2A553B Cumulative CDC Pretest

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  • 1/270 Questions

    (804) What part of a helicopter is designed to counter the tendency of the aircraft to spin about the vertical axis?

    • Rudder.
    • Ailerons.
    • Tail rotor.
    • Main rotor.
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About This Quiz

Cumulative Pretest containing information from Volumes 1-5 of 2A553B CDCs.

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    (601) Neutralizing or weakening the permanent magnetic field that exists around an aircraft is called...

    • Degaussing.

    • Defoliating.

    • Despoiling.

    • Demoding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing.
    Explanation
    Degaussing refers to the process of neutralizing or weakening the permanent magnetic field that surrounds an aircraft. This is done to prevent interference with the aircraft's navigation and communication systems, which can be affected by magnetic fields. Defoliating, despoiling, and demoding are unrelated terms and do not involve the neutralization of magnetic fields.

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  • 3. 

    (608) The global positioning system satellites and receivers are synchronized to the nanosecond by...

    • Carbon crystals.

    • Quartz crystals.

    • Atomic clocks.

    • Time warps.

    Correct Answer
    A. Atomic clocks.
    Explanation
    The global positioning system (GPS) satellites and receivers are synchronized to the nanosecond by atomic clocks. Atomic clocks are highly accurate timekeeping devices that use the vibrations of atoms to measure time. They are able to maintain precise timekeeping over long periods without losing accuracy. This synchronization is crucial for the GPS system to accurately determine the position of receivers on Earth by calculating the time it takes for signals to travel between satellites and receivers.

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  • 4. 

    (426) The master caution light can be extinguished or reset by...

    • Depressing it momentarily.

    • Depressing it several times.

    • Resetting the circuit breaker.

    • Actuating the light reset switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Depressing it momentarily.
    Explanation
    The master caution light can be extinguished or reset by depressing it momentarily. This means that a brief press on the master caution light will turn off the light or reset it. It does not require multiple presses or the use of any other switches or circuit breakers.

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  • 5. 

    (607) The process of using fixed points and their bearings to isolate a position in space is called...

    • Pseudo fixing.

    • Triangulation.

    • Decoding.

    • Shading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Triangulation.
    Explanation
    Triangulation is the process of using fixed points and their bearings to determine the position of an object or location in space. By measuring the angles between these fixed points, a precise location can be determined. Pseudo fixing, decoding, and shading are not related to this process and therefore are incorrect options.

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  • 6. 

    (614) Which flight control surface position indicator displays percentage of surface extension?

    • Flap.

    • Rudder.

    • Ailerons.

    • Horizontal stabilizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flap.
    Explanation
    The flap is a flight control surface that is used to increase lift and drag during takeoff and landing. It can be extended or retracted to different positions, and the position indicator for the flap displays the percentage of surface extension. This allows the pilot to know the exact position of the flaps and adjust them accordingly for optimal performance during different phases of flight.

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  • 7. 

    (418) Which indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive?

    • Altimeter.

    • Machmeter.

    • True A/S.

    • Vertical velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertical velocity.
    Explanation
    The vertical velocity indicator helps the pilot maintain a specific rate of climb or dive. This instrument provides a visual indication of the aircraft's vertical speed, showing whether the aircraft is ascending, descending, or maintaining level flight. By monitoring the vertical velocity indicator, the pilot can adjust the aircraft's pitch and power settings to achieve and maintain the desired rate of climb or descent. The altimeter measures the aircraft's altitude, the machmeter indicates the aircraft's speed relative to the speed of sound, and true airspeed (TAS) represents the actual speed of the aircraft through the air. However, none of these instruments specifically assist in maintaining a specific rate of climb or dive.

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  • 8. 

    (834) In response to rudder trim commands, the rudder trim acutator of the C-17A electronic flight control system moves the rudder, as well as the...

    • Ailerons.

    • Ailerons and spoilers.

    • Rudder pedals.

