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72jmpmaster
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1. (005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

Explanation

The power-on-self-test (POST) is a diagnostic process that is performed by the computer's firmware when it is powered on. It checks the hardware components of the computer, including the central processing unit (CPU), to detect any potential problems. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if a CPU hardware problem exists.

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

This is all URE questions from Volume 1 of the 3C051 CDC (As of 2009)

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2. (006) What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

Explanation

The correct answer is always classified to the highest classification of material within the container. This means that regardless of the individual classifications of the items within the security container, the combination itself is considered to have the highest level of classification among them. This ensures that the container remains secure and protected, even if the items within it have varying levels of sensitivity.

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3. (020) What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

Explanation

Predeployment is the phase that focuses on conducting exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment. This phase is crucial in preparing individuals or teams for deployment, as it allows them to practice and become comfortable with the necessary procedures and equipment before actually being deployed. By going through these exercises, individuals can identify any potential issues or challenges that may arise during deployment and address them beforehand, ultimately improving the overall effectiveness and efficiency of the deployment process.

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4. (001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is know as

Explanation

Polling refers to the act of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. This means that the client program regularly checks the device to see if there are any updates or changes in its status. It is a common method used to communicate with external devices and gather information from them. This process allows the client program to stay updated with the current state of the device and take appropriate actions based on the received information.

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5. (003) Static electricity remains intact until it is

Explanation

Static electricity remains intact until it is discharged. When an object becomes charged with static electricity, it has an excess or deficiency of electrons. These charges build up on the surface of the object and create an imbalance. Discharging the static electricity means allowing the excess or deficiency of electrons to flow between objects, restoring balance. This can be done through various means, such as grounding the object or connecting it to a conductor. Once discharged, the object will no longer have a build-up of static electricity.

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6. (005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

Explanation

One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This can help in keeping track of which cables are connected to which components, making it easier to identify and troubleshoot any issues. This method is cost-effective and easy to implement, requiring minimal additional equipment or resources. Additionally, the masking tape can be easily removed once the troubleshooting process is complete, leaving no permanent marks or damage.

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7. (006) What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold? 

Explanation

Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This indicates that they should be at the Staff Sergeant level in order to be responsible for primary communications security.

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8. (002) What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

Explanation

The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices during the boot process. It also performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, the BIOS will send an error message to alert the user. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory storage used in computer systems, but they do not specifically handle hardware initialization or error detection.

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9. (001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

Explanation

The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is a type of memory that stores the computer's BIOS settings, such as the date and time, boot sequence, and hardware configuration. The lithium battery provides backup power to the CMOS chip, ensuring that these settings are not lost when the computer is turned off or unplugged.

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10. (004) Normally the last step in the boot up process is

Explanation

The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage where the computer's software is loaded and ready for the user to interact with. The other options mentioned, such as the keyboard lights flashing, the memory test being visible on the monitor, and the hard drive access light coming on briefly, may occur earlier in the boot up process but do not represent the final step.

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11. (001) What is the first job the basic input/output system (BIOS) does at start up?

Explanation

The first job of the basic input/output system (BIOS) at start-up is to run the power-on self-test. This test checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. It helps in identifying any errors or issues that may prevent the computer from starting up successfully. Once the power-on self-test is completed, the BIOS moves on to other tasks such as loading instructions to random access memory (RAM) and initializing the hardware devices.

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12. (002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request its attention. When an interrupt occurs, the CPU suspends its current task and transfers control to a specific interrupt handler routine to handle the requested action. This allows for efficient multitasking and responsiveness in computer systems.

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13. (002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data?

Explanation

A parity bit is a technique used to check data by adding an extra bit to a binary code. This bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on whether the number of 1s in the code is even or odd. When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to ensure that the number of 1s is still even or odd. If it doesn't match, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, a parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data for errors.

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14. (003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?

Explanation

To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is the correct measure to take. Grounding helps to dissipate any static charge that may have built up on the device, preventing potential damage or interference. By providing a path for the static charge to flow into the ground, the ESDS device remains protected. Checking the relative humidity, disconnecting the circuit from the device, or turning the power switch off may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.

