1C052 CDC Volume 2

1. When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the

AF IMT 1042 was received

AF IMT 1042 was prepared.

Member signed the AF IMT 1042.

Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.

When updating the flight physical in ARMS, the date to be used is the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical, confirming that the member is fit for flight duty. The date when the AF IMT 1042 was received or prepared, as well as the date when the member signed the form, are not relevant in determining when to update the flight physical in ARMS.

Explanation

When updating the flight physical in ARMS, the date to be used is the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical, confirming that the member is fit for flight duty. The date when the AF IMT 1042 was received or prepared, as well as the date when the member signed the form, are not relevant in determining when to update the flight physical in ARMS.

2. One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's

Availability code.

Physical status code

Aviation service gate.

Physiological status code.

The availability code is the most suitable way to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code specifically indicates the availability status of the member, allowing for easy identification of whether they are able to carry out their duties or not. The other options, such as physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code, are not directly related to determining availability and are therefore not the correct answer.

Explanation

The availability code is the most suitable way to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code specifically indicates the availability status of the member, allowing for easy identification of whether they are able to carry out their duties or not. The other options, such as physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code, are not directly related to determining availability and are therefore not the correct answer.

3. Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

High-altitude parachutists.

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.

Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. This training is typically required for high-altitude parachutists, personnel on active flying status, and passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level. Altitude chamber training is meant to prepare individuals for the effects of high altitude, such as hypoxia, and to teach them how to respond in emergency situations that may occur at high altitudes. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not involved in activities that would require this specific training.

Explanation

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. This training is typically required for high-altitude parachutists, personnel on active flying status, and passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level. Altitude chamber training is meant to prepare individuals for the effects of high altitude, such as hypoxia, and to teach them how to respond in emergency situations that may occur at high altitudes. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not involved in activities that would require this specific training.

4. When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training?

Never

When the member enters phase period

When approved by the unit commander

When approved by the aerospace physiologist.

A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) should never be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's physical health assessment is expired, indicating that they have not met the necessary medical requirements for participating in such training. It is important to ensure that all members have up-to-date PHAs to ensure their safety and well-being during physiological training.

Explanation

A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) should never be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's physical health assessment is expired, indicating that they have not met the necessary medical requirements for participating in such training. It is important to ensure that all members have up-to-date PHAs to ensure their safety and well-being during physiological training.

5. How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?

7

10

15

20

A member must be in an active flying status code for 15 days in a calendar month to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit. This means that they need to be actively engaged in flying duties for at least half of the month in order to receive credit for a full month of operational flying duty.

Explanation

A member must be in an active flying status code for 15 days in a calendar month to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit. This means that they need to be actively engaged in flying duties for at least half of the month in order to receive credit for a full month of operational flying duty.

6. Operational support fliers

Are fully qualified aircrew members

Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.

Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally

The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in areas other than flying, but they are still qualified to fly when needed. They are not career aviators and are only on standby during emergencies. They also serve as an augmented crew to support regular operational missions.

Explanation

The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in areas other than flying, but they are still qualified to fly when needed. They are not career aviators and are only on standby during emergencies. They also serve as an augmented crew to support regular operational missions.

7. A categorical flying waiver

Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.

Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

Allows a member to fly all types of aircraft.

A categorical flying waiver is a type of waiver that limits or restricts a member with specific medical conditions from flying a certain type of aircraft. This means that even though the member may be allowed to fly other types of aircraft, they are not permitted to fly the specific type mentioned in the waiver. This restriction is put in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and others involved in aviation activities.

Explanation

A categorical flying waiver is a type of waiver that limits or restricts a member with specific medical conditions from flying a certain type of aircraft. This means that even though the member may be allowed to fly other types of aircraft, they are not permitted to fly the specific type mentioned in the waiver. This restriction is put in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and others involved in aviation activities.

8. To update a member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the

Flyer Availability window.

Career Aviation window.

Aircrew Data window.

Flyer window.

The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This window is likely designed specifically for managing and updating the availability and status of flyers, including their physiological information. The other options, such as the Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window, may have different purposes within the system and may not be intended for updating physiological information.

Explanation

The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This window is likely designed specifically for managing and updating the availability and status of flyers, including their physiological information. The other options, such as the Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window, may have different purposes within the system and may not be intended for updating physiological information.

9. During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

Complete an AF Form 64, Charge Out Record

Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board.

Ensure all family members and friends have been notified

Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the AviationResource Management System (ARMS).

Before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board, the action that must be taken is to ensure that all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This is important for accurate record-keeping and to provide necessary information for the investigation.

Explanation

Before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board, the action that must be taken is to ensure that all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This is important for accurate record-keeping and to provide necessary information for the investigation.

10. What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?

Basic aircrew.

Instructor

Evaluator.

Observer.

The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance of other aircrew members. They have the expertise and experience to determine if the aircrew members are meeting the required standards and can provide valuable feedback for improvement.

Explanation

The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance of other aircrew members. They have the expertise and experience to determine if the aircrew members are meeting the required standards and can provide valuable feedback for improvement.

11. Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.

Has completed the airframe simulator.

Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

Has a current physical profile

The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that before allowing a non-career aviator to fly, it is important to ensure that they have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This duty prefix indicates that the individual has the necessary qualifications and training to safely operate an aircraft. The other options mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, or having a current physical profile, are not mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

Explanation

The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that before allowing a non-career aviator to fly, it is important to ensure that they have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This duty prefix indicates that the individual has the necessary qualifications and training to safely operate an aircraft. The other options mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, or having a current physical profile, are not mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

12. The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?

1 June.

15 June

1 July.

15 July.

The correct answer is 15 June because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Therefore, the request must be submitted by 15 June.

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 June because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Therefore, the request must be submitted by 15 June.

13. Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?

Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.

Manpower Programming and Execution System.

Unit Manpower Document

Manpower standard.

The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document specifically outlines the number and types of personnel needed to carry out the unit's tasks and responsibilities. It provides a comprehensive overview of the unit's manpower requirements, including information on the positions, skills, and qualifications needed for each role. By referring to the Unit Manpower Document, unit leaders can effectively plan and allocate resources to ensure that the necessary manpower is available to accomplish the mission.

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document specifically outlines the number and types of personnel needed to carry out the unit's tasks and responsibilities. It provides a comprehensive overview of the unit's manpower requirements, including information on the positions, skills, and qualifications needed for each role. By referring to the Unit Manpower Document, unit leaders can effectively plan and allocate resources to ensure that the necessary manpower is available to accomplish the mission.

14. Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

Fiscal year.

Calendar year

Member’s birth month

Month it was last completed

Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This means that each member needs to review their records and ensure that everything is up to date and accurate within the month they were born. This requirement helps to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is in order, and allows for any necessary updates or corrections to be made in a timely manner. By completing the records review by the end of their birth month, members can stay organized and maintain compliance with regulations.

Explanation

Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This means that each member needs to review their records and ensure that everything is up to date and accurate within the month they were born. This requirement helps to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is in order, and allows for any necessary updates or corrections to be made in a timely manner. By completing the records review by the end of their birth month, members can stay organized and maintain compliance with regulations.

15. You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided

The action is exactly the same for all members.

The action is the same for majority of the members.

All members have the same aviation service code only.

All members have the same aviation service code and effective date.

The correct answer is "the action is exactly the same for all members." This means that a single aeronautical order (AO) can be published if it has the exact same impact or requirement for all the members it affects. This ensures consistency and uniformity in the implementation of the order across all members. If the action varies or differs for any member, then separate AOs would need to be published to address their specific needs or requirements.