    • Force transducer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rudder pedals.
    Explanation
    The rudder trim actuator of the C-17A electronic flight control system moves the rudder pedals in response to rudder trim commands. This means that when the pilot adjusts the rudder trim, it will cause the rudder pedals to move, adjusting the position of the rudder. The other options, such as ailerons, spoilers, and force transducer, are not directly related to the movement of the rudder in response to rudder trim commands.

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  • 9. 

    (804) What do the cyclic and collective flight controls use to change the pitch of the rotor blades?

    • Foot pedals.

    • Swash plate.

    • Rudder.

    • Cyclic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Swash plate.
    Explanation
    The cyclic and collective flight controls use the swash plate to change the pitch of the rotor blades. The swash plate is a mechanical device that translates the pilot's input into the desired movement of the rotor blades. By tilting the swash plate, the pitch of the rotor blades can be adjusted, allowing for changes in the aircraft's pitch and roll. This control mechanism is essential for maneuvering the helicopter in different directions and maintaining stability during flight.

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  • 10. 

    (804) What effect does raising the collective have on the main rotor of a helicopter?

    • Airspeed decreases.

    • Airspeed increases.

    • Lift decreases.

    • Lift increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lift increases.
    Explanation
    Raising the collective in a helicopter increases the pitch angle of the main rotor blades. This increased pitch angle creates more lift, allowing the helicopter to generate more upward force and therefore increase its lift. The increase in lift is necessary for the helicopter to counteract its weight and maintain its altitude or ascend.

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  • 11. 

    (606) The most accurate inertial navigation system alignment is...

    • Direct navigation.

    • Stored heading.

    • Pure initial.

    • Airborne.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pure initial.
    Explanation
    The most accurate inertial navigation system alignment is "pure initial" because it refers to the alignment process where the system is initially set up with precise known values, such as latitude, longitude, and altitude. This ensures that the system starts with accurate reference points and minimizes errors in navigation calculations. Other options like direct navigation, stored heading, and airborne do not specifically address the accuracy of the alignment process.

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  • 12. 

    (624) The shielded wire used as a signal lead is called...

    • Hi-Z.

    • Lo-Z.

    • Return.

    • Kapton.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hi-Z.
    Explanation
    The term "Hi-Z" refers to high impedance, which means that the signal lead has a high resistance to the flow of electrical current. Shielded wires are often used as signal leads to minimize interference and maintain signal integrity. By using a shielded wire with high impedance, the signal can be transmitted more accurately without being affected by external factors. Therefore, "Hi-Z" is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 13. 

    (417) Which error(s) must be corrected to make an A/S indicator display true A/S?

    • Altitude and temperature.

    • Temperature and impact.

    • Altitude and impact.

    • Altitude.

    Correct Answer
    A. Altitude and temperature.
    Explanation
    To make an A/S (airspeed) indicator display true A/S, both altitude and temperature errors must be corrected. The altitude affects the air density, which in turn affects the airspeed reading. Higher altitudes have lower air density, leading to a higher indicated airspeed than the true airspeed. Additionally, temperature affects the air density as well. Higher temperatures result in lower air density, causing the indicated airspeed to be higher than the true airspeed. Therefore, both altitude and temperature errors need to be addressed to ensure an accurate A/S reading.

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  • 14. 

    (420) What type of error is caused by the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed?

    • Density error.

    • Instrument error.

    • Installation error.

    • AOA error.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation error.
    Explanation
    An installation error refers to the mistake made in the location and manner in which a pitot tube is installed. This can lead to inaccurate measurements and readings. The incorrect installation of the pitot tube can cause disturbances in the airflow, leading to incorrect pressure measurements and ultimately affecting the accuracy of the instrument. Therefore, the correct answer is installation error.

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  • 15. 

    (819) The hydraulic manifold on the C-5 yaw augmentation system is equipped with...

    • A solenoid-operated shutoff valve (SOV), hydraulic pressure switch (HPS), electrohydraulic valve (EHV), and linear variable differential transformer (LVDT).

    • An SOV, automatic throttle system, EHV, and LVDT.

    • A pressure data converter, HPS, EHV, and LVDT.

    • An SOV, HPS, EHV, and pilot assist cable servo.