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15. (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number

Explanation

This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. The correct answer, accounting legend code (ALC)-1, indicates that this code is the most stringent and requires the highest level of accountability and control.

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16. (020) Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

Explanation

The unit deployment manager and commander should be notified immediately of any predeployment shortfalls. This is because they are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary resources, including manpower and equipment, are available. By notifying them, they can take appropriate action to address any shortfalls and ensure a successful deployment. The manpower and equipment monitor, manager of deployable communications, and initial communications support monitor may also play a role in addressing the shortfalls, but the unit deployment manager and commander have the overall authority and responsibility.

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17. (003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs between two objects at different electrical potentials. This discharge happens when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object and it is discharged to another object with a lower electrical potential. This can happen when objects are rubbed together or when there is a sudden change in electrical potential. Electrostatic discharge can cause damage to electronic devices and can also be felt as a small shock when touching certain objects.

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18. (004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

Explanation

Fault isolation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of identifying and resolving the cause of an operational failure. This involves collecting and analyzing data to determine the root cause of the failure and implementing measures to prevent it from happening again in the future. Fault isolation is an important step in troubleshooting and improving system reliability.

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19. (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?

Explanation

After initial power is applied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common step in the boot up process known as the Power-On Self-Test (POST). During the POST, the computer checks the hardware components to ensure they are functioning properly. The flashing keyboard lights indicate that the computer is performing this test. Once the POST is completed successfully, the boot process continues with other steps such as loading the operating system into memory and displaying the user interface.

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20. (008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials will be organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles, making it easier to locate specific items on the form. This method ensures that the form is well-organized and allows for efficient retrieval of information when needed.

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21. (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

Explanation

The characteristic of survivability in theater deployable communications (TDC) requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment should be able to function effectively even in hazardous environments where such protective gear is necessary. This ensures that communication capabilities can be maintained and sustained in potentially dangerous situations, enhancing the overall survivability of the communication system.

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22. (001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

Explanation

ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. Unlike other types of memory, such as RAM, ROM is not affected by power loss or restarts. It contains pre-programmed data that cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. This makes ROM ideal for storing firmware, operating systems, and other essential software that need to be permanently stored and accessed by the computer. Therefore, ROM is the correct answer for the question.

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23. (002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data is whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Data integrity measures, such as checksums and hashing algorithms, are used to verify the integrity of data during storage, transmission, and processing. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can trust that their data is reliable and can make informed decisions based on it.

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24. (002) Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

Explanation

A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a bridge between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to send commands and receive data from the hardware. Without drivers, the operating system would not be able to communicate effectively with the hardware devices, resulting in them being unusable. Drivers are essential for the proper functioning of hardware devices in a computer system.

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25. (003) Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

Explanation

An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I ESD sensitivity refers to items that can be damaged by a discharge of less than 100 volts. Since 900 volts is significantly higher than 100 volts, it falls within the Class I category.

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26. (008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager

Explanation

The correct answer is "asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message." In situations where it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would request the user to verify their holding by sending a letter or message. This allows the COMSEC manager to ensure that the user still has possession of the necessary equipment or materials without the need for physical presence.

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27. (001) On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

Explanation

Cache is the correct answer because most modern computers have two or three levels of memory, with cache being one of them. Cache memory is a type of high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the computer to access them quickly. It acts as a buffer between the processor and main memory, improving overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to retrieve data from the main memory. Therefore, cache memory plays a crucial role in enhancing the computer's speed and efficiency.

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28. (001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components during the boot process. It also provides a bridge between the hardware and the operating system, allowing the computer to communicate with the various components. CMOS, cache, and EEPROM are all different types of memory or storage technologies and are not specifically related to the computer's startup instructions.

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29. (003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items that are sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This means that these items have a moderate sensitivity to ESD and require appropriate precautions to prevent damage.

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30. (003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive device (ESDS)?

Explanation

When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive device (ESDS), the first step you must take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no electrical current flowing through the device, reducing the risk of electrostatic discharge that could damage the sensitive components. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be necessary steps in the overall process, but they are not the first step.

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31. (011) What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single standard form (SF) 153?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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32. (009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing officail duties is the

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the "user." This person is responsible for properly utilizing and protecting COMSEC equipment and information in order to maintain the security and confidentiality of communications. They are expected to follow established protocols and procedures to ensure that sensitive information is not compromised.

