CDC 3M071 : Trivia Quiz On Air Force Lodging Services! Test

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  • 1/77 Questions

    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called

    • Concessionaire
    • Incentive
    • Individual service
    • Non personal service
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About This Quiz

There are a lot of dangers that those in the air force face in the line of duty and in CDC 3M071 on Air Force Lodging we got to learn aa lot about how to handle them. What else did you learn in this whole course? Is it enough to help you pass this quiz? Take up the quiz below and get to find out.

CDC 3M071 : Trivia Quiz On Air Force Lodging Services! Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who is the focal point of the Air Force training program?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee
    Explanation
    The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee. This means that the trainee is the main focus or central figure in the training program. The program is designed to train and develop the skills and knowledge of the trainee in order to prepare them for their role in the Air Force. The trainers, supervisors, and task certifiers are all important roles within the program, but the trainee is the primary focus.

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  • 3. 

    What funds are self generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?

    • Operational & Maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-appropriated
    Explanation
    Non-appropriated funds are self-generated funds that come from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are generated through activities such as fees, charges, and sales of goods and services. Unlike appropriated funds, which are provided by Congress for specific purposes, non-appropriated funds are generated by the organization itself and can be used for a variety of purposes as determined by the organization. These funds provide flexibility and autonomy to the organization in managing its financial resources.

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  • 4. 

    Which is not a goal of the Services marketing program?

    • Recognize the expectations of customers

    • Tailor the marketing plan to meet customer expectations

    • Communicate the right message to the right market

    • Aggressively compete with civilian markets

    Correct Answer
    A. Aggressively compete with civilian markets
    Explanation
    The goal of the Services marketing program is to recognize and meet customer expectations by tailoring the marketing plan and communicating the right message to the right market. However, aggressively competing with civilian markets is not a goal of the program. This suggests that the Services marketing program focuses on understanding and satisfying the needs of its target customers rather than engaging in aggressive competition with other markets.

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  • 5. 

    A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?

    • 10 to 15

    • 15 to 20

    • 20 to 40

    • Over 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 to 40
    Explanation
    A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed to work between 20 to 40 hours a week. This means that their weekly work schedule will fall within this range, ensuring that they have a minimum of 20 hours and a maximum of 40 hours of work per week.

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  • 6. 

    What is the first step in the budget process?

    • Write a budget

    • Identify your unit's mission

    • Establish the requirements of your operation

    • Establish and write down the activity's goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify your unit's mission
    Explanation
    The first step in the budget process is to identify your unit's mission. This is important because it sets the overall direction and goals for the organization. By understanding the mission, you can then align your budget and financial resources to support the activities and initiatives that are in line with the mission. This step helps to ensure that the budget is focused on achieving the organization's objectives and priorities.

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  • 7. 

    In order to Be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the

    • Individual

    • Contractor

    • Government

    • Activity the contract supports

    Correct Answer
    A. Government
    Explanation
    The contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the Government. This is because the Government is responsible for ensuring that taxpayer money is used efficiently and effectively. By awarding contracts that are in the best interest of the Government, the contracting system can help achieve this goal by selecting contractors who can provide the necessary goods or services at the best value for the Government. This ensures that the Government can fulfill its mission needs and requirements while also being accountable to the public.

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  • 8. 

    Which award recognizes excellence in lodging service for transient personnel?

    • General Curtis E. Lemay

    • Major General Eugene L. Eubanks

    • John L. Hennessy Trophy

    • AF Innkeeper Award

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Innkeeper Award
    Explanation
    The AF Innkeeper Award recognizes excellence in lodging service for transient personnel. This award is given to individuals or teams who provide exceptional service and accommodations to military members and their families. It acknowledges the efforts of those who go above and beyond to ensure a comfortable and enjoyable stay for those in need of temporary lodging.

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  • 9. 

    Who should be informed first when a hazard is discovered?

    • Other individuals in the work center

    • Supervisor of the area involved

    • Functional Managers for the work center

    • Squadron or Flight commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor of the area involved
    Explanation
    When a hazard is discovered, the supervisor of the area involved should be informed first. This is because the supervisor is responsible for the safety and well-being of their team and has the authority to take immediate action to address the hazard. Informing the supervisor allows them to assess the situation, implement necessary safety measures, and communicate the hazard to higher-level authorities if needed. Other individuals in the work center, functional managers, and squadron or flight commanders may also need to be informed, but the supervisor of the area involved should be the first point of contact.

