# Mhafb CDC 2a051s Vol. 2 Maintenance Fundementals II

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Volume 2 URE Questions for 5 level CDCs

• 1.

### (201) An electrical charge at rest is called

• A.

Electric current

• B.

Static electricity

• C.

Electrostatic voltage

• D.

Electrostatic discharge

B. Static electricity
Explanation
Static electricity refers to an electrical charge that is at rest or stationary. It occurs when there is an imbalance of electric charges on the surface of an object. Unlike electric current, which involves the flow of electric charges, static electricity does not involve any movement of charges. Instead, the charges remain static or stationary on the object's surface. Therefore, the term "static electricity" is the correct answer for this question.

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• 2.

### (201) Triboelectrification is the

• A.

Generation of a static charge by friction

• B.

Dissipation of a static charge by diffusion

• C.

Dissipation of a static charge by a static drain

• D.

Generation of a static charge by electrical noise

A. Generation of a static charge by friction
Explanation
Triboelectrification refers to the generation of a static charge through friction. When two different materials come into contact and then separate, electrons can transfer from one material to the other, resulting in a build-up of static electricity. This process is commonly observed when rubbing certain materials together, such as rubbing a balloon on hair to make it stick or rubbing a comb on wool to attract small pieces of paper. Therefore, the correct answer is the "generation of a static charge by friction."

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• 3.

### (201) In an ESD protective area, what level of relative humidity is the most desirable?

• A.

20 - 40 percent

• B.

40 - 60 percent

• C.

60 - 80 percent

• D.

80 - 100 percent

B. 40 - 60 percent
Explanation
In an ESD protective area, a relative humidity level of 40 - 60 percent is the most desirable. This range helps to minimize the buildup of static electricity by ensuring that the air is not too dry or too humid. If the air is too dry, it can increase the likelihood of electrostatic discharge (ESD) events. On the other hand, if the air is too humid, it can lead to condensation which can also cause ESD issues. Therefore, maintaining a relative humidity level within the 40 - 60 percent range is ideal for preventing ESD damage.

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• 4.

### (201) The electostatic voltage sensitivity of the human body is approximately how many volts?

• A.

500

• B.

1,200

• C.

3,500

• D.

4,500

C. 3,500
Explanation
The electostatic voltage sensitivity of the human body is approximately 3,500 volts. This means that the human body can feel or detect electric shocks or voltages up to this level. It is important to be aware of this sensitivity to prevent accidents or injuries caused by electric shocks.

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• 5.

### (201) When ESDS components are mounted on a circuit board, the

• A.

Components are still susceptible to ESD damage

• B.

Components are no longer susceptible to ESD damage

• C.

Circuit board forms a static drain, protecting the components

• D.

Circuit board forms an electrostatic shield, protecting the components

A. Components are still susceptible to ESD damage
Explanation
When ESDS (Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive) components are mounted on a circuit board, they are still susceptible to ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) damage. This means that even though they are attached to a circuit board, they can still be damaged by static electricity. The circuit board itself does not provide sufficient protection against ESD, so proper ESD precautions need to be taken to prevent damage to the components.

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• 6.

### (202) It is important for servicable and unservicable (reparable) ESDS items to receive the same ESD protection so

• A.

The conductive connector caps are not lost

• B.

Technicians stay in the habit of protecting all items

• C.

No further ESD damage is done to the damaged parts

• D.

No further ESD damage is done to the remaining operating parts

D. No further ESD damage is done to the remaining operating parts
Explanation
The reason it is important for both servicable and unservicable ESDS items to receive the same ESD protection is to prevent any further ESD damage to the remaining operating parts. ESD (electrostatic discharge) can cause damage to electronic components, and if the unservicable items are not protected, there is a risk of ESD transferring to the remaining operating parts and causing additional damage. Therefore, by providing the same level of ESD protection to all items, the risk of further damage to the functioning parts is minimized.

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• 7.

### (202) Proper static drain is fast enough to quickly remove the static charge before any damage is done, yet slow enough so it doesn't produce a damaging

• A.

Electrostatic field

• B.

Discharge current

• C.

Discharge voltage

• D.

