1c052 CDC Volume 2

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  • 1/108 Questions

    When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date the

    • AF IMT 1042 was received
    • AF IMT 1042 was prepared.
    • Member signed the AF IMT 1042.
    • Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.
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About This Quiz

The 1C052 CDC Volume 2 quiz assesses knowledge crucial for aviation professionals in the USAF. It covers topics such as professional ratings, service dates, and qualifications necessary for flight surgeons and aviators, aligning with USAF standards.

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member’s

    • Availability code.

    • Physical status code

    • Aviation service gate.

    • Physiological status code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability code.
    Explanation
    The availability code is the most suitable way to determine if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. This code specifically indicates the availability status of the member, allowing for easy identification of whether they are able to carry out their duties or not. The other options, such as physical status code, aviation service gate, and physiological status code, are not directly related to determining availability and are therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

    • High-altitude parachutists.

    • Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.

    • Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.

    • Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights.
    Explanation
    Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. This training is typically required for high-altitude parachutists, personnel on active flying status, and passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level. Altitude chamber training is meant to prepare individuals for the effects of high altitude, such as hypoxia, and to teach them how to respond in emergency situations that may occur at high altitudes. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not involved in activities that would require this specific training.

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  • 4. 

    When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (pHA) to attend any physiological training?

    • Never

    • When the member enters phase period

    • When approved by the unit commander

    • When approved by the aerospace physiologist.

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) should never be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's physical health assessment is expired, indicating that they have not met the necessary medical requirements for participating in such training. It is important to ensure that all members have up-to-date PHAs to ensure their safety and well-being during physiological training.

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  • 5. 

    How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    A member must be in an active flying status code for 15 days in a calendar month to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit. This means that they need to be actively engaged in flying duties for at least half of the month in order to receive credit for a full month of operational flying duty.

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  • 6. 

    Operational support fliers

    • Are fully qualified aircrew members

    • Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

    • Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions.

    • Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally

    Correct Answer
    A. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operational support fliers have expertise in areas other than flying, but they are still qualified to fly when needed. They are not career aviators and are only on standby during emergencies. They also serve as an augmented crew to support regular operational missions.

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  • 7. 

    A categorical flying waiver

    • Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.

    • Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure.

    • Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

    • Allows a member to fly all types of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.
    Explanation
    A categorical flying waiver is a type of waiver that limits or restricts a member with specific medical conditions from flying a certain type of aircraft. This means that even though the member may be allowed to fly other types of aircraft, they are not permitted to fly the specific type mentioned in the waiver. This restriction is put in place to ensure the safety and well-being of the member and others involved in aviation activities.

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  • 8. 

    To update a member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the

    • Flyer Availability window.

    • Career Aviation window.

    • Aircrew Data window.

    • Flyer window.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flyer Availability window.
    Explanation
    The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This window is likely designed specifically for managing and updating the availability and status of flyers, including their physiological information. The other options, such as the Career Aviation window, Aircrew Data window, and Flyer window, may have different purposes within the system and may not be intended for updating physiological information.

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  • 9. 

    During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

    • Complete an AF Form 64, Charge Out Record

    • Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board.

    • Ensure all family members and friends have been notified

    • Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS).
    Explanation
    Before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board, the action that must be taken is to ensure that all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This is important for accurate record-keeping and to provide necessary information for the investigation.

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  • 10. 

    What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?

    • Basic aircrew.

    • Instructor

    • Evaluator.

    • Observer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluator.
    Explanation
    The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix is responsible for assessing and evaluating the performance of other aircrew members. They have the expertise and experience to determine if the aircrew members are meeting the required standards and can provide valuable feedback for improvement.

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  • 11. 

    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

    • Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.

    • Has completed the airframe simulator.

    • Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty.

    • Has a current physical profile

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that before allowing a non-career aviator to fly, it is important to ensure that they have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This duty prefix indicates that the individual has the necessary qualifications and training to safely operate an aircraft. The other options mentioned, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a specific specialty, or having a current physical profile, are not mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

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  • 12. 