Explanation

The correct answer is "the action is exactly the same for all members." This means that a single aeronautical order (AO) can be published if it has the exact same impact or requirement for all the members it affects. This ensures consistency and uniformity in the implementation of the order across all members. If the action varies or differs for any member, then separate AOs would need to be published to address their specific needs or requirements.

16. Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

Completion date of undergraduate flying training

Class start date of undergraduate flying training.

Date member arrived on first duty station.

Commissioning date in the USAF.

The officer service date (OSD) is the date that is used to calculate an officer's length of service in the USAF. It is the date on which the officer was commissioned in the USAF. This date marks the beginning of their service in the Air Force and is therefore used as a reference point for determining their length of service. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

Explanation

The officer service date (OSD) is the date that is used to calculate an officer's length of service in the USAF. It is the date on which the officer was commissioned in the USAF. This date marks the beginning of their service in the Air Force and is therefore used as a reference point for determining their length of service. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

17. The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.

Document completion of physiological training.

Place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.

Document a categorical waiver.

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used in the Air Force to document various medical information. It is not used to document completion of physiological training. This form is used for other purposes such as medically restricting a member from special operational duty, placing a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status, and documenting a categorical waiver.

Explanation

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used in the Air Force to document various medical information. It is not used to document completion of physiological training. This form is used for other purposes such as medically restricting a member from special operational duty, placing a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status, and documenting a categorical waiver.

18. Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.

AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record an individual's physiological training, including centrifuge training, which is necessary for aircrew qualification. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used for tracking and verification purposes. The AF IMT 1042 is a medical recommendation form for flying or special operational duty, the AF Form 8 is a certificate of aircrew qualification, and the AF Form 942 is a record of evaluation. None of these forms specifically document the completion of centrifuge training.

Explanation

The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record an individual's physiological training, including centrifuge training, which is necessary for aircrew qualification. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used for tracking and verification purposes. The AF IMT 1042 is a medical recommendation form for flying or special operational duty, the AF Form 8 is a certificate of aircrew qualification, and the AF Form 942 is a record of evaluation. None of these forms specifically document the completion of centrifuge training.

19. Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

Member

Commander.

Flight surgeon

Aerospace physiologist

An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is trained and qualified to assess and evaluate the physiological effects of flight on aircrew members. They have expertise in areas such as altitude physiology, hypoxia, and G-forces. Therefore, they are the most suitable to certify the completion of centrifuge training, which involves exposing aircrew members to high G-forces in a controlled environment. The commander, flight surgeon, and member may have roles in the training process, but the aerospace physiologist is responsible for certifying the completion.

Explanation

An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is trained and qualified to assess and evaluate the physiological effects of flight on aircrew members. They have expertise in areas such as altitude physiology, hypoxia, and G-forces. Therefore, they are the most suitable to certify the completion of centrifuge training, which involves exposing aircrew members to high G-forces in a controlled environment. The commander, flight surgeon, and member may have roles in the training process, but the aerospace physiologist is responsible for certifying the completion.

20. Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

The member has participated in 10 combat missions.

The member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.

It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

The operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position.

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that in order for a member to wear an aviation badge, they must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the badge as a permanent award. This indicates that the member has demonstrated the necessary skills and qualifications for aircrew duty, distinguishing them from operational support fliers who have not served in such a role.

Explanation

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that in order for a member to wear an aviation badge, they must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the badge as a permanent award. This indicates that the member has demonstrated the necessary skills and qualifications for aircrew duty, distinguishing them from operational support fliers who have not served in such a role.

21. Operational support members are placed in flying status

On a monthly basis

For the duration of the assigned mission

Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.

Until the flying requirement no longer exists.

The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available and ready to fly each month. This suggests that their duties involve some form of flying or being involved in missions that require flying. The phrase "on a monthly basis" indicates that this is a recurring and regular occurrence, implying that the members are expected to fulfill their flying responsibilities every month.

Explanation

The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available and ready to fly each month. This suggests that their duties involve some form of flying or being involved in missions that require flying. The phrase "on a monthly basis" indicates that this is a recurring and regular occurrence, implying that the members are expected to fulfill their flying responsibilities every month.

22. A flight physical is not required when a

Member is initially placed in aviation service

Member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.

Member is placed on medical waiver.

Member applies for requalification.

When a member is placed on medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical standards due to a medical condition. In this case, a flight physical is not required because the member's medical condition has already been assessed and they have been deemed fit to continue their aviation service despite the waiver. The flight physical is only necessary for initial placement in aviation service or when the member's periodic flight physical becomes due to ensure that they meet the required medical standards.

Explanation

When a member is placed on medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical standards due to a medical condition. In this case, a flight physical is not required because the member's medical condition has already been assessed and they have been deemed fit to continue their aviation service despite the waiver. The flight physical is only necessary for initial placement in aviation service or when the member's periodic flight physical becomes due to ensure that they meet the required medical standards.

23. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?

11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

In Air Force Instruction (AFI) 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of availability codes. This AFI likely provides guidelines and procedures for managing aviation resources, including the codes used to indicate availability status.

Explanation

In Air Force Instruction (AFI) 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of availability codes. This AFI likely provides guidelines and procedures for managing aviation resources, including the codes used to indicate availability status.

24. Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?

8

12

24

48

After undergoing centrifuge training, aircrew members are put on automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure that they have enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which can include dizziness and disorientation. During this period, they are not allowed to participate in any flying activities to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

Explanation

After undergoing centrifuge training, aircrew members are put on automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure that they have enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which can include dizziness and disorientation. During this period, they are not allowed to participate in any flying activities to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

25. After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is

Destroyed

Given to the member

Placed in a suspense file

Filed in the flight record folder

After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used to document physiological information of the member, such as medical conditions or restrictions. By filing it in the flight record folder, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and can be referenced when needed for flight operations or medical evaluations.

Explanation

After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used to document physiological information of the member, such as medical conditions or restrictions. By filing it in the flight record folder, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and can be referenced when needed for flight operations or medical evaluations.

26. When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

Backup the current data available.

Send an emergency action message.

Wait until the next end-of-month transfer takes place

Notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office

When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, notifying the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office is the correct action to take. This is because the HARM office is responsible for managing aviation resources and would need to be informed about the missing file. They can then investigate the issue and take any necessary steps to ensure the data is backed up or transferred correctly.

Explanation

When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, notifying the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office is the correct action to take. This is because the HARM office is responsible for managing aviation resources and would need to be informed about the missing file. They can then investigate the issue and take any necessary steps to ensure the data is backed up or transferred correctly.

27. Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)?

Squadron aviation resource management (SARM).

Tenant aviation resource management (TARM).

Host aviation resource management (HARM).

Stan Eval.

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF). This office is typically located at the host base and handles the administrative tasks related to aviation resource management. They maintain and organize flight records, ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly filed and recorded. The squadron aviation resource management (SARM) and tenant aviation resource management (TARM) offices may also play a role in managing flight records, but the primary responsibility lies with the HARM office. Stan Eval refers to the Standardization and Evaluation office, which is responsible for evaluating and standardizing aviation operations, but not specifically for establishing flight record folders.

Explanation

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF). This office is typically located at the host base and handles the administrative tasks related to aviation resource management. They maintain and organize flight records, ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly filed and recorded. The squadron aviation resource management (SARM) and tenant aviation resource management (TARM) offices may also play a role in managing flight records, but the primary responsibility lies with the HARM office. Stan Eval refers to the Standardization and Evaluation office, which is responsible for evaluating and standardizing aviation operations, but not specifically for establishing flight record folders.

28. Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date

They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

They completed their post-graduate medical training.

They received an unrestricted license to practice.

