CDC 3M071 : Trivia Quiz On Air Force Lodging Services! Test
There are a lot of dangers that those in the air force face in the line of duty and in CDC 3M071 on Air Force Lodging we got to learn aa lot about how to handle them. What else did you learn in this whole course? Is it enough to help you pass this quiz? Take up the quiz below and get to find out.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Who will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is complete?
- A.
Individual
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Functional manager
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is complete. This is because the supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of the individual and ensuring that all necessary information is included and accurate. The supervisor is in a position of authority and has the knowledge and understanding of the requirements for the form, making them the appropriate person to review it. The commander and functional manager may have oversight roles as well, but the supervisor is the immediate point of contact for the individual and is therefore the most logical choice for review.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Who should be informed first when a hazard is discovered?
- A.
Other individuals in the work center
- B.
Supervisor of the area involved
- C.
Functional Managers for the work center
- D.
Squadron or Flight commander
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor of the area involvedExplanation
When a hazard is discovered, the supervisor of the area involved should be informed first. This is because the supervisor is responsible for the safety and well-being of their team and has the authority to take immediate action to address the hazard. Informing the supervisor allows them to assess the situation, implement necessary safety measures, and communicate the hazard to higher-level authorities if needed. Other individuals in the work center, functional managers, and squadron or flight commanders may also need to be informed, but the supervisor of the area involved should be the first point of contact.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Who reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Functional area manager
- C.
Individual writing the report
- D.
Base safety office
Correct Answer
D. Base safety officeExplanation
The Base safety office reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary. This office is responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the base and its personnel, so they have the authority and expertise to assess the validity of the report and take appropriate measures to address any identified hazards. The supervisor, functional area manager, and individual writing the report may also play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the Base safety office.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Within how many days should a hazard be investigated if there is immediate danger?
- A.
One
- B.
Three
- C.
Seven
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
A. OneExplanation
A hazard should be investigated within one day if there is immediate danger. Immediate danger implies that there is an imminent risk or threat to the safety or well-being of individuals. In such cases, prompt action is necessary to assess and mitigate the hazard to prevent any potential harm or accidents. Investigating and addressing the hazard within one day ensures timely intervention and minimizes the risk to people or property.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
How many days does the person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed have to return a Hazard Report to base safety?
- A.
Three
- B.
Five
- C.
Seven
- D.
Ten
Correct Answer
D. TenExplanation
The person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed has ten days to return a Hazard Report to base safety. This timeframe allows sufficient time for the person to thoroughly investigate the reported hazard, identify appropriate corrective actions, implement them, and provide a comprehensive report to the base safety department. It ensures that the necessary steps are taken promptly to address any potential safety risks and maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Into what sections are Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders broken down?
- A.
Major command and Air staff
- B.
CONUS and O-CONUS
- C.
Military and Civilian duty
- D.
Active duty and Guard or Reserve
Correct Answer
C. Military and Civilian dutyExplanation
The Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders are broken down into two sections: Military and Civilian duty. This categorization allows for the organization and management of training and education plans for both military personnel and civilian employees. By separating the folders based on duty status, it ensures that the appropriate training and education programs are provided to each group, taking into account their specific roles and responsibilities within the organization.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What tool was developed to present information in checklist format that tests individuals to a Go/No-Go level?
- A.
Services Training Aid (STA)
- B.
Specialty Training Standards (STS)
- C.
Services Training and Education Plan (STEP)
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan CFETP
Correct Answer
A. Services Training Aid (STA)Explanation
The Services Training Aid (STA) is a tool that was developed to present information in a checklist format. It is used to test individuals to a Go/No-Go level, meaning it assesses their proficiency and determines whether they meet the required standards. The other options listed, Specialty Training Standards (STS), Services Training and Education Plan (STEP), and Career Field Education and Training Plan CFETP, are not specifically designed to present information in a checklist format or test individuals to a Go/No-Go level.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
What parrot of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is not required to be in each individual training record?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
A. I -
- 9.