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  • 10. 

    What type of funds are used to support day to day operations?

    • Operation & Maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation & Maintenance (O&M)
    Explanation
    Operation & Maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day-to-day operations. These funds cover the costs associated with the regular functioning and maintenance of an organization or project. This includes expenses such as salaries, utilities, repairs, and general upkeep. O&M funds are crucial for ensuring the smooth operation and sustainability of any entity or project.

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  • 11. 

    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations?

    • Air Force

    • Contractor

    • Employees

    • Facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force
    Explanation
    The Air Force must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations. As the governing body and employer, it is important for the Air Force to maintain impartiality and fairness in resolving any disputes that arise between contractors and employees. Taking a neutral stance ensures that all parties involved are treated fairly and that the resolution process is unbiased.

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  • 12. 

    Who will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is complete? 

    • Individual

    • Supervisor

    • Commander

    • Functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is complete. This is because the supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of the individual and ensuring that all necessary information is included and accurate. The supervisor is in a position of authority and has the knowledge and understanding of the requirements for the form, making them the appropriate person to review it. The commander and functional manager may have oversight roles as well, but the supervisor is the immediate point of contact for the individual and is therefore the most logical choice for review.

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  • 13. 

    Who reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary?

    • Supervisor

    • Functional area manager

    • Individual writing the report

    • Base safety office

    Correct Answer
    A. Base safety office
    Explanation
    The Base safety office reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary. This office is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the base and its personnel, so they have the authority and expertise to assess the validity of the report and take appropriate measures to address any identified hazards. The supervisor, functional area manager, and individual writing the report may also play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Base safety office.

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  • 14. 

    What funds are used primarily to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more?

    • Operational & Maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Procurement
    Explanation
    Procurement funds are primarily used to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more. These funds are allocated specifically for the purpose of purchasing necessary equipment and supplies for an organization or project. Operational & Maintenance (O&M) funds, on the other hand, are typically used for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of existing equipment and facilities. Fallout and Non-appropriated funds are not directly related to the procurement of equipment.

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  • 15. 

    At what level within the Air Force must internal controls be established to ensure the proper use of all resources?

    • Operational

    • Administrative

    • Tactical

    • All levels

    Correct Answer
    A. All levels
    Explanation
    Internal controls must be established at all levels within the Air Force to ensure the proper use of all resources. This means that each level, including operational, administrative, and tactical, must have their own internal control measures in place to monitor and regulate the use of resources. By implementing internal controls at all levels, the Air Force can ensure that resources are being used efficiently and effectively, minimizing the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse.

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  • 16. 

    Who is responsible for making daily deposits to the central cashier or the financial institution and for keeping cash on hand to a minimum?

    • Activity manager

    • Installation commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Resource management flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity manager
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for making daily deposits to the central cashier or the financial institution and for keeping cash on hand to a minimum. This role involves managing the financial transactions of the organization and ensuring that funds are properly deposited and accounted for. By keeping cash on hand to a minimum, the activity manager helps to reduce the risk of theft or loss and ensures that funds are being used efficiently.

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  • 17. 

    Which award is for personnel  or situations not covered by other awards?

    • CMSgt Billy R. Hunter SNCOA Instructor of the Year

    • Dr. Edwin C. Peterson Education and Training Manager (ETM)

    • Lieutenant General Norm Lezy Services

    • A1 Special Recognition

    Correct Answer
    A. A1 Special Recognition
    Explanation
    A1 Special Recognition is the correct answer because it is an award specifically designated for personnel or situations that are not covered by other awards. This award serves as a way to acknowledge and honor individuals or circumstances that may not fit into the criteria of other established awards. It is a unique recognition that allows for flexibility in recognizing outstanding contributions or achievements that may not fall under the criteria of other awards.

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  • 18. 

    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into finite structure of authorizations by work center?

    • Unit authorization file

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • Alpha roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the personnel assigned to each work center within a unit, allowing for effective manpower management and allocation. This document helps ensure that the manpower resources are appropriately distributed and utilized within the unit. The other options mentioned (Unit authorization file, Unit personnel management roster, Alpha roster) do not specifically refer to the detailed manpower listing and structure provided by the UMD.

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  • 19. 

