2A651 CDC 3 (2013)
(47).webp "2A651 CDC 3 (2013) - Quiz")
Unit Review Exercise 2a651 cdc 3 practice test
Volume 3
Made 2013
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(401) What is the composition of JP-8 fuel?
- A.
Gasoline and kerosene.
- B.
Gasoline and diesel fuel.
- C.
Diesel fuel and kerosene.
- D.
Diesel fuel and aviation gasoline.
Correct Answer
A. Gasoline and kerosene.Explanation
JP-8 fuel is a type of jet fuel used by the United States military. It is a combination of gasoline and kerosene. This composition provides the fuel with the necessary properties for use in jet engines, including high energy content and low freezing point. Gasoline provides high energy density while kerosene has a lower freezing point and better lubricating properties. This combination allows JP-8 fuel to be used in a wide range of temperatures and provides optimal performance for military aircraft.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
(401) At room teperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Four.
- D.
Five.
Correct Answer
C. Four.Explanation
At room temperature, water will take four times longer to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline. This implies that JP-8 has a higher density or viscosity compared to gasoline, which slows down the settling process of water.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(401) Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptibility to an icing condition, further aggravated by the
- A.
Lower viscosity of jet fuels.
- B.
Higher viscosity of jet fuels.
- C.
Lower viscosity of free water.
- D.
Higher viscosity of free water.
Correct Answer
B. Higher viscosity of jet fuels.Explanation
Jet aircraft operating at moderately high altitudes increase the fuel system's susceptibility to an icing condition. This is because at higher altitudes, the temperature is lower, and the fuel is more likely to cool down and form ice. The viscosity of a fluid refers to its resistance to flow, and higher viscosity means that the fluid is thicker and flows more slowly. Therefore, if the jet fuel has a higher viscosity, it will be less likely to flow smoothly through the fuel system, increasing the chances of ice formation and further aggravating the icing condition.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(402) The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
- A.
Flameout.
- B.
Turbine seizure.
- C.
Compressor shift.
- D.
Overtemperature.
Correct Answer
A. Flameout.Explanation
The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the amount of fuel being supplied to the engine. By controlling the fuel flow, it ensures that the engine operates within safe parameters and prevents a flameout, which is the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber. This is crucial for the safe acceleration and continuous operation of the engine. A flameout can occur due to various reasons such as insufficient fuel supply, excessive airflow, or a malfunctioning fuel control system. Therefore, the main fuel control plays a vital role in reducing the possibility of a flameout.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
- A.
Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
- B.
Cool the fuel and cool the oil.
- C.
Heat the fuel and heat the oil.
- D.
Cool the fuel and heat the oil.
Correct Answer
A. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.Explanation
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to heat the fuel and cool the oil. This is because fuel needs to be heated in order to vaporize and combust efficiently, while oil needs to be cooled to prevent it from overheating and losing its lubricating properties. By heating the fuel and cooling the oil, the fuel/oil cooler ensures optimal performance and longevity of the fuel system components.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(402) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?
- A.
A green flag pops out of the filter.
- B.
Fuel pressure form the fuel pump is low.
- C.
A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
- D.
There is no way to tell without disassembling the filter.
Correct Answer
C. A differential pressure indicator is actuated.Explanation
A differential pressure indicator is actuated when a fuel filter is clogged. This means that there is a pressure difference between the inlet and outlet of the filter, indicating that the flow of fuel is being restricted. This is a visual indication that the filter is clogged and needs to be replaced.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(403) On a dueal-spool, axial-flow engine, what controls thrust production of the engine?
- A.
Regulating engine RPM.
- B.
Regulating compressor discharge pressure.
- C.
Controlling turbine exhaust pressure.
- D.
Controlling turbine inlet temperature.
Correct Answer
D. Controlling turbine inlet temperature.Explanation
The correct answer is controlling turbine inlet temperature. In a dual-spool, axial-flow engine, the thrust production is controlled by regulating the temperature of the air entering the turbine. By controlling the turbine inlet temperature, the engine can optimize the combustion process and ensure efficient power output. This is achieved by adjusting the fuel flow rate and maintaining the desired temperature level, which directly affects the engine's thrust production.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(403) During jet engine deceleration, a hydromechanical fuel control schedules fuel flow as a function of
- A.
