1c052 CDC Volume 5

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What type of pay was established under the Aviation Career Incentive Act (ACIA) of

    • A.

      Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).

    • B.

      Aviation career incentive pay (ACIP).

    • C.

      Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).

    • D.

      Basic pay.

    Correct Answer
    B. Aviation career incentive pay (ACIP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aviation career incentive pay (ACIP). The Aviation Career Incentive Act (ACIA) established this type of pay. This suggests that the ACIA was specifically designed to provide incentives for individuals pursuing a career in aviation. It implies that ACIP is a form of additional compensation given to aviation professionals to encourage them to continue their career in the field.

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  • 2. 

    To receive aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), a rated officer must be entitled to basic

    • A.

      And meet operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) requirements only

    • B.

      And hold an aeronautical rating only

    • C.

      Hold an aeronautical rating, and be qualified for aviation service

    • D.

      Hold an advanced aeronautical rating, and meet OFDA requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hold an aeronautical rating, and be qualified for aviation service
    Explanation
    To receive aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), a rated officer must hold an aeronautical rating, which means they must have the necessary qualifications and certifications to perform aviation duties. Additionally, they must be qualified for aviation service, which means they have met all the requirements and standards set by the aviation branch or organization they serve in. This ensures that the officer has the necessary skills and knowledge to safely and effectively carry out their aviation duties, making them eligible for ACIP.

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  • 3. 

    In a given month, the amount of flying time required for conditional pay depends on the member’s

    • A.

      Total amount of flying hours banked.

    • B.

      Hours and number of times flown.

    • C.

      Active flying status placement.

    • D.

      Placement or removal from active flying status.

    Correct Answer
    D. Placement or removal from active flying status.
    Explanation
    The amount of flying time required for conditional pay depends on the member's placement or removal from active flying status. This means that if a member is placed on active flying status, they will be required to fly a certain amount of time to receive conditional pay. On the other hand, if they are removed from active flying status, they may not be eligible for conditional pay at all. The total amount of flying hours banked, the number of times flown, and active flying status placement are not mentioned as factors that affect the amount of flying time required for conditional pay.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of incentive pay is given to flight surgeons that are in an active flying status?

    • A.

      Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).

    • B.

      Career enlisted flier incentive program (CEFIP).

    • C.

      Continuous aviation career incentive program (ACIP).

    • D.

      Conditional ACIP.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conditional ACIP.
    Explanation
    Flight surgeons in an active flying status are given Conditional ACIP as an incentive pay. This type of incentive pay is specifically designed for flight surgeons who are actively involved in flying duties.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)?

    • A.

      Aviation career incentive pay (ACIP).

    • B.

      Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).

    • C.

      Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).

    • D.

      Basic pay

    Correct Answer
    C. Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP). This pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA).

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  • 6. 

    Conditional career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP) is the incentive pay given to a

    • A.

      Career enlisted aviator (CEA) who fails to meet gate requirements

    • B.

      CEA who successfully meets gate requirements

    • C.

      Rated officer who fails to meet gate requirements

    • D.

      Rated officer who successfully meets gate requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Career enlisted aviator (CEA) who fails to meet gate requirements
    Explanation
    Conditional career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP) is the incentive pay given to a Career enlisted aviator (CEA) who fails to meet gate requirements. This means that if a CEA does not meet the required standards or qualifications for their career as an aviator, they may still receive a conditional incentive pay as a form of compensation. This is likely done to provide support and encouragement for enlisted aviators who may be struggling to meet the necessary criteria, with the hope of motivating them to improve and meet the requirements in the future.

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  • 7. 

    What type of incentive pay is given to non-career aviators, operational support members and parachutists?

    • A.

      Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).

    • B.

      Conditional aviation career incentive pay (ACIP).

    • C.

      Continuous career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).

    • D.

      Conditional CEFIP.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).
    Explanation
    Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) is given to non-career aviators, operational support members, and parachutists. This type of incentive pay is provided to individuals who perform duties that are considered hazardous or involve potential risks. It is a form of compensation to acknowledge and compensate for the additional dangers and challenges associated with their roles.

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  • 8. 

    Career aviators may also be entitled to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) when

    • A.

      Flying into a known or unknown combat zone.

    • B.

      Flying conditions are considered hazardous.

    • C.

      Performing duties as an operational support flier

    • D.

      Performing hazardous duties other than aerial flights.

