3M071: Air Force Lodging Services Test! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/104 Questions

    Who is responsible for writing the work center master training plan (MTP)?

    • Supervisor
    • Flight Chief
    • Unit training manager (UTM)
    • Major command (MAJCOM) training manager
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About This Quiz

Below is a 3m071: air force lodging services test! For you to be able to stay at any air force in, you should either be in active duty, a dependent, or a retiree. Do you know some of the guidelines one should follow in their stay or while running the lodging? Do take this exciting quiz and get a preview See moreof how much you know!

3M071: Air Force Lodging Services Test! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the first step in developing the work center master training plan (MTP)?

    • Develop lesson guides and task breakdowns

    • Develop master task list

    • Develop training objective

    • Determine training needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop master task list
    Explanation
    The first step in developing the work center master training plan (MTP) is to develop a master task list. This involves identifying and listing all the tasks that need to be included in the training plan. By creating a comprehensive master task list, the training plan can be structured effectively, ensuring that all necessary tasks are covered and nothing is overlooked. This step lays the foundation for the rest of the training plan development process.

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  • 3. 

    What document helps conduct effective, standardized training throughout the Services (SV) career field?

    • Job qualification standard (JQS)

    • Services Training Aids (STA)

    • Air Force Training Record (AFTR)

    • Career Field Education And Training Plan (CFETP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Services Training Aids (STA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career Field Education And Training Plan (CFETP). The CFETP is a document that outlines the training requirements and career progression for individuals in a specific career field, in this case, the Services career field. It helps ensure that training is conducted effectively and consistently across the career field, providing a standardized approach to training. The Services Training Aids (STA) may be used as part of the training process, but the CFETP is the document that helps guide and organize the training efforts.

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  • 4. 

    Who determines what the trainee must accomplish before condsidered trained?

    • Training manager

    • Faciilty manager

    • Certifying official

    • Approving official

    Correct Answer
    A. Certifying official
    Explanation
    The certifying official is the person who determines what the trainee must accomplish before being considered trained. This individual is responsible for evaluating the trainee's performance and ensuring that all necessary requirements and standards have been met. They have the authority to approve the trainee's certification and deem them qualified for the specific role or task.

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  • 5. 

    What are the inclusive dates for awards packages?

    • 1 Jan - 30 Dec

    • 1 Oct - 30 Sep

    • 1 May - 30 Dec

    • 1 Oct - 1 Apr

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 Oct - 30 Sep
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for awards packages are from October 1st to September 30th. This means that any awards given out during this time period will be included in the packages.

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  • 6. 

    What is the maximum number of lines allowed on AF 1206 nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy

    • 8

    • 16

    • 24

    • 32

    Correct Answer
    A. 16
    Explanation
    The maximum number of lines allowed on AF 1206 nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy is 16.

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  • 7. 

    Nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy need concurrence from whom?

    • Squadron commander

    • Group commander

    • Installation commander

    • Major command (MAJCOM) commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The John L. Hennessy Trophy is a prestigious award, and in order for a nomination package to be considered, it needs to have the concurrence of the installation commander. This means that the installation commander, who is in charge of the overall operations and management of the military installation, must review and approve the nomination package before it can move forward in the selection process. The installation commander's concurrence ensures that the nomination meets the required criteria and is endorsed by the highest-ranking official at the installation level.

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  • 8. 

    How many types of manpower do the Air Force (AF) rely on to do its mission?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to accomplish its mission. This suggests that there are different categories or roles within the Air Force that contribute to the overall mission. Without knowing the specific types of manpower mentioned, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

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  • 9. 

    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?

    • Unit authorization file

    • Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • Alpha roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Unit manpower document (UMD). This document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides information on the manpower resources available and their allocation within the unit. The UMD helps in managing and organizing manpower effectively by providing a clear overview of the manpower structure and allocations within the unit.

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  • 10. 

    What is the primary document that reflects postions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • Authorized manpower document (AMD)

    • Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • Unit manning and personnel management roster (UMPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit manpower document (UMD). This document outlines the specific positions and the number of personnel needed to carry out the mission effectively. It serves as a reference for determining the authorized manpower for a particular unit and ensures that the unit has the necessary personnel to fulfill its objectives. The UMD helps in managing and organizing the workforce within the unit and ensures that the right personnel are assigned to the right positions.