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33. (009) What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?

Explanation

The term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment is "aids". This term encompasses various tools, documents, or resources that assist in the implementation and maintenance of COMSEC measures. These aids may include encryption algorithms, key management systems, authentication protocols, or other related materials that support secure communication.

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34. (010) Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

Explanation

Disposition records and destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This means that when material is given to temporary or short-term aircrews, there is no need to keep records of what happened to the material or report its destruction. This is because transient aircrews are not responsible for the long-term maintenance or accountability of the material, as they are only temporarily using it.

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35. (002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ (Interrupt Request) lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is usually assigned to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to interrupt the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.

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36. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, the next step is to confirm the resolution. This step involves reviewing the case history to ensure that all necessary steps were taken and no steps were missed during the troubleshooting process. It is important to confirm the resolution to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and that there are no further issues or steps that need to be addressed.

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37. (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?

Explanation

After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot up process is typically a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the integrity and functionality of the computer's memory modules. It helps ensure that the memory is working properly before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

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38. (010) In which phase does the communication security (COMSEC) manager determine which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs?

Explanation

In the preparation phase, the communication security (COMSEC) manager determines which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs. This phase involves gathering and organizing the necessary resources and materials to ensure secure communication. It is during this phase that the COMSEC manager assesses the specific requirements and responsibilities of the CRO officer and identifies the materials that will be required to fulfill those responsibilities effectively.

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39. (013) Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident. This means that not following the instructions or failing to take immediate action in response to the message could result in a breach or compromise of cryptographic security measures. It is important to promptly and appropriately respond to such messages to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive information.

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40. (002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in transmission can be detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple example of an error detecting code.

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41. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the step of defining the problem involves gathering information and identifying the symptoms or issues that need to be resolved. In this step, the focus is on understanding the conditions or factors contributing to the problem. By determining which conditions are present, it becomes easier to narrow down the potential causes and develop an effective solution. Therefore, in the given question, the correct answer of "define the problem" aligns with the step of determining the conditions that are present.

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42. (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory

Explanation

ALC-4 is the correct answer because it indicates that the communications security material mentioned in the question does not need to be tracked on a daily or shift inventory. ALC-4 suggests that this material is not considered crucial or high-risk, and therefore does not require the same level of tracking and accountability as materials labeled with ALC-1, ALC-2, or ALC-3.

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43. (007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment

Explanation

The SF701 form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment. It is used to record the presence and condition of security measures such as locks, alarms, and surveillance systems on a daily basis. This form helps to ensure that all security measures are in place and functioning properly, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or security breaches.

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44. (006) After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer's (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to mange their account?

Explanation

Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This training ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and procedures in communications security (COMSEC) account management. By receiving annual training, CROs can effectively fulfill their responsibilities and maintain the security of their accounts throughout the year. Quarterly, semi-annually, and biennially training intervals would not provide the same level of ongoing knowledge and skills development that is necessary for this role. Therefore, the correct answer is annually.

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45. (008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the records are kept for a total of seven months. This allows for easy tracking and monitoring of communication security equipment and materials over a significant period of time.

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46. (011) What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

Explanation

Transport suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material. It implies the action of physically moving goods or people from one location to another using various modes of transportation such as trucks, trains, ships, or airplanes. The term "transport" emphasizes the active involvement of a person or organization in the process of moving the material.

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47. (012) In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?

Explanation

In the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder, destruction certificates are filed in folder number 6.

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48. (006) Who is responsible for the production and management of crytographic material within the US Government?

Explanation

The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is the primary intelligence agency responsible for cryptography and signals intelligence in the United States. As the director of this agency, the DIRNSA oversees and coordinates the development, implementation, and management of cryptographic material to ensure the security of communication and information systems used by the US Government.

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49. (007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

Explanation

A cipher lock combination should be changed at a minimum of once a month. This frequent change helps to maintain a high level of security by preventing unauthorized access. Changing the combination regularly reduces the chances of someone figuring out the code and gaining entry. It also ensures that any individuals who previously had access to the combination but should no longer have it, are unable to use it. Regularly changing the cipher lock combination is a proactive measure to enhance security.