How do you identify all duty position requirements in the master task list (MTL)?
- A.
Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement
- B.
Highlight the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task
- C.
List the duty position requirements on AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)
- D.
List the duty position requirements on AF IMT 623A, On-The-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
Correct Answer
A. Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statementExplanation
To identify all duty position requirements in the master task list (MTL), one should circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement. This allows for easy reference and identification of the specific requirements associated with each task in the MTL.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
What does the new supervisor do each time an Airman changes duty positions?
- A.
Orders new Career Development Courses (CDC) and enters the Airman into training
- B.
Creates a new AF Form 623, OJT Record for the new section
- C.
Records the position changes on the AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)
- D.
Perform an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks.
Correct Answer
D. Perform an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks.Explanation
Each time an Airman changes duty positions, the new supervisor performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks. This is done to assess the Airman's proficiency in their new position and determine if any additional training or certification is required. By reviewing the Airman's previous certifications, the supervisor can ensure that the Airman is fully qualified and prepared for their new role. This evaluation helps to maintain the standard of proficiency and readiness within the unit.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Within how many days must supervisors transcribe training records when revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
Supervisors must transcribe training records within 120 days when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published. This ensures that the updated training information is accurately recorded and communicated to the relevant personnel in a timely manner.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Who determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Task Certifier
- D.
Supervisor
Correct Answer
D. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor determines whether an Airman is not qualified in a particular task. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that they are competent and capable of performing their assigned tasks. They have the authority to assess an Airman's performance and make judgments about their qualifications.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Who is responsible for writing the work center Master Training Plan?
- A.
Workcenter NCOIC
- B.
Activity Manager
- C.
Unit Training Manager
- D.
Major command training manager
Correct Answer
B. Activity ManagerExplanation
The Activity Manager is responsible for writing the work center Master Training Plan. This individual is in charge of overseeing and coordinating all activities within the organization, including training. They have the knowledge and authority to create a comprehensive training plan that aligns with the goals and objectives of the work center. The Activity Manager understands the specific needs and requirements of the work center and can develop a plan that addresses those needs effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Who identifies training needs within the work center?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for identifying training needs within the work center. They have a comprehensive understanding of the tasks and responsibilities of each employee and can assess their strengths and weaknesses. By identifying training needs, the supervisor can ensure that employees receive the necessary training to improve their skills and performance in their respective roles. This helps in enhancing productivity and achieving organizational goals.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Who is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
B. TrainerExplanation
The trainer is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training. This is because the trainer is responsible for ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively train others. By maintaining task qualifications, the trainer can stay up-to-date with any changes or updates in the training material and provide accurate and relevant information to trainees. Additionally, maintaining task qualifications allows the trainer to demonstrate their expertise and credibility in the subject matter, which can enhance the effectiveness of the training.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Who is the focal point of the Air Force training program?
- A.
Trainee
- B.
Trainer
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Task Certifier
Correct Answer
A. TraineeExplanation
The focal point of the Air Force training program is the trainee. This means that the trainee is the main focus or central figure in the training program. The program is designed to train and develop the skills and knowledge of the trainee in order to prepare them for their role in the Air Force. The trainers, supervisors, and task certifiers are all important roles within the program, but the trainee is the primary focus.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Who controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distribution?
- A.
Congress
- B.
Department of Defense (DOD)
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
A. CongressExplanation
Congress controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distribution. As the legislative branch of the United States government, Congress has the power to make decisions regarding the size and composition of the military and civilian workforce. This includes determining the number of personnel in each branch of the military, setting limits on civilian positions, and allocating resources for military grade distribution. Congress plays a crucial role in shaping the manpower policies of the Department of Defense and ensuring appropriate oversight and funding for the military.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Who establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements?
- A.
Congress
- B.