Stated on their medical license.

The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This means that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons once they have completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This course is likely a requirement for physicians to gain the necessary knowledge and skills in aerospace medicine before they can serve as flight surgeons.

Explanation

The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This means that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons once they have completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This course is likely a requirement for physicians to gain the necessary knowledge and skills in aerospace medicine before they can serve as flight surgeons.

29. A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every

6.

12.

15.

24.

A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their ability to perform their duties safely. By conducting these assessments regularly, airlines can ensure the well-being of their crew members and maintain the highest safety standards in the aviation industry.

Explanation

A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their ability to perform their duties safely. By conducting these assessments regularly, airlines can ensure the well-being of their crew members and maintain the highest safety standards in the aviation industry.

30. The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

Establish the aircraft’s crew ratio

Validate aircrew coded positions.

Quantify manpower requirements.

Budget for operational support flying duties.

The correct answer is "quantify manpower requirements." The manpower standard is a document used in the Air Force to determine the number of personnel needed for a particular task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower resources required to carry out various duties and responsibilities effectively. By quantifying the manpower requirements, the Air Force can allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the successful execution of missions and tasks.

Explanation

The correct answer is "quantify manpower requirements." The manpower standard is a document used in the Air Force to determine the number of personnel needed for a particular task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower resources required to carry out various duties and responsibilities effectively. By quantifying the manpower requirements, the Air Force can allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the successful execution of missions and tasks.

31. A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying

Incentive pay.

Position.

Activity

Status.

The correct answer is "activity". A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code that provides detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps in determining the type of activity the member is involved in, such as training, combat missions, or other specific flying tasks. It helps in tracking and calculating the member's incentive pay based on their flying activity.

Explanation

The correct answer is "activity". A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code that provides detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps in determining the type of activity the member is involved in, such as training, combat missions, or other specific flying tasks. It helps in tracking and calculating the member's incentive pay based on their flying activity.

32. A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

Certification.

Diploma.

Licence.

Rating.

A rating in aviation refers to a professional accreditation that allows an individual to perform specific tasks or operate certain types of aircraft. This is similar to how a physician who is accredited to practice a trade has specific certifications or ratings in different medical specialties. Therefore, the correct answer is rating.

Explanation

A rating in aviation refers to a professional accreditation that allows an individual to perform specific tasks or operate certain types of aircraft. This is similar to how a physician who is accredited to practice a trade has specific certifications or ratings in different medical specialties. Therefore, the correct answer is rating.

33. What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?

A

C

D

F

To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

Explanation

To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

34. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

Examine a member’s eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver

Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.

Ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.

Determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.

The correct answer is evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for reviewing the qualifications and experience of officers who are seeking to transfer from one branch of the military to another. This evaluation ensures that the officers have the necessary flying credentials to perform their duties in the new service. The ARB assesses the officer's training, flight hours, and overall competency to determine their suitability for the inter-service transfer.

Explanation

The correct answer is evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for reviewing the qualifications and experience of officers who are seeking to transfer from one branch of the military to another. This evaluation ensures that the officers have the necessary flying credentials to perform their duties in the new service. The ARB assesses the officer's training, flight hours, and overall competency to determine their suitability for the inter-service transfer.

35. Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the

12th and 18th year of aviation service.

5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.

10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.

10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service.

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Explanation

not-available-via-ai

36. What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

IA.

IIA.

IIC

III

The correct answer is III because it is the highest class of medical examination required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This class of medical examination ensures that the individual meets all the necessary physical and mental health requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

Explanation

The correct answer is III because it is the highest class of medical examination required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This class of medical examination ensures that the individual meets all the necessary physical and mental health requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

37. When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within

One duty day

Three duty days.

Three calendar days.

Five calendar days.

The correct answer is one duty day. After a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This ensures that the necessary medical information is promptly communicated to the HARM office for appropriate action and decision-making regarding the member's flight status.

Explanation

The correct answer is one duty day. After a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This ensures that the necessary medical information is promptly communicated to the HARM office for appropriate action and decision-making regarding the member's flight status.

38. In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

In the Air Force Instruction 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

Explanation

In the Air Force Instruction 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

39. A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

Is disqualified under the humanitarian program.

Is disqualified due to fear of flying

Fails to maintain medical fitness

Declares conscientious objector.

When a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it may be recommended to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge. This is because the aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related activities. If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it suggests that they are unable or unwilling to meet the necessary requirements and may not be fit to wear the aviation badge.

Explanation

When a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it may be recommended to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge. This is because the aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related activities. If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it suggests that they are unable or unwilling to meet the necessary requirements and may not be fit to wear the aviation badge.

40. How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

They have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code.

They have an API code of “5,” “6,” or “8”.

They share the same position number

They have an API code of “B,” or “D”.

If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. This means that multiple members are assigned to the same position or duty, which could be due to various reasons such as shortage of personnel or temporary arrangements. The position number serves as a unique identifier for a specific position, and when multiple members are assigned the same number, it suggests that they are sharing the same position and responsibilities.

Explanation

If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. This means that multiple members are assigned to the same position or duty, which could be due to various reasons such as shortage of personnel or temporary arrangements. The position number serves as a unique identifier for a specific position, and when multiple members are assigned the same number, it suggests that they are sharing the same position and responsibilities.

41. Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.

Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.

FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.

FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act.

The Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 was the first Congressional Act to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This Act provided incentives for aviation officers to continue their careers by offering financial compensation for their commitment to operational flying duty. The Act aimed to attract and retain skilled aviation personnel by recognizing their dedication and contributions to the military aviation field.

Explanation

The Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 was the first Congressional Act to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This Act provided incentives for aviation officers to continue their careers by offering financial compensation for their commitment to operational flying duty. The Act aimed to attract and retain skilled aviation personnel by recognizing their dedication and contributions to the military aviation field.

42. Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

Given to the member

Maintained in an inactive file cabinet

Sent to the staging facility for disposition

Destroyed to protect the privacy of the individual

Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are given to the member. This means that the folders are returned to the individual who was disqualified. This could be done for various reasons, such as allowing the individual to have access to their own records or for legal purposes. It ensures that the member has their own documentation and can review or use it as needed.

Explanation

Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are given to the member. This means that the folders are returned to the individual who was disqualified. This could be done for various reasons, such as allowing the individual to have access to their own records or for legal purposes. It ensures that the member has their own documentation and can review or use it as needed.

43. Which document is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF)?

Operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver

Flying history report (FHR).

Military pay order (MPO).

Aeronautical order (AO).

The flying history report (FHR) is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF). This document provides a comprehensive record of an individual's flying history, including details such as flight hours, missions flown, and qualifications. By filing the FHR on the right side of the FRF, it is easily accessible and organized for reference and review. The other options, including the operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver, military pay order (MPO), and aeronautical order (AO), are not specifically related to the flight record folder and are therefore not filed on its right side.

Explanation

The flying history report (FHR) is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF). This document provides a comprehensive record of an individual's flying history, including details such as flight hours, missions flown, and qualifications. By filing the FHR on the right side of the FRF, it is easily accessible and organized for reference and review. The other options, including the operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver, military pay order (MPO), and aeronautical order (AO), are not specifically related to the flight record folder and are therefore not filed on its right side.

44. When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's

Aeronautical order (AO)

Individual Data Summary (IDS)

Flying history report (FHR)

Military pay order (MPO)

During a flight record folder (FRF) audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's Individual Data Summary (IDS). The IDS contains crucial information about the individual's flying history, including flight hours, qualifications, and training. By comparing the dates on both documents, auditors can ensure that the physiological training record is accurately reflecting the individual's flight activities as recorded in the IDS. This helps maintain accurate and up-to-date records for the individual's flying history.