RPM.
- B.
Inlet temperature.
- C.
Burner pressure.
- D.
Inlet pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Burner pressure.Explanation
During jet engine deceleration, the hydromechanical fuel control adjusts the fuel flow based on the burner pressure. Burner pressure is a critical parameter that indicates the combustion efficiency and the pressure within the combustion chamber. By monitoring and adjusting the fuel flow based on burner pressure, the fuel control system ensures that the engine operates at optimal conditions during deceleration, maintaining the necessary combustion stability and preventing any potential damage or inefficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
- A.
Pneumatic.
- B.
Fuel injection.
- C.
Hydromechanical.
- D.
Electrohydromechanical.
Correct Answer
D. Electrohydromechanical.Explanation
Electrohydromechanical fuel control uses various components such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to regulate the fuel flow in a jet engine. This type of control system combines electrical and hydraulic mechanisms to ensure precise control over the fuel delivery, optimizing engine performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(403) Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?
- A.
Unified.
- B.
Combined.
- C.
Bimechanical.
- D.
Electrosecondary.
Correct Answer
A. Unified.Explanation
A unified fuel metering device in a jet engine refers to a component that combines two fuel controls into one. This means that it performs the functions of two separate fuel controls, making it more efficient and streamlined. The term "unified" accurately describes this type of fuel metering device.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(403) Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be
- A.
Replaced.
- B.
Die marked.
- C.
Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
- D.
Applied a thread locking compound.
Correct Answer
C. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.Explanation
During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set to ensure the engine operates optimally. To prevent any unauthorized tampering or accidental adjustments, these screws should be safety sealed and/or lockwired. This ensures that they cannot be easily moved or altered once they have been properly set. This practice helps maintain the accuracy and reliability of the engine trim procedure.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine?
- A.
MEC.
- B.
PMG.
- C.
TSFC.
- D.
DEEC.
Correct Answer
D. DEEC.Explanation
In the primary mode, the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine is controlled by the DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control). The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, temperature, and pressure to ensure optimal performance and efficiency. It receives inputs from various sensors and uses algorithms to make real-time adjustments to maintain the desired engine operation.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(404) On an F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by
- A.
Oil.
- B.
Fuel.
- C.
Ram air.
- D.
Hydraulic fluid.
Correct Answer
B. Fuel.Explanation
The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is cooled by fuel. The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and controlling various engine parameters. Cooling the DEEC with fuel ensures that it operates at an optimal temperature and prevents overheating. This cooling method is effective and efficient as fuel is readily available and circulated throughout the engine during operation.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(404) On an F100-PW-220 engine, how many modes is the MFC capable of operating in?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
The MFC (Main Fuel Control) on an F100-PW-220 engine is capable of operating in two modes.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(404) Which F100-PW-220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
- A.
Fuel nozzle.
- B.
P&D valve.
- C.
N2 sensor.
- D.
Tt 2.5 sensor.
Correct Answer
B. P&D valve.Explanation
The P&D valve controls the pressurization of the core engine fuel system. It regulates the flow of fuel to maintain the desired pressure levels. The fuel nozzle, N2 sensor, and Tt 2.5 sensor are not directly responsible for controlling the pressurization of the fuel system.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine?
- A.
7th.
- B.
10th.
- C.
13th.
- D.
14th.
Correct Answer
C. 13th.Explanation
In an F100-PW-220 engine, the augmenter fuel pump is driven by the 13th stage of compressor air. This means that the 13th stage of the compressor provides the necessary power to drive the augmenter fuel pump, which is responsible for delivering fuel to the afterburner. The other stages mentioned in the options (7th, 10th, and 14th) do not play a role in driving the augmenter fuel pump.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW-220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
- A.
AFP, AFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- B.
MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- C.
AFC, AFP, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.
- D.
Fuel/oil cooler, P&D, MFC, and fuel nozzles.
Correct Answer
B. MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles.Explanation
The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This is the correct sequence for the core engine fuel flow on an F100-PW-220 engine. The fuel flow starts at the main fuel control (MFC), then goes through the fuel/oil cooler, the primary and drain (P&D) valves, and finally reaches the fuel nozzles.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(405) On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?
