1c0 CDC 7 Lvl Ec05
- 1.If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?
- A.
Position certification item.
- B.
Wartime task.
- C.
Critical task.
- D.
Core task.
- 2.A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5 level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?
- A.
12
- B.
18
- C.
21
- D.
24
- 3.Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?
- A.
Trainee's request letter.
- B.
Trainer's/supervisor's letter.
- C.
Copy of the individuals STS
- D.
Group 1COX2 functional letter.
- 4.Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?
- A.
HARM NCOIC
- B.
Group 1COX2 (FM)
- C.
CHARM
- D.
SARM NCOIC
- 5.The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-
- A.
401
- B.
402
- C.
410
- D.
421
- 6.What consideration for indentifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?
- A.
Special training.
- B.
Recurring training.
- C.
Mission requirements.
- D.
Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements.
- 7.Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?
- A.
Squadron aviation resource management.
- B.
Tenant aviation resource management.
- C.
Host aviation resource management.
- D.
Current operation/scheduling.
- 8.Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?
- A.
Squadron aviation resouce management.
- B.
Tenant aviation resouce management.
- C.
Host aviation resouce management.
- D.
Standardization and evaluation office.
- 9.Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly
- A.
Manning, activities, equipment
- B.
Plans, activities, capabilities and limitations
- C.
Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations.
- D.
Potential, capabilities, intentions and limitations.
- 10.What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?
- A.
Analysis of threats.
- B.
Assessment of risks.
- C.
Analysis of vulnerabilities.
- D.
Identification of critical information.
- 11.Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
- A.
Telephone, physical environment and STU-III
- B.
Physical environment, equipment listing and telephone.
- C.
Radio communicaiton, telephone and spatial environment.
- D.
Telephone, radio communication and physical environment.
- 12.What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?
- A.
10-201.
- B.
10-701.
- C.
11-401.
- D.
11-402.
- 13.Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?
- A.
LAN
- B.
EPL
- C.
CAR
- D.
AFEPL
- 14.What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutist?
- A.
21.
- B.
22.
- C.
23.
- D.
24.
- 15.What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to F-15C?
- A.
Continuation.
- B.
Requalification.
- C.
Mission qualification.
- D.
Conversion/difference.
- 16.What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?
- A.
Refresher.
- B.
Continuation.
- C.
Initial qualification.
- D.
Mission qualification.
- 17.What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?
- A.
Aircrew availability.
- B.
Mission requirements.
- C.
Allocated flying hours.
- D.
Equipment and aircraft availibility.
- 18.What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?
- A.
User Administration.
- B.
Organization.
- C.
Password.
- D.
Security.
- 19.What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?
- A.
AAG
- B.
AWG
- C.
FAB
- D.
ASG
- 20.What aviation resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215 will be impletmented to enhance the ARMS database?
- A.
AAG
- B.
AWG
- C.
FAB
- D.
ASG
- 21.When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?
- A.
Aircraft and person.
- B.
Aircraft and flight.
- C.
Flight and resource.
- D.
Personnel and resource.
- 22.If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the
- A.
Information must be re-entered.
- B.
Interface must be done manually.
- C.
Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS.
- D.
MILPDS will overwrite ARMS and cause errors in the data.
- 23.To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses training
- A.
Management.
- B.
Assignment.
- C.
Program.
- D.
Profile.
- 24.What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?
- A.
Profile assignment.
- B.
Training program.
- C.
Training profile.
- D.
Training task.
- 25.The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT
- A.
4324.
- B.
4323.
- C.
4322.
- D.
4321.
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