Microdiffusion field

B. Discharge current
Explanation
Proper static drain refers to a mechanism that is designed to remove static charge efficiently. It needs to be fast enough to eliminate the static charge before it can cause any damage. However, it also needs to be slow enough so that it doesn't create a damaging electrostatic field. Therefore, the correct answer is discharge current, as it represents the flow of electric charge that neutralizes the static charge without creating harmful effects.

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• 8.

### (202) Which is not one of the three principal components of a static control workstation?

• A.

Personnel wrist strap

• B.

Static dissipative flooring

• C.

Common point ground system

• D.

Statis dissipative work surface

B. Static dissipative flooring
Explanation
The three principal components of a static control workstation are personnel wrist strap, static dissipative work surface, and common point ground system. Static dissipative flooring is not one of the principal components.

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• 9.

### (202) How often must a wrist strap be tested with a wrist strap tester?

• A.

Daily

• B.

Weekly

• C.

Monthly

• D.

Before each use

A. Daily
Explanation
A wrist strap must be tested with a wrist strap tester daily. This is necessary to ensure its effectiveness in dissipating static charges and protecting sensitive electronic equipment from electrostatic discharge (ESD). Regular testing helps to identify any faults or failures in the wrist strap, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to maintain a safe working environment.

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• 10.

### (202) What is the proper procedure when you are testing a wrist strap with a wrist strap tester?

• A.

Check only the resistance of the entire system when you are not wearing the cuff

• B.

Check only the continuity of the entire system when you are not wearing the cuff

• C.

Check continuity and resistance of the entire system when you are wearing the cuff

• D.

Check continuity and resistance of the entire system when you are not wearing the cuff

C. Check continuity and resistance of the entire system when you are wearing the cuff
Explanation
When testing a wrist strap with a wrist strap tester, it is important to check both continuity and resistance of the entire system while wearing the cuff. This is because continuity ensures that there is a complete electrical path between the wrist strap and the ground, while resistance measures the effectiveness of the wrist strap in dissipating static charges. By testing both continuity and resistance while wearing the cuff, it ensures that the wrist strap is functioning properly and providing adequate protection against static electricity.

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• 11.

### (203) You must torque a bolt to 60 inch-pounds, but you only have a foot-pound torque wrench.  To what value must you set the foot-pound torue wrench to properly torque the bolt?

• A.

3 foot-pounds

• B.

5 foot-pounds

• C.

6 foot-pounds

• D.

12 foot-pounds

B. 5 foot-pounds
Explanation
To convert inch-pounds to foot-pounds, you need to divide the value by 12. Since the bolt needs to be torqued to 60 inch-pounds, you would divide 60 by 12, which equals 5 foot-pounds. Therefore, you must set the foot-pound torque wrench to 5 foot-pounds to properly torque the bolt.

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• 12.

### (203) Which torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values?

• A.

Type I

• B.

Type II

• C.

Type III

• D.

Type IV

C. Type III
Explanation
Type III torque wrench uses micrometer-like markings and a rotating adjustment sleeve to set torque values. This type of torque wrench allows for precise and accurate torque settings by allowing the user to easily adjust the torque value using the micrometer-like markings on the wrench and the rotating adjustment sleeve. This makes it suitable for applications where specific torque values need to be achieved.

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• 13.

### (204) When would you use a torque wrench to break loose a bolt?

• A.

Never

• B.

Whenever the bolt is overtightened

• C.

When using a torque wrench extender

• D.

When it's too tight to use a standard break-away wrench

A. Never
Explanation
A torque wrench is used to tighten bolts to a specific torque value, ensuring that they are not overtightened or undertightened. It is not designed to be used for loosening bolts. When loosening a bolt, a standard break-away wrench or a socket wrench should be used instead. Therefore, the correct answer is "Never" as a torque wrench should not be used to break loose a bolt.

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• 14.

### (204) You must compensate for the prevailing torque of a self-locking nut if it is more than ___% of a nut's recommended torque value

• A.

15%

• B.

20%

• C.

25%

• D.

