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1. Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?

Explanation

Port 80 is used for the hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP). This is the standard port for web traffic and is used to transmit data between web servers and web browsers. When a user enters a URL in a web browser, the browser sends an HTTP request to the web server on port 80. The web server then responds with the requested web page, which is displayed in the browser.

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About This Quiz
CDC Quizzes & Trivia

The is the URE's from vol 2, edit code 02 which became active after 4 April 2013

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2. What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the merging of voice and data networks, which can introduce new security risks. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that they have comprehensive measures in place to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This approach allows for a holistic and coordinated approach to security, addressing the unique challenges and requirements of both voice and data networks.

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3. Which port range constitutes well-known ports?

Explanation

The well-known ports range from 0-1023. These ports are reserved for specific services and protocols that are commonly used and recognized. They include ports for popular services like HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). These ports are standardized and widely known, making them easily identifiable and accessible for network communication.

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4. What should you do with unused ports?

Explanation

The correct answer is to keep ports closed. Keeping ports closed is a security best practice as it helps to prevent unauthorized access and potential attacks on a network. Open ports can be exploited by hackers to gain access to a system or network, so it is important to only open ports that are necessary for the intended use. Monitoring ports is also important, but it is not the primary action to take with unused ports. Ensuring all ports are used is not necessary and can increase the risk of security vulnerabilities.

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5. An access control list (ACL) is essentially

Explanation

An access control list (ACL) is a mechanism used in computer systems to define permissions and restrictions on who can access specific resources or perform certain actions. It is not related to computer names, network resources, or groups of users. Instead, an ACL consists of lists of permissions that determine which users or groups are allowed or denied access to specific files, folders, or other resources. These permissions can include actions such as read, write, execute, or delete, and they specify who can perform these actions and on which resources.

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6. The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down. This is because the HIDS needs to continuously monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the host in order to detect any potential intrusions or malicious activities. This constant monitoring and analysis can put a strain on the host's resources, such as CPU and memory, leading to decreased performance and slower operation of the device.

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7. What is the function in which certain pieces of data from a web page are stored in the firewall to facilitate faster future requests for the same information?

Explanation

Caching is the function in which certain pieces of data from a web page are stored in the firewall to facilitate faster future requests for the same information. This means that when a user requests the same information again, instead of fetching it from the original source, the firewall can provide the cached version, resulting in quicker response times. Caching helps to reduce the load on the network and improves overall performance by serving frequently accessed content from a local cache.

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8. Network security starts with

Explanation

The correct answer is "a mindset." This is because network security is not just about implementing technical measures like configuring firewalls or activating intrusion detection systems. It requires individuals to have a proactive and vigilant mindset towards identifying and addressing potential security risks. This mindset involves understanding the importance of security, staying updated with the latest threats, following best practices, and being cautious while handling sensitive information. Without this mindset, even the most advanced security technologies may not be effective in protecting a network.

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9. Which is not a common service?

Explanation

The Open System Interconnection (OSI) is not a common service. It is actually a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system. It defines a set of protocols and specifications to enable different systems to communicate with each other. In contrast, FTP, DNS, and HTTP are all common services used in computer networks. FTP is used for transferring files between systems, DNS is used for translating domain names into IP addresses, and HTTP is used for transmitting web pages and other resources on the internet.

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10. What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

Explanation

Masquerades refer to the attempts made by unauthorized individuals to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user. This involves pretending to be someone else in order to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. It is a form of social engineering where the attacker tries to exploit trust and bypass security measures. Masquerades can be a serious security threat as they can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive information and potential harm to the system.

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11. What provides protection of the base network perimeter using a protection device or system of devices?

Explanation

Boundary protection refers to the practice of securing the base network perimeter using a protection device or system. This involves implementing measures such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and access control mechanisms to prevent unauthorized access and attacks from external sources. By establishing a clear boundary between the internal network and external networks, boundary protection helps to safeguard sensitive information and resources from potential threats.

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12. Integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network centric warfare best describes which concept?

Explanation

The concept that best describes the integration of the capabilities of personnel, operations, and technology, and supports the evolution to network centric warfare is defense-in-depth. Defense-in-depth is a strategy that involves layering multiple security measures to protect a network or system. It combines various security tools, firewalls, and information condition (INFOCON) to create a comprehensive defense system. This approach ensures that even if one layer is breached, there are multiple layers of defense to prevent further attacks and minimize the impact of any potential breach.

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13. How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

Explanation

The correct answer is Two. This suggests that the Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

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14. Which is not a primary focus of intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS)?

Explanation

Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily designed to identify possible incidents and attempt to stop them. They focus on detecting and preventing unauthorized access or malicious activities within a network or system. Reporting incidents to security administrators is also an important function of IDPS as it allows for timely response and mitigation. However, reconfiguring equipment after an incident is not a primary focus of IDPS. While it may be necessary to make changes to the system to prevent future incidents, the main goal of IDPS is to detect and prevent intrusions rather than reconfigure equipment.