- A.
3 gear; 1 boost.
- B.
2 gear; 2 boost.
- C.
2 gear; 1 boost.
- D.
1 gear; 2 boost.
Correct Answer
C. 2 gear; 1 boost.Explanation
The correct answer is 2 gear; 1 boost. This means that there are two gear fuel pumps and one boost fuel pump contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly of the T56 engine.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(405) On a T56 engine, what controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?
- A.
Temperature.
- B.
Engine speed.
- C.
Throttle position.
- D.
Compressor inlet pressure.
Correct Answer
D. Compressor inlet pressure.Explanation
The rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve on a T56 engine is controlled by the compressor inlet pressure. This pressure is an important factor in determining the amount of fuel that needs to be delivered to the engine for proper combustion. By adjusting the position of the metering valve based on the compressor inlet pressure, the engine can maintain optimal fuel-air mixture and ensure efficient operation.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(405) Which T5 engine component receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement?
- A.
TD valve.
- B.
Fuel control.
- C.
TD control.
- D.
Fuel nozzle.
Correct Answer
A. TD valve.Explanation
The TD valve receives 120 percent of the engine fuel requirement. This means that the TD valve is responsible for regulating and controlling the amount of fuel that is supplied to the engine. It ensures that the engine receives the necessary amount of fuel for optimal performance and efficiency. The TD valve plays a crucial role in maintaining the fuel-air mixture ratio and preventing fuel starvation or excessive fuel consumption.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(405) In addition to the visual inspection, what other type of inspection does the T-56 engine fuel nozzle require?
- A.
Nondestructive.
- B.
Spray pattern.
- C.
Pre-torque.
- D.
Ultrasonic.
Correct Answer
B. Spray pattern.Explanation
The T-56 engine fuel nozzle requires a spray pattern inspection in addition to visual inspection. This type of inspection is necessary to ensure that the fuel is being sprayed in the correct pattern and direction for optimal engine performance. By checking the spray pattern, any abnormalities or issues with the fuel nozzle can be identified and addressed, ensuring that the engine operates efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(405) In what position must the TD valve sqithches be placed in ordr to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative?
- A.
OFF.
- B.
NULL.
- C.
AUTO.
- D.
LOCKED.
Correct Answer
B. NULL.Explanation
The correct answer is NULL. In order to make the T56 engine fuel trimming system inoperative, the TD valve switches must be placed in the NULL position. This means that the switches are not engaged or activated, effectively disabling the fuel trimming system.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(405) On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples?
- A.
TD valve.
- B.
Speed-sensitive control.
- C.
TD potentiometers.
- D.
TD amplifier.
Correct Answer
D. TD amplifier.Explanation
The TD amplifier on the T56 engine compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature) signal from the thermocouples. This amplifier is responsible for ensuring that the throttle setting matches the TIT signal, allowing for efficient engine performance.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(405) Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
- A.
TD valve.
- B.
Main fuel pump.
- C.
TD amplifier.
- D.
Fuel control.
Correct Answer
A. TD valve.Explanation
The TD valve is responsible for sending the fuel to the fuel manifold in the T56 engine. The TD valve regulates the flow of fuel and ensures that the correct amount is delivered to the fuel manifold. This component plays a crucial role in the fuel system of the engine, ensuring proper fuel distribution and efficient engine performance.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(405) On the T56 engine, the manifold pressure switch opens to denergize the fuel enrichment relay when fuel pressure, in psi, in the manifold reaches
- A.
30 psi.
- B.
40 psi.
- C.
50 psi.
- D.
60 psi.
Correct Answer
C. 50 psi.Explanation
The manifold pressure switch on the T56 engine is designed to open and de-energize the fuel enrichment relay when the fuel pressure in the manifold reaches 50 psi. This switch acts as a safety measure to prevent excessive fuel enrichment when the manifold pressure is high, ensuring optimal fuel-air mixture and engine performance.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(405) When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?
- A.
0%.
- B.
10%.
- C.
20%.
- D.
30%.
Correct Answer
C. 20%.Explanation
When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, it means that there is no bypassing of fuel through the valve. Therefore, the valve will not bypass any fuel and the percentage of fuel bypassed will be 0%.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(405) The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever which component has been replaced?
