3M071: Air Force Lodging Services Test! Trivia Quiz

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3M071: Air Force Lodging Services Test! Trivia Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Who is responsible for writing the work center master training plan (MTP)?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Flight Chief

    • C. 

      Unit training manager (UTM)

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) training manager

  • 2. 
    What is the first step in developing the work center master training plan (MTP)?
    • A. 

      Develop lesson guides and task breakdowns

    • B. 

      Develop master task list

    • C. 

      Develop training objective

    • D. 

      Determine training needs

  • 3. 
    What document helps conduct effective, standardized training throughout the Services (SV) career field?
    • A. 

      Job qualification standard (JQS)

    • B. 

      Services Training Aids (STA)

    • C. 

      Air Force Training Record (AFTR)

    • D. 

      Career Field Education And Training Plan (CFETP)

  • 4. 
    Who determines what the trainee must accomplish before condsidered trained?
    • A. 

      Training manager

    • B. 

      Faciilty manager

    • C. 

      Certifying official

    • D. 

      Approving official

  • 5. 
    What are the inclusive dates for awards packages?
    • A. 

      1 Jan - 30 Dec

    • B. 

      1 Oct - 30 Sep

    • C. 

      1 May - 30 Dec

    • D. 

      1 Oct - 1 Apr

  • 6. 
    What is the maximum number of lines allowed on AF 1206 nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      32

  • 7. 
    Nomination packages for the John L. Hennessy Trophy need concurrence from whom?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Installation commander

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander

  • 8. 
    How many types of manpower do the Air Force (AF) rely on to do its mission?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 9. 
    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?
    • A. 

      Unit authorization file

    • B. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • C. 

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D. 

      Alpha roster

  • 10. 
    What is the primary document that reflects postions authorized to accomplish the mission?
    • A. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • B. 

      Authorized manpower document (AMD)

    • C. 

      Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D. 

      Unit manning and personnel management roster (UMPMR)

  • 11. 
    What tool is used by unit commanders to fine-tune their organizations?
    • A. 

      Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • B. 

      Authorization change request (ACR)

    • C. 

      Unit peronnel management roster (UPMR)

    • D. 

      Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)

  • 12. 
    Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)

    • B. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • C. 

      Headquartes Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES)

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

  • 13. 
    How many days annually can the Air Force (AF) use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airman Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short-term needs?
    • A. 

      89

    • B. 

      139

    • C. 

      179

    • D. 

      365

  • 14. 
    Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentalities (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?
    • A. 

      Comptroller commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Contracting commander

    • D. 

      Force support commander

  • 15. 
    What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?
    • A. 

      Air Force Reserve (AFR) backfills

    • B. 

      National Guard backfills

    • C. 

      Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)

    • D. 

      Non-strategic source MOAs

  • 16. 
    What is the primary purpose of the temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?
    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Dollar savings

    • C. 

      Manpower makeup during deployments

    • D. 

      Manpower makup during short periods of appropriated funds (APF) manpower shortfalls

  • 17. 
    A regular nonappropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours per week?
    • A. 

      10 to 15

    • B. 

      15 to 20

    • C. 

      20 to 40

    • D. 

      Over 40

  • 18. 
    What is key to classifying a position description?
    • A. 

      Developing a detailed position description (PD)

    • B. 

      Developing a limited PD

    • C. 

      Describes the function location

    • D. 

      Describes the function purpose

  • 19. 
    Who determines and implement the appropriate media mix to support force support squadron (FSS) activities?
    • A. 

      Customer

    • B. 

      Activity manager

    • C. 

      Marketing manager

    • D. 

      Flight chief

  • 20. 
    What restrictions apply when buying advertising space?
    • A. 

      Advertising for tobacco products

    • B. 

      Advertising for special programs

    • C. 

      Advertising for limited sale items

    • D. 

      Advertising for lunch meal menus

  • 21. 
    Who approves distribution of publications before it is released to the publisher?
    • A. 

      Public affairs office

    • B. 

      Legal office

    • C. 

      Marketing office

    • D. 

      Safety office

  • 22. 
    Which funds are used to support day-to-day operations?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • B. 

      Nonappropriated

    • C. 

      Procurement

    • D. 

      Fallout

  • 23. 
    Which funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • B. 

      Nonappropriated

    • C. 

      Procurement

    • D. 

      Fallout

  • 24. 
    What funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?
    • A. 

      Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • B. 

      Nonappropriated

    • C. 

      Procurement

    • D. 

      Fallout

  • 25. 
    How often does the force support squadron (FSS) update thier budgets?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 26. 
    Who prepares income and expense (I&E) budgets?
    • A. 

      Contracting officer

    • B. 