    The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?

    • 1 June.

    • 15 June

    • 1 July.

    • 15 July.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 June
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 June because the question is asking for the date by which the MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request. Therefore, the request must be submitted by 15 June.

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  • 13. 

    Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit’s mission?

    • Department of Defense Future Year Defense Program.

    • Manpower Programming and Execution System.

    • Unit Manpower Document

    • Manpower standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document specifically outlines the number and types of personnel needed to carry out the unit's tasks and responsibilities. It provides a comprehensive overview of the unit's manpower requirements, including information on the positions, skills, and qualifications needed for each role. By referring to the Unit Manpower Document, unit leaders can effectively plan and allocate resources to ensure that the necessary manpower is available to accomplish the mission.

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  • 14. 

    You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided

    • The action is exactly the same for all members.

    • The action is the same for majority of the members.

    • All members have the same aviation service code only.

    • All members have the same aviation service code and effective date.

    Correct Answer
    A. The action is exactly the same for all members.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the action is exactly the same for all members." This means that a single aeronautical order (AO) can be published if it has the exact same impact or requirement for all the members it affects. This ensures consistency and uniformity in the implementation of the order across all members. If the action varies or differs for any member, then separate AOs would need to be published to address their specific needs or requirements.

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  • 15. 

    Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

    • Fiscal year.

    • Calendar year

    • Member’s birth month

    • Month it was last completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Member’s birth month
    Explanation
    Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This means that each member needs to review their records and ensure that everything is up to date and accurate within the month they were born. This requirement helps to ensure that all necessary paperwork and documentation is in order, and allows for any necessary updates or corrections to be made in a timely manner. By completing the records review by the end of their birth month, members can stay organized and maintain compliance with regulations.

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  • 16. 

    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

    • Completion date of undergraduate flying training

    • Class start date of undergraduate flying training.

    • Date member arrived on first duty station.

    • Commissioning date in the USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commissioning date in the USAF.
    Explanation
    The officer service date (OSD) is the date that is used to calculate an officer's length of service in the USAF. It is the date on which the officer was commissioned in the USAF. This date marks the beginning of their service in the Air Force and is therefore used as a reference point for determining their length of service. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date of undergraduate flying training, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not relevant in determining the OSD.

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  • 17. 

    The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

    • Medically restricts a member from special operational duty.

    • Document completion of physiological training.

    • Place a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status.

    • Document a categorical waiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Document completion of physiological training.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1042 is a form used in the Air Force to document various medical information. It is not used to document completion of physiological training. This form is used for other purposes such as medically restricting a member from special operational duty, placing a member in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status, and documenting a categorical waiver.

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  • 18. 

    Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

    • AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty.

    • AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

    • AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
    Explanation
    The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is used to record an individual's physiological training, including centrifuge training, which is necessary for aircrew qualification. It serves as a comprehensive record of the individual's training and can be used for tracking and verification purposes. The AF IMT 1042 is a medical recommendation form for flying or special operational duty, the AF Form 8 is a certificate of aircrew qualification, and the AF Form 942 is a record of evaluation. None of these forms specifically document the completion of centrifuge training.

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  • 19. 

    Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

    • Member

    • Commander.

    • Flight surgeon

    • Aerospace physiologist

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerospace physiologist
    Explanation
    An aerospace physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This individual is trained and qualified to assess and evaluate the physiological effects of flight on aircrew members. They have expertise in areas such as altitude physiology, hypoxia, and G-forces. Therefore, they are the most suitable to certify the completion of centrifuge training, which involves exposing aircrew members to high G-forces in a controlled environment. The commander, flight surgeon, and member may have roles in the training process, but the aerospace physiologist is responsible for certifying the completion.

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  • 20. 

    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

    • The member has participated in 10 combat missions.

    • The member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap.

    • It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.