- A.
Compressor.
- B.
Power section.
- C.
Torquemeter shaft.
- D.
Reduction gearbox.
Correct Answer
B. Power section.Explanation
The temperature datum system static check must be made whenever the power section component has been replaced. This is because the power section is responsible for generating power in an aircraft engine, and any changes or replacements in this section can affect the temperature readings. Therefore, it is important to perform a static check on the temperature datum system after replacing the power section to ensure accurate temperature measurements.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(406) When classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
Correct Answer
C. Rotogear.Explanation
The question asks for a type of oil pump that is not classified based on structure. The options provided are Gear, Gerotor, Rotogear, and Sliding vane. Gear and Gerotor are both types of oil pumps classified based on structure. Sliding vane is also a type of oil pump classified based on structure. However, Rotogear is not a recognized type of oil pump, and therefore it is the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(406) Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
- A.
Gear.
- B.
Gerotor.
- C.
Rotogear.
- D.
Sliding vane.
Correct Answer
B. Gerotor.Explanation
A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear rotates inside the rotor, creating chambers that draw in and push out oil. This design allows for efficient and reliable oil pumping, making gerotor pumps commonly used in various applications, including automotive engines.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(406) Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?
- A.
AC high-voltage.
- B.
DC high-voltage.
- C.
Continuity.
- D.
Polarity.
Correct Answer
C. Continuity.Explanation
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that the electrical connection is used to check if there is a continuous flow of electrical current through the chip detector. By checking for continuity, it can be determined if the chip detector is functioning properly and if there are any breaks or interruptions in the electrical circuit. This is important because any interruptions in the circuit could indicate a problem or malfunction in the chip detector, which could affect its ability to detect and monitor any metal particles or debris in the system.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(406) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?
- A.
Air.
- B.
Fuel.
- C.
Hydraulic.
- D.
Pneumatic.
Correct Answer
A. Air.Explanation
An air oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Both the air oil cooler and radiator use the process of heat exchange to cool down the fluid passing through them. In the case of an air oil cooler, the hot oil flows through the cooler's tubes, and air is blown over the tubes to dissipate the heat. This is similar to how a radiator in an automobile uses air to cool down the engine coolant. Therefore, the correct answer is air.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(406) What type of oil seal has soft metal as its basic composition and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage?
- A.
Silicone.
- B.
Carbon.
- C.
Synthetic.
- D.
Labyrinth.
Correct Answer
D. Labyrinth.Explanation
A labyrinth oil seal is made of soft metal and allows a small amount of airflow to prevent oil seepage. This type of seal is designed with a complex maze-like structure that creates a tortuous path for the oil to flow through, effectively sealing off any potential leakage. The soft metal composition allows for flexibility and durability, ensuring a reliable and long-lasting seal. Silicone, carbon, and synthetic oil seals do not possess the same airflow characteristics and are not specifically designed to prevent oil seepage.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(406) Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
- A.
Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.
- B.
Soft metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- C.
Hard metal construction; they are sharp and can cut your hand.
- D.
Hard metal construction; these seals can damage the bearing races.
Correct Answer
A. Soft metal construction; these seals can be damaged easily.Explanation
Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal, which makes them prone to damage. This is why extreme care should be taken when working with them.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(406) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
- A.
Air pressure.
- B.
Oil pressure.
- C.
Spring pressure.
- D.
Hydraulic pressure.
Correct Answer
C. Spring pressure.Explanation
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that the carbon oil seal is compressed and held in place by a spring, creating a seal that prevents oil from leaking out. Air pressure, oil pressure, and hydraulic pressure are not typically used to provide static preload for a carbon oil seal in an engine.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(407) The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure varies with rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and
- A.
Oil jet pressure.
- B.
Fan turbine speed.
- C.
Oil nozzle condition.
- D.
Number of oil jets used.
Correct Answer
C. Oil nozzle condition.Explanation
The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure is influenced by various factors such as rear compressor rotor speeds (N2), engine inlet oil temperature, and oil jet pressure. However, the condition of the oil nozzle plays a significant role in determining the oil pressure. The oil nozzle is responsible for delivering oil to various parts of the engine, and any issues or blockages in the nozzle can affect the oil pressure. Therefore, the condition of the oil nozzle is a crucial factor in determining the engine oil pressure.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(407) In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?