    Correct Answer
    D. Performing hazardous duties other than aerial flights.
    Explanation
    Career aviators may be entitled to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) when they are performing hazardous duties other than aerial flights. This means that they can receive additional compensation for engaging in risky tasks that are not directly related to flying, such as handling dangerous materials or working in hazardous environments. This incentive pay is given to acknowledge the increased risk and potential dangers associated with these duties.

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  • 9. 

    Which publication contains the flying hour requirements for conditional pay?

    • A.

      Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation (DODFMR) 7000.14,Volume 7A, Military Pay Policy and Procedures—Active Duty and Reserve Pay.

    • B.

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 11–401, Aviation Management

    • C.

      AFI 11–410, Personnel Parachute Operations.

    • D.

      AFI 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation (DODFMR) 7000.14,Volume 7A, Military Pay Policy and Procedures—Active Duty and Reserve Pay.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation (DODFMR) 7000.14, Volume 7A, Military Pay Policy and Procedures—Active Duty and Reserve Pay. This publication is likely to contain the flying hour requirements for conditional pay as it specifically deals with military pay policies and procedures for both active duty and reserve personnel.

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  • 10. 

    How many flight hours are required for a member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month?

    • A.

      4.0

    • B.

      3.0

    • C.

      2.0

    • D.

      1.0

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.0
    Explanation
    A member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month would require 2.0 flight hours. This means that for each day the member was on flying status, they would accumulate 0.1333 flight hours (2.0 divided by 15).

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  • 11. 

    Which form is used to assist in tracking a member’s flight time for conditional pay?

    • A.

      AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record

    • B.

      AF IMT 1520, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet

    • C.

      AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet

    • D.

      AF IMT 1522, ARMS Additional Training Accomplishment Report.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF IMT 1520, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 1520, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet. This form is used to assist in tracking a member's flight time for conditional pay. It is a part of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and specifically designed for recording and calculating flight pay entitlements for individual members.

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  • 12. 

    Which flight time is computed by subtracting the current month’s requirement from the total hours flown for the month?

    • A.

      Insufficient time

    • B.

      Grace period

    • C.

      Excess time

    • D.

      Lost time

    Correct Answer
    C. Excess time
    Explanation
    Excess time is the flight time that is computed by subtracting the current month's requirement from the total hours flown for the month. This means that if the total hours flown exceed the required hours for the month, the excess time is calculated.

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  • 13. 

    Banked time is a combination of

    • A.

      Excess and insufficient time

    • B.

      Excess, insufficient, and lost time

    • C.

      Lost and insufficient time

    • D.

      Excess and lost time

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess and insufficient time
    Explanation
    Banked time refers to the accumulation of both excess and insufficient time. This means that it includes both the extra time that is available beyond what is needed, as well as the time that is lacking or inadequate for completing a task or meeting a deadline. By combining both aspects, banked time accounts for both the surplus and deficit of time, providing a comprehensive understanding of the overall time management situation.

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  • 14. 

    Excess flight time in the month of February may be banked up to and including the month of

    • A.

      April

    • B.

      May

    • C.

      June

    • D.

      July

    Correct Answer
    D. July
    Explanation
    Excess flight time in the month of February can be accumulated and used until the month of July. This means that any extra flight time that is not utilized in February can be carried forward and used in the following months up until July.

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  • 15. 

    Insufficient flight time may be applied up to

    • A.

      Two months forward.

    • B.

      Two months backward.

    • C.

      Five months forward.

    • D.

      Five months backward.

    Correct Answer
    C. Five months forward.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is five months forward. This means that the concept of "insufficient flight time" can be applied to flights that are scheduled up to five months in the future. In other words, if a flight is planned within the next five months and there is not enough time allocated for it, the concept of insufficient flight time can be considered.

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  • 16. 

    Regardless of the effective date of the aeronautical order, you must start a grace period the

    • A.

      First month the member has a flight requirement and meets the requirement.

    • B.

      Second month the member has a flight requirement and meets the requirement.

    • C.

      First month the member has a flight requirement but does not meet the requirement.

    • D.

      Second month the member has a flight requirement but does not meet the requirement.

    Correct Answer
    C. First month the member has a flight requirement but does not meet the requirement.
  • 17. 

    If the member fails a grace period, start a new grace period

    • A.

      Immediately following the failed grace period

    • B.

      As soon as the member performs flight activity.

    • C.

      Once the member meets flight requirement for one month.

    • D.