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15. Which type of attack causes the connection queues on the router or switch to fill up and deny service to legitimate transmission control protocol (TCP) traffic?

Explanation

A TCP Synchronous (SYN) attack causes the connection queues on the router or switch to fill up and deny service to legitimate TCP traffic. In this type of attack, the attacker sends a large number of SYN requests to the target system, but does not complete the handshake process by sending the final ACK packet. This causes the target system to keep the connection queues occupied, preventing legitimate TCP traffic from being processed and effectively denying service to legitimate users.

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16. A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a

Explanation

A port is a logical connection point for the transmission of information packets. It serves as an interface between the computer and external devices or networks, allowing data to be sent and received. Ports are essential for establishing communication and facilitating the exchange of information between different systems or devices.

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17. Which port is used for telnet?

Explanation

Port 23 is used for telnet. Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to remotely access and control devices or computers over a network. It provides a virtual terminal connection to the remote device, allowing users to execute commands and manage the device as if they were physically present. Port 23 is specifically designated for telnet communication, enabling the establishment of a connection between the local and remote devices for remote management and control purposes.

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18. What is used to import and manage phone numbers in the voice protection system (VPS)?

Explanation

The directory manager is used to import and manage phone numbers in the voice protection system (VPS). This role is responsible for maintaining the directory of phone numbers, adding new numbers, updating existing numbers, and ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the phone number database. The directory manager has the necessary permissions and tools to perform these tasks efficiently and effectively.

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19. A domain name server (DNS) maintains the cross-reference between domain names and their corresponding

Explanation

A domain name server (DNS) is responsible for translating domain names into their corresponding IP addresses. This allows users to access websites and other online resources by using easy-to-remember domain names instead of having to remember the numerical IP addresses associated with them. Therefore, the correct answer is "Internet protocol (IP) address."

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20. What is the default read community string of a simple network management protocol (SNMP) agent?

Explanation

The default read community string of a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent is "PUBLIC." The read community string is used for read-only access to SNMP devices and allows users to retrieve information from the agent. The "PUBLIC" community string is widely known and used as the default value in many SNMP agents, but it is recommended to change it to a more secure string to prevent unauthorized access to the SNMP agent.

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21. When the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, the proxy has ensured information

Explanation

The term "freshness" refers to the up-to-dateness or recentness of the cached information. In this context, when the cached information is verified to be up-to-date, it means that the information is current and has not expired. The proxy ensures that the information it serves is fresh and reflects the latest updates or changes. Therefore, freshness is the most appropriate term to describe this situation.

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22. Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

Explanation

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are considered both passive and active because they have the capability to monitor and analyze activities occurring on a specific host or system. The passive aspect involves the system's ability to passively monitor and collect data about events and behaviors on the host, such as log files, system calls, and network traffic. On the other hand, the active aspect refers to the system's ability to take actions in response to detected threats, such as sending alerts, blocking traffic, or initiating countermeasures. Therefore, HIDS can both passively observe and actively respond to potential intrusions.

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23. An active intrusion detection system (IDS) is normally incorporated into

Explanation

An active intrusion detection system (IDS) is normally incorporated into firewalls. Firewalls act as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, monitoring and controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic. By incorporating an IDS into firewalls, it allows for real-time monitoring and detection of any suspicious or malicious activities, providing an additional layer of security to the network. Switches, routers, and servers also play important roles in network security, but they do not typically include IDS functionality.

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24. When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to

Explanation

Using a centralized management console for system management is recommended when using an intrusion detection system (IDS). This allows for easier and more efficient management of the IDS across the entire network. It provides a single interface to monitor and control the IDS, making it easier to detect and respond to potential intrusions. By centralizing the management, it also ensures consistency in policies and configurations across the network, reducing the risk of oversight or misconfiguration.

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25. One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) that uses very few network resources is advantageous because it minimizes the impact on the network's performance and bandwidth. By efficiently utilizing network resources, the NIDS can effectively monitor and analyze network traffic without causing significant disruptions or slowing down the network. This enables continuous monitoring and detection of potential intrusions without negatively impacting the network's functionality.

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26. Which firewall management interface menu option tests interface connectivity?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Ping host." The ping host option in the firewall management interface menu is used to test the connectivity of an interface. It sends a ping request to a specified host and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the interface is able to communicate with the host, thus confirming connectivity.

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27. In which type of port scan does the scanner attempt to connect to all ports?

Explanation

A vanilla scan is a type of port scan where the scanner attempts to connect to all ports. This scan is called "vanilla" because it is a basic and straightforward approach to scanning. In a vanilla scan, the scanner sends connection requests to each port on the target system to determine which ports are open and available for communication. This type of scan is commonly used by network administrators and security professionals to assess the security of a network and identify any potential vulnerabilities.