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  • 11. 

    What tool is used by unit commanders to fine-tune their organizations?

    • Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • Authorization change request (ACR)

    • Unit peronnel management roster (UPMR)

    • Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization change request (ACR)
    Explanation
    Unit commanders use the Authorization Change Request (ACR) tool to fine-tune their organizations. This tool allows commanders to request changes to their unit's authorized manpower, such as requesting additional personnel or changes in positions. By submitting an ACR, unit commanders can ensure that their organization is properly staffed and equipped to carry out its mission effectively. The ACR process helps commanders to adjust their unit's manpower to meet changing operational requirements and optimize their organization's capabilities.

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  • 12. 

    Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?

    • Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Headquartes Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)
    Explanation
    The Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the Department of the Air Force, the SAF has the authority to make decisions regarding the activation and deployment of reserve units. This ensures that proper authorization and oversight are in place for the activation of these units, which are a crucial part of the Air Force's overall force structure and readiness.

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  • 13. 

    How many days annually can the Air Force (AF) use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airman Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short-term needs?

    • 89

    • 139

    • 179

    • 365

    Correct Answer
    A. 139
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 139. This means that the Air Force can use non-extended active duty officers and Airman Military Personnel Appropriation man-days for 139 days annually to meet short-term needs. This suggests that there are limitations on the number of days these resources can be utilized, and 139 is the specific number determined by the Air Force.

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  • 14. 

    Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?

    • Comptroller commander

    • Installation commander

    • Contracting commander

    • Force support commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA). This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all operations and activities on the installation, including agreements and contracts with NAFIs. They have the authority to review and approve MOAs to ensure they align with the installation's goals and objectives. The comptroller commander is responsible for financial management, the contracting commander handles procurement and contracting processes, and the force support commander is responsible for supporting the overall well-being of personnel on the installation. However, the installation commander has the ultimate authority to approve the MOA.

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  • 15. 

    What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?

    • Air Force Reserve (AFR) backfills

    • National Guard backfills

    • Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)

    • Non-strategic source MOAs

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)
    Explanation
    Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. This means that even if there is a decrease in APF manpower, the organization can still carry out its activities by utilizing strategic source MOAs. These agreements may involve partnerships with external entities or contractors who can provide the necessary resources and support to maintain operations. By leveraging these MOAs, the organization can ensure that essential functions are not disrupted, even in the absence of APF manpower.

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  • 16. 

    What is the primary purpose of the temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?

    • Sustainment

    • Dollar savings

    • Manpower makeup during deployments

    • Manpower makup during short periods of appropriated funds (APF) manpower shortfalls

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustainment
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) is to ensure sustainment. This means that the T-MOA is used to maintain or support something, such as a project or operation, for an extended period of time. It is likely that the T-MOA is put in place to ensure the continuation of a specific activity or to provide ongoing support for a particular objective.

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  • 17. 

    A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours per week?

    • 10 to 15

    • 15 to 20

    • 20 to 40

    • Over 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 to 40
    Explanation
    A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed 20 to 40 hours per week. This means that they are contractually entitled to work a minimum of 20 hours and a maximum of 40 hours per week. The specific number of hours within this range may vary depending on the individual's employment agreement and the needs of the organization.

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  • 18. 

    What is key to classifying a position description?

    • Developing a detailed position description (PD)

    • Developing a limited PD

    • Describes the function location

    • Describes the function purpose

    Correct Answer
    A. Developing a detailed position description (PD)
    Explanation
    Developing a detailed position description (PD) is the key to classifying a position description because it provides a comprehensive and thorough understanding of the job responsibilities, qualifications, and requirements. A detailed PD helps in accurately determining the appropriate classification level for the position, ensuring that it is properly aligned with the organization's structure and hierarchy. It also helps in effectively communicating the expectations and responsibilities to potential candidates and existing employees, facilitating better recruitment and performance management processes.

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  • 19. 

    Who determines and implement the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities?