Explanation

During a flight record folder (FRF) audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's Individual Data Summary (IDS). The IDS contains crucial information about the individual's flying history, including flight hours, qualifications, and training. By comparing the dates on both documents, auditors can ensure that the physiological training record is accurately reflecting the individual's flight activities as recorded in the IDS. This helps maintain accurate and up-to-date records for the individual's flying history.

45. When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by

Request date

Effective date

Published date

Termination date

When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), it is important to ensure that all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order based on their effective date. This means that the orders should be arranged in the order in which they become effective. This allows for easy reference and tracking of any changes or updates to the aeronautical information. Filing the AOs in this manner helps to maintain accuracy and consistency in the FRF, making it easier to review and analyze the flight records.

Explanation

When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), it is important to ensure that all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order based on their effective date. This means that the orders should be arranged in the order in which they become effective. This allows for easy reference and tracking of any changes or updates to the aeronautical information. Filing the AOs in this manner helps to maintain accuracy and consistency in the FRF, making it easier to review and analyze the flight records.

46. Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

J

K

L

S

The correct answer is K. When a member is not flying due to lack of support capability, the flying status code assigned is K.

Explanation

The correct answer is K. When a member is not flying due to lack of support capability, the flying status code assigned is K.

47. Which is the correct way of citing an Air Force instruction (AFI) as authority when publishing an aeronautical order (AO)?

AFI 11–401.

AFI 11–401, 7 Mar 09.

AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4.

AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

48. While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay

Continues until the member is disqualified

Continues until the member appears before a flying evaluation board (FEB).

Is terminated until the member’s status is resolved

Is terminated and paid back once the member is disqualified.

When a member is under suspension, their flying incentive pay is terminated until their status is resolved. This means that they will not receive any flying incentive pay during the suspension period. Once their status is resolved, the member may be eligible to receive flying incentive pay again, depending on the outcome of the resolution.

Explanation

When a member is under suspension, their flying incentive pay is terminated until their status is resolved. This means that they will not receive any flying incentive pay during the suspension period. Once their status is resolved, the member may be eligible to receive flying incentive pay again, depending on the outcome of the resolution.

49. Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?

Command Pilot.

Senior Observer

Master Navigator

Master Flight Surgeon

The correct answer is Master Flight Surgeon. The question asks about the position that does not have an aeronautical rating. Aeronautical ratings are typically given to positions that involve piloting or navigating aircraft. Command Pilot, Senior Observer, and Master Navigator are all positions that are directly related to aviation and would require an aeronautical rating. However, a Flight Surgeon is a medical professional who specializes in providing healthcare services to pilots and crew members, but they do not require an aeronautical rating as their role is primarily focused on medical expertise rather than piloting or navigation skills.

Explanation

The correct answer is Master Flight Surgeon. The question asks about the position that does not have an aeronautical rating. Aeronautical ratings are typically given to positions that involve piloting or navigating aircraft. Command Pilot, Senior Observer, and Master Navigator are all positions that are directly related to aviation and would require an aeronautical rating. However, a Flight Surgeon is a medical professional who specializes in providing healthcare services to pilots and crew members, but they do not require an aeronautical rating as their role is primarily focused on medical expertise rather than piloting or navigation skills.

50. A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of

Pilot only

Pilot and flight surgeon.

Pilot and combat systems officer.

Pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon.

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon because their qualifications as a CSO do not automatically grant them the rating of combat systems officer. However, their medical background as a physician allows them to also hold the rating of flight surgeon.

Explanation

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon because their qualifications as a CSO do not automatically grant them the rating of combat systems officer. However, their medical background as a physician allows them to also hold the rating of flight surgeon.

51. Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members

Returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02

Returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

Who are suspended from aviation service before 1 Aug 02.

Who are suspended from aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

The correct answer is "returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02." This is because the aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members who are returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02. This adjustment is not required for members who are returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02 or for those who are suspended from aviation service before or on 1 Aug 02.

Explanation

The correct answer is "returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02." This is because the aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members who are returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02. This adjustment is not required for members who are returning to aviation service before 1 Aug 02 or for those who are suspended from aviation service before or on 1 Aug 02.

52. Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date

Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate

He or she graduated from medical school

Of the medical license.

Of the first flight.

The correct answer is "of the medical license" because the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because the medical license indicates that the student has completed their medical training and is qualified to practice medicine. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, as it signifies the student's readiness to provide medical services in the aviation field.

Explanation

The correct answer is "of the medical license" because the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because the medical license indicates that the student has completed their medical training and is qualified to practice medicine. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, as it signifies the student's readiness to provide medical services in the aviation field.

53. The fist character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the

Entitlement status code (ESC).

Aircrew position indicator (API).

Flying activity code (FAC).

Flying status code (FSC).

The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the entitlement status code (ESC). This code indicates the level of entitlement or eligibility of an individual for certain aviation services. It helps in determining the privileges and benefits that can be granted to the individual based on their entitlement status.

Explanation

The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the entitlement status code (ESC). This code indicates the level of entitlement or eligibility of an individual for certain aviation services. It helps in determining the privileges and benefits that can be granted to the individual based on their entitlement status.

54. You must confirm verbal orders in writing by

Publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days

Publishing the corresponding AO within 5 duty days.

Preparing a memo for record (MFR) within 3 calendar days.

Preparing a MFR within 5 calendar days.

The correct answer is publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days. This means that when receiving verbal orders, it is necessary to document and publish the corresponding aeronautical order within three duty days. This ensures that the orders are properly recorded and communicated to the relevant parties in a timely manner.

Explanation

The correct answer is publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days. This means that when receiving verbal orders, it is necessary to document and publish the corresponding aeronautical order within three duty days. This ensures that the orders are properly recorded and communicated to the relevant parties in a timely manner.

55. You do not publish an aeronautical order (AO) when

Changing a member’s Aviation Service Code (ASC).

Awarding an advanced aeronautical rating.

Suspending a member from aviation service.

An aeronautical order (AO) is not published when awarding an advanced aeronautical rating. Aeronautical orders are typically used to document changes or actions related to a member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) or their status in aviation service, such as changing the ASC or suspending a member from aviation service. However, when it comes to awarding an advanced aeronautical rating, there is no need to publish an AO.

Explanation

An aeronautical order (AO) is not published when awarding an advanced aeronautical rating. Aeronautical orders are typically used to document changes or actions related to a member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) or their status in aviation service, such as changing the ASC or suspending a member from aviation service. However, when it comes to awarding an advanced aeronautical rating, there is no need to publish an AO.

56. When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's

Next aviation service gate.

Advanced rating date.

Promotion date

Separation date

When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's next aviation service gate. This means that the termination date will be set to align with the officer's next opportunity to advance or progress in their aviation service career. It ensures that the officer's ASC change takes effect at the appropriate time in their career progression.

Explanation

When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's next aviation service gate. This means that the termination date will be set to align with the officer's next opportunity to advance or progress in their aviation service career. It ensures that the officer's ASC change takes effect at the appropriate time in their career progression.

57. What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a flight record folder (FRF) to a member?

Registered.

First Class

Certified.

Priority.

First Class is the correct answer because it is the most common and cost-effective option for mailing documents. It provides reliable and timely delivery, making it suitable for sending a flight record folder (FRF) to a member. Registered mail is typically used for valuable or sensitive items, while Certified mail provides proof of mailing and delivery. Priority mail is faster but more expensive, and it is often used for urgent or time-sensitive shipments.