    After how many days should major command (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operation when developing a contract contingency clause?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When developing a contract contingency clause, major command (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operation after 30 days. This suggests that the contract includes provisions for potential expansion of operations within a month's notice.

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  • 20. 

    Into what sections are Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders broken down?

    • Major command and Air staff

    • CONUS and O-CONUS

    • Military and Civilian duty

    • Active duty and Guard or Reserve

    Correct Answer
    A. Military and Civilian duty
    Explanation
    The Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders are broken down into two sections: Military and Civilian duty. This categorization allows for the organization and management of training and education plans for both military personnel and civilian employees. By separating the folders based on duty status, it ensures that the appropriate training and education programs are provided to each group, taking into account their specific roles and responsibilities within the organization.

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  • 21. 

    Within how many days should a hazard be investigated if there is immediate danger?

    • One

    • Three

    • Seven

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    A hazard should be investigated within one day if there is immediate danger. Immediate danger implies that there is an imminent risk or threat to the safety or well-being of individuals. In such cases, prompt action is necessary to assess and mitigate the hazard to prevent any potential harm or accidents. Investigating and addressing the hazard within one day ensures timely intervention and minimizes the risk to people or property.

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  • 22. 

    What funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?

    • Operational & Maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Fallout
    Explanation
    Fallout funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress. These funds are allocated for emergency or unforeseen expenses that arise after the regular budget has been approved. They are typically used to address unexpected events such as natural disasters, military conflicts, or economic crises. The term "fallout" refers to the fallout of these events and the need for additional funding to mitigate their impact.

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  • 23. 

    Who determines fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competively?

    • Contracting officer

    • Marketing director

    • Services commander

    • Entertainment market

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively. They have the expertise and authority to negotiate and establish the terms and conditions of the contract, including pricing. The contracting officer ensures that the price paid for the entertainment is reasonable and in line with market standards, taking into consideration factors such as quality, quantity, and the specific requirements of the procurement. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the government or organization gets the best value for their money while adhering to procurement regulations.

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  • 24. 

    How many days annually can the Air Force use non- extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short term needs?

    • 89

    • 139

    • 179

    • 365

    Correct Answer
    A. 139
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 139. This means that the Air Force can use non-extended active duty officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation man-days for 139 days annually to meet short term needs. This suggests that there are limitations on the number of days these personnel can be utilized for short term needs, and 139 is the specific number within those limitations.

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  • 25. 

    What allows continued in-base operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?

    • Air Force Reserve backfills

    • National Guard backfills

    • Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)

    • Non-strategic source (MOA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)
    Explanation
    Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-base operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. This means that even if there is a shortage of APF manpower, the activities can still be carried out with the help of strategic source MOAs. These agreements provide alternative sources of manpower or funding to ensure that essential operations can continue without interruption.

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  • 26. 

    What does the new supervisor do each time an Airman changes duty positions?

    • Orders new Career Development Courses (CDC) and enters the Airman into training

    • Creates a new AF Form 623, OJT Record for the new section

    • Records the position changes on the AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    • Perform an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks.
    Explanation
    Each time an Airman changes duty positions, the new supervisor performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks. This is done to assess the Airman's proficiency in their new position and determine if any additional training or certification is required. By reviewing the Airman's previous certifications, the supervisor can ensure that the Airman is fully qualified and prepared for their new role. This evaluation helps to maintain the standard of proficiency and readiness within the unit.

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  • 27. 

    What type contract is awarded to specific individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • Unique Skill

    • One-time service

    • Individual service

    • On-call service

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual service
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are awarded to specific individuals who possess unique skills, experience, or knowledge required to perform a service for the non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is tailored to the specific needs of the organization and is awarded to individuals who can provide specialized services that are not readily available from other sources. It allows the organization to tap into the expertise of individuals who possess the necessary skills and knowledge to meet their unique requirements.

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  • 28. 

    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?

    • When the contract is less than one year

    • When the services will only be provided one time

    • When the contract will be paid on a per job basis

    • For services that the individual Is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position

    Correct Answer
    A. For services that the individual Is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are not used when the individual is obligated to provide services to the NAFI (Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality) as a result of their military or civilian employee position. In such cases, the services provided are part of their job responsibilities and do not require a separate contract.

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  • 29. 

    What type of loss is it when someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss?