    Correct Answer
    A. A solenoid-operated shutoff valve (SOV), hydraulic pressure switch (HPS), electrohydraulic valve (EHV), and linear variable differential transformer (LVDT).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a solenoid-operated shutoff valve (SOV), hydraulic pressure switch (HPS), electrohydraulic valve (EHV), and linear variable differential transformer (LVDT). This explanation lists the components that are equipped on the hydraulic manifold of the C-5 yaw augmentation system. It includes a solenoid-operated shutoff valve (SOV) which controls the flow of hydraulic fluid, a hydraulic pressure switch (HPS) which monitors the pressure in the system, an electrohydraulic valve (EHV) which controls the flow of hydraulic fluid based on electrical signals, and a linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) which measures the position of a component.

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  • 16. 

    (805) Each C-5 slat surface is extended and retracted by two...

    • Telescoping ballscrew actuators.

    • Telescoping slat drive limiters.

    • Variable flap drive roller carriages.

    • Variable slat drive roller carriages.

    Correct Answer
    A. Telescoping ballscrew actuators.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telescoping ballscrew actuators. These actuators are responsible for extending and retracting each C-5 slat surface. The use of ballscrew technology allows for precise and controlled movement of the slat surfaces. This type of actuator is commonly used in aerospace applications due to its reliability and accuracy.

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  • 17. 

    (801) On the C-5, what converts the input signal from the aileron cable system to a proportional output signal to the flight spoilers?

    • Flaps.

    • Mix box.

    • Override bungee.

    • Centering device.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mix box.
    Explanation
    The mix box is responsible for converting the input signal from the aileron cable system to a proportional output signal to the flight spoilers. It ensures that the movement of the ailerons is properly translated into the desired movement of the flight spoilers, allowing for precise control and maneuverability of the aircraft.

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  • 18. 

    (603) The three attitude heading reference system heading modes of operation are slave,...

    • DG, and compass.

    • Coriolis, and compass.

    • Coriolis, and azimuth.

    • DG, and azimuth.

    Correct Answer
    A. DG, and compass.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DG, and compass. The question is asking for the three attitude heading reference system heading modes of operation. The options given are slave, DG, compass, Coriolis, and azimuth. The correct answer is DG, and compass because these are the two heading modes of operation for the attitude heading reference system. The other options, slave, Coriolis, and azimuth, are not the heading modes of operation for the attitude heading reference system.

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  • 19. 

    (607) The global positioning system is a worldwide radio-navigation system with ground stations and a receiver, and is formed from a constellation of how many satellites?

    • 16.

    • 18.

    • 24.

    • 28.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24 because the global positioning system (GPS) is formed from a constellation of 24 satellites. These satellites orbit the Earth and transmit signals that are received by GPS receivers on the ground. By receiving signals from multiple satellites, the GPS receiver can calculate its precise location on Earth. Having 24 satellites in the constellation ensures that there are always enough satellites in view from any point on Earth, allowing for accurate positioning and navigation.

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  • 20. 

    (624) The unshielded wire used as a power lead is called...

    • Hi-Z.

    • Lo-Z.

    • Return.

    • Kapton.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lo-Z.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Lo-Z." In electrical engineering, Lo-Z refers to low impedance, which means that the wire used as a power lead has a low resistance to the flow of electrical current. This is important for power transmission as it helps to minimize power loss and maximize efficiency. On the other hand, Hi-Z refers to high impedance, which is not suitable for power leads as it would result in higher resistance and more power loss. The terms "return" and "kapton" are not relevant to the unshielded wire used as a power lead.

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  • 21. 

    (625) Which fuel quantity tester is approved as safe for use with fuel in the tank?

    • GTF-6.

    • PSD60-1AF.

    • TTU-27E.

    • TTU-23.

    Correct Answer
    A. PSD60-1AF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PSD60-1AF. This fuel quantity tester is approved as safe for use with fuel in the tank.

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  • 22. 

    (426) Which caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment?

    • Blue.

    • Black.

    • Green.

    • Yellow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Green.
    Explanation
    Green caution/advisory warning lights indicate actuation and normal operation of aircraft equipment. These lights are used to inform the pilot about the status of various systems and equipment on the aircraft. They are not indicating any critical issues or malfunctions but rather providing information about the normal functioning of the equipment.