Explanation

First Class is the correct answer because it is the most common and cost-effective option for mailing documents. It provides reliable and timely delivery, making it suitable for sending a flight record folder (FRF) to a member. Registered mail is typically used for valuable or sensitive items, while Certified mail provides proof of mailing and delivery. Priority mail is faster but more expensive, and it is often used for urgent or time-sensitive shipments.

58. What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?

60

90

120

180

A member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) for a maximum of 180 days without needing MAJCOM (Major Command) approval.

Explanation

A member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) for a maximum of 180 days without needing MAJCOM (Major Command) approval.

59. A flying evaluation board (FEB) may not recommend

Disciplinary actions.

Removal of an aviation badge

Requalification for aviation service

Disqualification from aviation service

A flying evaluation board (FEB) is responsible for assessing the performance and conduct of aviation personnel. While they have the authority to recommend various actions such as removal of an aviation badge, requalification for aviation service, or disqualification from aviation service, they may not recommend disciplinary actions. This implies that the FEB's role is primarily focused on evaluating and making recommendations related to the individual's qualifications and abilities for aviation service, rather than addressing disciplinary issues.

Explanation

A flying evaluation board (FEB) is responsible for assessing the performance and conduct of aviation personnel. While they have the authority to recommend various actions such as removal of an aviation badge, requalification for aviation service, or disqualification from aviation service, they may not recommend disciplinary actions. This implies that the FEB's role is primarily focused on evaluating and making recommendations related to the individual's qualifications and abilities for aviation service, rather than addressing disciplinary issues.

60. Advanced ratings are awarded based on

Years of rated service and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

Military flying time and Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA).

Years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation.

Years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA.

The correct answer is "years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA." This means that advanced ratings are awarded based on the number of years a person has been rated, as well as their military flying time or their Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA). This suggests that a combination of experience and time served is taken into account when awarding advanced ratings.

Explanation

The correct answer is "years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA." This means that advanced ratings are awarded based on the number of years a person has been rated, as well as their military flying time or their Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA). This suggests that a combination of experience and time served is taken into account when awarding advanced ratings.

61. Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to

Emphasize important information.

Provide explanation

Add extra authority

Clear ambiguity

Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to add extra authority. Remarks are typically used to emphasize important information, provide explanations, or clear ambiguity. Adding extra authority to an AO would require using other means such as including specific regulations, procedures, or references within the order itself.

Explanation

Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to add extra authority. Remarks are typically used to emphasize important information, provide explanations, or clear ambiguity. Adding extra authority to an AO would require using other means such as including specific regulations, procedures, or references within the order itself.

62. The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the

Officer arrived on station.

Officer is assigned to rated duties.

Officer completes his/her first flight.

Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) approval posted on the officer’s special orders

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer must be assigned to specific duties that require the use of their aeronautical skills and knowledge. This assignment marks the official start of their role as a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options, such as the officer arriving on station or completing their first flight, are not necessarily indicative of the officer being assigned to rated duties.

Explanation

The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer must be assigned to specific duties that require the use of their aeronautical skills and knowledge. This assignment marks the official start of their role as a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options, such as the officer arriving on station or completing their first flight, are not necessarily indicative of the officer being assigned to rated duties.

63. How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

90

120

180

365

A non-rated officer can remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for a maximum of 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they can be temporarily unable to fly due to medical reasons for up to 180 days before they would be disqualified from their aviation duties.

Explanation

A non-rated officer can remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for a maximum of 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they can be temporarily unable to fly due to medical reasons for up to 180 days before they would be disqualified from their aviation duties.

64. Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?

3

4

6

9

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This means that if a member is going to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo the altitude chamber refresher training.

Explanation

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This means that if a member is going to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo the altitude chamber refresher training.

65. The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer

Received a commission

Performed the first operational flight.

Reported for undergraduate flying training.

Received the basic United States Air Force rating.

The years of rated service are calculated from the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This means that the officer's years of service are counted from the time they achieved the basic rating, which signifies their initial qualification and competency in the Air Force. This rating serves as a significant milestone in their career progression and is used as a starting point for calculating their total years of service.

Explanation

The years of rated service are calculated from the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This means that the officer's years of service are counted from the time they achieved the basic rating, which signifies their initial qualification and competency in the Air Force. This rating serves as a significant milestone in their career progression and is used as a starting point for calculating their total years of service.

66. A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

350 hours logged as a flight nurse

750 hours logged as a flight nurse.

12 paid months of operational flying duty

24 paid months of operational flying duty.

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must have completed the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and meet certain requirements related to flight hours and operational flying duty. The correct answer states that the member needs to have 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that the member must have served in an operational flying role for a total of 12 months, while being paid for their duty. This requirement ensures that the member has gained sufficient experience and expertise in their role as a flight nurse before being authorized to wear the badge.

Explanation

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must have completed the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and meet certain requirements related to flight hours and operational flying duty. The correct answer states that the member needs to have 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that the member must have served in an operational flying role for a total of 12 months, while being paid for their duty. This requirement ensures that the member has gained sufficient experience and expertise in their role as a flight nurse before being authorized to wear the badge.

67. Members who are in inactive status are

Required to complete an annual records review.

Not required to complete an annual records review.

Required to complete a records review every 5 years

Required to complete a records review every 15 months

Members who are in inactive status are not required to complete an annual records review. This means that they do not need to go through the process of reviewing their records on a yearly basis.

Explanation

Members who are in inactive status are not required to complete an annual records review. This means that they do not need to go through the process of reviewing their records on a yearly basis.

68. A member's entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she

Fails to meet operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) gate requirements

Fails to perform an operational flight for the month.

Is disqualified.

Is suspended

When a member fails to perform an operational flight for the month, their entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed. This means that their status remains the same and they do not face any consequences or changes in their entitlement. This suggests that the failure to perform an operational flight does not have a direct impact on the member's entitlement status code.

Explanation

When a member fails to perform an operational flight for the month, their entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed. This means that their status remains the same and they do not face any consequences or changes in their entitlement. This suggests that the failure to perform an operational flight does not have a direct impact on the member's entitlement status code.

69. Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the host aviation resource management (HARM) office of a pending assignment?

One duty day

Three calendar days

At least five duty days

At least five calendar days

A member must notify the host aviation resource management (HARM) office of a pending assignment at least five duty days prior to departure. This means that the member needs to inform the HARM office five working days before they are scheduled to leave. This allows the office enough time to process the assignment and make any necessary arrangements. It is important for the member to adhere to this requirement to ensure a smooth and organized assignment process.

Explanation

A member must notify the host aviation resource management (HARM) office of a pending assignment at least five duty days prior to departure. This means that the member needs to inform the HARM office five working days before they are scheduled to leave. This allows the office enough time to process the assignment and make any necessary arrangements. It is important for the member to adhere to this requirement to ensure a smooth and organized assignment process.

70. Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

The Man-Year Program.

The Aviation Career Incentive Act.

The Director of Manpower and Organization.

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program is the source of funding for manpower resources. This program is responsible for planning and budgeting the resources needed by the Department of Defense over a period of several years. It includes funding for personnel, equipment, and other resources necessary for the defense of the country.

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program is the source of funding for manpower resources. This program is responsible for planning and budgeting the resources needed by the Department of Defense over a period of several years. It includes funding for personnel, equipment, and other resources necessary for the defense of the country.

71. Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)

A pilot with 18 years of aviation service.

A flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service.

An air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service.

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service.

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This means that the CSO can earn additional pay for their aviation service if they accumulate enough flying duty. The other options, such as a pilot with 18 years of aviation service, a flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service, and an air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service, do not meet the criteria for accumulating OFDA credit towards ACIP entitlement.