      Finance officer

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Activity manager

  • 27. 
    Who prioritizes consolidated nonappropriated requirement budgets (NRB)?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Activity manager

  • 28. 
    What should you do when a piece of equipment is purchased?
    • A. 

      Delete the line item from your budget

    • B. 

      Deduct the actual cost of the item on your budget

    • C. 

      Annotate the actual cost of the item on your budget

    • D. 

      Program a replacement into the long-range capital improvement plan

  • 29. 
    Which budget should be completed before developing a five-year financial plan?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Semi-annual

    • C. 

      Annual

    • D. 

      Two-year

  • 30. 
    Which funding support category funds mission sustaining programs?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 31. 
    Which funding support category funds revenue generating programs?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      A

  • 32. 
    At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets? 
    • A. 

      Facility manager

    • B. 

      Squadron director

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Resource manager (RM)

  • 33. 
    Which Air Force form is used as a control register to track equipment transactions?
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      254

    • C. 

      988

    • D. 

      1297

  • 34. 
    Which Air Force form is used when turning-in equipment items?
    • A. 

      126

    • B. 

      1297

    • C. 

      2005

    • D. 

      3005

  • 35. 
    Who is responsible for providing operating instructions for transporting, storing, and using all property within the force support squadron (FSS)?
    • A. 

      Facility manager

    • B. 

      Nonappropriated accountant

    • C. 

      Resource manger (RM)

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 36. 
    When safeguarding resources, how many steps are involved in the controlling process?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Two

  • 37. 
    At what level within the Air Force (AF) must internal controls be established to ensure the proper use of all resources?
    • A. 

      Operational

    • B. 

      Administrative

    • C. 

      Tactical

    • D. 

      All levels

  • 38. 
    Who is responsible for administering the internal management control program (IMCP) within the force support squadron (FSS)?
    • A. 

      Group commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Facility manager

  • 39. 
    Who approves fund storage limits?
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Activity manager

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Simple negligence

    • B. 

      Willful misconduct

    • C. 

      Gross negligence

    • D. 

      Proximate cause

  • 41. 
    Who conducts an informal review of losses up to and including $50?
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Nonappropriated fund (NAF) custodian

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Activity manager

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    • D. 

      Activity manager

  • 43. 
    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force (AF) installations?
    • A. 

      AF

    • B. 

      Contractor

    • C. 

      Employees

    • D. 

      Facility manager

  • 44. 
    Which type of contract is awarded to specific individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
    • A. 

      Unique skill

    • B. 

      On-call service

    • C. 

      One-time service

    • D. 

      Individual service

  • 45. 
    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?
    • A. 

      When the contract is less than one year

    • B. 

      When the service will only be provided one time

    • C. 

      When the contract will be paid on a per job basis

    • D. 

      For services that the individual is obligated to provide the nonappropriated funds instrumentality (NAFI) as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position

  • 46. 
    What type of contract is negotiated for services that do not require unique skills?
    • A. 

      General

    • B. 

      Open-ended

    • C. 

      Individual service

    • D. 

      Nonpersonal service

  • 47. 
    What type of contracts are approved at one level above the commander?
    • A. 

      Concessionaire

    • B. 

      Mess attendant

    • C. 

      Individual service

    • D. 

      Nonpersonal service

  • 48. 
    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called...
    • A. 

      Concessionaire

    • B. 

      Incentive

    • C. 

      Individual service

    • D. 

      Nonpersonal service

  • 49. 
    After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 50. 
    After a quality assurance personnel (QAP) has received all training, what document should they be familiar with?
    • A. 

      Master fixed asset listing (MFAL)

    • B. 

      Life-of-the-fund (LOF) file

    • C. 

      Service delivery summary (SDS)

    • D. 

      Position description (PD)

  • 51. 
    How often does the United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code require us to conduct self-inspections of dinning facilities?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Periodically

  • 52. 
    You must file and keep self-inspection records for at least...
    • A. 

      1 month

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      6 months

    • D. 

      12 months

  • 53. 
    Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period?
    • A. 

      Line server

    • B. 

      Senior cook

    • C. 

      Grill cook

    • D. 

      Server

  • 54. 
    Which log does the shift leader review throughout the day to determine why a cashier used the misc register key?
    • A. 

      Cashiers misc

    • B. 

      Waste

    • C. 

      Production

    • D. 

      Thaw

  • 55. 
    When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized?
    • A. 

      Before each meal

    • B. 

      Before it is processed

    • C. 

      After each meal

    • D. 

      After it is processed

  • 56. 
    One of your shift leader duties is to take food temperatures during your shift every...
    • A. 

      30 to 45 minutes

    • B. 

      35 to 50 minutes

    • C. 

      40 to 55 minutes

    • D. 

