3C051 CDC Vol. 1

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  • 1/73 Questions

    (001) What is the first job the basic input/output system (BIOS) does at start up?

    • Run memory byte count.
    • Test for parity errors.
    • Load instructions to random access memory (RAM).
    • Run the power-on self-test.
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
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This is all URE questions from Volume 1 of the 3C051 CDC (As of 2009)

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  • 2. 

    (001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is used to store and maintain the BIOS settings on a computer's motherboard. CMOS chips are highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because they are made up of very small and delicate components. ESD can cause the CMOS chip to malfunction or even completely fail, leading to issues with the computer's BIOS and potentially rendering the system inoperable. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS chips with care and take precautions to prevent ESD when working with them.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS). CMOS uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is a type of memory that stores the computer's BIOS settings, such as the date and time, boot sequence, and hardware configuration. The lithium battery provides backup power to the CMOS chip, ensuring that these settings are not lost when the computer is turned off or unplugged.

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  • 4. 

    (001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Read-only memory (ROM).
    Explanation
    ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. Unlike other types of memory, such as RAM, ROM is not affected by power loss or restarts. It contains pre-programmed data that cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. This makes ROM ideal for storing firmware, operating systems, and other essential software that need to be permanently stored and accessed by the computer. Therefore, ROM is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 5. 

    (001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Cache.

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input/output system (BIOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Basic input/output system (BIOS). BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components during the boot process. It also provides a bridge between the hardware and the operating system, allowing the computer to communicate with the various components. CMOS, cache, and EEPROM are all different types of memory or storage technologies and are not specifically related to the computer's startup instructions.

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  • 6. 

    (001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

    • Basic input/output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Cache.

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache.
    Explanation
    Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. It is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data to improve the overall performance of the system. By storing frequently used instructions and data closer to the CPU, cache reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access them from the main memory. This helps to speed up the execution of instructions and improve the overall efficiency of the CPU. Therefore, cache is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 7. 

    (001) On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Cache.

    • Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache.
    Explanation
    Cache is the correct answer because most modern computers have two or three levels of memory, with cache being one of them. Cache memory is a type of high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the computer to access them quickly. It acts as a buffer between the processor and main memory, improving overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to retrieve data from the main memory. Therefore, cache memory plays a crucial role in enhancing the computer's speed and efficiency.

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  • 8. 

    (001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is know as

    • Polling

    • Signaling

    • Processing

    • Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling
    Explanation
    Polling refers to the act of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. This means that the client program regularly checks the device to see if there are any updates or changes in its status. It is a common method used to communicate with external devices and gather information from them. This process allows the client program to stay updated with the current state of the device and take appropriate actions based on the received information.

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  • 9. 

    (002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices to communicate with the CPU and request its attention. When an interrupt occurs, the CPU suspends its current task and transfers control to a specific interrupt handler routine to handle the requested action. This allows for efficient multitasking and responsiveness in computer systems.

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  • 10. 

    (002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ (Interrupt Request) lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is usually assigned to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to interrupt the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.

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  • 11. 

    (002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

    • Driver

    • Parity bit

    • Data integrity

    • Error correction

    Correct Answer
    A. Data integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data is whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. Data integrity measures, such as checksums and hashing algorithms, are used to verify the integrity of data during storage, transmission, and processing. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can trust that their data is reliable and can make informed decisions based on it.

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  • 12. 

    (002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data?

    • Asynchronous

    • Parity bit

    • Interrupt

    • Fault

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a technique used to check data by adding an extra bit to a binary code. This bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on whether the number of 1s in the code is even or odd. When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to ensure that the number of 1s is still even or odd. If it doesn't match, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission. Therefore, a parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data for errors.

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  • 13. 

    (002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

    • Interrupt

    • Parity bit

    • Asyncronous

    • Data integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in transmission can be detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple example of an error detecting code.

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  • 14. 

    (002) What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

    • Read-only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices during the boot process. It also performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, the BIOS will send an error message to alert the user. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory storage used in computer systems, but they do not specifically handle hardware initialization or error detection.

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  • 15. 

    (002) Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Driver

    • Parity

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Driver
    Explanation
    A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a bridge between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to send commands and receive data from the hardware. Without drivers, the operating system would not be able to communicate effectively with the hardware devices, resulting in them being unusable. Drivers are essential for the proper functioning of hardware devices in a computer system.

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  • 16. 

    (003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

    • Voltage

    • Amperage

    • Conductivity

    • Electrostatic discharge

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrostatic discharge
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs between two objects at different electrical potentials. This discharge happens when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object and it is discharged to another object with a lower electrical potential. This can happen when objects are rubbed together or when there is a sudden change in electrical potential. Electrostatic discharge can cause damage to electronic devices and can also be felt as a small shock when touching certain objects.

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  • 17. 

    (003) Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absorbed

    • Dissolved

    • Discharged

    • Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity remains intact until it is discharged. When an object becomes charged with static electricity, it has an excess or deficiency of electrons. These charges build up on the surface of the object and create an imbalance. Discharging the static electricity means allowing the excess or deficiency of electrons to flow between objects, restoring balance. This can be done through various means, such as grounding the object or connecting it to a conductor. Once discharged, the object will no longer have a build-up of static electricity.