    • Customer

    • Activity manager

    • Marketing manager

    • Flight chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Marketing manager
    Explanation
    The marketing manager determines and implements the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities. This role is responsible for developing and executing marketing strategies to promote the FSS and its activities. They analyze the target audience, budget, and goals of the FSS and then select the most effective combination of media channels such as social media, print advertising, and email marketing to reach and engage with the desired audience. The marketing manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the FSS activities are effectively promoted and communicated to the target market.

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  • 20. 

    What restrictions apply when buying advertising space?

    • Advertising for tobacco products

    • Advertising for special programs

    • Advertising for limited sale items

    • Advertising for lunch meal menus

    Correct Answer
    A. Advertising for tobacco products
    Explanation
    When buying advertising space, there are restrictions that apply to certain types of products. One such restriction is on advertising for tobacco products. Due to the harmful effects of tobacco and regulations imposed by governments, advertising for tobacco products is often heavily regulated or banned altogether. This is done to protect public health and discourage the use of tobacco.

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  • 21. 

    Who approves distribution of publications before it is released to the publisher?

    • Public affairs office

    • Legal office

    • Marketing office

    • Safety office

    Correct Answer
    A. Public affairs office
    Explanation
    The Public Affairs office is responsible for approving the distribution of publications before they are released to the publisher. They ensure that the content aligns with the organization's messaging and objectives, and that it complies with any legal or regulatory requirements. This office is typically involved in managing the organization's communication and public relations efforts, making them the appropriate authority to review and approve publications before they are released.

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  • 22. 

    Which funds are used to support day-to-day operations?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Nonappropriated

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation and maintenance (O&M)
    Explanation
    Operation and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day-to-day operations. These funds cover the costs of running and maintaining a facility or organization, including salaries, utilities, repairs, and other operational expenses. O&M funds are different from nonappropriated funds, which are generated from sources other than congressional appropriations, and procurement funds, which are used for purchasing goods and services. Fallout is not related to funding day-to-day operations.

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  • 23. 

    Which funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Nonappropriated

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    Correct Answer
    A. Fallout
  • 24. 

    What funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Nonappropriated

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonappropriated
    Explanation
    Nonappropriated funds are the correct answer because they are generated from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are typically generated through activities such as fees, charges, and sales of goods and services. They are used to support programs and services that are not funded by congressional appropriations, allowing organizations to be self-sufficient and reduce reliance on taxpayer dollars.

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  • 25. 

    How often does the force support squadron (FSS) update thier budgets?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The force support squadron (FSS) updates their budgets on a quarterly basis. This means that they review and make changes to their financial plans every three months. This regular updating allows the FSS to stay on top of their expenses and make necessary adjustments to ensure they are operating within their allocated budget. By updating their budgets quarterly, the FSS can better manage their resources and make informed financial decisions throughout the year.

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  • 26. 

    Who prepares income and expense (I&E) budgets?

    • Contracting officer

    • Finance officer

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity manager
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for preparing income and expense (I&E) budgets. They are in charge of planning and managing the financial resources for a specific activity or project. This includes estimating the income that will be generated and the expenses that will be incurred. The activity manager works closely with the finance officer and resource manager to ensure that the budget is accurate and aligned with the organization's goals and objectives. They play a crucial role in financial planning and decision-making within the organization.

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  • 27. 

    Who prioritizes consolidated nonappropriated requirement budgets (NRB)?

    • Squadron commander

    • Flight commander

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for prioritizing consolidated nonappropriated requirement budgets (NRB). As the leader of the squadron, they have the authority and knowledge to determine the priorities and allocate resources accordingly. They understand the needs and goals of the squadron and can make informed decisions on how to best utilize the available budget. The squadron commander's role is crucial in ensuring that the squadron's requirements are met within the allocated budget.

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  • 28. 

    What should you do when a piece of equipment is purchased?

    • Delete the line item from your budget

    • Deduct the actual cost of the item on your budget

    • Annotate the actual cost of the item on your budget

    • Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan
    Explanation
    When a piece of equipment is purchased, it is important to program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan. This ensures that there is a plan in place to replace the equipment in the future when it becomes outdated or no longer functional. Annotating the actual cost of the item on the budget may be necessary for tracking expenses, but it does not address the need for a replacement plan. Deducting the actual cost of the item on the budget may not be appropriate as it may lead to incorrect financial reporting. Deleting the line item from the budget is not recommended as it does not account for the need to replace the equipment in the future.