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  • 23. 

    (818) If a failure should occur in the output channel A, the C-5 stability augmentation system...

    • Switches to channel B and disengages the system.

    • Remains in channel A and disengages the system.

    • Remains in channel A with reduced accuracy.

    • Switches to channel B and remains engaged.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switches to channel B and remains engaged.
    Explanation
    If a failure occurs in the output channel A, the C-5 stability augmentation system switches to channel B and remains engaged. This means that even though there is a failure in channel A, the system is able to switch to an alternative channel (B) and continue functioning without disengaging.

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  • 24. 

    (803) On the C-5, simultaneous operation of the rudder trim control switches is required to provide...

    • Two grounds to the yaw damper.

    • A discrete pulse to the yaw computer.

    • Power and ground to the trim actuator.

    • Two power sources to the trim actuator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power and ground to the trim actuator.
    Explanation
    Simultaneous operation of the rudder trim control switches is required to provide power and ground to the trim actuator. This means that both switches need to be activated at the same time in order to supply the necessary electrical power and ground connection to the trim actuator. This ensures that the trim actuator can function properly and adjust the rudder trim as needed.

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  • 25. 

    (606) The INS mode selector unit BAT light illuminates if the battery unit...

    • Is supplying test power to the INS while in NAV mode.

    • Is supplying test power to the INS during alignment.

    • Is not charged enough to sustain INS operation.

    • Has been removed from the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is not charged enough to sustain INS operation.
    Explanation
    The INS mode selector unit BAT light illuminates if the battery unit is not charged enough to sustain INS operation. This means that if the battery is not sufficiently charged, it will not be able to provide the necessary power for the INS system to function properly. The illumination of the BAT light serves as a warning to indicate that the battery needs to be charged or replaced in order to ensure the continued operation of the INS.

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  • 26. 

    (608) How many global position system satellites are needed to establish our lateral and longitudinal coordinates?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
    Explanation
    To establish our lateral and longitudinal coordinates using the global position system (GPS), a minimum of three satellites is required. This is because GPS works on the principle of trilateration, where the receiver calculates its position based on the distance from at least three satellites. Each satellite provides information about its own position and the time it took for the signal to reach the receiver. By comparing the time delays from multiple satellites, the receiver can determine its exact location in terms of latitude and longitude.

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  • 27. 

    (618) The fuel flow transmitter motor drives the impeller at a...

    • Constant 60 RPM.

    • Constant 50 RPM.

    • Variable 60 RPM.

    • Variable 50 RPM.

    Correct Answer
    A. Constant 60 RPM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is constant 60 RPM. This means that the fuel flow transmitter motor consistently drives the impeller at a speed of 60 revolutions per minute. This suggests that the motor is designed to maintain a steady and reliable flow of fuel, ensuring consistent performance and accuracy in measuring fuel consumption.

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  • 28. 

    (626) When the DC fuel quantity indicating system self-test switch is pressed, the indicators should read...

    • 50 percent (+/- 2 percent) full.

    • 75 percent (+/- 2 percent) full.

    • 98 percent (+/- 2 percent) full.

    • 100 percent (+/- 2 percent) full.

    Correct Answer
    A. 98 percent (+/- 2 percent) full.
    Explanation
    When the DC fuel quantity indicating system self-test switch is pressed, the indicators should read 98 percent (+/- 2 percent) full. This means that the system is functioning properly and accurately displaying the fuel quantity in the aircraft. The range of +/- 2 percent allows for a small margin of error in the reading.

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  • 29. 

    (401) The maximum number of avionics units the Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between is...

    • 32.

    • 16.

    • 64.

    • 25.

    Correct Answer
    A. 32.
    Explanation
    The Military Standard 1553B data bus is capable of transferring data between a maximum of 32 avionics units. This means that the data bus can facilitate communication and data transfer between up to 32 different avionics units in a military aircraft. This is an important feature as it allows for efficient and effective data exchange between various systems and components, contributing to the overall functionality and performance of the aircraft.

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  • 30. 