- A.
Aerator.
- B.
Deaerator.
- C.
Check valve.
- D.
Bypass valve.
Correct Answer
B. Deaerator.Explanation
A deaerator is a device used in an engine oil tank to separate air from the oil. It works by removing dissolved gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide from the oil, preventing oxidation and corrosion. This helps to maintain the oil's quality and prolong the life of the engine. Aerator, check valve, and bypass valve do not perform the function of separating air from the oil, making them incorrect choices.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(407) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
- A.
Dry sump.
- B.
Wet sump.
- C.
Cold tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
Correct Answer
A. Dry sump.Explanation
A dry sump oil system is a type of oil system that stores the oil in a separate tank, which is typically fitted to the side of the engine. This system is commonly used in high-performance and racing engines, as it allows for better lubrication and cooling of the engine components. By storing the oil in a separate tank, it prevents the oil from pooling in the bottom of the engine (wet sump) and ensures a constant supply of oil to the engine at all times. Therefore, the correct answer is dry sump.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(407) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
- A.
Cold tank.
- B.
Wet tank.
- C.
Dry tank.
- D.
Hot tank.
Correct Answer
D. Hot tank.Explanation
The hot tank oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem. This means that the oil cooler is located in the part of the system where the oil is under pressure. This design allows for efficient cooling of the oil, as the pressure helps to push the oil through the cooler. This type of design is commonly used in aviation and other high-performance applications where effective oil cooling is crucial for maintaining optimal engine performance and preventing overheating.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(408) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
- A.
Oil tank.
- B.
Gearbox.
- C.
Oil filter.
- D.
Oil pump.
Correct Answer
B. Gearbox.Explanation
The correct answer is gearbox. The breather pressurizing valve on an F100 engine is internally mounted in the gearbox. This valve is responsible for regulating the pressure inside the gearbox by allowing excess air to escape. By being located inside the gearbox, it ensures that any pressure changes are directly controlled within the gearbox system.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(408) If the red button on an F100-PW-220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, the
- A.
Button is defective.
- B.
Scheduled oil change is due.
- C.
Design ambient pressure has been exceeded.
- D.
Design pressure differential has been exceeded.
Correct Answer
D. Design pressure differential has been exceeded.Explanation
When the red button on an F100-PW-220 engine oil filter pops out and remains extended, it indicates that the design pressure differential has been exceeded. The design pressure differential refers to the maximum pressure difference that the oil filter can handle. If this limit is exceeded, it suggests that there is a problem with the engine or the oil system, and the filter may not be able to effectively filter the oil. Therefore, the extended red button indicates a defective filter due to the exceeded design pressure differential.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(408) On an F100-PW-220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
- A.
Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
- B.
Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.
- C.
Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.
- D.
Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.
Correct Answer
A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.Explanation
The air/oil coolers on an F100-PW-220 engine are mounted on the fan duct and use secondary fan airflow as a coolant. This means that the coolers are designed to utilize the airflow generated by the secondary fan to cool down the air and oil in the engine. This helps in maintaining the temperature of the engine components within the desired range and prevents overheating.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(408) On an F100-PW-220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
- A.
Oil relief valve.
- B.
Filter poppet valve.
- C.
Oil pressure transmitter tap.
- D.
Filter assembly bypass valve.
Correct Answer
D. Filter assembly bypass valve.Explanation
The filter assembly bypass valve is the component that permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts on an F100-PW-220 engine. This valve allows the oil to flow directly to the engine without going through the filter, ensuring that the engine receives lubrication even if the filter is clogged or the oil is too thick in cold temperatures. It helps to prevent damage to the engine and ensures smooth operation during cold starts.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(409) The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for approximately how long during negative G conditions?
- A.
Minimum of 10 seconds.
- B.
Minimum of 20 seconds.
- C.
Maximum of 10 seconds.
- D.
Maximum of 20 seconds.
Correct Answer
A. Minimum of 10 seconds.Explanation
The AE2100D3 oil tank pendulum is designed to supply pressurized oil for a minimum of 10 seconds during negative G conditions. This means that even in situations where the aircraft is experiencing negative G forces, the oil tank pendulum will continue to supply pressurized oil for at least 10 seconds, ensuring proper lubrication and functioning of the system.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(409) Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?
