1c052 CDC Volume 2

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

    • A.

      Certification.

    • B.

      Diploma.

    • C.

      Licence.

    • D.

      Rating.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rating.
    Explanation
    A rating in aviation refers to a professional accreditation that allows an individual to perform specific tasks or operate certain types of aircraft. This is similar to how a physician who is accredited to practice a trade has specific certifications or ratings in different medical specialties. Therefore, the correct answer is rating.

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  • 2. 

    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

    • A.

      Completion date of undergraduate flying training

    • B.

      Class start date of undergraduate flying training.

    • C.

      Date member arrived on first duty station.

    • D.

      Commissioning date in the USAF.

    Correct Answer
    D. Commissioning date in the USAF.
    Explanation
    The officer service date (OSD) is the date that is used to calculate an officer's length of service in the USAF. It is the date on which the officer was commissioned in the USAF. This date marks the beginning of their service in the Air Force and is therefore used as a reference point for determining their length of service. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

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  • 3. 

    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date

    • A.

      They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

    • B.

      They completed their post-graduate medical training.

    • C.

      They received an unrestricted license to practice.

    • D.

      Stated on their medical license.

    Correct Answer
    A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This means that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons once they have completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This course is likely a requirement for physicians to gain the necessary knowledge and skills in aerospace medicine before they can serve as flight surgeons.

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  • 4. 

    Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date

    • A.

      Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate

    • B.

      He or she graduated from medical school

    • C.

      Of the medical license.

    • D.

      Of the first flight.

    Correct Answer
    C. Of the medical license.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "of the medical license" because the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because the medical license indicates that the student has completed their medical training and is qualified to practice medicine. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, as it signifies the student's readiness to provide medical services in the aviation field.

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  • 5. 

    What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?

    • A.

      Basic aircrew.

    • B.

      Instructor

    • C.

      Evaluator.

    • D.

      Observer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Evaluator.
    Explanation
    The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance of other aircrew members. They have the expertise and experience to determine if the aircrew members are meeting the required standards and can provide valuable feedback for improvement.

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  • 6. 

    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

    • A.

      Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.

    • B.

      Has completed the airframe simulator.

    • C.

      Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

    • D.

      Has a current physical profile

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that before allowing a non-career aviator to fly, it is important to ensure that they have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This duty prefix indicates that the individual has the necessary qualifications and training to safely operate an aircraft. The other options mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, or having a current physical profile, are not mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

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  • 7. 

    Operational support fliers

    • A.

      Are fully qualified aircrew members

    • B.

      Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

    • C.

      Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.

    • D.

      Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally

    Correct Answer
    D. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in areas other than flying, but they are still qualified to fly when needed. They are not career aviators and are only on standby during emergencies. They also serve as an augmented crew to support regular operational missions.

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  • 8. 

    Operational support members are placed in flying status

    • A.

      On a monthly basis

    • B.

      For the duration of the assigned mission

    • C.

      Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.

    • D.

      Until the flying requirement no longer exists.

    Correct Answer
    A. On a monthly basis
    Explanation
    The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available and ready to fly each month. This suggests that their duties involve some form of flying or being involved in missions that require flying. The phrase "on a monthly basis" indicates that this is a recurring and regular occurrence, implying that the members are expected to fulfill their flying responsibilities every month.

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  • 9. 

    The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?

    • A.

      1 June.

    • B.

      15 June

    • C.

      1 July.

    • D.

      15 July.

    Correct Answer
    B. 15 June
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 June because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Therefore, the request must be submitted by 15 June.

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  • 10. 

    What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

    • A.

      IA.

    • B.

      IIA.

    • C.

      IIC

    • D.

      III

    Correct Answer
    D. III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is III because it is the highest class of medical examination required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This class of medical examination ensures that the individual meets all the necessary physical and mental health requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

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  • 11. 

    A flight physical is not required when a

    • A.

      Member is initially placed in aviation service

    • B.

      Member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.

    • C.

      Member is placed on medical waiver.

    • D.

      Member applies for requalification.