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  • 18. 

    (003) Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I ESD sensitivity refers to items that can be damaged by a discharge of less than 100 volts. Since 900 volts is significantly higher than 100 volts, it falls within the Class I category.

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  • 19. 

    (003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items that are sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This means that these items have a moderate sensitivity to ESD and require appropriate precautions to prevent damage.

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  • 20. 

    (003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?

    • Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device

    • Check the relative humidity

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device
    Explanation
    To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is the correct measure to take. Grounding helps to dissipate any static charge that may have built up on the device, preventing potential damage or interference. By providing a path for the static charge to flow into the ground, the ESDS device remains protected. Checking the relative humidity, disconnecting the circuit from the device, or turning the power switch off may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.

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  • 21. 

    (003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive device (ESDS)?

    • Ground the ESDS device

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the power switch to the off position
    Explanation
    When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive device (ESDS), the first step you must take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no electrical current flowing through the device, reducing the risk of electrostatic discharge that could damage the sensitive components. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be necessary steps in the overall process, but they are not the first step.

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  • 22. 

    (004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

    • Fault isolation

    • Event evaluation

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation
    Explanation
    Fault isolation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of identifying and resolving the cause of an operational failure. This involves collecting and analyzing data to determine the root cause of the failure and implementing measures to prevent it from happening again in the future. Fault isolation is an important step in troubleshooting and improving system reliability.

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  • 23. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of defining the problem involves gathering information and identifying the symptoms or issues that need to be resolved. In this step, the focus is on understanding the conditions or factors contributing to the problem. By determining which conditions are present, it becomes easier to narrow down the potential causes and develop an effective solution. Therefore, in the given question, the correct answer of "define the problem" aligns with the step of determining the conditions that are present.

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  • 24. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine whether a dilemma actually exists. This step involves identifying and narrowing down the possible causes of the issue by systematically testing different components or variables. By isolating the problem, you can eliminate any false assumptions or incorrect diagnoses and ensure that you are focusing on the actual source of the problem. Once the problem has been isolated, you can proceed to the next step of resolving it.

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  • 25. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting step of "resolve the problem," you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps, such as defining the problem and isolating it. By identifying the potential causes and ruling out the ones that are unlikely, you can focus on finding the most probable cause and implementing the appropriate solution to resolve the problem.

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  • 26. 

    (004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the resolution
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, the next step is to confirm the resolution. This step involves reviewing the case history to ensure that all necessary steps were taken and no steps were missed during the troubleshooting process. It is important to confirm the resolution to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and that there are no further issues or steps that need to be addressed.

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  • 27. 

    (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is applied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common step in the boot up process known as the Power-On Self-Test (POST). During the POST, the computer checks the hardware components to ensure they are functioning properly. The flashing keyboard lights indicate that the computer is performing this test. Once the POST is completed successfully, the boot process continues with other steps such as loading the operating system into memory and displaying the user interface.

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  • 28. 

    (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
    Explanation
    After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot up process is typically a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the integrity and functionality of the computer's memory modules. It helps ensure that the memory is working properly before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

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  • 29. 

    (004) Normally the last step in the boot up process is

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears
    Explanation
    The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage where the computer's software is loaded and ready for the user to interact with. The other options mentioned, such as the keyboard lights flashing, the memory test being visible on the monitor, and the hard drive access light coming on briefly, may occur earlier in the boot up process but do not represent the final step.

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  • 30. 

    (005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

    • Event evaluation

    • Power-on-self-test (POST)

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Power-on-self-test (POST)
    Explanation
    The power-on-self-test (POST) is a diagnostic process that is performed by the computer's firmware when it is powered on. It checks the hardware components of the computer, including the central processing unit (CPU), to detect any potential problems. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if a CPU hardware problem exists.

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  • 31. 

    (005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

    • Review the schematic diagram for errors

    • Make a complete drawing of all the components

    • Call the manufacturer and speak to customer service

    • Place masking tape to the cables and connection points

    Correct Answer
    A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points
    Explanation
    One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This can help in keeping track of which cables are connected to which components, making it easier to identify and troubleshoot any issues. This method is cost-effective and easy to implement, requiring minimal additional equipment or resources. Additionally, the masking tape can be easily removed once the troubleshooting process is complete, leaving no permanent marks or damage.

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  • 32. 

    (006) What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold? 

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This indicates that they should be at the Staff Sergeant level in order to be responsible for primary communications security.

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  • 33. 

    (006) Who has the authority to approve waviers that are mission justified?

    • Communications security (COMSEC) manager

    • Unit commander

    • Wing Commander

    • Wing Commanders with approval of COMSEC managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications security (COMSEC) manager
    Explanation
    The Communications security (COMSEC) manager has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communications systems and information. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the mission requirements and determine if a waiver is necessary and appropriate. The unit commander and Wing Commander may have some level of authority in certain situations, but the COMSEC manager is specifically designated to handle COMSEC matters and make decisions regarding waivers.