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28. How many domain name server (DNS) name server(s) are registered as authoritative for each Integrated Network Operation and Security Center (INOSC)?

Explanation

There are two domain name server (DNS) name servers registered as authoritative for each Integrated Network Operation and Security Center (INOSC). This means that there are two DNS servers responsible for providing the IP address associated with a specific domain name within an INOSC.

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29. Which message type should not be allowed for inbound Internet control message protocol (ICMP) traffic?

Explanation

Traceroute is the correct answer because it is a message type that is used to trace the route that packets take from the source to the destination. It is not necessary for inbound ICMP traffic as it is primarily used for troubleshooting and network analysis purposes. The other message types - Time exceeded, Parameter problem, and Destination unreachable - are all valid and necessary for ICMP traffic to function properly.

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30. What can an attacker use to create a map of the protected network behind the router or firewall?

Explanation

Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that allows an attacker to trace the path that packets take from their computer to the target network. By sending packets with incrementally increasing Time to Live (TTL) values, the attacker can determine the routers and their IP addresses along the path. This information can then be used to create a map of the protected network behind the router or firewall, providing valuable information for potential attacks. Ping, Echo reply, and DNS lookup do not provide the same level of detailed information about the network topology.

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31. What does packet capture software do with the packet information it captures?

Explanation

Packet capture software captures and stores packets for later viewing and analysis. This software is used to capture network traffic and record it for further examination. By storing the packets, the software allows users to review and analyze the captured data at a later time. This can be helpful for troubleshooting network issues, analyzing network performance, or investigating security incidents. The software does not immediately analyze the information or send it to the firewall, nor does it store packets until a filter is ready to receive the information.

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32. The McAfee Firewall Enterprise simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) proxy is best used as a

Explanation

The McAfee Firewall Enterprise SMTP proxy is best used as a frontline defense. This means that it is most effective when deployed as the first line of defense against incoming SMTP traffic. It is designed to analyze and filter incoming email messages, protecting the network from potential threats such as spam, viruses, and other malicious content. By acting as a frontline defense, the SMTP proxy can help prevent these threats from entering the network and causing harm.

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33. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

Explanation

An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for managing communication between applications and end-users. An application-level firewall can monitor and filter network traffic based on specific application protocols, such as HTTP, FTP, or SMTP. By operating at this layer, the firewall can provide more granular control over network traffic and enforce security policies based on application-specific rules and behaviors.

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34. The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

Explanation

The correct answer is the President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee released a report that highlighted the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks. The report likely discussed the potential risks and threats to these networks, emphasizing the importance of ensuring their security.

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35. Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?

Explanation

A synchronous (SYN) scan is also known as a half open scan because it involves sending a SYN packet to the target host and waiting for a response. If the host responds with a SYN-ACK packet, it means the port is open. However, instead of completing the handshake by sending an ACK packet, the scanner sends a RST packet to reset the connection. This approach allows the scanner to determine if a port is open without fully establishing a connection, making it a half open scan.

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36. A burb can best be defined as a

Explanation

A burb can be best defined as a set of one or more interfaces. In computer networking, a burb refers to a logical or physical grouping of network interfaces. It allows for the segmentation and separation of network traffic based on specific requirements or security policies. By grouping interfaces together, network administrators can manage and control the flow of data more effectively, ensuring that it is directed to the appropriate destinations. Therefore, a burb can be understood as a collection of interfaces that are organized and configured to serve a specific purpose within a network.

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37. To limit the risks associated with using simple network management protocol (SNMP)

Explanation

Disabling all SNMP devices/services if not required is the correct answer because it helps to limit the risks associated with using SNMP. By disabling SNMP on devices that do not require it, potential vulnerabilities and attack vectors are eliminated. This reduces the potential for unauthorized access, data breaches, and other security risks. Disabling unnecessary SNMP devices/services is a proactive measure to enhance network security and protect sensitive information.

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38. Internet protocol (IP) filters start by blocking

Explanation

IP filters start by blocking all traffic. This means that when an IP filter is implemented, it will block all incoming and outgoing traffic by default. This is done as a security measure to prevent any unauthorized access or malicious activities from occurring on the network. By blocking all traffic, the network administrator can then selectively allow certain types of traffic based on specific criteria or rules that have been set. This helps in ensuring the safety and integrity of the network.

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39. Which is considered the workhorse of the Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) system?

Explanation

The ESM agent is considered the workhorse of the Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) system because it is responsible for collecting and analyzing security event data from various sources within the network. The ESM agent continuously monitors the network, detects any security threats or anomalies, and sends this information to the ESM manager for further analysis and response. It acts as the main component that performs the essential tasks of data collection and event management in the ESM system.

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40. What is the primary intrusion/misuse tool used in the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)?