    Correct Answer
    C. Member is placed on medical waiver.
    Explanation
    When a member is placed on medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical standards due to a medical condition. In this case, a flight physical is not required because the member's medical condition has already been assessed and they have been deemed fit to continue their aviation service despite the waiver. The flight physical is only necessary for initial placement in aviation service or when the member's periodic flight physical becomes due to ensure that they meet the required medical standards.

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  • 12. 

    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every

    • A.

      6.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      24.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15.
    Explanation
    A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their ability to perform their duties safely. By conducting these assessments regularly, airlines can ensure the well-being of their crew members and maintain the highest safety standards in the aviation industry.

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  • 13. 

    The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

    • A.

      Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.

    • B.

      Document completion of physiological training.

    • C.

      Place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.

    • D.

      Document a categorical waiver.

    Correct Answer
    B. Document completion of physiological training.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1042 is a form used in the Air Force to document various medical information. It is not used to document completion of physiological training. This form is used for other purposes such as medically restricting a member from special operational duty, placing a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status, and documenting a categorical waiver.

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  • 14. 

    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within

    • A.

      One duty day

    • B.

      Three duty days.

    • C.

      Three calendar days.

    • D.

      Five calendar days.

    Correct Answer
    A. One duty day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one duty day. After a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This ensures that the necessary medical information is promptly communicated to the HARM office for appropriate action and decision-making regarding the member's flight status.

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  • 15. 

    How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

    • A.

      90

    • B.

      120

    • C.

      180

    • D.

      365

    Correct Answer
    C. 180
    Explanation
    A non-rated officer can remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for a maximum of 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they can be temporarily unable to fly due to medical reasons for up to 180 days before they would be disqualified from their aviation duties.

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  • 16. 

    When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the

    • A.

      AF IMT 1042 was received

    • B.

      AF IMT 1042 was prepared.

    • C.

      Member signed the AF IMT 1042.

    • D.

      Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.

    Correct Answer
    D. Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.
    Explanation
    When updating the flight physical in ARMS, the date to be used is the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical, confirming that the member is fit for flight duty. The date when the AF IMT 1042 was received or prepared, as well as the date when the member signed the form, are not relevant in determining when to update the flight physical in ARMS.

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  • 17. 

    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      C

    • C.

      D

    • D.

      F

    Correct Answer
    D. F
    Explanation
    To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

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  • 18. 

    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s

    • A.

      Availability code.

    • B.

      Physical status code

    • C.

      Aviation service gate.

    • D.

      Physiological status code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability code.
    Explanation
    The availability code is the most suitable way to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code specifically indicates the availability status of the member, allowing for easy identification of whether they are able to carry out their duties or not. The other options, such as physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code, are not directly related to determining availability and are therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?

    • A.

      11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B.

      11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C.

      11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D.

      11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    D. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
    Explanation
    In Air Force Instruction (AFI) 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of availability codes. This AFI likely provides guidelines and procedures for managing aviation resources, including the codes used to indicate availability status.

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  • 20. 

    A categorical flying waiver

    • A.

      Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.

    • B.

      Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

    • C.

      Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

    • D.

      Allows a member to fly all types of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.
    Explanation
    A categorical flying waiver is a type of waiver that limits or restricts a member with specific medical conditions from flying a certain type of aircraft. This means that even though the member may be allowed to fly other types of aircraft, they are not permitted to fly the specific type mentioned in the waiver. This restriction is put in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and others involved in aviation activities.

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  • 21. 

    In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

    • A.

      11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B.

      11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C.

      11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D.

      11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    D. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
    Explanation
    In the Air Force Instruction 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

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  • 22. 

    Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?

    • A.

      8

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    B. 12
    Explanation
    After undergoing centrifuge training, aircrew members are put on automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure that they have enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which can include dizziness and disorientation. During this period, they are not allowed to participate in any flying activities to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

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  • 23. 

    Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

    • A.

      AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.

    • B.

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • C.

      AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • D.