    • The operational support position later becomes a flying crew chief position.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty.
    Explanation
    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that in order for a member to wear an aviation badge, they must have previously served in an aircrew position and received the badge as a permanent award. This indicates that the member has demonstrated the necessary skills and qualifications for aircrew duty, distinguishing them from operational support fliers who have not served in such a role.

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  • 21. 

    Operational support members are placed in flying status

    • On a monthly basis

    • For the duration of the assigned mission

    • Until the man-year allocation is exhausted.

    • Until the flying requirement no longer exists.

    Correct Answer
    A. On a monthly basis
    Explanation
    The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available and ready to fly each month. This suggests that their duties involve some form of flying or being involved in missions that require flying. The phrase "on a monthly basis" indicates that this is a recurring and regular occurrence, implying that the members are expected to fulfill their flying responsibilities every month.

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  • 22. 

    A flight physical is not required when a

    • Member is initially placed in aviation service

    • Member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.

    • Member is placed on medical waiver.

    • Member applies for requalification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member is placed on medical waiver.
    Explanation
    When a member is placed on medical waiver, it means that they have been exempted from certain medical standards due to a medical condition. In this case, a flight physical is not required because the member's medical condition has already been assessed and they have been deemed fit to continue their aviation service despite the waiver. The flight physical is only necessary for initial placement in aviation service or when the member's periodic flight physical becomes due to ensure that they meet the required medical standards.

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  • 23. 

    Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?

    • 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • 11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • 11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
    Explanation
    In Air Force Instruction (AFI) 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of availability codes. This AFI likely provides guidelines and procedures for managing aviation resources, including the codes used to indicate availability status.

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  • 24. 

    Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    After undergoing centrifuge training, aircrew members are put on automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for 12 hours. This is done to ensure that they have enough time to recover from the effects of the training, which can include dizziness and disorientation. During this period, they are not allowed to participate in any flying activities to ensure their safety and the safety of others.

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  • 25. 

    After updating the member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is

    • Destroyed

    • Given to the member

    • Placed in a suspense file

    • Filed in the flight record folder

    Correct Answer
    A. Filed in the flight record folder
    Explanation
    After updating the member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used to document physiological information of the member, such as medical conditions or restrictions. By filing it in the flight record folder, it ensures that the information is easily accessible and can be referenced when needed for flight operations or medical evaluations.

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  • 26. 

    When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

    • Backup the current data available.

    • Send an emergency action message.

    • Wait until the next end-of-month transfer takes place

    • Notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office
    Explanation
    When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, notifying the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office is the correct action to take. This is because the HARM office is responsible for managing aviation resources and would need to be informed about the missing file. They can then investigate the issue and take any necessary steps to ensure the data is backed up or transferred correctly.

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  • 27. 

    Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)?

    • Squadron aviation resource management (SARM).

    • Tenant aviation resource management (TARM).

    • Host aviation resource management (HARM).

    • Stan Eval.

    Correct Answer
    A. Host aviation resource management (HARM).
    Explanation
    The host aviation resource management (HARM) office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF). This office is typically located at the host base and handles the administrative tasks related to aviation resource management. They maintain and organize flight records, ensuring that all necessary documentation is properly filed and recorded. The squadron aviation resource management (SARM) and tenant aviation resource management (TARM) offices may also play a role in managing flight records, but the primary responsibility lies with the HARM office. Stan Eval refers to the Standardization and Evaluation office, which is responsible for evaluating and standardizing aviation operations, but not specifically for establishing flight record folders.

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  • 28. 

    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date

    • They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

    • They completed their post-graduate medical training.

    • They received an unrestricted license to practice.

    • Stated on their medical license.

    Correct Answer
    A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course." This means that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons once they have completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This course is likely a requirement for physicians to gain the necessary knowledge and skills in aerospace medicine before they can serve as flight surgeons.

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  • 29. 

    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every

    • 6.

    • 12.

    • 15.