Department of Defense (DOD)
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)Explanation
The correct answer is Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). HQ USAF is responsible for establishing policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements. As the highest level of command in the United States Air Force, HQ USAF has the authority and expertise to determine the manpower needs of the Air Force and develop the necessary policies and procedures to ensure that those requirements are met. Congress, the Department of Defense, and Major Command (MAJCOM) may have some influence and input in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with HQ USAF.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Who develops manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service?
- A.
Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)
- B.
Air Force Manpower
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air force (HQ USAF) functional managers
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM) functional managers
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air force (HQ USAF) functional managersExplanation
Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers are responsible for developing manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service. These managers have the authority and expertise to determine the appropriate levels of manpower needed to support the operations and missions of the Air Force. They consider factors such as budget constraints, mission requirements, and available resources to establish manpower standards that ensure cost-effective and efficient service delivery.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Wartime man- hours availability factors are reviewed
- A.
Annually
- B.
On even numbered years
- C.
Every three years
- D.
Every four years
Correct Answer
C. Every three yearsExplanation
Wartime man-hours availability factors are reviewed every three years. This means that the factors related to the availability of man-hours during wartime are assessed and evaluated once every three years. This periodic review helps in ensuring that the manpower resources required during times of war are adequately planned and accounted for. By conducting these reviews on a regular basis, any changes or updates in the availability factors can be identified and addressed to maintain an effective and efficient wartime manpower strategy.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?
- A.
Secretary of the Air Force
- B.
Air Combat Command (ACC)
- C.
Head Quarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES)
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of the Air ForceExplanation
The Secretary of the Air Force authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the Department of the Air Force, the Secretary has the authority to make decisions regarding the activation and deployment of reserve units. This ensures that the activation process is conducted in accordance with the policies and guidelines set by the Department of Defense and the Air Force. The Secretary's authorization is crucial in maintaining the readiness and effectiveness of the ARC units in supporting the overall mission of the Air Force.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
How many days annually can the Air Force use non- extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short term needs?
- A.
89
- B.
139
- C.
179
- D.
365
Correct Answer
B. 139Explanation
The correct answer is 139. This means that the Air Force can use non-extended active duty officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation man-days for 139 days annually to meet short term needs. This suggests that there are limitations on the number of days these personnel can be utilized for short term needs, and 139 is the specific number within those limitations.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
How many types of manpower does the Air Force rely on to do its mission?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to carry out its mission. This implies that there are multiple categories or groups of individuals involved in the operations and tasks of the Air Force. These three types of manpower could include active-duty military personnel, civilian employees, and reservists or National Guard members. Each category plays a crucial role in supporting and executing the Air Force's mission, highlighting the importance of a diverse workforce in achieving their objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What do base level planners use to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources?
- A.
Operation Plans (OPlan)
- B.
Base level planning process (BLPP)
- C.
Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)
- D.
Contingency Operation/Mobility Planning and Execution System (COMPES)
Correct Answer
B. Base level planning process (BLPP)Explanation
Base level planners use the base level planning process (BLPP) to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources. The BLPP is a systematic method that helps planners identify and analyze the resources needed to support military operations at the base level. It involves assessing the existing capabilities, determining the gaps, and developing plans to fill those gaps. By using the BLPP, base level planners can effectively determine the requirements and resources needed during wartime situations.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
What are emergency essential(EE) positions?
- A.
Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations
- B.
Military positions required for direct support of contingency operations
- C.
Civilian positions required to be on call 24 hours a day seven days per week
- D.
Military positions required to be on call 24 hours a day seven days per week
Correct Answer
A. Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operationsExplanation
Emergency essential (EE) positions refer to civilian positions that are necessary for providing direct support to combat operations. These positions are crucial for ensuring the smooth functioning of military operations in times of emergency or contingency situations. Unlike military positions, EE positions are specifically designated for civilian personnel who are required to work directly in support of combat operations. These positions play a vital role in maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of the military forces during critical situations.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What office develops,coordinates, and executes no appropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approves essential procedural guidance for Air Force NAF program management?