      45 to 60 minutes

  • 57. 
    What percentage of collected surcharge money is disbursed to military personnel appropriation?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      50

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 58. 
    Success of your operation is dependent upon and based upon the satisfaction of...
    • A. 

      Patrons

    • B. 

      Staff

    • C. 

      Public health

    • D. 

      Senior leadership

  • 59. 
    Who approves contingency and wartime inventory levels?
    • A. 

      Force support squadron (FSS) commander

    • B. 

      Installation commander

    • C. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA)

    • D. 

      HQ AF/A1S

  • 60. 
    The thaw report is based on...
    • A. 

      Menus showing in corporate food service (CFS)

    • B. 

      Menus showing on production log

    • C. 

      Items showing on catalog

    • D. 

      Items showing on subsistence order

  • 61. 
    When must the storeroom clerk conduct the physical inventory?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      When receiving orders

    • D. 

      When a variance occurs

  • 62. 
    When is the end of fiscal year (FY) inventory conducted?
    • A. 

      30 September

    • B. 

      30 October

    • C. 

      30 November

    • D. 

      30 December

  • 63. 
    If the amount is not excessive, where is medically condemned food documented once removed from the inventory?
    • A. 

      Waste log

    • B. 

      Production log

    • C. 

      Inventory control

    • D. 

      Adjustment entry

  • 64. 
    Who approves transfers of excess meals, ready to eat (MRE)?
    • A. 

      Food service section chief (FSSC)

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Military public health (MPH)

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (HQ AFPC/SVOFA)

  • 65. 
    To identify errors, compare the sales and cost report and production logs with the...
    • A. 

      Waste log

    • B. 

      Cashier miscellaneous log

    • C. 

      Inventory count worksheet

    • D. 

      Food facility evaluation checklist

  • 66. 
    You can print a receipt from Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES) after...
    • A. 

      Order placement

    • B. 

      Order delivery

    • C. 

      Signing for the order

    • D. 

      Transmitting the order

  • 67. 
    Who must inital on the original delivery invoice on any shortages or errors?
    • A. 

      Storeroom personnel and food serivice section chief (FSSC)

    • B. 

      Accountant and FSSC

    • C. 

      Storeroom personnel and driver

    • D. 

      Accountant and driver

  • 68. 
    What is not a principle when importing and reconciling catalog items?
    • A. 

      View the event log after a catalog imports

    • B. 

      Some items are "nested" to the same inventory

    • C. 

      Link and unlink any inactive items

    • D. 

      Print catalog once a month

  • 69. 
    Storeroom personnel must download the updated vendor catalog every...
    • A. 

      Monday

    • B. 

      Wednesday

    • C. 

      Friday

    • D. 

      Sunday

  • 70. 
    Which system is designed to automate many of the routine tasks performed in the dining facility?
    • A. 

      Point of Sale (POS)

    • B. 

      Prime Vendor (PV) Program

    • C. 

      Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System

    • D. 

      Subsistence Total Ordering and Receipt Electronic System (STORES)

  • 71. 
    The Subsistence Total Ordering System (STORES) sends an electronic data interchange (EDI) transaction to...
    • A. 

      The vendor and Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • B. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) food customers

    • C. 

      The vendor and DOD food customers

    • D. 

      Any government computer

  • 72. 
    Who designates, in writing, persons responsible for and having access to the storeroom?
    • A. 

      Storeroom manager

    • B. 

      Dining facility manager

    • C. 

      Food service officer

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 73. 
    When should hazards be identified in the food and water (FW) distribution systems?
    • A. 

      When receiving

    • B. 

      When ordering

    • C. 

      At each step

    • D. 

      At weekly inventory

  • 74. 
    Under the food and water (FW) program, the goal is optimal security...
    • A. 

      In a cost effective matter

    • B. 

      At any cost

    • C. 

      To minimize vulnerablility

    • D. 

      To enhance force protection (FP)

  • 75. 
    During the 30-day probationary period, new employees should be placed on...
    • A. 

      Day shift

    • B. 

      Swing shift

    • C. 

      Night shifts

    • D. 

      Weekend shifts

  • 76. 
    Personnal items such as lunch containers should be prohibited in the...
    • A. 

      Locker area

    • B. 

      Dining area

    • C. 

      Back office area

    • D. 

      Food handling area

  • 77. 
    Who is responsible for water after the initial period of contingency operations?
    • A. 

      Force support squadron (FSS)

    • B. 

      Civil engineering (CE)

    • C. 

      Public health (PH)

    • D. 

      Prime vendor (PV)

  • 78. 
    In a deployed enviroment, the food service operation reached initial operating capability (IOC) when it serves the first...
    • A. 

      Hot unit group ration (UGR)

    • B. 

      Meals ready to eat (MRE)

    • C. 

      Hot A-Ration

    • D. 