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
    Explanation
    The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record an individual's physiological training, including centrifuge training, which is necessary for aircrew qualification. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used for tracking and verification purposes. The AF IMT 1042 is a medical recommendation form for flying or special operational duty, the AF Form 8 is a certificate of aircrew qualification, and the AF Form 942 is a record of evaluation. None of these forms specifically document the completion of centrifuge training.

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  • 24. 

    Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

    • A.

      Member

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Flight surgeon

    • D.

      Aerospace physiologist

    Correct Answer
    D. Aerospace physiologist
    Explanation
    An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is trained and qualified to assess and evaluate the physiological effects of flight on aircrew members. They have expertise in areas such as altitude physiology, hypoxia, and G-forces. Therefore, they are the most suitable to certify the completion of centrifuge training, which involves exposing aircrew members to high G-forces in a controlled environment. The commander, flight surgeon, and member may have roles in the training process, but the aerospace physiologist is responsible for certifying the completion.

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  • 25. 

    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

    • A.

      High-altitude parachutists.

    • B.

      Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

    • C.

      Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.

    • D.

      Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.

    Correct Answer
    B. Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
    Explanation
    Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. This training is typically required for high-altitude parachutists, personnel on active flying status, and passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level. Altitude chamber training is meant to prepare individuals for the effects of high altitude, such as hypoxia, and to teach them how to respond in emergency situations that may occur at high altitudes. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not involved in activities that would require this specific training.

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  • 26. 

    Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This means that if a member is going to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo the altitude chamber refresher training.

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  • 27. 

    When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      When the member enters phase period

    • C.

      When approved by the unit commander

    • D.

      When approved by the aerospace physiologist.

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) should never be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's physical health assessment is expired, indicating that they have not met the necessary medical requirements for participating in such training. It is important to ensure that all members have up-to-date PHAs to ensure their safety and well-being during physiological training.

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  • 28. 

    After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      7

    Correct Answer
    C. 5
    Explanation
    After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

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  • 29. 

    To update a member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the

    • A.

      Flyer Availability window.

    • B.

      Career Aviation window.

    • C.

      Aircrew Data window.

    • D.

      Flyer window.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flyer Availability window.
    Explanation
    The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This window is likely designed specifically for managing and updating the availability and status of flyers, including their physiological information. The other options, such as the Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window, may have different purposes within the system and may not be intended for updating physiological information.

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  • 30. 

    After updating the member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is

    • A.

      Destroyed

    • B.

      Given to the member

    • C.

      Placed in a suspense file

    • D.

      Filed in the flight record folder

    Correct Answer
    D. Filed in the flight record folder
    Explanation
    After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used to document physiological information of the member, such as medical conditions or restrictions. By filing it in the flight record folder, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and can be referenced when needed for flight operations or medical evaluations.

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  • 31. 

    Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?

    • A.

      Command Pilot.

    • B.

      Senior Observer

    • C.

      Master Navigator

    • D.

      Master Flight Surgeon

    Correct Answer
    D. Master Flight Surgeon
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Master Flight Surgeon. The question asks about the position that does not have an aeronautical rating. Aeronautical ratings are typically given to positions that involve piloting or navigating aircraft. Command Pilot, Senior Observer, and Master Navigator are all positions that are directly related to aviation and would require an aeronautical rating. However, a Flight Surgeon is a medical professional who specializes in providing healthcare services to pilots and crew members, but they do not require an aeronautical rating as their role is primarily focused on medical expertise rather than piloting or navigation skills.

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  • 32. 

    A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of

    • A.

      Pilot only

    • B.

      Pilot and flight surgeon.

    • C.

      Pilot and combat systems officer.

    • D.

      Pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pilot and flight surgeon.
    Explanation
    A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon because their qualifications as a CSO do not automatically grant them the rating of combat systems officer. However, their medical background as a physician allows them to also hold the rating of flight surgeon.

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  • 33. 

    Advanced ratings are awarded based on

    • A.

      Years of rated service and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

    • B.

      Military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).

    • C.

      Years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

    • D.

      Years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.