- A.
Head Quarters Air Force personnel Center (HQ AFPC)
- B.
Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA)
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force Installation and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV)
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force Installation and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV)Explanation
The correct answer is Head Quarters United States Air Force Installation and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV). This office is responsible for developing, coordinating, and executing non-appropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy for the Air Force NAF program management. They also approve essential procedural guidance for the NAF program. The other options listed do not have the specific responsibility of developing, coordinating, and executing NAF civilian personnel policy.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Who approves a non appropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement(NAF MOA)?
- A.
Major command services (MAJCOM/SV) director
- B.
Installation commander
- C.
Base contracting officer
- D.
Base Services commander
Correct Answer
B. Installation commanderExplanation
The installation commander approves a non-appropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAF MOA). This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all activities and operations on the installation, including the approval of agreements related to non-appropriated funds. They have the authority to review and approve such agreements to ensure they align with the installation's goals and objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What allows continued in-base operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?
- A.
Air Force Reserve backfills
- B.
National Guard backfills
- C.
Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)
- D.
Non-strategic source (MOA)
Correct Answer
C. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)Explanation
Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-base operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. This means that even if there is a shortage of APF manpower, the activities can still be carried out with the help of strategic source MOAs. These agreements provide alternative sources of manpower or funding to ensure that essential operations can continue without interruption.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
At what level are non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) approved?
- A.
Head Quarters United States Air Force Installation and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV)
- B.
Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA)
- C.
Major command services (MAJCOM/SV)
- D.
Wing
Correct Answer
D. WingExplanation
Non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) are approved at the wing level. This means that the approval process for these MOAs takes place within a specific wing of the United States Air Force. The other options listed, such as HQ USAF/ILV, HQ AFSVA, and MAJCOM/SV, do not have the authority to approve non-strategic MOAs.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?
- A.
10 to 15
- B.
15 to 20
- C.
20 to 40
- D.
Over 40
Correct Answer
C. 20 to 40Explanation
A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed to work between 20 to 40 hours a week. This means that their weekly work schedule will fall within this range, ensuring that they have a minimum of 20 hours and a maximum of 40 hours of work per week.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into finite structure of authorizations by work center?
- A.
Unit authorization file
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- C.
Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)
- D.
Alpha roster
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the personnel assigned to each work center within a unit, allowing for effective manpower management and allocation. This document helps ensure that the manpower resources are appropriately distributed and utilized within the unit. The other options mentioned (Unit authorization file, Unit personnel management roster, Alpha roster) do not specifically refer to the detailed manpower listing and structure provided by the UMD.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- B.
Authorized Manning Document (AMD)
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
- D.
Unit Manning and Personnel Management Roster (UMPMR)
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)Explanation
The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the manpower requirements for each position. It serves as a reference for determining the personnel needed to fulfill the unit's mission and ensures that the unit is properly staffed. The UMD is an essential tool for manpower planning and management within the unit.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What type of funds are used to support day to day operations?
- A.
Operation & Maintenance (O&M)
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
A. Operation & Maintenance (O&M)Explanation
Operation & Maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day-to-day operations. These funds cover the costs associated with the regular functioning and maintenance of an organization or project. This includes expenses such as salaries, utilities, repairs, and general upkeep. O&M funds are crucial for ensuring the smooth operation and sustainability of any entity or project.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
What funds are used primarily to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more?
- A.
Operational & Maintenance (O&M)
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
B. ProcurementExplanation
Procurement funds are primarily used to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more. These funds are allocated specifically for the purpose of purchasing necessary equipment and supplies for an organization or project. Operational & Maintenance (O&M) funds, on the other hand, are typically used for the day-to-day operations and maintenance of existing equipment and facilities. Fallout and Non-appropriated funds are not directly related to the procurement of equipment.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?
- A.