      Once the member meets flight requirements for two months.

    Correct Answer
    C. Once the member meets flight requirement for one month.
    Explanation
    If a member fails a grace period, they will start a new grace period once they meet the flight requirement for one month. This means that if the member fails to meet the flight requirement for a specific period, they will have another chance to fulfill the requirement and start a new grace period once they successfully meet it for one month.

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  • 18. 

    For which month(s) will a member receive incentive pay if the member did not fly for the first two months but flew less than 10.0 hours on the third month of a grace period?

    • A.

      All three months

    • B.

      The third month only

    • C.

      First and second months

    • D.

      Second and third months

    Correct Answer
    B. The third month only
    Explanation
    During the grace period, a member will receive incentive pay only if they flew less than 10.0 hours on the third month. This means that if the member did not fly for the first two months, they will not receive incentive pay for those months. However, if they flew less than 10.0 hours on the third month, they will receive incentive pay for that month. Therefore, the correct answer is "The third month only."

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  • 19. 

    When determining whether a member has met flight requirements, flying hours flown are first applied

    • A.

      To the current month; up to five months forward; then two months backward if in a grace period.

    • B.

      Up to two months backward if in a grace period; to the current month; then up to five months forward.

    • C.

      Up to five months forward; up to two months backward if in a grace period; then to the current month.

    • D.

      To the current month; up to two months backward if in a grace period; then up to five months forward.

    Correct Answer
    D. To the current month; up to two months backward if in a grace period; then up to five months forward.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that when determining whether a member has met flight requirements, flying hours flown are first applied to the current month. If the member is in a grace period, the flying hours are then applied up to two months backward. Finally, if the member is not in a grace period, the flying hours are applied up to five months forward. This order of application ensures that the most recent flying hours are given priority, followed by any missed hours in the past, and then any future hours that may be counted.

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  • 20. 

    What is the pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator (CEA) who was placed on active flying on 1 January 2009 and was placed in a duty not involving flying (DNIF) status on 13 April 2009?

    • A.

      13 April 2009

    • B.

      1 July 2009

    • C.

      1 January 2010

    • D.

      13 April 2010

    Correct Answer
    D. 13 April 2010
    Explanation
    The pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator (CEA) who was placed on active flying on 1 January 2009 and was placed in a duty not involving flying (DNIF) status on 13 April 2009 would be 13 April 2010. This is because the pay stop date is the date at which the individual's pay for flying duties is stopped, and in this case, it would be one year from the date they were placed on DNIF status.

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  • 21. 

    A career aviator receiving continuous aviation career incentive pay was suspended on 25 April. The member’s incentive pay was terminated on 24 April. On 30 June, the suspension was removed without disqualification. What is the effective date for restarting the member’s incentive pay?

    • A.

      24 April

    • B.

      25 April

    • C.

      1 June

    • D.

      30 June

    Correct Answer
    B. 25 April
    Explanation
    The effective date for restarting the member's incentive pay is 25 April because the member's incentive pay was terminated on 24 April and the suspension was removed on 30 June without disqualification. Therefore, the member's incentive pay would be restarted on the day following the termination of the suspension, which is 25 April.

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  • 22. 

    When does the three month grace period begin, for a member in conditional pay status, who was injured in a duty-related accident on 12 November if the member has met the flight requirement for that month?

    • A.

      1 November

    • B.

      12 November

    • C.

      13 November

    • D.

      1 December

    Correct Answer
    D. 1 December
    Explanation
    The three month grace period begins on 1 December for a member in conditional pay status who was injured in a duty-related accident on 12 November. This means that the member will have until 1 March to meet the flight requirement without any consequences or loss of pay.

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  • 23. 

    An Air Reserve Component (ARC) member is considered to be in an active duty pay status when performing which of the following duties?

    • A.

      Unit training assembly (UTA).

    • B.

      Full-time National Guard.

    • C.

      Readiness management period (RMP).

    • D.

      Additional flying training period (AFTP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Full-time National Guard.
    Explanation
    An Air Reserve Component (ARC) member is considered to be in an active duty pay status when performing Full-time National Guard duties. This means that they are engaged in full-time service as a member of the National Guard, which includes active duty training, annual training, or any other full-time duty authorized by the Secretary of Defense. This is different from Unit training assembly (UTA), Readiness management period (RMP), and Additional flying training period (AFTP), which are part-time duties and may not qualify for active duty pay status.