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50. (015) Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account?

Explanation

Communications security managers (CM) use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for documenting the inspection process and ensuring compliance with COMSEC regulations and procedures. It allows CMs to assess the security measures in place, identify any vulnerabilities or deficiencies, and take appropriate corrective actions to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of COMSEC materials and information.

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51. (018) What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communications networks?

Explanation

The integrated communications access package (ICAP) is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communications networks. This suggests that ICAP is a comprehensive solution that includes various modules and accessories necessary for establishing and maintaining communication networks in a deployed environment.

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52. (019) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units during a contingency. They ensure that communication channels remain open and operational, allowing for efficient and effective communication between different units and enabling them to carry out their missions successfully. These teams are trained and equipped to handle any communication challenges that may arise, ensuring that vital information is continuously transmitted and received.

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53. (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity

Explanation

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54. (006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

Explanation

The correct answer is semi-annually. The COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible officers at least twice a year. This ensures that the officers are complying with applicable directives and properly accounting for the COMSEC material under their control. Inspecting the accounts on a regular basis helps to identify any potential security risks or breaches and allows for timely corrective action to be taken.

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55. *OMITTED (010) What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?

Explanation

Each CRO should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue before signing the COMSEC hand receipt. This is important because it ensures that the necessary materials are available and accounted for before they are issued to the authorized user. By confirming this, the CRO can help prevent any potential issues or discrepancies in the distribution of COMSEC materials.

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56. (001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is used to store and maintain the BIOS settings on a computer's motherboard. CMOS chips are highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because they are made up of very small and delicate components. ESD can cause the CMOS chip to malfunction or even completely fail, leading to issues with the computer's BIOS and potentially rendering the system inoperable. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS chips with care and take precautions to prevent ESD when working with them.

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57. (001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

Explanation

Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. It is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data to improve the overall performance of the system. By storing frequently used instructions and data closer to the CPU, cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access them from the main memory. This helps to speed up the execution of instructions and improve the overall efficiency of the CPU. Therefore, cache is the correct answer for this question.

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58. (007) What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

Explanation

When changing a safe combination, you need to fill out and affix Standard Form (SF) 700 to the inside of the locking drawer. This form is specifically designed for documenting the change of combination for security purposes. It helps to ensure that the new combination is properly recorded and securely stored.

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59. (014) How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises?

Explanation

The written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises needs to be maintained for 24 months. This is important to ensure that there is a record of the exercises conducted, any findings or recommendations made, and any actions taken to improve the emergency response plan. Keeping the documentation for this period allows for future reference, evaluation, and comparison of exercises over time to identify trends or areas for improvement. It also helps to meet regulatory requirements and demonstrate compliance with emergency preparedness standards.

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60. (015) What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts?

Explanation

The maximum time between EAP exercises at CRO accounts is 6 months. This means that CRO accounts are required to conduct emergency action plan exercises at least every 6 months to ensure preparedness and effectiveness in responding to emergencies. Regular exercises help identify any gaps or areas for improvement in the communication security protocols and allow for necessary updates and training to be implemented.

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61. (016) Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?

Explanation

The final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material.

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62. (008) Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number?

Explanation

The Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number. This suggests that the CPSG is in charge of managing and maintaining the inventory of COMSEC materials for the organization. The other options, such as the Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific role or authority mentioned in the question to establish the inventory dates.

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63. (012) What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

The SF 153 form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) material. This form is used to document the destruction of COMSEC material and ensure proper accountability. It includes details such as the type and quantity of material destroyed, the method of destruction, and the signatures of the individuals involved in the destruction process. This form helps maintain the security and integrity of COMSEC material by providing a record of its destruction.

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64. (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?

Explanation

The characteristic that reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards is open system standards. Open system standards ensure that the modules used in theater deployable communications are compatible with established communication standards, allowing for seamless interoperability with other systems and devices. This promotes efficient communication and collaboration between different units and organizations in a theater of operations.

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65. (010) In which phase does the communications security responsible officer (CRO) check the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153?