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  • 29. 

    Which budget should be completed before developing a five-year financial plan?

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annual

    • Annual

    • Two-year

    Correct Answer
    A. Annual
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Annual. A five-year financial plan is a long-term plan that outlines the financial goals and strategies for the next five years. In order to develop this plan, it is important to have a budget that covers the entire year, as it provides a comprehensive overview of the income, expenses, and financial resources available. Quarterly and semi-annual budgets would not provide a complete picture of the financial situation for the entire year, while a two-year budget would be too long-term and may not accurately reflect the current financial conditions. Therefore, an annual budget is necessary to develop an accurate and realistic five-year financial plan.

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  • 30. 

    Which funding support category funds mission sustaining programs?

    • D

    • C

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Funding support category A funds mission sustaining programs.

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  • 31. 

    Which funding support category funds revenue generating programs?

    • D

    • C

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    Category C funds revenue generating programs.

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  • 32. 

    At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets? 

    • Facility manager

    • Squadron director

    • Squadron commander

    • Resource manager (RM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource manager (RM)
    Explanation
    The resource manager (RM) is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets at the base level. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the financial resources and assets of the squadron. The facility manager is responsible for the maintenance and operation of the facilities, while the squadron director and squadron commander have broader leadership roles within the squadron. Therefore, the RM is the most appropriate choice for the custodian of NAF assets.

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  • 33. 

    Which Air Force form is used as a control register to track equipment transactions?

    • 126

    • 254

    • 988

    • 1297

    Correct Answer
    A. 126
    Explanation
    Air Force form 126 is used as a control register to track equipment transactions.

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  • 34. 

    Which Air Force form is used when turning-in equipment items?

    • 126

    • 1297

    • 2005

    • 3005

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005
  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS)?

    • Facility manager

    • Nonappropriated accountant

    • Resource manger (RM)

    • Squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource manger (RM)
    Explanation
    The Resource Manager (RM) is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS). As the RM, they oversee the management of resources, including property, and ensure that all necessary instructions are in place to safely and efficiently handle and utilize these resources. This includes providing guidelines for transportation, storage, and usage of property within the squadron.

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  • 36. 

    When safeguarding resources, how many steps are involved in the controlling process?

    • One

    • Four

    • Three

    • Two

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The controlling process involves two steps when safeguarding resources. This suggests that there are two specific actions or measures that need to be taken in order to effectively protect and preserve resources.

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  • 37. 

    At what level within the Air Force (AF) must internal controls be established to ensure the proper use of all resources?

    • Operational

    • Administrative

    • Tactical

    • All levels

    Correct Answer
    A. All levels
    Explanation
    Internal controls must be established at all levels within the Air Force to ensure the proper use of all resources. This means that from the operational level to the administrative level and even at the tactical level, internal controls should be in place to monitor and regulate the use of resources. This ensures accountability, prevents misuse or mismanagement of resources, and promotes efficiency and effectiveness in resource allocation and utilization.

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  • 38. 

    Who is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS)?

    • Group commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource manager (RM)
    Explanation
    The resource manager (RM) is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS). The IMCP ensures that the squadron's resources are being managed effectively and efficiently. The RM is in charge of overseeing and implementing the program, which includes conducting audits, identifying areas of improvement, and developing policies and procedures to maintain internal controls. They work closely with the squadron commander and other stakeholders to ensure compliance with regulations and guidelines, and to address any issues or concerns that may arise.

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  • 39. 

    Who approves fund storage limits?

    • Installation commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for approving fund storage limits. As the highest-ranking officer at the installation, they have the authority to make decisions regarding the management and allocation of funds. This includes setting limits on how much money can be stored or held at the installation. The installation commander's approval ensures that there is proper oversight and control over the funds to prevent misuse or unauthorized access.

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  • 40. 

    What type of loss is it when someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss?