Operational & Maintenance (O&M)
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
C. FalloutExplanation
Fallout funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress. These funds are allocated for emergency or unforeseen expenses that arise after the regular budget has been approved. They are typically used to address unexpected events such as natural disasters, military conflicts, or economic crises. The term "fallout" refers to the fallout of these events and the need for additional funding to mitigate their impact.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What funds are self generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?
- A.
Operational & Maintenance (O&M)
- B.
Procurement
- C.
Fallout
- D.
Non-appropriated
Correct Answer
D. Non-appropriatedExplanation
Non-appropriated funds are self-generated funds that come from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are generated through activities such as fees, charges, and sales of goods and services. Unlike appropriated funds, which are provided by Congress for specific purposes, non-appropriated funds are generated by the organization itself and can be used for a variety of purposes as determined by the organization. These funds provide flexibility and autonomy to the organization in managing its financial resources.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What is the first step in the budget process?
- A.
Write a budget
- B.
Identify your unit's mission
- C.
Establish the requirements of your operation
- D.
Establish and write down the activity's goals
Correct Answer
B. Identify your unit's missionExplanation
The first step in the budget process is to identify your unit's mission. This is important because it sets the overall direction and goals for the organization. By understanding the mission, you can then align your budget and financial resources to support the activities and initiatives that are in line with the mission. This step helps to ensure that the budget is focused on achieving the organization's objectives and priorities.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What is the second step in the budget process?
- A.
Write a budget
- B.
Identify your unit's mission
- C.
Establish the requirements of your operation
- D.
Establish and write down the activity's goals
Correct Answer
D. Establish and write down the activity's goalsExplanation
The second step in the budget process is to establish and write down the activity's goals. This step is important because it helps to define the objectives and outcomes that the budget will support. By clearly identifying the goals of the activity, it becomes easier to allocate resources and determine the budgetary needs. Additionally, having well-defined goals allows for better tracking and evaluation of the budget's effectiveness in achieving those goals.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which of the following are not one of the three budgeting responsibility categories?
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Personnel
- D.
Policy
Correct Answer
C. PersonnelExplanation
The answer is "Personnel" because the question asks for the categories that are not part of the three budgeting responsibility categories. The three budgeting responsibility categories mentioned are Operational, Administrative, and Policy. Since "Personnel" is not one of the three categories mentioned, it is the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Which budget responsibility does the resource management flight chief (RMFC) execute?
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Personnel
- D.
Policy
Correct Answer
B. AdministrativeExplanation
The resource management flight chief (RMFC) executes administrative budget responsibilities. This means that they are responsible for managing and overseeing the financial aspects of the organization, including budget planning, allocation, and monitoring. They ensure that funds are properly utilized, expenses are controlled, and financial goals are met. This role involves tasks such as financial reporting, budget forecasting, and coordinating with other departments to ensure financial compliance and efficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Within the Force Support Squadron (FSS), who is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy?
- A.
Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC)
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Activity manager
- D.
FSS Commander
Correct Answer
D. FSS CommanderExplanation
The FSS Commander is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy within the Force Support Squadron (FSS). As the commander of the squadron, they have the authority and decision-making power to set the budgetary policies that align with the goals and objectives of the squadron. The Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC) may assist in the budgeting process and provide recommendations, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the FSS Commander. The supervisor and activity manager may have input and play a role in the budgeting process, but they do not have the sole responsibility for establishing budgetary policy.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What budget is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every Services activity with income and expenses?
- A.
Appropriated
- B.
Cash flow
- C.
Operating
- D.
Requirements
Correct Answer
C. OperatingExplanation
The budget that is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every Services activity with income and expenses is the operating budget. This budget helps in planning and managing the day-to-day operations of the organization by estimating the expected revenues and expenses. It provides a detailed breakdown of the costs associated with each activity and helps in determining the financial feasibility of the services provided.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
In order to Be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the
- A.
Individual
- B.
Contractor
- C.
Government
- D.
