1c0 CDC 7 Lvl Ec05

63 Questions | Total Attempts: 158

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?
    • A. 

      Position certification item.

    • B. 

      Wartime task.

    • C. 

      Critical task.

    • D. 

      Core task.

  • 2. 
    A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5 level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      24

  • 3. 
    Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?
    • A. 

      Trainee's request letter.

    • B. 

      Trainer's/supervisor's letter.

    • C. 

      Copy of the individuals STS

    • D. 

      Group 1COX2 functional letter.

  • 4. 
    Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?
    • A. 

      HARM NCOIC

    • B. 

      Group 1COX2 (FM)

    • C. 

      CHARM

    • D. 

      SARM NCOIC

  • 5. 
    The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-
    • A. 

      401

    • B. 

      402

    • C. 

      410

    • D. 

      421

  • 6. 
    What consideration for indentifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?
    • A. 

      Special training.

    • B. 

      Recurring training.

    • C. 

      Mission requirements.

    • D. 

      Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements.

  • 7. 
    Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?
    • A. 

      Squadron aviation resource management.

    • B. 

      Tenant aviation resource management.

    • C. 

      Host aviation resource management.

    • D. 

      Current operation/scheduling.

  • 8. 
    Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?
    • A. 

      Squadron aviation resouce management.

    • B. 

      Tenant aviation resouce management.

    • C. 

      Host aviation resouce management.

    • D. 

      Standardization and evaluation office.

  • 9. 
    Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly
    • A. 

      Manning, activities, equipment

    • B. 

      Plans, activities, capabilities and limitations

    • C. 

      Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations.

    • D. 

      Potential, capabilities, intentions and limitations.

  • 10. 
    What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?
    • A. 

      Analysis of threats.

    • B. 

      Assessment of risks.

    • C. 

      Analysis of vulnerabilities.

    • D. 

      Identification of critical information.

  • 11. 
    Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
    • A. 

      Telephone, physical environment and STU-III

    • B. 

      Physical environment, equipment listing and telephone.

    • C. 

      Radio communicaiton, telephone and spatial environment.

    • D. 

      Telephone, radio communication and physical environment.

  • 12. 
    What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?
    • A. 

      10-201.

    • B. 

      10-701.

    • C. 

      11-401.

    • D. 

      11-402.

  • 13. 
    Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?
    • A. 

      LAN

    • B. 

      EPL

    • C. 

      CAR

    • D. 

      AFEPL

  • 14. 
    What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutist?
    • A. 

      21.

    • B. 

      22.

    • C. 

      23.

    • D. 

      24.

  • 15. 
    What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an  F-15E to F-15C?
    • A. 

      Continuation.

    • B. 

      Requalification.

    • C. 

      Mission qualification.

    • D. 

      Conversion/difference.

  • 16. 
    What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?
    • A. 

      Refresher.

    • B. 

      Continuation.

    • C. 

      Initial qualification.

    • D. 

      Mission qualification.

  • 17. 
    What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?
    • A. 

      Aircrew availability.

    • B. 

      Mission requirements.

    • C. 

      Allocated flying hours.

    • D. 

      Equipment and aircraft availibility.

  • 18. 
    What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?
    • A. 

      User Administration.

    • B. 

      Organization.

    • C. 

      Password.

    • D. 

      Security.

  • 19. 
    What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?
    • A. 

      AAG

    • B. 

      AWG

    • C. 

      FAB

    • D. 

      ASG

  • 20. 
    What aviation resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215 will be impletmented to enhance the ARMS database?
    • A. 

      AAG

    • B. 

      AWG

    • C. 

      FAB

    • D. 

      ASG

  • 21. 
    When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?
    • A. 

      Aircraft and person.

    • B. 

      Aircraft and flight.

    • C. 

      Flight and resource.

    • D. 

      Personnel and resource.

  • 22. 
    If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the
    • A. 

      Information must be re-entered.

    • B. 

      Interface must be done manually.

    • C. 

      Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS.

    • D. 

      MILPDS will overwrite ARMS and cause errors in the data.

  • 23. 
    To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses training
    • A. 

      Management.

    • B. 

      Assignment.

    • C. 

      Program.

    • D. 

      Profile.

  • 24. 
    What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?
    • A. 

      Profile assignment.

    • B. 

      Training program.

    • C. 

      Training profile.

    • D. 

      Training task.

  • 25. 
    The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT
    • A. 

      4324.

    • B. 

      4323.

    • C. 

      4322.

    • D. 

      4321.

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