    (412) Which video symbology display system component receives compass, A/S, roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic control unit?

    • Symbol generator unit.

    • Target availability unit.

    • Resolution advisory unit.

    • Navigation data control unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Symbol generator unit.
    Explanation
    The symbol generator unit receives compass, A/S (airspeed), roll/pitch, and radio altitude information via the system electronic control unit. This unit is responsible for generating the symbols that are displayed on the video symbology display system, providing crucial information to the pilot. The other options, target availability unit, resolution advisory unit, and navigation data control unit, do not directly receive or process this specific information.

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  • 31. 

    (413) Which integrated flight management system subsystem may be used to detect airborne targets?

    • Inertial navigation system.

    • Global positioning system.

    • Color weather radar system.

    • Automatic flight display system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Color weather radar system.
    Explanation
    The color weather radar system is used to detect airborne targets. This system utilizes radar technology to detect and display weather conditions and also has the capability to detect other aircraft in the vicinity. It provides pilots with real-time information about the presence of other aircraft, allowing for better situational awareness and the ability to avoid potential collisions. The inertial navigation system and global positioning system are not specifically designed for detecting airborne targets, and the automatic flight display system is primarily used for displaying flight information to the pilot.

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  • 32. 

    (420) The primary difference between indicated A/S and true A/S is the...

    • Density error.

    • Instrument error.

    • Installation error.

    • AOA error.

    Correct Answer
    A. Density error.
    Explanation
    The primary difference between indicated A/S (airspeed) and true A/S is the density error. Indicated A/S is the airspeed value displayed on the aircraft's instruments, while true A/S is the actual airspeed of the aircraft in relation to the surrounding air. Density error refers to the variation in air density, which can be caused by factors such as temperature, altitude, and humidity. This variation in air density affects the accuracy of the indicated A/S, resulting in a difference between the indicated and true airspeed. Therefore, density error is the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    (422) When activated, which switch causes the No. 1 SCADC to output fixed values of altitude, vertical speed, mach, A/S, and true A/S?

    • Pilot's SCADC self-test switch.

    • Pilot's SCADC test disconnect.

    • Copilot's SCADC self-test switch.

    • Copilot's SCADC test disconnect.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot's SCADC self-test switch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Pilot's SCADC self-test switch. When activated, this switch causes the No. 1 SCADC (Stability and Control Augmentation System Digital Computer) to output fixed values of altitude, vertical speed, mach, A/S (airspeed), and true A/S (true airspeed). This switch is used during the self-test process to ensure the proper functioning of the SCADC system.

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  • 34. 

    (427) At what altitudes is the ground proximity warning system active?

    • 0 - 1,000 feet.

    • 50 - 2,450 feet.

    • 100 - 12,450 feet.

    • 1,000 - 10,000 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 - 2,450 feet.
    Explanation
    The ground proximity warning system is active between altitudes of 50 - 2,450 feet. This means that the system will provide warnings and alerts to the pilot when the aircraft is at or below 50 feet above ground level, as well as when it is between 50 and 2,450 feet above ground level. This range is important because it covers the critical phase of flight during takeoff and landing, where the risk of a controlled flight into terrain is higher. It allows the pilot to be aware of their proximity to the ground and take necessary actions to avoid a potential collision.

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  • 35. 

    (823) On the KC-135, which built-in test is designed to detect a fault and shut down the flight control set before a hardover occurs?

    • Maintenance.

    • Preflight.

    • Continuous.

    • Postflight.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous.
    Explanation
    Continuous built-in test is designed to detect a fault and shut down the flight control set before a hardover occurs on the KC-135. This means that the test is constantly monitoring the system during flight to ensure that any faults or issues are detected and addressed before they can cause a hardover, which is an uncommanded and potentially dangerous movement of the flight control surfaces. The continuous built-in test helps to maintain the safety and reliability of the aircraft's flight control system.

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  • 36. 

    (819) What type filter is used in the yaw augmentation system to block any rate gyro signals developed as a result of the normal bending of the C-5 aircraft body from occuring during flight?

    • High-pass.

    • Low-pass.

    • Greenfield.