33%

D. 33%
Explanation
The correct answer is 33%. Prevailing torque refers to the resistance encountered when tightening a self-locking nut. If the prevailing torque is more than 33% of the nut's recommended torque value, it is necessary to compensate for it. This means that the prevailing torque is significant enough to potentially affect the proper tightening of the nut, and adjustments must be made to ensure the nut is securely fastened.

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• 15.

### (204) You must compensate for the prevailing torque of a self-locking nut when the

• A.

Technical order specifies that compensation is required

• B.

Prevailing torque is developed by a nylon self-locking nut

• C.

TO does not specify that compensation is required

• D.

Prevailing torque is less than 10 percent of the recommended torque value

A. Technical order specifies that compensation is required
Explanation
When the technical order specifies that compensation is required, it means that the prevailing torque of a self-locking nut needs to be taken into account. Prevailing torque refers to the resistance encountered when tightening or loosening a self-locking nut due to the friction between the nut and the mating threads. This friction helps to prevent the nut from loosening unintentionally. Therefore, when the technical order states that compensation is required, it implies that the prevailing torque of the self-locking nut needs to be considered and adjusted for during the installation or removal process.

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• 16.

### (204) Before using a dropped torque wrench, you must

• A.

Have it recalibrated

• B.

Update the certification label

• C.

Cycle through the breakaway torque

• D.

Set the wrench to its maximum setting

A. Have it recalibrated
Explanation
Before using a dropped torque wrench, it is necessary to have it recalibrated. This is because dropping a torque wrench can cause it to become inaccurate and lose its calibration. Recalibrating the wrench ensures that it is measuring torque correctly and provides accurate readings.

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• 17.

### (205) Which is not provided by a TAS?

• A.

Tool manufacturer

• B.

Tool broken and removed

• C.

Tool removed for calibration

• D.

CTK due for periodic inspection

A. Tool manufacturer
Explanation
A TAS (Tool Accountability System) is a system used to track and manage tools within an organization. It provides information about the tool's location, status, and maintenance schedule. The other options listed in the question, such as tool broken and removed, tool removed for calibration, and CTK due for periodic inspection, are all examples of activities that can be tracked and managed using a TAS. However, tool manufacturer is not a feature provided by a TAS. The TAS focuses on tracking and managing tools within the organization, rather than providing information about the tool's manufacturer.

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• 18.

### (206) In the heterodyning or mixing process, what are the two new frequencies produced?

• A.

Upper sideband (difference) and lower sideband (sum)

• B.

Upper sideband (sum) and lower sideband (difference)

• C.

Upper sideband (difference) and middle sideband (sum)

• D.

Upper sideband (sum) and middle sideband (difference)

B. Upper sideband (sum) and lower sideband (difference)
Explanation
In the heterodyning or mixing process, when two frequencies are combined, two new frequencies are produced. The upper sideband is formed by adding the frequencies together, resulting in the sum of the two frequencies. The lower sideband is formed by subtracting the frequencies, resulting in the difference between the two frequencies. Therefore, the correct answer is upper sideband (sum) and lower sideband (difference).

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• 19.

### (207) Which radio-frequency component is used to sample an input signal and does not have any moving parts?

• A.

Filter

• B.

Mixer

• C.

Isolator

• D.

Directional coupler

D. Directional coupler
Explanation
A directional coupler is a radio-frequency component that is used to sample an input signal without any moving parts. It is designed to split the power of an input signal into two separate paths, allowing a portion of the signal to be sampled or measured without disturbing the main signal flow. This makes it an ideal component for various applications such as power measurement, signal monitoring, and signal coupling in RF systems.

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• 20.

### (207) The radio-frequency component used to prevent any feedback in a circuit is the

• A.

Isolator

• B.

Attenuator

• C.

Band-pass filter

• D.

Directional coupler

A. Isolator
Explanation
An isolator is a radio-frequency component that is used to prevent any feedback in a circuit. It allows signals to flow in one direction only, blocking any reverse signals from reaching the source. This helps to maintain signal integrity and prevent unwanted oscillations or instability in the circuit. An isolator typically consists of a ferrite material that absorbs and dissipates any reflected power, ensuring that it does not interfere with the original signal.

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• 21.

### (208) The power meter

• A.

Must be operated manually

• B.