Explanation

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This means that the CSO can earn additional pay for their aviation service if they accumulate enough flying duty. The other options, such as a pilot with 18 years of aviation service, a flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service, and an air battle manager (ABM) with more than 18 years of aviation service, do not meet the criteria for accumulating OFDA credit towards ACIP entitlement.

72. You cannot publish an amendment aeronautical order (AO) to correct the

Social Security number (SSN).

Termination date

Effective date.

Grade.

An amendment aeronautical order (AO) cannot be published to correct the effective date. This means that once the effective date of an AO is set, it cannot be modified or corrected through an amendment. The effective date is a fixed date that determines when the order comes into effect and any changes to it would require a new AO to be published.

Explanation

An amendment aeronautical order (AO) cannot be published to correct the effective date. This means that once the effective date of an AO is set, it cannot be modified or corrected through an amendment. The effective date is a fixed date that determines when the order comes into effect and any changes to it would require a new AO to be published.

73. After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office?

1

3

5

7

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

Explanation

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

74. What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09?

16 Mar 09.

1 Jul 09.

12 Jul 09.

1 Sep 09.

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09 but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09 would be 1 Jul 09. This is because the member did not fly again until 12 Sep 09, which is after the 1 Jul 09 date. Therefore, the effective date for assigning the flying status code would be 1 Jul 09.

Explanation

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09 but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09 would be 1 Jul 09. This is because the member did not fly again until 12 Sep 09, which is after the 1 Jul 09 date. Therefore, the effective date for assigning the flying status code would be 1 Jul 09.

75. Once the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed,

Complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resourcemanagement (HARM) office.

Print the member’s ARMS products and give them to the member.

Normalize the member’s record and print all products.

Transfer the member’s record to “FGWD”.

After the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed, the correct action to take is to complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office. This ensures that the member's record is transferred to the appropriate office and allows for the proper management of their aviation resources.

Explanation

After the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed, the correct action to take is to complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office. This ensures that the member's record is transferred to the appropriate office and allows for the proper management of their aviation resources.

76. Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member

Professes fear of flying.

Is offered Article 15 punishment

Is under investigation for drug abuse

Is being processed for personnel reliability program (PRP) decertification

When a member is offered Article 15 punishment, the commander has the discretion to take suspension action. This means that the commander can choose to suspend any actions or consequences related to the Article 15 punishment, depending on their judgment and assessment of the situation. The commander may consider factors such as the severity of the offense, the member's previous record, and any extenuating circumstances before deciding whether or not to suspend the punishment.

Explanation

When a member is offered Article 15 punishment, the commander has the discretion to take suspension action. This means that the commander can choose to suspend any actions or consequences related to the Article 15 punishment, depending on their judgment and assessment of the situation. The commander may consider factors such as the severity of the offense, the member's previous record, and any extenuating circumstances before deciding whether or not to suspend the punishment.

77. If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by

Notifying the MAJCOM/SG.

Submitting a formal application

Submitting a letter to HQ USAF/A3O-AT

Obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon’s office.

If a member is medically disqualified for less than one year, they can obtain medical certification for requalification by obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office. This means that they need to go to the flight surgeon's office and get certified by them in order to be requalified. This is the correct answer because it is the most direct and practical way for the member to obtain the necessary certification for requalification.

Explanation

If a member is medically disqualified for less than one year, they can obtain medical certification for requalification by obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office. This means that they need to go to the flight surgeon's office and get certified by them in order to be requalified. This is the correct answer because it is the most direct and practical way for the member to obtain the necessary certification for requalification.

78. Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?

Wing commander.

HQ USAF/A3O-AT

MAJCOM commander.

Aeronautical Rating Board

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This means that they have the authority to decide whether or not individuals are allowed to wear aviation badges. The Aeronautical Rating Board may have a role in determining qualifications for aviation badges, but the final decision lies with the MAJCOM commander. The Wing commander and HQ USAF/A3O-AT are not mentioned in relation to the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges.

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This means that they have the authority to decide whether or not individuals are allowed to wear aviation badges. The Aeronautical Rating Board may have a role in determining qualifications for aviation badges, but the final decision lies with the MAJCOM commander. The Wing commander and HQ USAF/A3O-AT are not mentioned in relation to the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges.

79. You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as

For Your Eyes Only

For Official Use Only

Privileged information

Classified information

The term "privileged information" refers to sensitive data that is restricted to a select group of individuals who have the necessary clearance or authority to access it. In the context of an aircraft mishap, it implies that only a specific group of people, such as investigators, authorized personnel, or relevant authorities, are allowed to access and handle the information related to the incident. This ensures that the details of the mishap are kept confidential and protected from unauthorized disclosure, maintaining the integrity of the investigation and preventing any potential harm or misuse of the information.

Explanation

The term "privileged information" refers to sensitive data that is restricted to a select group of individuals who have the necessary clearance or authority to access it. In the context of an aircraft mishap, it implies that only a specific group of people, such as investigators, authorized personnel, or relevant authorities, are allowed to access and handle the information related to the incident. This ensures that the details of the mishap are kept confidential and protected from unauthorized disclosure, maintaining the integrity of the investigation and preventing any potential harm or misuse of the information.

80. When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore

Send it to the Military Personnel Flight

Remove it from the flight record folder (FRF) only.

Remove it from the FRF and AO master record set

Permanently file it in the FRF to show a complete AO history

When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document. Therefore, it should be removed from both the flight record folder (FRF) and the AO master record set. This ensures that the revoked AO is no longer considered part of the official records and avoids any confusion or potential misuse of the information contained in the order.

Explanation

When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document. Therefore, it should be removed from both the flight record folder (FRF) and the AO master record set. This ensures that the revoked AO is no longer considered part of the official records and avoids any confusion or potential misuse of the information contained in the order.

81. For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member's outprocessing products?

6

12

15

24

You should maintain a copy of the member's outprocessing products for 24 months. This ensures that you have a record of the member's outprocessing and can refer back to it if needed. It is important to keep these records for an extended period of time to comply with regulations and to have a complete record of the member's departure from the organization.

Explanation

You should maintain a copy of the member's outprocessing products for 24 months. This ensures that you have a record of the member's outprocessing and can refer back to it if needed. It is important to keep these records for an extended period of time to comply with regulations and to have a complete record of the member's departure from the organization.

82. The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing

The Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) Record Transfer AcknowledgementLetter.

The certification section of the individual data summary (IDS).

The outprocessing logbook.

A memorandum for record.

The correct answer is the outprocessing logbook. This is because the outprocessing logbook is typically used to document and track the departure of members from a unit or organization. It serves as a record of the member's final actions and ensures that all necessary paperwork and processes have been completed. By acknowledging receipt of the flight record package in the outprocessing logbook, the member confirms that they have received and reviewed their flight records before departing.

Explanation

The correct answer is the outprocessing logbook. This is because the outprocessing logbook is typically used to document and track the departure of members from a unit or organization. It serves as a record of the member's final actions and ensures that all necessary paperwork and processes have been completed. By acknowledging receipt of the flight record package in the outprocessing logbook, the member confirms that they have received and reviewed their flight records before departing.

83. If you must normalize and make changes to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining host aviation resource management (HARM) office, you must advise the gaining HARM office to

Inprocess the record until the updated record is received.

Delete the record before you resend the updated record

Outprocess the record and forward to “FGWD”.

Make the necessary changes.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

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84. What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter?

Commander’s name.