Explanation

Automated security incident measurement (ASIM) is the primary intrusion/misuse tool used in the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). ASIM is a software system that monitors and analyzes network traffic to detect and respond to security incidents. It provides real-time visibility into network activity, identifies potential threats, and helps in preventing unauthorized access or misuse of the network. ASIM plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and integrity of the AFEN by continuously monitoring and analyzing network traffic for any suspicious or malicious activity.

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41. What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud?

Explanation

The Enterprise Telephony Management (ETM) system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system is specifically designed to manage and monitor an organization's telephony infrastructure, allowing administrators to track and analyze various aspects of their telecommunications network. It helps in identifying and addressing issues related to resource utilization, network performance, and security, including incidents of toll fraud. By providing comprehensive visibility and control over telephony resources, the ETM system enables organizations to optimize their telecom operations and ensure efficient and secure communication.

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42. Over what transmission control protocol (TCP) port do zone transfers occur?

Explanation

Zone transfers occur over TCP port 53. This is the default port used by the DNS (Domain Name System) protocol for zone transfers. DNS zone transfers are used to replicate DNS data between primary and secondary DNS servers, allowing for redundancy and fault tolerance in the DNS infrastructure. By using TCP for zone transfers, it ensures reliable and accurate data transfer between DNS servers.

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43. Which type of firewall is typically used when speed is essential?

Explanation

Network-level firewalls are typically used when speed is essential because they operate at the network layer of the OSI model. They focus on filtering and inspecting network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols, which allows them to process large amounts of data quickly. In contrast, application-level firewalls operate at the application layer and perform more in-depth analysis of network traffic, which can slow down the processing speed. Therefore, network-level firewalls are the preferred choice when speed is a priority.

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44. Which firewall management interface menu option views the association between media access control (MAC) addresses on the firewall and its corresponding internet protocol (IP) address?

Explanation

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to map an IP address to a MAC address on a network. In the context of firewall management, the ARP menu option would allow the user to view the association between MAC addresses and their corresponding IP addresses. This is important for network administrators to ensure that the correct devices are being allowed or denied access through the firewall based on their MAC and IP addresses.

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45. Why is it not common to use external burb-to internal burb?

Explanation

Using external burb-to-internal burb connections can pose high security risks. This is because external networks are typically more vulnerable to attacks and threats compared to internal networks. Allowing direct connections between these networks increases the chances of unauthorized access, data breaches, and the spread of malware. To mitigate these risks, it is common practice to implement strong security measures, such as firewalls and access controls, to protect internal networks from external threats.

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46. When using secure split mail services, all external simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) hosts will connect to the firewall's

Explanation

When using secure split mail services, all external SMTP hosts will connect to the external sendmail server. This server is responsible for receiving and sending emails from external sources. It acts as a gateway between the external SMTP hosts and the internal network, ensuring that all incoming and outgoing emails are properly filtered and secured. By connecting to the external sendmail server, the external SMTP hosts can communicate with the internal network without directly accessing the local server or the non-Internet server.

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47. What server functions as a simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) gateway and virus scanner?

Explanation

A mail relay server functions as a simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) gateway and virus scanner. It receives incoming emails from external sources and then forwards them to the appropriate internal mail server. In addition to transferring messages, it also scans the emails for any potential viruses or malware before delivering them to the intended recipients. This helps to protect the internal network from any malicious threats that may be present in the incoming emails.

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48. You can implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

Explanation

The correct answer is consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). This is because consolidating voice and data traffic on the same VLAN can increase the risk of attacks and compromises the security of the IP telephony system. By separating voice and data traffic using separate VLANs, it helps to enhance security by isolating and protecting the voice traffic from potential threats.

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49. Proxies do not

Explanation

Proxies act as intermediaries between users and the internet, allowing organizations to monitor and control internet access. By redirecting internet traffic through a proxy server, organizations can track users' online activities and obtain visibility of their browsing habits. This helps organizations enforce security policies, monitor employee productivity, and ensure compliance with regulations. Therefore, proxies do not prevent organizations from obtaining visibility of users.

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50. What is the launch pad for voice protection system (VPS) applications?

Explanation

The launch pad for voice protection system (VPS) applications is the system console. This is where the user can access and control the VPS applications, managing and monitoring their performance and functionality. The system console provides a centralized interface for administrators to configure and maintain the VPS applications, ensuring the security and integrity of voice communications.

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51. Which firewall admin role is generally used to temporarily disable an administrator account?

Explanation

The correct answer is "No admin privileges." This role is generally used to temporarily disable an administrator account. By assigning the "No admin privileges" role to an administrator, their access and privileges can be revoked, effectively disabling their account temporarily. This can be useful in situations where an administrator's actions need to be restricted or when their account needs to be temporarily suspended for security reasons.