Can be operated manually or automatically

• C.

Can only be operated through use of an interface bus

• D.

Can only be operated through an ATS

B. Can be operated manually or automatically
Explanation
The correct answer is that the power meter can be operated manually or automatically. This means that the power meter can be controlled and monitored either by human intervention or by an automated system. This flexibility allows for different modes of operation depending on the user's preference or the specific requirements of the situation.

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• 22.

### (208) What control compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor?

• A.

• B.

RANGE HOLD

• C.

SENSOR ZERO

• D.

CAL FACTOR %

Explanation
The control that compensates for a slight sensitivity associated with a particular type of power sensor is CAL ADJ. This control allows for calibration adjustments to be made to the power sensor, ensuring accurate measurements by compensating for any sensitivity issues.

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• 23.

### (209) A power sensor is essentially a

• A.

Capacitor

• B.

Transistor

• C.

Facilitator

• D.

Transducer

D. Transducer
Explanation
A power sensor is essentially a transducer. A transducer is a device that converts one form of energy into another. In the case of a power sensor, it converts electrical power into a measurable output, such as voltage or current. This allows the power sensor to accurately measure the power being delivered or consumed by a device or system. Capacitors, transistors, and facilitators are not typically used as power sensors, so they are not the correct answers.

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• 24.

### (209) Before a power meter can be used, the meter and power sensor must be

• A.

Calibrated together

• B.

Calibrated independently

• C.

Disconnected from each other

• D.

Connected to an automatic test station

A. Calibrated together
Explanation
In order for a power meter to be used, it needs to be calibrated together with the power sensor. This means that the meter and the sensor need to be calibrated as a pair, ensuring that they are both accurately measuring and reporting power values. Calibrating them independently or disconnecting them from each other would not ensure accurate measurements, and connecting them to an automatic test station is not necessary for calibration. Therefore, the correct answer is to calibrate them together.

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• 25.

### (209) When calibrating the power sensor, you adjust the CAL ADJ control so the digital readout indicates

• A.

1.000 W

• B.

-1.000 W

• C.

1.000 mW

• D.

-1.000 mW

C. 1.000 mW
Explanation
When calibrating the power sensor, you adjust the CAL ADJ control so the digital readout indicates 1.000 mW. This means that you are adjusting the control to ensure that the power sensor accurately measures and displays a power value of 1.000 milliwatts.

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• 26.

### (210) Before turning on the power meter, ensure it is

• A.

Properly married with the power sensor

• B.

Set to match the line voltage you are using

• C.

Properly married to the spectrum analyzer

• D.

Adjusted to the frequency range to be measured

B. Set to match the line voltage you are using
Explanation
Before turning on the power meter, it is important to set it to match the line voltage you are using. This is necessary to ensure accurate measurements and prevent any damage to the power meter or the equipment being tested. Setting the power meter to the correct line voltage helps in obtaining reliable readings and ensures that the meter is calibrated correctly for the specific voltage being used.

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• 27.

### (210) Measuring relative power on a power meter is useful for

• A.

Calibrating the sensor

• B.

Determining average power

• C.

Determining total output power

• D.

Troubleshooting stages of a component

D. Troubleshooting stages of a component
Explanation
Measuring relative power on a power meter is useful for troubleshooting stages of a component because it helps identify any issues or abnormalities in the power output. By comparing the relative power levels at different stages, it becomes easier to pinpoint the specific stage that may be causing problems. This allows for targeted troubleshooting and efficient resolution of any component-related issues.

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• 28.

### (211) Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is

• A.

One-half inch square

• B.

One-quarter inch square

• C.

One centimeter square

• D.

One millimeter square

C. One centimeter square
Explanation
Each division of the oscilloscope faceplate is one centimeter square. This means that each small square on the faceplate measures one centimeter on each side. This unit of measurement allows for precise and accurate readings on the oscilloscope.

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• 29.

### (211) The horizontal divisions on an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the

• A.

TIME/DIV control

• B.

VOLTS/DIV control

• C.

AC-GND-DC switch

• D.

