Slippery floors, loose carpets, or objects obstructing walkways can cause employees to trip and fall. Additionally, using unstable chairs or ladders improperly can also result in falls. It is important for employers to maintain a safe environment by addressing potential fall hazards and implementing measures such as proper signage, regular maintenance, and employee training to prevent accidents.

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  • 33. 

    What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Sound the fire alarm
    Explanation
    When encountering a fire, the first action that should be taken is to sound the fire alarm. This is crucial as it alerts everyone in the building about the fire and allows them to evacuate immediately. By sounding the fire alarm, people are made aware of the potential danger and can take necessary actions to ensure their safety. This step is important before attempting to extinguish the fire or calling the fire department, as it ensures that everyone is aware of the situation and can evacuate in a timely manner.

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  • 34. 

    What step is the fourth in the firefighting process?

    • Evacuate personnel from the building

    • Extinguish the fire if possible

    • Call the fire department

    • Sound the fire alarm

    Correct Answer
    A. Extinguish the fire if possible
    Explanation
    The fourth step in the firefighting process is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and put out the fire. It is important to prioritize the safety of the personnel involved and ensure that they are trained to handle fire suppression equipment effectively. Extinguishing the fire as quickly as possible can help prevent further damage and potential harm to people and property.

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  • 35. 

    Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

    • Accept no unnecessary risk

    • Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • Apply the process irregularly and continuously 

    • Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Apply the process irregularly and continuously 
    Explanation
    The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves systematically identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in a consistent and ongoing manner. Applying the process irregularly would mean that risks may be overlooked or not properly addressed, while applying it continuously would be impractical and resource-intensive. Therefore, it is important to integrate risk management into operations and planning at all levels to effectively manage risks.

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  • 36. 

    Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of IT investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?

    • Office of Administration

    • Office of Communications 

    • Office of Public Engagement

    • Office of Management and Budget

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Management and Budget
    Explanation
    The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of IT investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB is responsible for overseeing the federal budget and ensuring that agencies are effectively managing their resources, including IT investments. They play a crucial role in evaluating and guiding agencies in their IT decision-making processes to ensure the best use of taxpayer funds and the achievement of government objectives.

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  • 37. 

    What three parts make up CSIR?

    • Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

    • Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record
    Explanation
    CSIR stands for Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. The three parts that make up CSIR are the administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary documentation related to the management and organization of CSIR. The drawing record contains technical drawings and diagrams that are essential for research and development activities. The maintenance record consists of records related to the maintenance and upkeep of equipment and facilities. These three parts are crucial for the smooth functioning and efficient operation of CSIR.

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  • 38. 

    What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer on the OSI model layer?

    • Data Transport and Applicaton

    • Session and Data Transport

    • Network and Presentation

    • Application and Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Transport and Applicaton
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Data Transport and Application." The OSI model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: the lower layers (Physical, Data Link, Network, and Transport) and the upper layers (Session, Presentation, and Application). The Data Transport layer is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer between network devices, while the Application layer provides services and interfaces for user applications to access the network. Therefore, the layers that make up the two categories are Data Transport and Application.

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  • 39. 

    The LLC sublayer is part of the OSI model layer?

    • Transport

    • Data Link

    • Physical

    • Session

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Link
    Explanation
    The LLC (Logical Link Control) sublayer is indeed part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between two directly connected nodes over a physical link. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the flow control and error checking of the data being transmitted. It ensures that the data is properly encapsulated and delivered to the correct destination.

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  • 40. 

    What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

    • Star

    • Ring

    • Loop 

    • Linear

    Correct Answer
    A. Linear
    Explanation
    Linear is another name for a bus topology because in a bus topology, all devices are connected to a single cable called the "bus." This cable acts as a backbone, and all devices are connected to it in a linear manner. Data is transmitted in both directions along the bus, and each device receives the data and determines if it is intended for it. Therefore, the term "linear" accurately describes the physical arrangement of devices in a bus topology.

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  • 41. 