    • 24.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15.
    Explanation
    A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This means that pilots and flight crew members must undergo a comprehensive health assessment every 15 months to ensure they are fit to fly. This assessment helps to identify any potential health issues that could affect their ability to perform their duties safely. By conducting these assessments regularly, airlines can ensure the well-being of their crew members and maintain the highest safety standards in the aviation industry.

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  • 30. 

    The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

    • Establish the aircraft’s crew ratio

    • Validate aircrew coded positions.

    • Quantify manpower requirements.

    • Budget for operational support flying duties.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quantify manpower requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "quantify manpower requirements." The manpower standard is a document used in the Air Force to determine the number of personnel needed for a particular task or operation. It helps in estimating the manpower resources required to carry out various duties and responsibilities effectively. By quantifying the manpower requirements, the Air Force can allocate the appropriate number of personnel to ensure the successful execution of missions and tasks.

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  • 31. 

    A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member’s flying

    • Incentive pay.

    • Position.

    • Activity

    • Status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "activity". A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code that provides detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps in determining the type of activity the member is involved in, such as training, combat missions, or other specific flying tasks. It helps in tracking and calculating the member's incentive pay based on their flying activity.

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  • 32. 

    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

    • Certification.

    • Diploma.

    • Licence.

    • Rating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rating.
    Explanation
    A rating in aviation refers to a professional accreditation that allows an individual to perform specific tasks or operate certain types of aircraft. This is similar to how a physician who is accredited to practice a trade has specific certifications or ratings in different medical specialties. Therefore, the correct answer is rating.

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  • 33. 

    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?

    • A

    • C

    • D

    • F

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

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  • 34. 

    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

    • Examine a member’s eligibility for an Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA) waiver

    • Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.

    • Ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators.

    • Determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for reviewing the qualifications and experience of officers who are seeking to transfer from one branch of the military to another. This evaluation ensures that the officers have the necessary flying credentials to perform their duties in the new service. The ARB assesses the officer's training, flight hours, and overall competency to determine their suitability for the inter-service transfer.

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  • 35. 

    Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the

    • 12th and 18th year of aviation service.

    • 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service.

    • 10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.

    • 10th, 15th, 20th, and 22nd year of aviation service.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service.
  • 36. 

    What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

    • IA.

    • IIA.

    • IIC

    • III

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is III because it is the highest class of medical examination required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties. This class of medical examination ensures that the individual meets all the necessary physical and mental health requirements to safely perform aviation duties.

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  • 37. 

    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within

    • One duty day

    • Three duty days.

    • Three calendar days.

    • Five calendar days.

    Correct Answer
    A. One duty day
    Explanation
    The correct answer is one duty day. After a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day. This ensures that the necessary medical information is promptly communicated to the HARM office for appropriate action and decision-making regarding the member's flight status.

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  • 38. 

    In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

    • 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • 11–403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program.

    • 11–404, Training for High-G Aircrew.

    • 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. 11–421, Aviation Resource Management.
    Explanation
    In the Air Force Instruction 11–421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

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  • 39. 

    A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

    • Is disqualified under the humanitarian program.

    • Is disqualified due to fear of flying

    • Fails to maintain medical fitness

    • Declares conscientious objector.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is disqualified due to fear of flying
    Explanation
    When a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it may be recommended to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge. This is because the aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related activities. If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it suggests that they are unable or unwilling to meet the necessary requirements and may not be fit to wear the aviation badge.

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  • 40. 

    How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

    • They have the same aircrew position indicator (API) code.

    • They have an API code of “5,” “6,” or “8”.

    • They share the same position number

    • They have an API code of “B,” or “D”.

    Correct Answer
    A. They share the same position number
    Explanation
    If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. This means that multiple members are assigned to the same position or duty, which could be due to various reasons such as shortage of personnel or temporary arrangements. The position number serves as a unique identifier for a specific position, and when multiple members are assigned the same number, it suggests that they are sharing the same position and responsibilities.

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  • 41. 

    Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

    • Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.

    • Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989.

    • FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act.

    • FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
    Explanation
    The Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 was the first Congressional Act to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This Act provided incentives for aviation officers to continue their careers by offering financial compensation for their commitment to operational flying duty. The Act aimed to attract and retain skilled aviation personnel by recognizing their dedication and contributions to the military aviation field.

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  • 42. 

    Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

    • J

    • K

    • L

    • S

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    The correct answer is K. When a member is not flying due to lack of support capability, the flying status code assigned is K.

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  • 43. 

    Which is the correct way of citing an Air Force instruction (AFI) as authority when publishing an aeronautical order (AO)?

    • AFI 11–401.

    • AFI 11–401, 7 Mar 09.

    • AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4.

    • AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09.
  • 44. 

    While under suspension, the member’s flying incentive pay

    • Continues until the member is disqualified

    • Continues until the member appears before a flying evaluation board (FEB).

    • Is terminated until the member’s status is resolved

    • Is terminated and paid back once the member is disqualified.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is terminated until the member’s status is resolved
    Explanation
    When a member is under suspension, their flying incentive pay is terminated until their status is resolved. This means that they will not receive any flying incentive pay during the suspension period. Once their status is resolved, the member may be eligible to receive flying incentive pay again, depending on the outcome of the resolution.

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  • 45. 

    Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

    • Given to the member

    • Maintained in an inactive file cabinet

    • Sent to the staging facility for disposition

    • Destroyed to protect the privacy of the individual

    Correct Answer
    A. Given to the member
    Explanation
    Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are given to the member. This means that the folders are returned to the individual who was disqualified. This could be done for various reasons, such as allowing the individual to have access to their own records or for legal purposes. It ensures that the member has their own documentation and can review or use it as needed.

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  • 46. 

    Which document is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF)?

    • Operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver

    • Flying history report (FHR).

    • Military pay order (MPO).

    • Aeronautical order (AO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Flying history report (FHR).
    Explanation
    The flying history report (FHR) is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF). This document provides a comprehensive record of an individual's flying history, including details such as flight hours, missions flown, and qualifications. By filing the FHR on the right side of the FRF, it is easily accessible and organized for reference and review. The other options, including the operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) waiver, military pay order (MPO), and aeronautical order (AO), are not specifically related to the flight record folder and are therefore not filed on its right side.

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  • 47. 

    When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member’s

    • Aeronautical order (AO)

    • Individual Data Summary (IDS)

    • Flying history report (FHR)

    • Military pay order (MPO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual Data Summary (IDS)
    Explanation
    During a flight record folder (FRF) audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's Individual Data Summary (IDS). The IDS contains crucial information about the individual's flying history, including flight hours, qualifications, and training. By comparing the dates on both documents, auditors can ensure that the physiological training record is accurately reflecting the individual's flight activities as recorded in the IDS. This helps maintain accurate and up-to-date records for the individual's flying history.

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  • 48. 

    When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by

    • Request date

    • Effective date

    • Published date

    • Termination date

    Correct Answer
    A. Effective date
    Explanation
    When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), it is important to ensure that all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order based on their effective date. This means that the orders should be arranged in the order in which they become effective. This allows for easy reference and tracking of any changes or updates to the aeronautical information. Filing the AOs in this manner helps to maintain accuracy and consistency in the FRF, making it easier to review and analyze the flight records.

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  • 49. 

    Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?

    • Command Pilot.

    • Senior Observer

    • Master Navigator

    • Master Flight Surgeon

    Correct Answer
    A. Master Flight Surgeon
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Master Flight Surgeon. The question asks about the position that does not have an aeronautical rating. Aeronautical ratings are typically given to positions that involve piloting or navigating aircraft. Command Pilot, Senior Observer, and Master Navigator are all positions that are directly related to aviation and would require an aeronautical rating. However, a Flight Surgeon is a medical professional who specializes in providing healthcare services to pilots and crew members, but they do not require an aeronautical rating as their role is primarily focused on medical expertise rather than piloting or navigation skills.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jun 27, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 27, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 03, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    1Chuck
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