VERT MODE switch

A. TIME/DIV control
Explanation
The correct answer is TIME/DIV control. The horizontal divisions on an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the TIME/DIV control. This control allows the user to adjust the time scale on the oscilloscope display, determining the horizontal spacing between the divisions. By changing the TIME/DIV setting, the user can control the speed at which the waveform is displayed on the screen, allowing for detailed analysis of the signal's timing and frequency.

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• 30.

### (211) The VAR control of an oscilloscope must be in the calibrated detent or the time measurement will be

• A.

Accurate

• B.

Inaccurate

• C.

• D.

B. Inaccurate
Explanation
If the VAR control of an oscilloscope is not in the calibrated detent, the time measurement will be inaccurate. This is because the VAR control is responsible for adjusting the vertical position of the waveform on the screen. If it is not in the calibrated detent, the waveform will not be properly aligned, leading to incorrect time measurements.

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• 31.

### (211) When measuring time on an oscilloscope, multiply the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the

• A.

TIME/DIV control

• B.

VOLTS/DIV control

• C.

AC-GND-DC switch

• D.

VERT MODE switch

A. TIME/DIV control
Explanation
The correct answer is TIME/DIV control. When measuring time on an oscilloscope, the time per division is controlled by the TIME/DIV control. This control allows the user to adjust the horizontal scale of the waveform displayed on the screen. By multiplying the trace distance between reference points by the setting of the TIME/DIV control, the user can determine the time duration between those points. The VOLTS/DIV control is used to adjust the vertical scale of the waveform, the AC-GND-DC switch is used to select the input coupling, and the VERT MODE switch is used to select the vertical mode of the waveform display.

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• 32.

### (211) Frequency is determined by the formula

• A.

F = 1/T

• B.

F = 2/T

• C.

F = 1/P

• D.

F = 2/P

A. F = 1/T
Explanation
The formula for frequency, F = 1/T, states that frequency is equal to the reciprocal of the period, where T represents the period. This means that the frequency is determined by dividing 1 by the period of the wave. The period is the time it takes for one complete cycle of the wave to occur. Therefore, the correct answer is F = 1/T.

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• 33.

### (212) A spectrum analyzer is simply a receiver with the output of

• A.

A paper chart printer

• B.

A signal indicating board

• C.

An audio-monitoring speaker

• D.

CRT display instead of a speaker

D. CRT display instead of a speaker
Explanation
A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure and display the frequency spectrum of a signal. It is similar to a receiver, but instead of outputting the signal through a speaker, it uses a CRT display to visually represent the frequency components of the signal. This allows for a more detailed and accurate analysis of the signal's frequency content.

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• 34.

### (212) Which control selects how much of the frequency band is represented by each division of a spectrum analyzer display?

• A.

Frequency

• B.

Min RF Atten

• C.

Frequency Span

• D.

Reference Level

C. Frequency Span
Explanation
The control that selects how much of the frequency band is represented by each division of a spectrum analyzer display is the Frequency Span. This control determines the range of frequencies that are displayed on the spectrum analyzer and allows the user to adjust the width of the frequency band being analyzed. By changing the frequency span, the user can zoom in or out on specific frequency ranges to analyze different parts of the spectrum.

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• 35.

### (212) Before using the spectrum analyzer to make any measurements, you must calibrate it using the

• A.

CAL INPUT signal

• B.

CAL OUTPUT signal

• C.

CAL SYSTEMS signal

• D.

CAL MULTIPLE signal

B. CAL OUTPUT signal
Explanation
The correct answer is CAL OUTPUT signal. Before using the spectrum analyzer to make any measurements, it is necessary to calibrate it using the CAL OUTPUT signal. This signal is used to verify the accuracy and performance of the spectrum analyzer by providing a known reference signal. By comparing the measured signal with the known reference signal, any deviations or errors can be identified and corrected, ensuring accurate and reliable measurements.

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• 36.

### (212) Which peice of test equipment is primarily used to self-calibrate RF devices within equipment and test stations?

• A.

Oscilloscope

• B.

Sweep Oscillator

• C.

Spectrum Analyzer

• D.