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52. Firewall policy processing compares specific attributes of a call against a series of

Explanation

Firewall policy processing involves comparing specific attributes of a call against a series of rules. These rules define the criteria for allowing or blocking network traffic. Access lists and permissions are also used in firewall configurations, but they are not specifically mentioned in the question. IP addresses are a common attribute used in firewall rules, but the question does not specify that it is the only attribute being compared. Therefore, the correct answer is rules, as they are the most general and inclusive term for the comparison criteria used in firewall policy processing.

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53. Each time data needs to pass between the network and a proxy, the boundary between the kernel and the user space must be crossed. This is known as a

Explanation

When data needs to pass between the network and a proxy, it must cross the boundary between the kernel and the user space. This process is known as a context switch. A context switch refers to the mechanism in which the operating system switches the execution context from one process to another. In this case, the context switch occurs when the data is transferred between the network and the proxy, requiring a change in the execution context to handle the transfer.

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54. What term is used for a domain name server (DNS) architecture when one or more name servers reside behind a firewall, and contain an "inside" hostname and Internet protocol (IP) address information?

Explanation

Split DNS architecture is used when one or more name servers reside behind a firewall and contain both "inside" hostname and IP address information. This architecture allows for separate DNS resolution for internal and external network users, providing increased security and control over DNS traffic.

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55. The uniqueness of the Air Force Microsoft Exchange and simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) mail relay system is that mail servers

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the mail servers for each MAJCOM (Major Command) are located and managed within that specific MAJCOM. This means that each MAJCOM has its own dedicated mail server system, which allows for more efficient management and control of email communication within the Air Force.

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56. How many hours prior to change implementation does the Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) notify a base communications flight about removing unused filters?

Explanation

The INOSC notifies a base communications flight about removing unused filters 72 hours prior to change implementation. This allows the base communications flight enough time to prepare and coordinate the necessary actions for removing the filters.

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57. When a client connects to a proxy server and requests a web page, the proxy server evaluates the request according to

Explanation

When a client connects to a proxy server and requests a web page, the proxy server evaluates the request according to filtering rules. These rules determine what content is allowed or blocked based on certain criteria such as website categories, keywords, or IP addresses. The proxy server analyzes the request and applies the filtering rules to decide whether to allow or deny access to the requested web page. This helps in controlling and managing the content that can be accessed by clients through the proxy server.

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58. One of the responsibilities of the Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) in implementation of ports, protocols, and services (PPS) is to

Explanation

The AFNOC is responsible for maintaining the AF PPS database. This means that they are in charge of keeping the database up to date and ensuring that it contains accurate and relevant information about ports, protocols, and services used within the Air Force network. This is important for the overall security and functionality of the network, as it allows for proper management and control of these elements.

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59. What does a firewall support that improves system performance by lessening the load placed on the system kernel?

Explanation

Fast Path sessions are a feature supported by firewalls that improve system performance by reducing the load placed on the system kernel. Fast Path sessions allow certain types of network traffic to bypass the normal processing and inspection performed by the firewall, resulting in faster processing times and improved system performance. This feature is particularly useful for high-performance networks where the firewall needs to handle a large volume of traffic without impacting system performance.

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60. How many agents can an Intruder Alert (ITA) manager have?

Explanation

The Intruder Alert (ITA) manager can have a maximum of 100 agents.

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61. Which is not one of the key features of Symantec Mail Security for simple message transfer protocol (SMS SMTP)?

Explanation

Symantec Mail Security for simple message transfer protocol (SMS SMTP) provides key features such as spyware/adware protection, antispam technology, and virus protection. However, it does not include internet protocol (IP) filtering as one of its key features. IP filtering is a separate feature that allows users to block or allow specific IP addresses or ranges.

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62. What intrusion detection system (IDS) is not commonly used due to increasing cost of implementation?

Explanation

Application-based IDS is not commonly used due to the increasing cost of implementation. This is because application-based IDS requires the deployment of sensors or agents on each individual application, which can be expensive and time-consuming. In contrast, host-based IDS focuses on monitoring the activities and behaviors of individual hosts, network-based IDS monitors network traffic, and hardware-based IDS uses specialized hardware devices to detect intrusions. Application-based IDS is less commonly used due to its higher implementation costs.

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63. With which layer of the open systems interconnect (OSI) model does the simple network management protocol (SNMP) internet protocol (IP) layer coincide?

Explanation

The simple network management protocol (SNMP) operates at the network layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. SNMP uses the internet protocol (IP) to communicate and manage network devices such as routers, switches, and servers. Layer 2 is the data link layer, responsible for error-free transmission of data frames between adjacent network nodes. Layer 4 is the transport layer, responsible for end-to-end communication between hosts. Layer 5 is the session layer, responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications.

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64. Which tool is not used to test your simple network management protocol (SNMP) security?

Explanation

The correct answer is Security mapper (SMAP). Security mapper (SMAP) is not used to test SNMP security. SNMPutil, SolarWinds, and WU_PingProPack are all tools that can be used to test SNMP security.

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65. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion?