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  • 24. 

    What reserve status code (RSC) must an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member use in Block 38 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document when logging active duty time?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    An Air Reserve Component (ARC) member must use reserve status code (RSC) 1 in Block 38 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document when logging active duty time.

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  • 25. 

    What is the minimum monthly flight requirement for Air Reserve Component (ARC) members?

    • A.

      4.0 hours

    • B.

      3.0 hours

    • C.

      2.0 hours

    • D.

      1.0 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.0 hours
    Explanation
    The minimum monthly flight requirement for Air Reserve Component (ARC) members is 2.0 hours. This means that ARC members are required to fly for at least 2.0 hours each month to maintain their status in the reserve component. This requirement ensures that members are actively engaged in their duties and are maintaining their proficiency in flying.

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  • 26. 

    When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs active duty during the month, the member incurs a(an)

    • A.

      Prorated active duty requirement for the month

    • B.

      Increased inactive duty flight requirement for the month.

    • C.

      Automatic active duty flight requirement for the month.

    • D.

      Automatic inactive duty flight requirement for the month.

    Correct Answer
    C. Automatic active duty flight requirement for the month.
    Explanation
    When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs active duty during the month, they are automatically required to perform active duty flights for that month. This means that they must participate in flights and missions as part of their active duty responsibilities. This requirement is incurred as a result of their active duty service and is separate from any inactive duty flight requirements they may have.

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  • 27. 

    When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs both active and inactive duty in the same month, the flight time flown may be combined to satisfy the

    • A.

      Active duty requirement only.

    • B.

      Inactive duty requirement only.

    • C.

      Both active and inactive duty requirements.

    • D.

      Neither requirement.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both active and inactive duty requirements.
    Explanation
    When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs both active and inactive duty in the same month, the flight time flown can be combined to fulfill both the active duty requirement and the inactive duty requirement. This means that the member can count the flight time towards meeting the minimum requirements for both types of duty.

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  • 28. 

    Inactive duty (IAD) flight time accrued by an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member may be used to satisfy both active duty (AD) and IAD flight requirements for the current month. If there is not enough time to satisfy both requirements, then

    • A.

      The AD requirement must be satisfied first.

    • B.

      The IAD requirement must be satisfied first.

    • C.

      AD banked hours must be used to satisfy IAD requirements.

    • D.

      IAD banked hours must be used to satisfy AD requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. The AD requirement must be satisfied first.
    Explanation
    The explanation for the correct answer is that if an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member does not have enough flight time to satisfy both active duty (AD) and inactive duty (IAD) requirements for the current month, the AD requirement must be satisfied first. This means that the member must prioritize fulfilling their AD flight time before using any remaining time for IAD requirements. This ensures that the essential AD duties are met before considering the IAD obligations.

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  • 29. 

    Entitlement to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) is determined by the

    • A.

      Number and type of jumps performed.

    • B.

      Type and location of jumps performed.

    • C.

      Number of jumps performed and type of equipment used.

    • D.

      Location of jumps performed and type of equipment used.

    Correct Answer
    A. Number and type of jumps performed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "number and type of jumps performed." This means that the entitlement to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) is determined by both the number and type of jumps performed. In other words, the more jumps a person performs and the more hazardous those jumps are, the higher their entitlement to HDIP will be. The location of jumps performed and the type of equipment used are not mentioned in relation to determining the entitlement to HDIP.

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  • 30. 

    A parachutist was placed on an aeronautical order to perform high altitude low opening (HALO) jump duties effective 1 April. The member performed a static line jump and a HALO jump in May. What type of pay will the member receive for May?

    • A.

      Type 1 ONLY

    • B.

      Type 2 ONLY.

    • C.

      Type 1 and Type 2.

    • D.

      Types 1 and 2 proportionately

    Correct Answer
    B. Type 2 ONLY.
    Explanation
    The member will receive Type 2 pay only for May because they performed a HALO jump, which falls under Type 2 pay. They did not perform a static line jump in May, so they will not receive Type 1 pay. Therefore, the correct answer is Type 2 ONLY.

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  • 31. 

    Jumps in excess of the minimum monthly requirement cannot be used for hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)

    • A.

      Under no circumstances

    • B.

      Until three months has passed.

    • C.

      Unless the member is in Rule 3.

    • D.

      Unless the member is in Rule 4.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unless the member is in Rule 3.
  • 32. 