Explanation

In the distribution phase, the communications security responsible officer (CRO) checks the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153. This phase involves the actual transfer of the material to the intended recipients, and the CRO plays a crucial role in ensuring that the right material is being distributed to the right individuals or entities. By checking the material against the SF 153 list, the CRO ensures that there are no discrepancies or errors in the distribution process, thereby maintaining the integrity and security of the communication material.

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66. (006) The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

Explanation

The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This controlling authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communication systems and information. They have the authority to set policies, establish guidelines, and enforce compliance with COMSEC regulations. This role is crucial in maintaining the security of communication systems and preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information.

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67. (009) Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number used on transfer reports comes from the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

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68. (014) Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base?

Explanation

The communications security manager (CM) is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base. This role ensures that communication systems and protocols are in place to respond effectively to emergencies. They are responsible for developing, implementing, and maintaining the EAP, as well as coordinating with other departments and agencies to ensure a cohesive and efficient response. The CM's expertise in communications security makes them the most suitable person to oversee and manage the EAP.

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69. (006) Who has the authority to approve waviers that are mission justified?

Explanation

The Communications security (COMSEC) manager has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications systems and information. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the mission requirements and determine if a waiver is necessary and appropriate. The unit commander and Wing Commander may have some level of authority in certain situations, but the COMSEC manager is specifically designated to handle COMSEC matters and make decisions regarding waivers.

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70. (013) Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?

Explanation

The Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP) develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message when COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately. This suggests that the CSGP has the necessary expertise and authority to handle urgent situations related to COMSEC material and ensure its timely replacement or amendment. The other options, such as the National Security Agency (NSA), Major Command (MAJCOM), and Communications Security Manager (CM), may have roles in COMSEC, but they are not specifically mentioned as responsible for developing the original messages in urgent situations.

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71. (017) What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?

Explanation

A certification authority workstation is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards. This workstation serves as a central hub where certification authorities can perform various tasks related to key management, such as creating and issuing certificates, managing cryptographic keys, and distributing them to authorized entities. It provides a secure and controlled environment for handling sensitive keying material, ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of the entire process.

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72. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of "resolve the problem," you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps, such as defining the problem and isolating it. By identifying the potential causes and ruling out the ones that are unlikely, you can focus on finding the most probable cause and implementing the appropriate solution to resolve the problem.

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73. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine whether a dilemma actually exists. This step involves identifying and narrowing down the possible causes of the issue by systematically testing different components or variables. By isolating the problem, you can eliminate any false assumptions or incorrect diagnoses and ensure that you are focusing on the actual source of the problem. Once the problem has been isolated, you can proceed to the next step of resolving it.

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(005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware...
(006) What is the classification of the combination to any security...
(020) What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are...
(001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client...
(003) Static electricity remains intact until it is
(005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying...
(006) What rank must primary communications security responsible...
(002) What component initializes communication with all hardware...
(001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer...
(004) Normally the last step in the boot up process is
(001) What is the first job the basic input/output system (BIOS) does...
(002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer...
(002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data?
(003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static...
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most...
(020) Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment...
(003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows...
(004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the...
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after...
(008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air...
(018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic...
(001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
(002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
(002) Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer...
(003) Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item...
(008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user...
(001) On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of...
(001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup...
(003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000...
(003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or...
(011) What is the maximum number of different actions that can be...
(009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard...
(009) What is the term used when referring to specific communications...
(010) Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required...
(002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for...
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history...
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the...
(010) In which phase does the communication security (COMSEC) manager...
(013) Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could...
(002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which...
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required...
(007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for...
(006) After receiving their initial educations in communications...
(008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories...
(011) What term suggests movement of material from one place to...
(012) In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account...
(006) Who is responsible for the production and management of...
(007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
(015) Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM)...
(018) What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving...
(019) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information...
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for...
(006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are...
*OMITTED (010) What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand...
(001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from...
(001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
(007) What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking...
(014) How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of...
(015) What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP)...
(016) Who is the final approval authority for a person going into...
(008) Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each...
(012) What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of...
(018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic...
(010) In which phase does the communications security responsible...
(006) The operational use and control of communications security...
(009) Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used...
(014) Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans...
(006) Who has the authority to approve waviers that are mission...
(013) Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended...
(017) What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of...
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes...
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma...
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