Scalar Network Analyzer

D. Scalar Network Analyzer
Explanation
A Scalar Network Analyzer is primarily used to self-calibrate RF devices within equipment and test stations. It is specifically designed to measure the amplitude and phase characteristics of RF components and circuits. This allows for accurate calibration and characterization of RF devices, ensuring optimal performance. Oscilloscopes are used to measure and display voltage waveforms, sweep oscillators are used for frequency generation, and spectrum analyzers are used to analyze the frequency spectrum of a signal. None of these options are specifically designed for self-calibration of RF devices, making the Scalar Network Analyzer the correct choice.

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• 37.

### (213) What does resolution mean in reference to a frequency counter?

• A.

The range of frequencies covered

• B.

The spectral response of the counter

• C.

The degree of accuracy of the reading

• D.

The amount of frequency deviation output

C. The degree of accuracy of the reading
Explanation
Resolution in reference to a frequency counter refers to the degree of accuracy of the reading. It indicates the smallest increment or change in frequency that the counter can detect and display. A higher resolution means that the counter can provide more precise and accurate frequency measurements, while a lower resolution may result in less accurate readings with larger increments between displayed frequencies.

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• 38.

### (214) When using a pulse generator, selecting the NORM mode produces a

• A.

Gated trigger output

• B.

Single trigger output

• C.

Continuous pulse output

• D.

Intermittent pulse output

C. Continuous pulse output
Explanation
Selecting the NORM mode on a pulse generator will result in a continuous pulse output. This means that the pulse generator will continuously generate pulses without any interruptions or breaks in between.

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• 39.

### (214) When using a pulse generator, the four control modes allow you to vary the output

• A.

Time only

• B.

Period only

• C.

Frequency only

• D.

Pulse characteristics

D. Pulse characteristics
Explanation
The four control modes of a pulse generator allow you to vary the output pulse characteristics. This means that you can manipulate parameters such as pulse width, rise time, fall time, and duty cycle. By adjusting these characteristics, you can customize the shape and timing of the generated pulses according to your specific requirements.

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• 40.

### (215) When using the START FREQ function key on a sweep oscillator to select the start frequency for start/stop sweep operations, the start frequency must be at least 100 HZ lower than the

• A.

Stop frequency

• B.

Center frequency

• C.

Lowest frequency

• D.

Middle frequency

A. Stop frequency
Explanation
When using the START FREQ function key on a sweep oscillator to select the start frequency for start/stop sweep operations, the start frequency must be at least 100 Hz lower than the stop frequency. This is because the start frequency sets the initial point from which the sweep will begin, and it needs to be lower than the stop frequency in order for the sweep to progress in the desired direction.

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• 41.

### (215) When using a sweep oscillator, the sweep time has an allowable range of

• A.

5 microseconds to 20 microseconds

• B.

5milliseconds to 20 milliseconds

• C.

10 microseconds to +200 microseconds

• D.

10 milliseconds to +200 seconds

D. 10 milliseconds to +200 seconds
Explanation
The sweep time of a sweep oscillator refers to the time it takes for the oscillator to sweep through its entire frequency range. In this question, the correct answer is "10 milliseconds to +200 seconds." This means that the sweep time can range from 10 milliseconds (0.01 seconds) to +200 seconds, indicating that the sweep time can be as short as 10 milliseconds or as long as 200 seconds.

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• 42.

### (216) The 115 VAC, 400 Hz facility power input to a test station originates from the

• A.

Public power line

• B.

Input power generator

• C.

Main facility power panel

• D.

400 Hz test station power panel

B. Input power generator
Explanation
The 115 VAC, 400 Hz facility power input to a test station originates from the input power generator.

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• 43.

### (216) What type of power supply is computer-controlled to produce variable outputs?

• A.

Programmable

• B.

Step-up transformer

• C.

Step-down transformer

• D.

Automated voltage divider

A. Programmable
Explanation
A computer-controlled power supply is capable of producing variable outputs based on the instructions given by a computer. This means that the power supply can be programmed to adjust its output voltage, current, or other parameters as needed. This flexibility allows for precise control and customization of the power supply's output, making it suitable for various applications in electronics, research, and testing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Programmable."

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• 44.

### (216) The 400 Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to

• A.

Provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets

• B.