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  • 34. 

    (006) After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer's (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to mange their account?

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    • Biennially

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This training ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and procedures in communications security (COMSEC) account management. By receiving annual training, CROs can effectively fulfill their responsibilities and maintain the security of their accounts throughout the year. Quarterly, semi-annually, and biennially training intervals would not provide the same level of ongoing knowledge and skills development that is necessary for this role. Therefore, the correct answer is annually.

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  • 35. 

    (006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The correct answer is semi-annually. The COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible officers at least twice a year. This ensures that the officers are complying with applicable directives and properly accounting for the COMSEC material under their control. Inspecting the accounts on a regular basis helps to identify any potential security risks or breaches and allows for timely corrective action to be taken.

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  • 36. 

    (006) Who is responsible for the production and management of crytographic material within the US Government?

    • Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US Government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is the primary intelligence agency responsible for cryptography and signals intelligence in the United States. As the director of this agency, the DIRNSA oversees and coordinates the development, implementation, and management of cryptographic material to ensure the security of communication and information systems used by the US Government.

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  • 37. 

    (006) What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

    • Not classified

    • Always classified for official use only (FOUO)

    • Always classified confidential

    • Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container

    Correct Answer
    A. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is always classified to the highest classification of material within the container. This means that regardless of the individual classifications of the items within the security container, the combination itself is considered to have the highest level of classification among them. This ensures that the container remains secure and protected, even if the items within it have varying levels of sensitivity.

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  • 38. 

    (006) The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

    • A controlling authority

    • A COMSEC authority

    • An installation commander

    • A cryptographic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. A controlling authority
    Explanation
    The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This controlling authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communication systems and information. They have the authority to set policies, establish guidelines, and enforce compliance with COMSEC regulations. This role is crucial in maintaining the security of communication systems and preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information.

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  • 39. 

    (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)-1

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-3

    • ALC-4

    Correct Answer
    A. Accounting legend code (ALC)-1
    Explanation
    This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. The correct answer, accounting legend code (ALC)-1, indicates that this code is the most stringent and requires the highest level of accountability and control.

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  • 40. 

    (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)-1

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-3

    • ALC-4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-2
  • 41. 

    (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)-1

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-3

    • ALC-4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-4
    Explanation
    ALC-4 is the correct answer because it indicates that the communications security material mentioned in the question does not need to be tracked on a daily or shift inventory. ALC-4 suggests that this material is not considered crucial or high-risk, and therefore does not require the same level of tracking and accountability as materials labeled with ALC-1, ALC-2, or ALC-3.

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  • 42. 

    (007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment

    • Standard Form (SF) 700

    • SF701

    • SF702

    • SF703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF701
    Explanation
    The SF701 form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment. It is used to record the presence and condition of security measures such as locks, alarms, and surveillance systems on a daily basis. This form helps to ensure that all security measures are in place and functioning properly, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or security breaches.

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  • 43. 

    (007) What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

    • Standard Form (SF) 700

    • SF701

    • SF702

    • SF703

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form (SF) 700
    Explanation
    When changing a safe combination, you need to fill out and affix Standard Form (SF) 700 to the inside of the locking drawer. This form is specifically designed for documenting the change of combination for security purposes. It helps to ensure that the new combination is properly recorded and securely stored.

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  • 44. 

    (007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Bi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    A cipher lock combination should be changed at a minimum of once a month. This frequent change helps to maintain a high level of security by preventing unauthorized access. Changing the combination regularly reduces the chances of someone figuring out the code and gaining entry. It also ensures that any individuals who previously had access to the combination but should no longer have it, are unable to use it. Regularly changing the cipher lock combination is a proactive measure to enhance security.

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  • 45. 

    (008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement

    • By drawer arrangement

    • Alphabetically by edition

    • Alphabetically by short title

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials will be organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles, making it easier to locate specific items on the form. This method ensures that the form is well-organized and allows for efficient retrieval of information when needed.

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  • 46. 

    (008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the records are kept for a total of seven months. This allows for easy tracking and monitoring of communication security equipment and materials over a significant period of time.

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  • 47. 

    (008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager

    • Requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support group (CSGP)

    • Requests special TDY orders from major command (MAJCOM)

    • Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message." In situations where it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would request the user to verify their holding by sending a letter or message. This allows the COMSEC manager to ensure that the user still has possession of the necessary equipment or materials without the need for physical presence.

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  • 48. 

    (008) Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number?

    • Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA)

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency AFCA

    • Cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptologic support group (CPSG)
    Explanation
    The Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number. This suggests that the CPSG is in charge of managing and maintaining the inventory of COMSEC materials for the organization. The other options, such as the Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific role or authority mentioned in the question to establish the inventory dates.

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  • 49. 

    (009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing officail duties is the

    • User

    • Manager

    • Account manager

    • Responsible officer

    Correct Answer
    A. User
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the "user." This person is responsible for properly utilizing and protecting COMSEC equipment and information in order to maintain the security and confidentiality of communications. They are expected to follow established protocols and procedures to ensure that sensitive information is not compromised.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 01, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    72jmpmaster

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