    What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?

    • There are no negative effects

    • A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communications

    • Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices

    • When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated

    Correct Answer
    A. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated
    Explanation
    When star networks are interconnected, they rely heavily on a central node point to manage and control the network. If this central node point fails, it can lead to the isolation of large portions of the network. This means that communication between those isolated portions and the rest of the network will be disrupted, causing a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.

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  • 42. 

    Which governing body is the authority for IT communications within the DoD and every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?

    • Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    • Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

    • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

    • DoD

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for IT communications within the Department of Defense (DoD) and oversees every level of IT communication from the DoD information network to the warfighter under their control. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and IT services to support the military's mission. They play a crucial role in ensuring effective and efficient communication and information sharing within the DoD.

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  • 43. 

    What portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupt headers and discord them?

    • Version Identification

    • Header Checksum

    • Time to Live

    • Flags

    Correct Answer
    A. Header Checksum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Header Checksum." The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupt headers and discard them. It is a simple error-checking mechanism that verifies the integrity of the IP header by calculating a checksum value and comparing it with the value stored in the Header Checksum field. If the calculated checksum does not match the stored value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded to maintain data integrity.

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  • 44. 

    What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?

    • 0-1023

    • 1024-49151

    • 49152-65536

    • 65536-87000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-1023
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are reserved for specific services or protocols that are commonly used and recognized by most operating systems and network devices. Ports within this range are often associated with popular services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22).

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  • 45. 

    What characteristic is the major difference b/t RAM and ROM?

    • ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile

    • ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile

    • RAM has a slower access time versus ROM 

    • ROM has a slower access time versus RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
    Explanation
    The major difference between RAM and ROM is their volatility. Volatility refers to the ability of a storage device to retain data when the power is turned off. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is non-volatile, meaning it retains data even without power. On the other hand, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile, meaning it requires power to retain data. Therefore, the correct answer is "ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile."

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  • 46. 

    What action is the main purpose of a system cache?

    • Speed up system ROM

    • Reduce HDD access time to stored data

    • Reduce CPU access time to stored data

    • Reduce RAM access time to stored data

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce CPU access time to stored data
    Explanation
    The main purpose of a system cache is to reduce CPU access time to stored data. A cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it without having to access the slower main memory. By reducing the time it takes for the CPU to access data, the cache improves overall system performance.

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  • 47. 

    Which device optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and coverts it to a digital image?

    • Printer

    • Scanner

    • Monitor

    • Camera lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Scanner
    Explanation
    A scanner is a device that optically reads an image, printed text, or an object and converts it into a digital image. It does this by using a light source to illuminate the image or object, and then capturing the reflected light using a photosensitive sensor. The sensor converts the light into electrical signals, which are then processed and transformed into a digital image that can be saved, edited, or printed. Unlike a printer, monitor, or camera lens, a scanner specifically focuses on capturing and digitizing physical images or objects.

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  • 48. 

    Which network is a network that links local area networks (LAN) and Metropolitan area network (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company?

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    • Virtual private network (VPN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Wide area network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a network that connects local area networks (LAN) and metropolitan area networks (MAN) by using long-distance communication links leased or purchased from a telecommunications company. Unlike LANs and MANs, which cover smaller geographic areas, WANs cover larger areas and allow for communication between different locations. This makes WANs suitable for connecting remote offices or branches of an organization. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 49. 

    Which wireless local area network (WLAN) security method is best described as hiding a message in a special code?

    • Service Set Identifier (SSID) Broadcasting

    • Media Access Control (MAC) Filtering

    • Encryption

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryption
    Explanation
    Encryption is the best described wireless local area network (WLAN) security method for hiding a message in a special code. Encryption involves converting data into a secret code or cipher, making it unreadable to unauthorized users. This ensures that even if the message is intercepted, it cannot be understood without the decryption key. Encryption provides a high level of security and is widely used to protect sensitive information transmitted over WLANs.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 12, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 13, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Joe Mama

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