Provide power to the monitoring and analysis circuits and to develop TRU and UUT voltages

• C.

Develop voltages for self-test functions, automatic test station shutdown, and monitoring and analysis circuits

• D.

Develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the LRUs involved in checkout procedures

D. Develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the LRUs involved in checkout procedures
Explanation
The 400 Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs (Test Replaceable Units) and the LRUs (Line Replaceable Units) involved in checkout procedures. This means that the power input is responsible for providing the required voltages for the functioning of the various components and systems within the test station during the checkout procedures.

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• 45.

### (216) The 60 Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to

• A.

Provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets

• B.

Provide power to the monitoring and analysis circuits and to develop TRU and UUT voltages

• C.

Develop voltages for self-test functions, automatic test station shutdown, and monitoring and analysis circuits

• D.

Develop all the necessary voltages for the test station TRUs and the LRUs involved in checkout procedures

A. Provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets
Explanation
The 60 Hz facility power input to the test station is primarily used to provide power to cooling air blowers, measurement devices, and standard outlets. This means that the power is used to operate the cooling system, the devices used for taking measurements, and to provide electrical outlets for other equipment or tools that may be needed in the test station.

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• 46.

### (217) The concept of rousing, inciting, or increasing action refers to

• A.

Computer control

• B.

Measurement

• C.

Switching

• D.

Stimulus

D. Stimulus
Explanation
The concept of rousing, inciting, or increasing action refers to stimulus. Stimulus refers to something that triggers a response or reaction. In the context of the question, stimulus can be seen as something that provokes or motivates action. It can be an external factor or event that prompts a response or an internal drive or motivation. Therefore, stimulus is the most appropriate option among the given choices to describe the concept of rousing, inciting, or increasing action.

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• 47.

### (217) Which signal generator operates in the 20 Hz to 20 KHz frequency range?

• A.

Audiofrequency

• B.

• C.

Reference

• D.

Microwave

A. Audiofrequency
Explanation
The correct answer is Audiofrequency. Audiofrequency signal generators are designed to operate within the range of 20 Hz to 20 KHz, which is the typical frequency range for human hearing. These generators are commonly used in audio testing and measurement applications, such as calibrating audio equipment or testing the frequency response of speakers and headphones.

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• 48.

### (217) Which signal generator operates in the 1 GHz to 18-GHz frequency range?

• A.

Audiofrequency

• B.

• C.

Reference

• D.

Microwave

D. Microwave
Explanation
The correct answer is Microwave. Microwave signal generators operate in the frequency range of 1 GHz to 18 GHz. These generators are specifically designed to generate microwave signals, which are commonly used in various applications such as telecommunications, radar systems, and satellite communications. They provide precise and stable signals within the microwave frequency range, making them suitable for high-frequency applications.

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• 49.

### (218) What device is designed to measure AC voltage, DC voltage, and resistance?

• A.

Counters

• B.

Power meters

• C.

Oscilloscopes

• D.

Digital multimeters

D. Digital multimeters
Explanation
Digital multimeters are designed to measure AC voltage, DC voltage, and resistance. They are versatile devices that combine multiple functions into one instrument. They can accurately measure voltage in both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) circuits, making them suitable for a wide range of electrical measurements. Additionally, digital multimeters can also measure resistance, allowing users to test the continuity and resistance of various components. Overall, digital multimeters are essential tools for electricians, technicians, and hobbyists for their ability to measure different electrical parameters accurately.

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• 50.

### (218) Providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency is a function of the

• A.

Counter

• B.

Power meter

• C.

Oscilloscope

• D.

Digital Multimeter

C. Oscilloscope
Explanation
An oscilloscope is a device used to measure and display voltage and frequency visually. It is commonly used in electronic laboratories and engineering fields to analyze and troubleshoot electrical signals. Unlike a digital multimeter or power meter, an oscilloscope provides a graphical representation of the waveform, allowing for detailed analysis of the signal's characteristics such as amplitude, frequency, and phase. Therefore, an oscilloscope is the correct answer for providing a visual display for measuring voltage and frequency.

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• Current Version
• Mar 18, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Dec 09, 2009
Quiz Created by
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