1c052 CDC Volume 2
- 1.A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
- A.
Certification.
- B.
Diploma.
- C.
Licence.
- D.
Rating.
- 2.Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
- A.
Completion date of undergraduate flying training
- B.
Class start date of undergraduate flying training.
- C.
Date member arrived on first duty station.
- D.
Commissioning date in the USAF.
- 3.Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
- A.
They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
- B.
They completed their post-graduate medical training.
- C.
They received an unrestricted license to practice.
- D.
Stated on their medical license.
- 4.Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date
- A.
Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate
- B.
He or she graduated from medical school
- C.
Of the medical license.
- D.
Of the first flight.
- 5.What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?
- A.
Basic aircrew.
- B.
Instructor
- C.
Evaluator.
- D.
Observer.
- 6.Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
- A.
Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.
- B.
Has completed the airframe simulator.
- C.
Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.
- D.
Has a current physical profile
- 7.Operational support fliers
- A.
Are fully qualified aircrew members
- B.
Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations
- C.
Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.
- D.
Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally
- 8.Operational support members are placed in flying status
- A.
On a monthly basis
- B.
For the duration of the assigned mission
- C.
Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.
- D.
Until the flying requirement no longer exists.
- 9.The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?
- A.
1 June.
- B.
15 June
- C.
1 July.
- D.
15 July.
- 10.What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?
- A.
IA.
- B.
IIA.
- C.
IIC
- D.
III
- 11.A flight physical is not required when a
- A.
Member is initially placed in aviation service
- B.
Member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.
- C.
Member is placed on medical waiver.
- D.
Member applies for requalification.
- 12.A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every
- A.
6.
- B.
12.
- C.
15.
- D.
24.
- 13.The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
- A.
Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.
- B.
Document completion of physiological training.
- C.
Place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.
- D.
Document a categorical waiver.
- 14.When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
- A.
One duty day
- B.
Three duty days.
- C.
Three calendar days.
- D.
Five calendar days.
- 15.How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
- A.
90
- B.
120
- C.
180
- D.
365
- 16.When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the
- A.
AF IMT 1042 was received
- B.
AF IMT 1042 was prepared.
- C.
Member signed the AF IMT 1042.
- D.
Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.
- 17.What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
D
- D.
F
- 18.One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s
- A.
Availability code.
- B.
Physical status code
- C.
Aviation service gate.
- D.
Physiological status code.
- 19.Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
- A.
11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- B.
11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
- C.
11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
- D.
11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
- 20.A categorical flying waiver
- A.
Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.
- B.
Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.
- C.
Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment
- D.
Allows a member to fly all types of aircraft.
- 21.In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
- A.
11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- B.
11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.
- C.
11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.
- D.
11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
- 22.Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
- A.
8
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
48
- 23.Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
- A.
AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.
- B.
AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification
- C.
AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
- D.
AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
- 24.Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?
- A.
Member
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Flight surgeon
- D.
Aerospace physiologist
- 25.Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
- A.
High-altitude parachutists.
- B.
Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
- C.
Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.
- D.
Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.
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