    A parachutist was placed on jump status, Rule 1, effective 1 August and performed a jump on 22 September. For what month(s) would the member receive incentive pay?

    • A.

      September.

    • B.

      August and September.

    • C.

      August, September, and October.

    • D.

      September, October, and November.

    Correct Answer
    C. August, September, and October.
    Explanation
    The parachutist would receive incentive pay for the months of August, September, and October because they were placed on jump status on 1 August and performed a jump on 22 September. According to the information given, the member would receive incentive pay for the month they were placed on jump status (August), the month they performed a jump (September), and the following month (October).

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  • 33. 

    How many jumps, in what time period, qualifies a parachutist for hazardous duty incentive pay for 12 consecutive months if a member is unable to perform due to military operations, no jump equipment or no aircraft?

    • A.

      Three jumps in a 6-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps

    • B.

      Four jumps in a 12-month period following a 6-month period of no jumps.

    • C.

      Four jumps in a 9-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps.

    • D.

      Six jumps in a 12-month period following a 6-month period of no jumps.

    Correct Answer
    C. Four jumps in a 9-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps.
  • 34. 

    What rule applies to a parachutist who is unable to perform a jump because of the command’s military operations or the absence of jump equipment or an aircraft?

    • A.

      Rule 2

    • B.

      Rule 3

    • C.

      Rule 4

    • D.

      Rule 5

    Correct Answer
    B. Rule 3
    Explanation
    Rule 3 applies to a parachutist who is unable to perform a jump due to military operations or the absence of jump equipment or an aircraft. This rule likely states that in such circumstances, the parachutist should not attempt the jump and should wait for the necessary conditions to be met before proceeding.

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  • 35. 

    What rule applies when a commander waives a parachutist’s jump requirements because the member is engaged in combat operations in a hostile fire area?

    • A.

      Rule 1

    • B.

      Rule 2

    • C.

      Rule 3

    • D.

      Rule 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Rule 4
    Explanation
    When a commander waives a parachutist's jump requirements because they are engaged in combat operations in a hostile fire area, it indicates that Rule 4 applies. The specific details of Rule 4 are not provided in the question, but it likely pertains to exceptions or allowances made for personnel involved in combat situations.

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  • 36. 

    Which form is used to track a member’s entitlement to static line and high altitude low opening (HALO) jump incentive pay?

    • A.

      AF IMT 1520, Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet

    • B.

      AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

    • C.

      AF Form 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Record.

    • D.

      AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet. This form is used to track a member's entitlement to static line and high altitude low opening (HALO) jump incentive pay. It is specifically designed for recording and calculating jump pay entitlements for individual personnel.

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  • 37. 

    What code is used to indicate the jump performed is applied to the current month?

    • A.

      Circumflex accents (^^).

    • B.

      Less-than signs (

    • C.

      Greater-than signs (>>).

    • D.

      Forward slashes (//).

    Correct Answer
    A. Circumflex accents (^^).
    Explanation
    Circumflex accents (^^) are used to indicate the jump performed is applied to the current month. This is because in some programming languages or systems, the circumflex accent is used as a symbol to represent the current month. The use of this symbol helps to differentiate the current month from other time periods or intervals.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following situations would automatically stop a member’s flight incentive pay?

    • A.

      A career enlisted aviator (CEA) transfers to a non-flying position

    • B.

      A CEA completes 20 years of aviation service.

    • C.

      An operational support member departs for a permanent change of station (PSC).

    • D.

      A rated officer completes 18 years of aviation service.

    Correct Answer
    C. An operational support member departs for a permanent change of station (PSC).
    Explanation
    When an operational support member departs for a permanent change of station (PSC), their flight incentive pay would automatically stop. This means that if a member who is receiving flight incentive pay is transferred to a different location for a permanent change of station, they would no longer be eligible for the flight incentive pay.

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  • 39. 

    If the military pay order (MPO) action is to stop a member’s pay, the pay termination date will always be

    • A.

      The same as the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO).

    • B.

      One day prior to the effective date of the AO.

    • C.

      One day after the effective date of the AO.

    • D.

      The last working day of the month for the current month.

    Correct Answer
    B. One day prior to the effective date of the AO.
    Explanation
    When the military pay order (MPO) action is to stop a member's pay, the pay termination date will always be one day prior to the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO). This means that the member's pay will cease the day before the AO goes into effect.

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  • 40. 