      Mix of UGRs and A-Rations

  • 79. 
    What rations are served for deployments lasting over 30 days?
    • A. 

      Unit group ration (UGR) only

    • B. 

      Meals ready to eat (MRE) only

    • C. 

      A-Rations only

    • D. 

      A mix of UGR-A and A-Rations

  • 80. 
    What percentage of the population is planned for when determining the total number of meals you must serve?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      85

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      95

  • 81. 
    The Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) is designed to feed how many personnel per meal during deployment?
    • A. 

      500

    • B. 

      550

    • C. 

      1000

    • D. 

      1100

  • 82. 
    How many personnel are required to have the Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK) operational in four and a half hours?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 83. 
    The approval authority for all food and water sources in a deployed environment is...
    • A. 

      Installation commander

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Food and Beverage (AFPC/SVOFA)

    • C. 

      United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)

    • D. 

      Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

  • 84. 
    Which Air Force from verifies all cash collected and the number of essential station messing (ESM) personnel served?
    • A. 

      79, Head Count Record

    • B. 

      1650-b, Field Feeding Record

    • C. 

      1119-1, Manual Monthly Monetary Report

    • D. 

      1254, Register of Cash Collection Vouchers

  • 85. 
    When must receipts be deposited under field feeding accounting?
    • A. 

      Last day of each week

    • B. 

      Last day of each month

    • C. 

      Daily

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 86. 
    At a minimum, when should AF Form 1038 be used to rate food service operations?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 87. 
    Which document breaks down each food service evaluation category area and describes evaluation criteria to complete AF Form 1038?
    • A. 

      AFI 34-239, Food Management Program

    • B. 

      Dining Facility Manager's Handbook

    • C. 

      AFMAN 34-240, Food Service Program Management 

    • D. 

      Corporate Food Service Handbook

  • 88. 
    Documented guest comments are recorded and manintained for how many months?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 89. 
    Fitness centers must have a minimum of how many hours available for programs, facilities, and equipment staffing expertise?
    • A. 

      70

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      100

  • 90. 
    What is not considered when determining hours of operation for the fitness center?
    • A. 

      Patron

    • B. 

      Facility

    • C. 

      Mission

    • D. 

      Personnel

  • 91. 
    Who has approval authority to alter hours of operation?
    • A. 

      Fitness center director

    • B. 

      Flight chief

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Installation commander

  • 92. 
    Within how many days of assignment must fitness center (FC) staff members complete customer service training?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      180

  • 93. 
    Special events in the fitness center are held at least how many times a year?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 94. 
    How long in advance of a special event should planning begin?
    • A. 

      One week

    • B. 

      One month

    • C. 

      Three months

    • D. 

      Six months

  • 95. 
    What should managers complete at the end of every event?
    • A. 

      All purpose checklist for next event

    • B. 

      After action report

    • C. 

      Employee feedback

    • D. 

      Survey

  • 96. 
    In a deployed environment, nonappropriated (NAF) resale operations are normally established by day...
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 97. 
    It is essential for you to coordinate with personnel from what organization regarding what items will be sold in nonappropriated (NAF) operations?
    • A. 

      Army and Air Force Exchange Services (AAFES)

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services (AFPC/SV)

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D. 

      Defense Commissary Agency (DeCA)

  • 98. 
    In order to determine if your operation will support multiple operations, consider whether the members will be deployed longer than...
    • A. 

      10 days

    • B. 

      20 days

    • C. 

      30 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 99. 
    The nonappropriated (NAF) funds custodian should ensure an inventory is accomplished...
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Yearly

  • 100. 
    Who should you notify promptly in an alcohol-related incident that may result in potential claims? 
    • A. 

      Force support squadron (FSS) commander

    • B. 

      Security forces

    • C. 

      Legal office

    • D. 

      Chaplain

  • 101. 
    What are the requirement for you as a supervisor to be capable of training and certifying new trainees?
    • A. 

      Can perform the task, obtain certification, and attend Air Force Trainer Course (ATFC)

    • B. 

      Able to perform the task, and meet task requirements

    • C. 

      Attend Air Force Trainer Course (ATFC)

    • D. 

      Must have completed 7 level training

  • 102. 
    What is the focal point of training?
    • A. 

      Trainee

    • B. 

      Trainer

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Task certifier

  • 103. 
    Temporary manpower requirements should not last more than...
    • A. 

      1 year

    • B. 

      6 months

    • C. 

      2 years

    • D. 

      18 months

  • 104. 
    What is the main goal of scheduling?
    • A. 

      To set up the shifts to maximize the number of workers at peak work load periods.

    • B. 

      To set up the shifts to ensure personnel have enough time to work out.

    • C. 

      To set up the shifts to maximize the number of hours personnel can work.

    • D. 

      To set up the shifts to ensure all personnel have thier requested days off.