- A.
3.
- B.
5.
- C.
7.
- D.
9.
Correct Answer
B. 5.Explanation
The AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provides approximately 5 GPM at engine PTO.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(409) What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
- A.
Alternator stator.
- B.
Prop gearbox.
- C.
PUAD.
- D.
GMAD.
Correct Answer
D. GMAD.Explanation
The GMAD (Gearbox Mounted Accessory Drive) component drives the PGB (Propeller Gearbox) lube and scavenge pump. The GMAD is responsible for providing power to various accessories in the engine, including the lube and scavenge pump, which ensures proper lubrication and removal of debris from the propeller gearbox. The alternator stator, prop gearbox, and PUAD (Power Unit Accessory Drive) are not directly involved in driving the PGB lube and scavenge pump.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(409) The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below
- A.
2 US gallons.
- B.
3 US gallons.
- C.
4 US gallons.
- D.
5 US gallons.
Correct Answer
C. 4 US gallons.Explanation
The ACAWS message low oil level advisory for the AE2100D3 engine occurs when the engine oil level drops below 4 US gallons. This means that if the oil level in the engine falls below this threshold, the ACAWS system will issue a warning to alert the pilot or maintenance crew about the low oil level. It is important to monitor the oil level closely and ensure that it is maintained above 4 US gallons to prevent any potential damage or failure of the engine.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(410) The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is
- A.
Toxicity.
- B.
Viscosity.
- C.
Alkalinity.
- D.
Corrosiveness.
Correct Answer
D. Corrosiveness.Explanation
The correct answer is corrosiveness. Modern jet engine oil can be corrosive, meaning it has the potential to cause damage to metal surfaces it comes into contact with. This is an important hazard for journeymen to be aware of, as it can lead to equipment failure and safety risks if not properly handled.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(411) The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
- A.
Improved safety.
- B.
Increased component life.
- C.
Reduced maintenance cost.
- D.
Increased equipment availability.
Correct Answer
A. Improved safety.Explanation
The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is improved safety. By detecting potential failures before they occur, necessary maintenance or repairs can be carried out, preventing accidents or hazards that could compromise the safety of personnel or equipment. This proactive approach allows for timely interventions and mitigates the risk of accidents, making the overall operation safer.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(411) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
- A.
Project monitor.
- B.
Logistics commander.
- C.
Propulsion flight chief.
- D.
Laboratory supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Project monitor.Explanation
The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (Optical Airborne Payload) operates properly. As the overseer of the project, the project monitor is tasked with monitoring and overseeing all aspects of the project, including the proper functioning of the OAP. They are responsible for ensuring that the equipment is functioning correctly, coordinating with the team members involved in the project, and addressing any issues or concerns that may arise during the operation of the OAP.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
(411) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
- A.
Wear metals.
- B.
Friction metals.
- C.
Precious metals.
- D.
Transformation metals.
Correct Answer
A. Wear metals.Explanation
Microscopic metallic particles in the oil system are called wear metals. These particles are generated as a result of friction and wear between moving parts in the machinery. Over time, these wear metals can cause damage to the components and reduce the efficiency of the system. Regular monitoring and analysis of wear metals in the oil system is crucial for preventive maintenance and to ensure the proper functioning of the machinery.Rate this question:
-
- ACA Quizzes
- ACCA Quizzes
- ACE Quizzes
- BCBA Quizzes
- CCP Quizzes
- CDCs Quizzes
- CEH Quizzes
- CISA Quizzes
- CISCO Quizzes
- CISSP Quizzes
- CompTIA Quizzes
- CPA Quizzes
- CPAT Quizzes
- CPFA Quizzes
- CPP Quizzes
- CPS Quizzes
- CPT Quizzes
- CSA Quizzes
- CSET Quizzes
- CST Quizzes
- CSWIP Quizzes
- FTCE Quizzes
- HIPAA Quizzes
- IAHCSMM Quizzes
- ISTQB Quizzes
- LEED Ga Quizzes
- MBLEx Quizzes
- TEAS Quizzes
Back to top