    • Simple negligence

    • Willful misconduct

    • Gross negligence

    • Proximate cause

    Correct Answer
    A. Gross negligence
    Explanation
    Gross negligence refers to a type of loss where someone fails to exercise even a slight degree of care or acts in a manner that is an extreme departure from the course of action expected of a reasonable person with all circumstances considered to prevent a loss. It goes beyond simple negligence and implies a reckless disregard for the safety or well-being of others. In this case, the person's actions or lack of care are so extreme that they can be considered grossly negligent.

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  • 41. 

    Who conducts an informal review of losses up to and including $50?

    • Squadron commander

    • Nonappropriated fund (NAF) custodian

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity manager
    Explanation
    The activity manager conducts an informal review of losses up to and including $50. This means that it is the responsibility of the activity manager to assess and evaluate any losses that occur within the organization, as long as they are within the specified monetary limit. The activity manager is likely to have the necessary authority and knowledge to conduct this review effectively and make any necessary recommendations or take appropriate actions to address the losses.

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  • 42. 

    Who appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250, up to and including $1,000, and for losses of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct?

    • Installation commander

    • Squadron commander

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Activity manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron commander
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for appointing an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250, up to and including $1,000, and for losses of $250 or less that appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct. This indicates that the squadron commander has the authority to delegate the task of conducting an inquiry for such losses to a specific individual within the squadron.

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  • 43. 

    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force (AF) installations?

    • AF

    • Contractor

    • Employees

    • Facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. AF
    Explanation
    The Air Force (AF) must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on AF installations. This is because the AF is responsible for ensuring fair and impartial treatment of all parties involved in the dispute. By remaining neutral, the AF can effectively mediate and resolve the dispute without favoring any particular party, maintaining a fair and unbiased process.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of contract is awarded to specific individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • Unique skill

    • On-call service

    • One-time service

    • Individual service

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual service
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are awarded to specific individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is tailored to the specific needs and requirements of the individual and is not awarded to a general pool of contractors. It allows the organization to leverage the expertise of individuals who possess specialized skills or knowledge that are essential for the successful completion of the service.

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  • 45. 

    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?

    • When the contract is less than one year

    • When the service will only be provided one time

    • When the contract will be paid on a per job basis

    • For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position

    Correct Answer
    A. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are not used when the individual is obligated to provide services to the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of their military or civilian employee position. In this situation, the individual is already contracted to provide services as part of their employment, so there is no need for a separate individual service contract.

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  • 46. 

    What type of contract is negotiated for services that do not require unique skills?

    • General

    • Open-ended

    • Individual service

    • Nonpersonal service

    Correct Answer
    A. Nonpersonal service
    Explanation
    A nonpersonal service contract is negotiated for services that do not require unique skills. This type of contract is typically used when the services can be performed by anyone with the necessary qualifications and experience. It is not specific to any individual and can be open-ended or general in nature.

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  • 47. 

    What type of contracts are approved at one level above the commander?

    • Concessionaire

    • Mess attendant

    • Individual service

    • Nonpersonal service

    Correct Answer
    A. Concessionaire
    Explanation
    Contracts with concessionaires are approved at one level above the commander. Concessionaires are individuals or companies that are granted the right to operate a business or provide a service on government property. These contracts typically involve the operation of facilities such as restaurants, retail stores, or recreational services. Since concessionaires often require a significant investment and have a direct impact on the base or installation, their contracts are typically approved at a higher level to ensure proper oversight and adherence to regulations.

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  • 48. 

    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called...

    • Concessionaire

    • Incentive

    • Individual service

    • Nonpersonal service

    Correct Answer
    A. Incentive
    Explanation
    An incentive contract is designed as a motivational tool for contractors. It provides additional rewards or benefits to contractors for meeting or exceeding specific performance goals. This type of contract encourages contractors to perform at their best and achieve the desired outcomes. It promotes efficiency and productivity by offering incentives such as bonuses, profit-sharing, or performance-based payments. Incentive contracts are commonly used in industries where performance and results are crucial, such as construction, manufacturing, or sales.

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  • 49. 

    After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    When developing a contract contingency clause, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be prepared to expand their operations after 30 days. This indicates that they should have plans and resources in place to quickly and efficiently scale up their operations within a month's time.

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  • Feb 02, 2017
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