Explanation

A host-based IDS is an intrusion detection system that examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion. It focuses on the individual host or endpoint and monitors activities and events occurring on that specific system. This type of IDS is capable of detecting unauthorized access attempts, abnormal behavior, and malicious activities on the host, allowing for timely response and mitigation of potential threats.

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66. Which type of firewall views information as a data stream and not as a series of packets?

Explanation

An application-level firewall views information as a data stream rather than a series of packets. This type of firewall operates at the application layer of the network protocol stack, allowing it to examine the content and behavior of specific applications. It can inspect and control the data being transmitted, making it more effective at detecting and preventing application-layer attacks. Network-level firewalls, on the other hand, focus on packet-level filtering and do not have the ability to analyze the content of the data stream. Corporate/enterprise and personal/small office home office (SOHO) firewalls refer to the scale or deployment context of the firewall, rather than the specific way they view information.

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67. What type of proxy is located near the user/client and acts as an intermediary between a client and content server to protect the clients internet protocol (IP) address?

Explanation

A forward proxy is located near the user/client and acts as an intermediary between the client and content server. It receives requests from the client and forwards them to the content server on behalf of the client. It also masks the client's IP address, providing protection and anonymity. Therefore, a forward proxy is the correct type of proxy in this scenario.

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68. Which voice protection system (VPS) application allows you to view real-time monitoring and policy processing, view system diagnostics, and use the VPS rules-based policy applications?

Explanation

The Performance Manager application allows users to view real-time monitoring and policy processing, as well as view system diagnostics and use the VPS rules-based policy applications. This application provides comprehensive visibility and control over the voice protection system, allowing administrators to effectively manage and monitor its performance. The Administrative Manager, Directory Manager, and System Console applications do not provide the same level of functionality and capabilities as the Performance Manager.

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69. Community string passwords should be changed at least every

Explanation

Community string passwords should be changed at least every 90 days. This is because community string passwords are used in Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to authenticate and authorize network management systems. Regularly changing these passwords helps to ensure the security of the network by reducing the risk of unauthorized access. Changing the passwords every 90 days strikes a balance between maintaining security and minimizing the inconvenience of frequent password changes.

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70. What does a forward zone provide?

Explanation

A forward zone provides the mapping of names to their corresponding IP addresses. This means that when a user enters a domain name in their web browser, the forward zone helps to resolve that name to the specific IP address of the server hosting the website. This mapping is essential for the functioning of the Domain Name System (DNS), as it allows users to access websites and other resources on the internet by using human-readable domain names instead of having to remember the numerical IP addresses associated with them.

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71. Which is not an administrator role on the McAfee Firewall Enterprise?

Explanation

Basic admin privileges is not an administrator role on the McAfee Firewall Enterprise. This role does not have full administrative privileges and is limited in terms of the actions and settings it can access and modify. The other options, Admin, Adminro, and No admin privileges, all indicate different levels of administrator roles with varying degrees of access and permissions on the firewall system.

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72. At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate?

Explanation

A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming packets and makes decisions based on predetermined rules, such as allowing or blocking certain types of traffic. By operating at the network layer, a packet filter gateway can effectively filter and control network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and other network-level information.

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73. External clients request content directly from which proxy type?

Explanation

External clients request content directly from a reverse proxy. A reverse proxy acts as an intermediary between the client and the server, receiving requests from clients and forwarding them to the appropriate server. It helps to improve performance, security, and scalability by caching and load balancing requests. In this scenario, the external clients initiate the request, and the reverse proxy serves as the entry point for these requests, handling them on behalf of the server.

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74. Most firewall implementations that you will encounter will be found at the

Explanation

The correct answer is Integrated Network Operation and Security Center (INOSC). This is because INOSC is responsible for the management and operation of the network infrastructure, including firewalls, within an organization. It is a centralized location where network security is monitored and maintained. The other options, base-level and major command, do not specifically refer to the management of firewalls and network security.

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75. Which open source host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) performs log analysis, file integrity checking, policy monitoring, root kit detection, real-time alerting and active response?

Explanation

Open source security (OSSEC) is the correct answer because it is an open source host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) that performs various security functions such as log analysis, file integrity checking, policy monitoring, root kit detection, real-time alerting, and active response. Snort is a popular open source network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and does not provide all the mentioned functionalities. Intruder alert (ITA) is not a recognized open source HIDS.

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76. Who approves or disapproves information systems (including software and services) connections to the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF-GIG) and accepts any risk created by the approved connections?

Explanation

Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) is responsible for approving or disapproving information systems, including software and services, and their connections to the Air Force Global Information Grid (AF-GIG). They also accept any risk created by the approved connections.

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77. What term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-base internet protocol (IP)?

Explanation

IP telephony is the correct answer because it accurately describes the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-base internet protocol (IP). IP telephony, also known as Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), allows for voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines, making it a more cost-effective and flexible solution for communication.

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78. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security?