    Correct Answer
    D. Years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA." This means that advanced ratings are awarded based on the number of years a person has been rated, as well as their military flying time or their Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA). This suggests that a combination of experience and time served is taken into account when awarding advanced ratings.

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  • 34. 

    The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer

    • A.

      Received a commission

    • B.

      Performed the first operational flight.

    • C.

      Reported for undergraduate flying training.

    • D.

      Received the basic United States Air Force rating.

    Correct Answer
    D. Received the basic United States Air Force rating.
    Explanation
    The years of rated service are calculated from the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This means that the officer's years of service are counted from the time they achieved the basic rating, which signifies their initial qualification and competency in the Air Force. This rating serves as a significant milestone in their career progression and is used as a starting point for calculating their total years of service.

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  • 35. 

    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

    • A.

      Examine a member’s eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver

    • B.

      Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.

    • C.

      Ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.

    • D.

      Determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.

    Correct Answer
    B. Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for reviewing the qualifications and experience of officers who are seeking to transfer from one branch of the military to another. This evaluation ensures that the officers have the necessary flying credentials to perform their duties in the new service. The ARB assesses the officer's training, flight hours, and overall competency to determine their suitability for the inter-service transfer.

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  • 36. 

    The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the

    • A.

      Officer arrived on station.

    • B.

      Officer is assigned to rated duties.

    • C.

      Officer completes his/her first flight.

    • D.

      Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) approval posted on the officer’s special orders

    Correct Answer
    B. Officer is assigned to rated duties.
    Explanation
    The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer must be assigned to specific duties that require the use of their aeronautical skills and knowledge. This assignment marks the official start of their role as a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options, such as the officer arriving on station or completing their first flight, are not necessarily indicative of the officer being assigned to rated duties.

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  • 37. 

    Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge

    • A.

      The date assigned to aircrew duties.

    • B.

      Upon graduation from undergraduate flying training (UFT).

    • C.

      After permanent aircrew assignment and completing 24 paid months of operational flying duty.

    • D.

      After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.

    Correct Answer
    D. After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
    Explanation
    Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must meet the necessary requirements and pass the necessary training in order to be eligible for the badge. The AF Form 8 serves as documentation of their qualification, indicating that they have successfully completed the necessary training and are qualified to serve as aircrew members.

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  • 38. 

    A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

    • A.

      350 hours logged as a flight nurse

    • B.

      750 hours logged as a flight nurse.

    • C.

      12 paid months of operational flying duty

    • D.

      24 paid months of operational flying duty.

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 paid months of operational flying duty
    Explanation
    To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must have completed the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and meet certain requirements related to flight hours and operational flying duty. The correct answer states that the member needs to have 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that the member must have served in an operational flying role for a total of 12 months, while being paid for their duty. This requirement ensures that the member has gained sufficient experience and expertise in their role as a flight nurse before being authorized to wear the badge.

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  • 39. 

    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

    • A.

      The member has participated in 10 combat missions.

    • B.

      The member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.

    • C.

      It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

    • D.

      The operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
    Explanation
    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that in order for a member to wear an aviation badge, they must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the badge as a permanent award. This indicates that the member has demonstrated the necessary skills and qualifications for aircrew duty, distinguishing them from operational support fliers who have not served in such a role.

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  • 40. 

    A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

    • A.

      Is disqualified under the humanitarian program.

    • B.

      Is disqualified due to fear of flying

    • C.

      Fails to maintain medical fitness

    • D.

      Declares conscientious objector.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is disqualified due to fear of flying
    Explanation
    When a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it may be recommended to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge. This is because the aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related activities. If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it suggests that they are unable or unwilling to meet the necessary requirements and may not be fit to wear the aviation badge.

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  • 41. 

    Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?

    • A.

      Wing commander.

    • B.

      HQ USAF/A3O-AT

    • C.

      MAJCOM commander.

    • D.

      Aeronautical Rating Board

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOM commander.
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This means that they have the authority to decide whether or not individuals are allowed to wear aviation badges. The Aeronautical Rating Board may have a role in determining qualifications for aviation badges, but the final decision lies with the MAJCOM commander. The Wing commander and HQ USAF/A3O-AT are not mentioned in relation to the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges.

