3D053 CDC Edit 02 Vol 2

100 Questions | By Rediculous | Updated: Mar 15, 2022 | Attempts: 531

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The is the URE's from vol 2, edit code 02 which became active after 4 April 2013

Questions and Answers

1.

What provides protection of the base network perimeter using a protection device or system of devices?
- A.
  
  Network assurance.
- B.
  
  Network protection.
- C.
  
  Boundary protection.
- D.
  
  Information assurance.
2.

What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls?
- A.
  
  Category I.
- B.
  
  Category II.
- C.
  
  Category III.
- D.
  
  Category IV.
3.

What severity code applies to any vulnerability that provides information that potentially could lead to a compromise?
- A.
  
  Category I.
- B.
  
  Category II.
- C.
  
  Category III.
- D.
  
  Category IV.
4.

What severity code applies to any vulnerability that, when resolved, will prevent the possibility of degraded security?
- A.
  
  Category I.
- B.
  
  Category II.
- C.
  
  Category III.
- D.
  
  Category IV.
5.

How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
- A.
  
  One.
- B.
  
  Two.
- C.
  
  Three.
- D.
  
  Four.
6.

How many hours prior to change implementation does the Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) notify a base communications flight about removing unused filters?
- A.
  
  12 hours.
- B.
  
  24 hours.
- C.
  
  48 hours.
- D.
  
  72 hours.
7.

What is the primary intrusion/misuse tool used in the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN)?
- A.
  
  Firewall.
- B.
  
  Proxy server.
- C.
  
  Intrusion detection system (IDS) software.
- D.
  
  Automated security incident measurement (ASIM).
8.

An active intrusion detection system (IDS) is normally incorporated into
- A.
  
  Switches.
- B.
  
  Firewalls.
- C.
  
  Routers.
- D.
  
  Servers.
9.

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors network traffic and alerts administrators about suspicious traffic?
- A.
  
  Active IDS.
- B.
  
  Passive IDS.
- C.
  
  Host-based IDS.
- D.
  
  Network-based IDS.
10.

Which intrusion detection system (IDS) examines servers or client computers for the patterns of an intrusion?
- A.
  
  Active IDS.
- B.
  
  Passive IDS.
- C.
  
  Host-based IDS.
- D.
  
  Network-based IDS.
11.

When using an intrusion detection system (IDS), remember to
- A.
  
  Deploy one IDS for the entire network.
- B.
  
  Deploy IDS on 50 percent of the network segments.
- C.
  
  Consider using only a network-based IDS or host-based IDS.
- D.
  
  Use a centralized management console for system management.
12.

The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host
- B.
  
  Consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
- C.
  
  Monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.
- D.
  
  Monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.
13.

One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
- A.
  
  Can decrypt data
- B.
  
  Uses very few network resources
- C.
  
  Monitors logs for policy violations.
- D.
  
  Can analyze encrypted network traffic.
14.

What intrusion detection system (IDS) is not commonly used due to increasing cost of implementation?
- A.
  
  Host-based IDS.
- B.
  
  Network-based IDS.
- C.
  
  Hardware-based IDS.
- D.
  
  Application-based IDS.
15.

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
- A.
  
  Active only.
- B.
  
  Passive only.
- C.
  
  Passive and active.
- D.
  
  Neither passive nor active.
16.

A logical connection point for the transmission of information packets is known as a
- A.
  
  Entrance point.
- B.
  
  Service point.
- C.
  
  Protocol.
- D.
  
  Port.
17.

Above which layer of the open systems interconnect (OSI) model are protocols designed to reside?
- A.
  
  Presentation.
- B.
  
  Transport.
- C.
  
  Network.
- D.
  
  Session.
18.

Which is not a common service?
- A.
  
  File transfer protocol (FTP).
- B.
  
  Domain name service (DNS).
- C.
  
  Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP).
- D.
  
  Open system interconnection (OSI).
19.

Which port range constitutes well-known ports?
- A.
  
  0–1023.
- B.
  
  1024–23535.
- C.
  
  23536–49151.
- D.
  
  49152–65535.
20.

Which port is used for telnet?
- A.
  
  7
- B.
  
  20
- C.
  
  23
- D.
  
  53
21.

Which port is used for hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)?
- A.
  
  21
- B.
  
  22
- C.
  
  60
- D.
  
  80
22.

In which type of port scan does the scanner attempt to connect to all ports?
- A.
  
  Sweep scan.
- B.
  
  Vanilla scan.
- C.
  
  Fragment packet scan.
- D.
  
  File transfer protocol (FTP) bounce scan.
23.

Which type of scan is also known as a half open scan?
- A.
  
  Fragment packets.
- B.
  
  Synchronous (SYN) scan.
- C.
  
  User datagram protocol (UDP) scan.
- D.
  
  Transmission control protocol (TCP) scan.
24.

What should you do with unused ports?
- A.
  
  Monitor ports.
- B.
  
  Keep ports open.
- C.
  
  Keep ports closed.
- D.
  
  Ensure all ports are used.
25.

One of the responsibilities of the Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) in implementation of ports, protocols, and services (PPS) is to
- A.
  
  Maintain the AF PPS database.
- B.
  
  Develop AF PPS policies and procedures.
- C.
  
  Develop countermeasures on threats associated with PPS traversing the AF enclave boundaries.
- D.
  
  Provide information on threats and vulnerabilities associated with PPS traversing the AF enclave boundaries.