Explanation

Category IV applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security. This means that resolving a vulnerability in this category will ensure that the security of the system is not compromised or weakened in any way.

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79. What voice protection system (VPS) component will only be installed on trunks or individual lines that are purchased or leased by the government?

Explanation

The voice protection system (VPS) component that will only be installed on trunks or individual lines that are purchased or leased by the government is an appliance. This suggests that the government wants to ensure that their sensitive voice communications are protected and secured, and they have chosen to use a dedicated hardware appliance for this purpose. This appliance is specifically designed to provide the necessary security measures for voice communications, such as encryption and authentication, to protect against unauthorized access or interception.

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80. Which voice protection system (VPS) toolbar icon is used to open the Database Properties Management Tool?

Explanation

The VPS server properties toolbar icon is used to open the Database Properties Management Tool. This tool allows the user to manage and configure various settings and properties related to the VPS server and its database. It provides options for managing server properties, such as security settings, performance tuning, and database maintenance tasks. By clicking on this toolbar icon, the user can access and modify these properties as needed.

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81. The vulnerabilities detected by Internet security scanner (ISS) are classified

Explanation

The vulnerabilities detected by Internet security scanner (ISS) are classified as "Sensitive" because they involve potential weaknesses or flaws in a system that could be exploited by attackers. These vulnerabilities may allow unauthorized access, data breaches, or other security breaches, making them sensitive information that needs to be addressed and resolved promptly to protect the system and its data.

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82. By default, a system checks the mail queues for mail that cannot be delivered on the first attempt every

Explanation

By default, a system checks the mail queues for mail that cannot be delivered on the first attempt every 30 minutes. This means that if a system fails to deliver an email, it will wait for 30 minutes before attempting to deliver it again. This interval allows for possible temporary issues or delays in the mail delivery process to be resolved before retrying.

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83. Above which layer of the open systems interconnect (OSI) model are protocols designed to reside?

Explanation

Protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. It provides services such as session establishment, synchronization, and checkpointing. Protocols that reside above this layer handle tasks related to the presentation of data, such as data formatting, encryption, and compression. Therefore, the correct answer is Session.

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84. By default, how often does the intrusion prevention system (IPS) policies polling engine execute to evaluate thresholds?

Explanation

The intrusion prevention system (IPS) policies polling engine executes to evaluate thresholds every 5 minutes. This means that the system regularly checks the thresholds set in the IPS policies to ensure that they are being met and to take appropriate actions if any threshold is exceeded. This frequent polling helps in maintaining the effectiveness of the IPS in detecting and preventing intrusions in a timely manner.

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85. Which is not a software component of Intruder Alert (ITA)?

Explanation

The user is not a software component of Intruder Alert (ITA). The user refers to the individual who interacts with the software, rather than being a component of the software itself. The other options, Agent, Manager, and Administrator, are all software components that play specific roles within the Intruder Alert system.

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86. What serves as the Intruder Alert administrator (ITA) command center?

Explanation

The ITA administrator serves as the command center for the Intruder Alert administrator. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the ITA system, including monitoring and responding to intrusion alerts, coordinating with ITA agents, and ensuring the overall security of the system. As the administrator, they have the authority and privileges to make necessary decisions and take appropriate actions to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the Intruder Alert system.

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87. Which e-mail server relays all e-mail entering or exiting the local network?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Sendmail server. Sendmail is a widely used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) that is responsible for relaying email messages between different servers. It is commonly used in Unix-based systems and is known for its robustness and flexibility. The Sendmail server acts as a relay for all email entering or exiting the local network, ensuring that messages are properly delivered to their intended recipients.

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88. Which e-mail server delivers all outgoing e-mail to the mail relay server?

Explanation

The Exchange server delivers all outgoing e-mail to the mail relay server. Exchange server is a popular email server software developed by Microsoft. It is commonly used in organizations for managing email, contacts, calendars, and tasks. The Exchange server acts as a bridge between the user's email client and the mail relay server, which is responsible for routing the email to its destination. By delivering all outgoing email to the mail relay server, the Exchange server ensures that the email is properly handled and sent to the intended recipients.

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89. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls?

Explanation

Category II applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls. This means that the vulnerability could potentially allow someone to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or systems.

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90. What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise?

Explanation

Category III applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise. This means that the vulnerability may expose sensitive information or allow an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. It is important to address and mitigate these vulnerabilities to prevent potential compromises and protect the confidentiality and integrity of the information.

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91. Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors network traffic and alerts administrators about suspicious traffic?

Explanation

A network-based IDS is designed to monitor network traffic and identify any suspicious activity or anomalies. It analyzes the packets of data flowing through the network and compares them against a database of known attack patterns. When it detects any suspicious traffic, it generates alerts to notify administrators so that they can take appropriate action to mitigate the threat. Unlike a host-based IDS, which focuses on monitoring the activity on a specific host or device, a network-based IDS monitors the entire network, making it an effective tool for detecting and responding to network-level threats.