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  • 42. 

    The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

    • A.

      Establish the aircraft’s crew ratio

    • B.

      Validate aircrew coded positions.

    • C.

      Quantify manpower requirements.

    • D.

      Budget for operational support flying duties.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quantify manpower requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "quantify manpower requirements." The manpower standard is a document used in the Air Force to determine the number of personnel needed for a particular task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower resources required to carry out various duties and responsibilities effectively. By quantifying the manpower requirements, the Air Force can allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the successful execution of missions and tasks.

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  • 43. 

    Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

    • A.

      The Man-Year Program.

    • B.

      The Aviation Career Incentive Act.

    • C.

      The Director of Manpower and Organization.

    • D.

      The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

    Correct Answer
    D. The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program
    Explanation
    The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program is the source of funding for manpower resources. This program is responsible for planning and budgeting the resources needed by the Department of Defense over a period of several years. It includes funding for personnel, equipment, and other resources necessary for the defense of the country.

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  • 44. 

    Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit’s mission?

    • A.

      Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.

    • B.

      Manpower Programming and Execution System.

    • C.

      Unit Manpower Document

    • D.

      Manpower standard.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit Manpower Document
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document specifically outlines the number and types of personnel needed to carry out the unit's tasks and responsibilities. It provides a comprehensive overview of the unit's manpower requirements, including information on the positions, skills, and qualifications needed for each role. By referring to the Unit Manpower Document, unit leaders can effectively plan and allocate resources to ensure that the necessary manpower is available to accomplish the mission.

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  • 45. 

    How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

    • A.

      They have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code.

    • B.

      They have an API code of “5,” “6,” or “8”.

    • C.

      They share the same position number

    • D.

      They have an API code of “B,” or “D”.

    Correct Answer
    C. They share the same position number
    Explanation
    If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. This means that multiple members are assigned to the same position or duty, which could be due to various reasons such as shortage of personnel or temporary arrangements. The position number serves as a unique identifier for a specific position, and when multiple members are assigned the same number, it suggests that they are sharing the same position and responsibilities.

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  • 46. 

    A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member’s flying

    • A.

      Incentive pay.

    • B.

      Position.

    • C.

      Activity

    • D.

      Status.

    Correct Answer
    C. Activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "activity". A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code that provides detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps in determining the type of activity the member is involved in, such as training, combat missions, or other specific flying tasks. It helps in tracking and calculating the member's incentive pay based on their flying activity.

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  • 47. 

    Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)?

    • A.

      11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B.

      11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C.

      11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    • D.

      11–401, Aviation Management

    Correct Answer
    D. 11–401, Aviation Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides information and guidance on aviation management, which includes the list of flying activity codes (FAC). It covers various aspects of aviation management such as flight operations, training, safety, and personnel management. The other AFIs listed do not specifically mention the list of flying activity codes.

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  • 48. 

    Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

    • A.

      Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.

    • B.

      Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.

    • C.

      FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.

    • D.

      FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
    Explanation
    The Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 was the first Congressional Act to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This Act provided incentives for aviation officers to continue their careers by offering financial compensation for their commitment to operational flying duty. The Act aimed to attract and retain skilled aviation personnel by recognizing their dedication and contributions to the military aviation field.

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  • 49. 

    Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the

    • A.

      12th and 18th year of aviation service.

    • B.

      5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.

    • C.

      10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.

    • D.

      10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.
  • 50. 

    Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)

    • A.

      A pilot with 18 years of aviation service.

    • B.

      A flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service.

    • C.

      An air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service.

    • D.

      A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service.

    Correct Answer
    D. A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service.
    Explanation
    A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This means that the CSO can earn additional pay for their aviation service if they accumulate enough flying duty. The other options, such as a pilot with 18 years of aviation service, a flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service, and an air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service, do not meet the criteria for accumulating OFDA credit towards ACIP entitlement.

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