    • Simple negligence

    • Gross negligence

    • Willfully misconduct

    • Proximate cause

    Correct Answer
    A. Gross negligence
    Explanation
    Gross negligence is the correct answer because it refers to a type of loss where someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss. This level of negligence is more severe than simple negligence and implies a reckless disregard for the safety or well-being of others. Willful misconduct refers to intentional wrongdoing, and proximate cause refers to the direct cause of an event or loss.

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  • 30. 

    Nominations for program awards will have a maximum of how many lines, including the headings?

    • 43

    • 33

    • 23

    • 13

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
    Explanation
    Nominations for program awards will have a maximum of 33 lines, including the headings. This means that each nomination can be written within those 33 lines, including any headings or titles that may be required. It is important to stay within this limit to ensure that all necessary information is included and to maintain a consistent format for all nominations.

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  • 31. 

    How many days does the person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed have to return a Hazard Report to base safety?

    • Three

    • Five

    • Seven

    • Ten

    Correct Answer
    A. Ten
    Explanation
    The person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed has ten days to return a Hazard Report to base safety. This timeframe allows sufficient time for the person to thoroughly investigate the reported hazard, identify appropriate corrective actions, implement them, and provide a comprehensive report to the base safety department. It ensures that the necessary steps are taken promptly to address any potential safety risks and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 32. 

    What office provides accounting support to all sustainment activities?

    • Force Support Squadron (FSS) human resource office (HRO)

    • Wing financial management office

    • Non-appropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO)

    • Non-appropriated fund (NAF) human resource office (HRO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-appropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO)
    Explanation
    The Non-appropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing accounting support to all sustainment activities. The NAF AO manages the financial transactions and budgeting for non-appropriated funds, which are funds generated by activities such as morale, welfare, and recreation programs. This office ensures that the accounting processes are accurate and compliant with regulations, allowing sustainment activities to effectively manage their finances. The other options, such as the Force Support Squadron human resource office (HRO) or the Wing financial management office, may have different responsibilities but do not specifically provide accounting support to sustainment activities.

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  • 33. 

    Who identifies training needs within the work center?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for identifying training needs within the work center. They have a comprehensive understanding of the tasks and responsibilities of each employee and can assess their strengths and weaknesses. By identifying training needs, the supervisor can ensure that employees receive the necessary training to improve their skills and performance in their respective roles. This helps in enhancing productivity and achieving organizational goals.

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  • 34. 

    What do base level planners use to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources?

    • Operation Plans (OPlan)

    • Base level planning process (BLPP)

    • Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

    • Contingency Operation/Mobility Planning and Execution System (COMPES)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base level planning process (BLPP)
    Explanation
    Base level planners use the base level planning process (BLPP) to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources. The BLPP is a systematic method that helps planners identify and analyze the resources needed to support military operations at the base level. It involves assessing the existing capabilities, determining the gaps, and developing plans to fill those gaps. By using the BLPP, base level planners can effectively determine the requirements and resources needed during wartime situations.

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  • 35. 

    What day after mobilization are morale programs brought online?

    • 10

    • 20

    • 30

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    Morale programs are brought online 30 days after mobilization. This suggests that there is a specific timeline or schedule in place for implementing morale programs, and it takes approximately one month after mobilization for these programs to be activated.

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  • 36. 

    What parrot of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is not required to be in each individual training record?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
  • 37. 

    How do you identify all  duty position requirements in the master task list (MTL)?

    • Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement

    • Highlight the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task

    • List the duty position requirements on AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    • List the duty position requirements on AF IMT 623A, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement
    Explanation
    To identify all duty position requirements in the master task list (MTL), one should circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement. This allows for easy reference and identification of the specific requirements associated with each task in the MTL.

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  • 38. 

    Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Head Quarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of the Air Force
    Explanation
    The Secretary of the Air Force authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the Department of the Air Force, the Secretary has the authority to make decisions regarding the activation and deployment of reserve units. This ensures that the activation process is conducted in accordance with the policies and guidelines set by the Department of Defense and the Air Force. The Secretary's authorization is crucial in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC units in supporting the overall mission of the Air Force.

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  • 39. 

    How many types of manpower does the Air Force rely on to do its mission?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to carry out its mission. This implies that there are multiple categories or groups of individuals involved in the operations and tasks of the Air Force. These three types of manpower could include active-duty military personnel, civilian employees, and reservists or National Guard members. Each category plays a crucial role in supporting and executing the Air Force's mission, highlighting the importance of a diverse workforce in achieving their objectives.