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92. Which is not a voice protection system (VPS) application or tool?

Explanation

The given options consist of various applications and tools related to voice protection systems (VPS). The system console, directory manager, and performance manager are all potential applications or tools that can be used for voice protection. However, the administrative manager is not typically associated with voice protection systems. It is more likely to be related to managing administrative tasks and user permissions within a system. Therefore, the administrative manager is the correct answer as it does not fall under the category of voice protection system applications or tools.

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93. Which provides a call accounting, reporting analysis for enterprise voice networks?

Explanation

Usage manager provides call accounting, reporting, and analysis for enterprise voice networks. It helps track and analyze call usage, including call duration, cost, and patterns. This tool is essential for managing and optimizing voice network resources, identifying cost-saving opportunities, and ensuring efficient communication within the organization. It allows administrators to generate reports and gain insights into call patterns, helping them make informed decisions regarding network usage and allocation of resources.

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94. In what layer of the open system interconnect (OSI) model is simple network management protocol (SNMP) simply referred to as SNMP?

Explanation

SNMP, which stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It operates at the application layer of the OSI model. The application layer is responsible for providing network services to user applications, and SNMP fits into this category as it allows network administrators to manage and monitor network devices. The network layer deals with routing and addressing, the transport layer handles the reliable delivery of data, and the presentation layer is responsible for data formatting and encryption. Therefore, the correct layer for SNMP is the application layer.

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95. Which is not a separate sendmail server used in secure split simple message transfer protocol (SMTP) services?

Explanation

The question is asking for the option that is not a separate sendmail server used in secure split SMTP services. The options "Local," "Internal," and "External" all refer to different types of sendmail servers that can be used for secure split SMTP services. However, "Network" is not a specific type of sendmail server, but rather a broader term that encompasses all types of servers and devices connected to a network. Therefore, "Network" is the correct answer as it does not represent a separate sendmail server used in secure split SMTP services.

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96. Which is not listed in the performance manager tree-pane?

Explanation

The performance manager tree-pane lists various elements related to performance management. Spans refer to the time intervals for which performance data is collected. Policies are guidelines or rules that dictate how performance should be managed. Configurations are settings or preferences that determine how performance data is collected and displayed. However, permissions, which determine who has access to certain performance management features or data, are not listed in the performance manager tree-pane.

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97. Which cannot be used to manage a McAfee Firewall Enterprise?

Explanation

The Configuration center cannot be used to manage a McAfee Firewall Enterprise. The Control center is a centralized management console that provides real-time monitoring and control of the firewall. The Admin console is used for user management and access control. The Command line interface allows for advanced configuration and troubleshooting. However, the Configuration center is not a valid option as it does not exist or have a specific purpose in managing a McAfee Firewall Enterprise.

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98. Which McAfee Firewall Enterprise management interface is the graphical software that runs a Windows computer within your network?

Explanation

The Admin console of McAfee Firewall Enterprise is the graphical software that runs on a Windows computer within your network. It provides a user-friendly interface for managing and configuring the firewall settings and policies. The Admin console allows administrators to monitor network traffic, create rules, and perform other administrative tasks to ensure the security of the network.

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99. Voice protection system (VPS) reports are generated from the VPS

Explanation

The usage manager is responsible for generating voice protection system (VPS) reports. These reports provide information about the usage of the VPS, including statistics and metrics related to its performance. Therefore, it makes sense that the usage manager is the correct answer in this context.

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100. Why should Internet security scanner (ISS) scans not be used on medical equipment?

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer is that the increasing costs of using ISS is the reason why Internet security scanner (ISS) scans should not be used on medical equipment. This implies that there are other scans available that are cheaper to run, and using ISS would result in higher expenses. Therefore, it is more cost-effective to opt for alternative scanning methods.

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Proxies do not
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Community string passwords should be changed at least every
What does a forward zone provide?
Which is not an administrator role on the McAfee Firewall Enterprise?
At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter...
External clients request content directly from which proxy type?
Most firewall implementations that you will encounter will be found at...
Which open source host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)...
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What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved,...
What voice protection system (VPS) component will only be installed on...
Which voice protection system (VPS) toolbar icon is used to open the...
The vulnerabilities detected by Internet security scanner (ISS) are...
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Above which layer of the open systems interconnect (OSI) model are...
By default, how often does the intrusion prevention system (IPS)...
Which is not a software component of Intruder Alert (ITA)?
What serves as the Intruder Alert administrator (ITA) command center?
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Which e-mail server delivers all outgoing e-mail to the mail relay...
What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides...
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors network traffic and...
Which is not a voice protection system (VPS) application or tool?
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In what layer of the open system interconnect (OSI) model is simple...
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Which cannot be used to manage a McAfee Firewall Enterprise?
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