Commander’s name and organization

Organization, office symbol, and date of the letter

Commander’s name, organization, and date of the letter

In the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter, the organization, office symbol, and date of the letter must be included. This information is necessary to clearly identify the source and authority of the AO. Including the commander's name alone or the commander's name and organization may not provide sufficient information to accurately identify the source of the AO.

Explanation

In the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter, the organization, office symbol, and date of the letter must be included. This information is necessary to clearly identify the source and authority of the AO. Including the commander's name alone or the commander's name and organization may not provide sufficient information to accurately identify the source of the AO.

85. Non-permanent disqualification reasons include

Fear of flying

Conscientious objector.

A flying evaluation board (FEB) action.

Failure to maintain professional standards.

The correct answer is "Conscientious objector." This refers to a person who refuses to participate in military service or bear arms due to moral or religious beliefs. In the context of the given options, the other reasons listed, such as fear of flying, a flying evaluation board action, and failure to maintain professional standards, may lead to temporary disqualification but not necessarily permanent disqualification. However, being a conscientious objector can result in non-permanent disqualification as it involves a principled objection to military service.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Conscientious objector." This refers to a person who refuses to participate in military service or bear arms due to moral or religious beliefs. In the context of the given options, the other reasons listed, such as fear of flying, a flying evaluation board action, and failure to maintain professional standards, may lead to temporary disqualification but not necessarily permanent disqualification. However, being a conscientious objector can result in non-permanent disqualification as it involves a principled objection to military service.

86. Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)?

11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

11–401, Aviation Management

The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides information and guidance on aviation management, which includes the list of flying activity codes (FAC). It covers various aspects of aviation management such as flight operations, training, safety, and personnel management. The other AFIs listed do not specifically mention the list of flying activity codes.

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides information and guidance on aviation management, which includes the list of flying activity codes (FAC). It covers various aspects of aviation management such as flight operations, training, safety, and personnel management. The other AFIs listed do not specifically mention the list of flying activity codes.

87. For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit if the member flew on 14 May, but did not fly again until 18 Nov?

May, Jun, Jul.

Jun, Jul, Aug, and Sep.

May, Jun, Jul, and Aug.

May, Jun, Jul, Aug, Sep, and Oct.

The member who flew on 14 May is authorized to receive OFDA credit for the months of May, June, July, and August. This is because OFDA credit is given for the month in which the member flew, as well as the following three months. Since the member did not fly again until 18 November, they are not eligible for OFDA credit in the months of September, October, and November.

Explanation

The member who flew on 14 May is authorized to receive OFDA credit for the months of May, June, July, and August. This is because OFDA credit is given for the month in which the member flew, as well as the following three months. Since the member did not fly again until 18 November, they are not eligible for OFDA credit in the months of September, October, and November.

88. What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) "S" to a member who was initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09?

16 Mar 09.

1 Jul 09.

12 Jul 09

1 Sep 09.

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who was initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09 would be 16 Mar 09. This is because the effective date is the day after the initial assignment to flying duty, regardless of when the member actually starts flying. In this case, the member was initially assigned on 15 Mar 09, so the effective date would be the following day, 16 Mar 09.

Explanation

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who was initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09 would be 16 Mar 09. This is because the effective date is the day after the initial assignment to flying duty, regardless of when the member actually starts flying. In this case, the member was initially assigned on 15 Mar 09, so the effective date would be the following day, 16 Mar 09.

89. A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09. What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.

No action necessary

Resume the member’s operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit.

Change the member’s flying status code (FSC) from “S” to “A”.

Change the member’s flying status code (FSC) from “A” to “S”.

On 20 Mar 09, the host aviation resource management (HARM) office must change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" (assigned) to "S" (suspended). This is because the member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 but did not fly until 17 Apr 09. According to the information given, the member's operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit has not been resumed, indicating that the member's flying status should be changed to "S" to reflect the suspension of their flying duty.

Explanation

On 20 Mar 09, the host aviation resource management (HARM) office must change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" (assigned) to "S" (suspended). This is because the member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 but did not fly until 17 Apr 09. According to the information given, the member's operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit has not been resumed, indicating that the member's flying status should be changed to "S" to reflect the suspension of their flying duty.

90. The aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated

Above the heading of the first AO of the current year.

Below the heading of the first AO of the current year.

In the lower left-hand corner of the first AO of the current year.

In the lower right-hand corner of the first AO of the current year.

The aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated above the heading of the first AO of the current year. This means that the AO number should be written or indicated in a position that is higher or superior to the heading of the first AO of the current year. This helps in clearly identifying and referencing the previous AO number when looking at the current year's AO.

Explanation

The aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated above the heading of the first AO of the current year. This means that the AO number should be written or indicated in a position that is higher or superior to the heading of the first AO of the current year. This helps in clearly identifying and referencing the previous AO number when looking at the current year's AO.

91. Supporting documents used in publishing aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink

In the lower left-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.

In the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains.

In the upper left-hand corner with the AO request date to which it pertains.

In the upper right-hand corner with the AO request date to which it pertains.

The supporting documents used in publishing an aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains. This is because annotating the AO number in the lower right-hand corner allows for easy identification and reference to the specific AO that the supporting documents are related to. Placing the AO number in the lower right-hand corner also ensures that it does not interfere with any other important information or annotations on the document.

Explanation

The supporting documents used in publishing an aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains. This is because annotating the AO number in the lower right-hand corner allows for easy identification and reference to the specific AO that the supporting documents are related to. Placing the AO number in the lower right-hand corner also ensures that it does not interfere with any other important information or annotations on the document.

92. When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member's aeronautical order (AO) must not exceed

2 years

3 years

4 years

5 years

When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, it is important to set a limit on the effective period of the member's aeronautical order (AO). This is to ensure that the AO does not extend for an indefinite period of time. The correct answer is 3 years, which means that the AO can be in effect for a maximum of 3 years in such cases. This allows for a reasonable timeframe for the member's aeronautical duties and responsibilities while also accounting for the uncertainty of their DOS.

Explanation

When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, it is important to set a limit on the effective period of the member's aeronautical order (AO). This is to ensure that the AO does not extend for an indefinite period of time. The correct answer is 3 years, which means that the AO can be in effect for a maximum of 3 years in such cases. This allows for a reasonable timeframe for the member's aeronautical duties and responsibilities while also accounting for the uncertainty of their DOS.

93. Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to

Determine if an aircrew member should be disqualified from aviation service

Identify individuals who are currently assigned Aviation Service Code (ASC) “06”.

Track individuals who are projected inbound into the Aviation Resource Management System(ARMS).

Determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) “S” recently performed anoperational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight.

Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) “S” recently performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight. This means that Part 9 is specifically designed to track and monitor the flying activities of aircrew members who are currently in flying status and determine if their recent flights can be credited towards their operational flying duty requirements. It helps in ensuring that aircrew members are fulfilling their flying duties and maintaining their qualifications.

Explanation

Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) “S” recently performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight. This means that Part 9 is specifically designed to track and monitor the flying activities of aircrew members who are currently in flying status and determine if their recent flights can be credited towards their operational flying duty requirements. It helps in ensuring that aircrew members are fulfilling their flying duties and maintaining their qualifications.

94. What date is not used when terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)?

Separation.

Flying tour completion

Change to inactive status

Aviation service milestone.

When terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA), the date that is not used is the aviation service milestone. This means that the termination of the AO is not based on the completion of a certain number of years or milestones in the aviator's aviation service. The other options, such as separation, flying tour completion, and change to inactive status, may be used as criteria for terminating the AO.