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  • 40. 

    To qualify for a large installation award, the base population must be over

    • 2,000

    • 4,000

    • 6,000

    • 8,000

    Correct Answer
    A. 6,000
    Explanation
    To qualify for a large installation award, the base population must be over 6,000. This means that the population of the base must exceed 6,000 individuals in order for it to be eligible for the award.

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  • 41. 

    Within marketing who will train flight chiefs and activity managers on the use and application of Corporate Prism or other marketing data?

    • Director

    • Corporate sponsorship liaison

    • Graphics coordinator

    • Data base administrator

    Correct Answer
    A. Director
    Explanation
    The Director is responsible for training flight chiefs and activity managers on the use and application of Corporate Prism or other marketing data. As a high-level executive, the Director has the authority and knowledge to provide guidance and instruction to these individuals. They have a comprehensive understanding of marketing strategies and tools, making them the most suitable person to train others in utilizing Corporate Prism or other marketing data effectively.

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  • 42. 

    When are award winner messages released?

    • January

    • January-February

    • February-March

    • December

    Correct Answer
    A. February-March
    Explanation
    Award winner messages are released in February-March. This suggests that the messages announcing the winners of awards are typically released during this time period.

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  • 43. 

    What tool was developed to present information in checklist format that tests individuals to a Go/No-Go level?

    • Services Training Aid (STA)

    • Specialty Training Standards (STS)

    • Services Training and Education Plan (STEP)

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan CFETP

    Correct Answer
    A. Services Training Aid (STA)
    Explanation
    The Services Training Aid (STA) is a tool that was developed to present information in a checklist format. It is used to test individuals to a Go/No-Go level, meaning it assesses their proficiency and determines whether they meet the required standards. The other options listed, Specialty Training Standards (STS), Services Training and Education Plan (STEP), and Career Field Education and Training Plan CFETP, are not specifically designed to present information in a checklist format or test individuals to a Go/No-Go level.

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  • 44. 

    Who determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Task Certifier

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines whether an Airman is not qualified in a particular task. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that they are competent and capable of performing their assigned tasks. They have the authority to assess an Airman's performance and make judgments about their qualifications.

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  • 45. 

    Who is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainer
    Explanation
    The trainer is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training. This is because the trainer is responsible for ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively train others. By maintaining task qualifications, the trainer can stay up-to-date with any changes or updates in the training material and provide accurate and relevant information to trainees. Additionally, maintaining task qualifications allows the trainer to demonstrate their expertise and credibility in the subject matter, which can enhance the effectiveness of the training.

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  • 46. 

    What is the second step in the budget process?

    • Write a budget

    • Identify your unit's mission

    • Establish the requirements of your operation

    • Establish and write down the activity's goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish and write down the activity's goals
    Explanation
    The second step in the budget process is to establish and write down the activity's goals. This step is important because it helps to define the objectives and outcomes that the budget will support. By clearly identifying the goals of the activity, it becomes easier to allocate resources and determine the budgetary needs. Additionally, having well-defined goals allows for better tracking and evaluation of the budget's effectiveness in achieving those goals.

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  • 47. 

    What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

    • Authorized Manning Document (AMD)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    • Unit Manning and Personnel Management Roster (UMPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the manpower requirements for each position. It serves as a reference for determining the personnel needed to fulfill the unit's mission and ensures that the unit is properly staffed. The UMD is an essential tool for manpower planning and management within the unit.

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  • 48. 

    How many month must a nominee be in a position to be eligible for an award?

    • One

    • Three

    • Six

    • Nine

    Correct Answer
    A. Six
    Explanation
    A nominee must be in a position for at least six months to be eligible for an award. This time period allows the nominee to demonstrate their skills, accomplishments, and contributions in their role, ensuring that they have made a significant impact and deserve recognition. It also allows sufficient time for the selection committee or organization to assess the nominee's performance and determine their eligibility for the award.

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  • 49. 

    Who establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements?

    • Congress

    • Department of Defense (DOD)

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

    • Major Command (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). HQ USAF is responsible for establishing policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements. As the highest level of command in the United States Air Force, HQ USAF has the authority and expertise to determine the manpower needs of the Air Force and develop the necessary policies and procedures to ensure that those requirements are met. Congress, the Department of Defense, and Major Command (MAJCOM) may have some influence and input in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with HQ USAF.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 11, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    TP2013
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