1c052 CDC Volume 2

108 Questions | Total Attempts: 363

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
    • A. 

      Certification.

    • B. 

      Diploma.

    • C. 

      Licence.

    • D. 

      Rating.

  • 2. 
    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
    • A. 

      Completion date of undergraduate flying training

    • B. 

      Class start date of undergraduate flying training.

    • C. 

      Date member arrived on first duty station.

    • D. 

      Commissioning date in the USAF.

  • 3. 
    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
    • A. 

      They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

    • B. 

      They completed their post-graduate medical training.

    • C. 

      They received an unrestricted license to practice.

    • D. 

      Stated on their medical license.

  • 4. 
    Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date
    • A. 

      Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate

    • B. 

      He or she graduated from medical school

    • C. 

      Of the medical license.

    • D. 

      Of the first flight.

  • 5. 
    What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?
    • A. 

      Basic aircrew.

    • B. 

      Instructor

    • C. 

      Evaluator.

    • D. 

      Observer.

  • 6. 
    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
    • A. 

      Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.

    • B. 

      Has completed the airframe simulator.

    • C. 

      Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

    • D. 

      Has a current physical profile

  • 7. 
    Operational support fliers
    • A. 

      Are fully qualified aircrew members

    • B. 

      Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

    • C. 

      Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.

    • D. 

      Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally

  • 8. 
    Operational support members are placed in flying status
    • A. 

      On a monthly basis

    • B. 

      For the duration of the assigned mission

    • C. 

      Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.

    • D. 

      Until the flying requirement no longer exists.

  • 9. 
    The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?
    • A. 

      1 June.

    • B. 

      15 June

    • C. 

      1 July.

    • D. 

      15 July.

  • 10. 
    What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?
    • A. 

      IA.

    • B. 

      IIA.

    • C. 

      IIC

    • D. 

      III

  • 11. 
    A flight physical is not required when a
    • A. 

      Member is initially placed in aviation service

    • B. 

      Member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.

    • C. 

      Member is placed on medical waiver.

    • D. 

      Member applies for requalification.

  • 12. 
    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every
    • A. 

      6.

    • B. 

      12.

    • C. 

      15.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 13. 
    The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
    • A. 

      Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.

    • B. 

      Document completion of physiological training.

    • C. 

      Place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.

    • D. 

      Document a categorical waiver.

  • 14. 
    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
    • A. 

      One duty day

    • B. 

      Three duty days.

    • C. 

      Three calendar days.

    • D. 

      Five calendar days.

  • 15. 
    How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      120

    • C. 

      180

    • D. 

      365

  • 16. 
    When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the
    • A. 

      AF IMT 1042 was received

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1042 was prepared.

    • C. 

      Member signed the AF IMT 1042.

    • D. 

      Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.

  • 17. 
    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      D

    • D. 

      F

  • 18. 
    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s
    • A. 

      Availability code.

    • B. 

      Physical status code

    • C. 

      Aviation service gate.

    • D. 

      Physiological status code.

  • 19. 
    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
    • A. 

      11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B. 

      11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C. 

      11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D. 

      11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

  • 20. 
    A categorical flying waiver
    • A. 

      Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.

    • B. 

      Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

    • C. 

      Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

    • D. 

      Allows a member to fly all types of aircraft.

  • 21. 
    In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
    • A. 

      11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B. 

      11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • C. 

      11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • D. 

      11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

  • 22. 
    Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 23. 
    Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
    • A. 

      AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.

    • B. 

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • C. 

      AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • D. 

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

  • 24. 
    Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?
    • A. 

      Member

    • B. 

      Commander.

    • C. 

      Flight surgeon

    • D. 

      Aerospace physiologist

  • 25. 
    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
    • A. 

      High-altitude parachutists.

    • B. 

      Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

    • C. 

      Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.

    • D. 

      Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.

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