    • Body-bend.

    Correct Answer
    A. Body-bend.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Body-bend." In the yaw augmentation system of the C-5 aircraft, a filter is used to block any rate gyro signals that may be developed due to the normal bending of the aircraft body during flight. This filter is specifically designed to address the issue of body bending and prevent it from interfering with the yaw augmentation system.

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  • 37. 

    (818) All three augmentation systems on the C-5 are...

    • Single channel failure protected.

    • Fail-safe only.

    • Fail-operational only.

    • Fail-operational and fail-safe.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fail-operational and fail-safe.
    Explanation
    The augmentation systems on the C-5 are both fail-operational and fail-safe. This means that in the event of a single channel failure, the systems will continue to operate without any loss of function (fail-operational) and also maintain a level of safety (fail-safe). This ensures that the aircraft remains operational and safe even in the event of a failure in one of the augmentation systems.

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  • 38. 

    (608) How many global positioning system satellites are needed to determine aircraft altitude?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
    Explanation
    Four global positioning system satellites are needed to determine aircraft altitude. The GPS system uses a process called trilateration, which requires signals from at least four satellites to accurately calculate altitude. Each satellite provides information on its own position and the time it took for the signal to reach the receiver. By comparing the time delays from multiple satellites, the GPS receiver can determine the altitude of the aircraft.

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  • 39. 

    (611) Which RGA interface logic unit test switch must be activated to allow go-around mode testing on the ground?

    • X MON.

    • TEST RESET.

    • FLP TEST.

    • WOW TEST.

    Correct Answer
    A. WOW TEST.
    Explanation
    The WOW TEST switch must be activated to allow go-around mode testing on the ground. The WOW (Weight-On-Wheels) system is responsible for detecting whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air. By activating the WOW TEST switch, the system simulates the aircraft being on the ground, allowing for testing of the go-around mode. This mode is used during takeoff when the pilot decides to abort the takeoff and initiate a go-around procedure.

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  • 40. 

    (617) The amount of current produced when the hot junction in the vertical scale exhaust gas termperature indicating system is heated is dependent on the difference in temperature between the...

    • Hot and cold junctions.

    • AC and DC generators.

    • Indicator and thermometer.

    • Wiring and ambient temperature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot and cold junctions.
    Explanation
    The amount of current produced in the vertical scale exhaust gas temperature indicating system is dependent on the difference in temperature between the hot and cold junctions. The hot junction is where the exhaust gas temperature is measured, while the cold junction is the reference point for the system. The greater the temperature difference between these two junctions, the larger the current produced. Therefore, the correct answer is hot and cold junctions.

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  • 41. 

    (621) The torquemeter assembly consists of a torquemeter housing assembly, torquemeter pickup assembly, and...

    • A flange-shaped flux resistor.

    • One concentric shaft assembly.

    • Two concentric shaft assemblies.

    • Three concentric shaft assemblies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Two concentric shaft assemblies.
    Explanation
    The torquemeter assembly consists of two concentric shaft assemblies. This means that there are two shafts that are aligned and positioned one inside the other. These shafts are an important part of the torquemeter assembly as they allow for the measurement of torque by detecting the rotational movement between the two shafts.

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  • 42. 

    (403) When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, the bus controller...

    • Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.

    • Is disabled and the backup controller resumes transmission.

    • Attempts to retransmit to the RT until contact is made.

    • Establishes communications with a different RT.

    Correct Answer
    A. Retransmits the command several times, and then tries the backup data bus.
    Explanation
    When the bus controller detects a transmission error while communicating with a RT on the Military Standard 1553B data bus, it retransmits the command several times in an attempt to establish a successful transmission. If the retransmission attempts are unsuccessful, the bus controller then tries the backup data bus as an alternative method of communication. This ensures that the communication between the bus controller and the RT is maintained, even in the presence of transmission errors.

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  • 43. 

    (420) Static pressure is...

    • Less at low radar altitudes and greater at higher radar altitudes.

    • Less at low attack angles and greater at higher attack angles.

    • Greater at low A/S's and less at higher A/S's.

    • Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.
    Explanation
    Static pressure is the force exerted by a fluid (in this case, the air) on a surface due to the air molecules colliding with that surface. At higher altitudes, the air density decreases, resulting in fewer air molecules colliding with the surface and thus lower static pressure. Conversely, at lower altitudes, the air density is higher, leading to more air molecules colliding with the surface and therefore higher static pressure. Therefore, static pressure is greater at low altitudes and less at higher altitudes.

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  • 44. 

    (420) Density error can be corrected by adjusting the...

    • Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.

    • Barometric scale on the back of the indicator.

    • High-pressure scale on the front of the indicator.

    • High-pressure scale on the back of the indicator.

    Correct Answer
    A. Barometric scale on the front of the indicator.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the barometric scale on the front of the indicator. This is because the barometric scale is used to measure the atmospheric pressure, which can affect the density readings. By adjusting the barometric scale on the front of the indicator, the user can account for any changes in atmospheric pressure and correct the density error.

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  • 45. 

    (826) On the KC-135, the flight control set servomotors are connected to the aircraft control cables via the...

    • Trim actuator.

    • Jackscrew assembly.

    • Surface control assembly.

    • Drum and bracket assembly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Drum and bracket assembly.
    Explanation
    The flight control set servomotors on the KC-135 are connected to the aircraft control cables via the drum and bracket assembly. This assembly is responsible for transmitting the movement of the servomotors to the control cables, allowing the pilots to control the aircraft's flight surfaces. The drum and bracket assembly ensures smooth and precise movement of the control cables, enabling effective control of the aircraft during flight.

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  • 46. 

    (823) On the KC-135, the output of the angular accelerometer in the flight control set processor is used for damping what oscillations?

    • Aileron.

    • Elevator.

    • Dutch roll.

    • Trim stabilizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dutch roll.
    Explanation
    The output of the angular accelerometer in the flight control set processor on the KC-135 is used for damping Dutch roll oscillations. Dutch roll is an oscillatory motion of an aircraft where it rolls and yaws simultaneously. Damping refers to reducing or controlling these oscillations, and the angular accelerometer provides the necessary data to the flight control set processor to make the necessary adjustments for damping Dutch roll.

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  • 47. 

    (819) The C-5 yaw augmentation (Y/A) system provides yaw damping, turn coordination, Y/A manual rudder trim, and...

    • Divergence control.

    • Dutch roll damping.

    • Altitude hold.

    • Attitude hold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dutch roll damping.
    Explanation
    The C-5 yaw augmentation (Y/A) system provides various functions including yaw damping, turn coordination, Y/A manual rudder trim, and dutch roll damping. Dutch roll damping refers to the system's ability to reduce the oscillatory motion known as dutch roll, which is a combination of yawing and rolling movements in an aircraft. This damping action helps to stabilize the aircraft and improve its overall flight characteristics.

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  • 48. 

    (807) When the electric trim switches for the C-5 horizontal stabilizer are actuated together, electrical continuity is provided by...

    • Bipolar synchro transmitters.

    • Backup battery power.

    • Power and ground.

    • Dual power relays.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power and ground.
    Explanation
    When the electric trim switches for the C-5 horizontal stabilizer are actuated together, electrical continuity is provided by power and ground. This means that both the power source and the ground connection are necessary to establish a complete electrical circuit. The power source supplies the necessary electrical energy, while the ground connection provides a return path for the current to flow. Without both power and ground, the circuit would be incomplete and electrical continuity would not be maintained.

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  • 49. 

    (807) On the C-5 horizontal stabilizer pitch trim system, hydraulic motor torque is transferred to the nut and screw drives through a...

    • Step-down transformer.

    • Lever.

    • Gear train.

    • Torque synchro.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gear train.
    Explanation
    On the C-5 horizontal stabilizer pitch trim system, the hydraulic motor torque is transferred to the nut and screw drives through a gear train. A gear train is a system of gears that transmit power and motion from one part to another. In this case, the gear train allows the torque generated by the hydraulic motor to be transferred efficiently and effectively to the nut and screw drives, enabling the pitch trim system to adjust the horizontal stabilizer as needed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 22, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Kotadod
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