Explanation

When terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA), the date that is not used is the aviation service milestone. This means that the termination of the AO is not based on the completion of a certain number of years or milestones in the aviator's aviation service. The other options, such as separation, flying tour completion, and change to inactive status, may be used as criteria for terminating the AO.

95. Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) report must be audited after each ARMS- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) interface?

Consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) Report Audit List.

Aviation Service Suspense List

Permanent duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report.

Aviation Management Suspense List.

After each ARMS-MilPDS interface, the Permanent Duty Station (PDS) Interface Summary Report needs to be audited. This report provides a summary of the interface between the two systems and specifically focuses on the duty stations of aviation personnel. It ensures that the information regarding the permanent duty stations is accurate and up to date. By auditing this report, any discrepancies or errors in the duty station data can be identified and corrected, ensuring the overall integrity of the aviation resource management system.

Explanation

After each ARMS-MilPDS interface, the Permanent Duty Station (PDS) Interface Summary Report needs to be audited. This report provides a summary of the interface between the two systems and specifically focuses on the duty stations of aviation personnel. It ensures that the information regarding the permanent duty stations is accurate and up to date. By auditing this report, any discrepancies or errors in the duty station data can be identified and corrected, ensuring the overall integrity of the aviation resource management system.

96. What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB)?

Lack of judgment

Failure to meet standards

Failure to complete a flight preventative health assessment (PHA).

Lack of aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT).

The lack of aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT) is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB). FEBs are typically convened to assess and address issues such as lack of judgment, failure to meet standards, and failure to complete a flight preventative health assessment (PHA). However, the lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT may be addressed through additional training and support, rather than convening an FEB.

Explanation

The lack of aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT) is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB). FEBs are typically convened to assess and address issues such as lack of judgment, failure to meet standards, and failure to complete a flight preventative health assessment (PHA). However, the lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT may be addressed through additional training and support, rather than convening an FEB.

97. Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge

The date assigned to aircrew duties.

Upon graduation from undergraduate flying training (UFT).

After permanent aircrew assignment and completing 24 paid months of operational flying duty.

After completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of AircrewQualification.

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must meet the necessary requirements and pass the necessary training in order to be eligible for the badge. The AF Form 8 serves as documentation of their qualification, indicating that they have successfully completed the necessary training and are qualified to serve as aircrew members.

Explanation

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must meet the necessary requirements and pass the necessary training in order to be eligible for the badge. The AF Form 8 serves as documentation of their qualification, indicating that they have successfully completed the necessary training and are qualified to serve as aircrew members.

98. After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health assessment (PHA), the member has how many days to accomplish a flight PHA before facing disqualification?

30 days from the date of suspension.

45 days from the date of suspension

60 days from the date the flight PHA expires.

90 days from the date the flight PHA expires

After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health assessment (PHA), they have 60 days from the date the flight PHA expires to accomplish it before facing disqualification. This means that they have a grace period of 60 days after the expiration of their previous PHA to complete the assessment and avoid being disqualified.

Explanation

After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health assessment (PHA), they have 60 days from the date the flight PHA expires to accomplish it before facing disqualification. This means that they have a grace period of 60 days after the expiration of their previous PHA to complete the assessment and avoid being disqualified.

99. Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight?

0

4

6

8

The correct answer is 8. In aviation management, the suspense list (AMSL) is used to track aircrew members who have not performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight for three months. This means that aircrew members who have not flown in a qualifying capacity for three months will be displayed in this part of the AMSL.

Explanation

The correct answer is 8. In aviation management, the suspense list (AMSL) is used to track aircrew members who have not performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight for three months. This means that aircrew members who have not flown in a qualifying capacity for three months will be displayed in this part of the AMSL.

100. When amending an aeronautical order (AO), you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin

The order number and effective date of the amendment AO.

The order number and request date of the amendment AO.

The order number of the amendment AO only.

The request date of the amendment AO only.

When amending an aeronautical order (AO), it is necessary to locate the original AO in the master record set. In order to properly document the amendment AO, the order number and request date of the amendment AO must be recorded in ink in the lower left-hand margin. This ensures that the amendment is accurately associated with the original order and provides important information about the request date of the amendment.

Explanation

When amending an aeronautical order (AO), it is necessary to locate the original AO in the master record set. In order to properly document the amendment AO, the order number and request date of the amendment AO must be recorded in ink in the lower left-hand margin. This ensures that the amendment is accurately associated with the original order and provides important information about the request date of the amendment.

101. Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status?

1

2

4

5

Option 2 is the correct answer because it is the part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) that lists all members who are in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status. The other options (1, 4, and 5) are not relevant to listing members in DNIF status.

Explanation

Option 2 is the correct answer because it is the part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) that lists all members who are in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status. The other options (1, 4, and 5) are not relevant to listing members in DNIF status.

102. The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to

Non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members

All aircrew members

Rated officers.

CEAs.

The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members. This means that these enlisted members who are not pursuing a career in aviation must be given a notice period of 120 days before they can be involuntarily terminated from the aviation service. This policy does not apply to all aircrew members or rated officers, but specifically to non-career enlisted aviators.

Explanation

The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service applies to non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members. This means that these enlisted members who are not pursuing a career in aviation must be given a notice period of 120 days before they can be involuntarily terminated from the aviation service. This policy does not apply to all aircrew members or rated officers, but specifically to non-career enlisted aviators.

103. In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing aeronautical orders (AO)?

11–401, Aviation Management

11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

11–421, Aviation Resource Management

11–422 Mission Design Series (MDS)-Specific.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

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104. A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when

Appearing before a flying evaluation board (FEB)

Certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF

Approved by HQ USAF/A3O-AT

Certified by the local flight surgeon

The correct answer is "certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF." This means that a rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness can be requalified for aviation service when they are certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF. This certification ensures that the officer meets the necessary medical fitness requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

Explanation

The correct answer is "certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF." This means that a rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness can be requalified for aviation service when they are certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF. This certification ensures that the officer meets the necessary medical fitness requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

105. A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) changing the member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) from "1X" to "1A?"

27 Sep 08

15 Jan 09

17 Jan 09

20 Jan 09

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) changing the member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) from "1X" to "1A" is 17 Jan 09. This is because the member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09, left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09, and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. Therefore, the change in ASC would have occurred on the day after leaving the TDY location, which is 17 Jan 09.

Explanation

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) changing the member's Aviation Service Code (ASC) from "1X" to "1A" is 17 Jan 09. This is because the member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09, left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09, and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. Therefore, the change in ASC would have occurred on the day after leaving the TDY location, which is 17 Jan 09.

106. No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

15 duty days

10 duty days

10 calendar days

15 calendar days

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) no later than 10 calendar days after receipt of a member's record.

Explanation

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) no later than 10 calendar days after receipt of a member's record.

107. What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to "X" if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification training (IQT) on 26 May, completes IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?

25 May

26 May

15 Aug

17 Aug

The effective date would be 25 May because that is the date when the pilot graduates from undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT). This is the event that triggers the change in the pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to "X".

Explanation

The effective date would be 25 May because that is the date when the pilot graduates from undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT). This is the event that triggers the change in the pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to "X".

108. On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member's eligibility for non-career aviator flying duties. The member was assigned to an aircrew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on 13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training on 15 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D?"

12 Oct 08

13 Oct 08

5 Nov 08

15 Jan 09

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D" is 5 Nov 08 because that is the date when the member started formal flying training. This is indicated in the information given, where it states that the member started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08 and completed training on 15 Jan 09.

Explanation

The effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D" is 5 Nov 08 because that is the date when the member started formal flying training. This is indicated in the information given, where it states that the member started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08 and completed training on 15 Jan 09.

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