    After completing the audit, within what time frame must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office correct errors found on the entitlement verification report?

    • A.

      5 workdays

    • B.

      10 workdays

    • C.

      5 calendar days

    • D.

      10 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 workdays
    Explanation
    The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must correct errors found on the entitlement verification report within 10 workdays. This means that they have two weeks, excluding weekends and holidays, to rectify any mistakes identified during the audit.

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  • 41. 

    How many certified copies of the entitlement verification report must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office maintain?

    • A.

      Only the latest report

    • B.

      The last two reports

    • C.

      The last three reports

    • D.

      The last four reports

    Correct Answer
    D. The last four reports
    Explanation
    The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must maintain the last four reports of the entitlement verification. This ensures that they have access to the most recent information and can track any changes or updates that may have occurred. By keeping multiple copies, they can also compare the reports over time and identify any patterns or trends that may be relevant to their operations.

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  • 42. 

    A set of related information with a common purpose is known as a (an)

    • A.

      Item

    • B.

      Folder

    • C.

      Data point

    • D.

      Business area

    Correct Answer
    D. Business area
    Explanation
    A business area refers to a set of related information that serves a common purpose within a business or organization. It represents a specific domain or functional area within the larger organization, such as marketing, finance, or human resources. Business areas help to organize and categorize information, processes, and activities, allowing for better management and decision-making.

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  • 43. 

    A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is a (an)

    • A.

      Condition

    • B.

      Data point

    • C.

      Exception

    • D.

      Calculation

    Correct Answer
    A. Condition
    Explanation
    A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is referred to as a "condition". This implies that the filter is used to set specific criteria or rules that determine which values should be included or excluded from the returned results. It helps in narrowing down the data based on certain conditions or requirements.

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  • 44. 

    What type of display would be used to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns to show how one item relates to another?

    • A.

      Table

    • B.

      Crosstab

    • C.

      Page Detail Table

    • D.

      Page Detail Landscape

    Correct Answer
    B. Crosstab
    Explanation
    A crosstab, short for cross-tabulation, is a type of display that is used to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns. It is particularly useful for analyzing how one item relates to another by displaying the intersection of categories. This allows for easy comparison and identification of patterns or relationships between different variables. A crosstab is commonly used in statistical analysis and data visualization to summarize and present complex data in a clear and organized manner.

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  • 45. 

    What feature is used to change the size and color of the font on a worksheet?

    • A.

      Condition

    • B.

      Exception

    • C.

      Data Point

    • D.

      Calculation

    Correct Answer
    B. Exception
    Explanation
    The feature used to change the size and color of the font on a worksheet is "Exception". This feature allows users to customize the appearance of text by adjusting its size and color. It is commonly used to highlight important information or make it more visually appealing. By selecting the text and applying the "Exception" feature, users can easily modify the font size and color to suit their preferences or to differentiate specific data points within the worksheet.

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  • 46. 

    Which default option allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your “Most Recently Used List?”

    • A.

      Table tab

    • B.

      General tab

    • C.

      Formats tab

    • D.

      Query Governor tab

    Correct Answer
    B. General tab
    Explanation
    The General tab allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your "Most Recently Used List". This means that when you open the software or application, you can see a list of the most recently used query documents, and the number of documents displayed in this list can be adjusted in the General tab.

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  • 47. 

    Which print option lets you print a worksheet in either portrait or landscape?

    • A.

      Print what

    • B.

      Page order

    • C.

      Orientation

    • D.

      Scale factor

    Correct Answer
    C. Orientation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Orientation." This option allows you to choose whether you want to print the worksheet in portrait mode (vertical) or landscape mode (horizontal). This selection determines the direction in which the page will be printed on the paper.

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  • 48. 

    Why is it necessary to validate a query when using calculations?

    • A.

      There may be an error in the initial text stored in the system.

    • B.

      The data in the aviation resource management system (ARMS) may be incorrect.

    • C.

      The data elements requested might merge in the resulting query.

    • D.

      The information requested may not be displayed in the proper format.

    Correct Answer
    C. The data elements requested might merge in the resulting query.
    Explanation
    When using calculations, it is necessary to validate a query because the data elements requested might merge in the resulting query. This means that the query may combine different data elements in a way that was not intended or expected, leading to inaccurate or misleading results. By validating the query, potential merging errors can be identified and corrected, ensuring that the calculations are performed correctly and the desired information is obtained.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 04, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    1Chuck
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