Activity the contract supports
Correct Answer
C. GovernmentExplanation
The contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the Government. This is because the Government is responsible for ensuring that taxpayer money is used efficiently and effectively. By awarding contracts that are in the best interest of the Government, the contracting system can help achieve this goal by selecting contractors who can provide the necessary goods or services at the best value for the Government. This ensures that the Government can fulfill its mission needs and requirements while also being accountable to the public.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Contractor
- C.
Employees
- D.
Facility manager
Correct Answer
A. Air ForceExplanation
The Air Force must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations. As the governing body and employer, it is important for the Air Force to maintain impartiality and fairness in resolving any disputes that arise between contractors and employees. Taking a neutral stance ensures that all parties involved are treated fairly and that the resolution process is unbiased.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Who determines fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competively?
- A.
Contracting officer
- B.
Marketing director
- C.
Services commander
- D.
Entertainment market
Correct Answer
A. Contracting officerExplanation
The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively. They have the expertise and authority to negotiate and establish the terms and conditions of the contract, including pricing. The contracting officer ensures that the price paid for the entertainment is reasonable and in line with market standards, taking into consideration factors such as quality, quantity, and the specific requirements of the procurement. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the government or organization gets the best value for their money while adhering to procurement regulations.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
What type contract is awarded to specific individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
- A.
Unique Skill
- B.
One-time service
- C.
Individual service
- D.
On-call service
Correct Answer
C. Individual serviceExplanation
Individual service contracts are awarded to specific individuals who possess unique skills, experience, or knowledge required to perform a service for the non appropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is tailored to the specific needs of the organization and is awarded to individuals who can provide specialized services that are not readily available from other sources. It allows the organization to tap into the expertise of individuals who possess the necessary skills and knowledge to meet their unique requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?
- A.
When the contract is less than one year
- B.
When the services will only be provided one time
- C.
When the contract will be paid on a per job basis
- D.
For services that the individual Is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position
Correct Answer
D. For services that the individual Is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee positionExplanation
Individual service contracts are not used when the individual is obligated to provide services to the NAFI (Non-Appropriated Fund Instrumentality) as a result of their military or civilian employee position. In such cases, the services provided are part of their job responsibilities and do not require a separate contract.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called
- A.
Concessionaire
- B.
Incentive
- C.
Individual service
- D.
Non personal service
Correct Answer
B. IncentiveExplanation
An incentive contract is designed to motivate contractors by providing them with rewards or bonuses based on their performance. This type of contract encourages contractors to meet or exceed specific goals or targets, as they have a direct financial incentive to do so. By offering incentives, such as financial bonuses or performance-based rewards, the contract aims to increase contractor motivation and productivity.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
After how many days should major command (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operation when developing a contract contingency clause?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
Correct Answer
B. 30Explanation
When developing a contract contingency clause, major command (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operation after 30 days. This suggests that the contract includes provisions for potential expansion of operations within a month's notice.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What day after mobilization are morale programs brought online?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
Correct Answer
C. 30Explanation
Morale programs are brought online 30 days after mobilization. This suggests that there is a specific timeline or schedule in place for implementing morale programs, and it takes approximately one month after mobilization for these programs to be activated.Rate this question:
-
- ACA Quizzes
- ACCA Quizzes
- ACE Quizzes
- BCBA Quizzes
- CCP Quizzes
- CDCs Quizzes
- CEH Quizzes
- CISA Quizzes
- CISCO Quizzes
- CISSP Quizzes
- CompTIA Quizzes
- CPA Quizzes
- CPAT Quizzes
- CPFA Quizzes
- CPP Quizzes
- CPS Quizzes
- CPT Quizzes
- CSA Quizzes
- CSET Quizzes
- CST Quizzes
- CSWIP Quizzes
- FTCE Quizzes
- HIPAA Quizzes
- IAHCSMM Quizzes
- ISTQB Quizzes
- LEED Ga Quizzes
- MBLEx Quizzes
- TEAS Quizzes
Back to top