1c0 CDC 7 Lvl Ec05

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  • 1/63 Questions

    Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?

    • Squadron aviation resource management.
    • Tenant aviation resource management.
    • Host aviation resource management.
    • Current operation/scheduling.
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  • 2. 

    The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT

    • 4324.

    • 4323.

    • 4322.

    • 4321.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4324.
  • 3. 

    What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?

    • Temporary.

    • Permissive.

    • Active.

    • Initial.

    Correct Answer
    A. Active.
  • 4. 

    What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?

    • Aircrew availability.

    • Mission requirements.

    • Allocated flying hours.

    • Equipment and aircraft availibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircrew availability.
  • 5. 

    Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are

    • Telephone, physical environment and STU-III

    • Physical environment, equipment listing and telephone.

    • Radio communicaiton, telephone and spatial environment.

    • Telephone, radio communication and physical environment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone, radio communication and physical environment.
  • 6. 

    What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an  F-15E to F-15C?

    • Continuation.

    • Requalification.

    • Mission qualification.

    • Conversion/difference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conversion/difference.
  • 7. 

    What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?

    • Table.

    • Crosstab.

    • Page detail table.

    • Page detail crosstab.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crosstab.
  • 8. 

    What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?

    • API.

    • TSC.

    • ASC.

    • FAC.

    Correct Answer
    A. API.
  • 9. 

    What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to non-interference flyers that provide high altitude airdrop mission support?

    • CEFIP.

    • ACIP.

    • HDIP.

    • None authorized.

    Correct Answer
    A. HDIP.
  • 10. 

    If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?

    • New.

    • Revised.

    • Amendment.

    • Revocation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amendment.
  • 11. 

    How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member?

    • 12.

    • 15.

    • 20.

    • 24.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24.
  • 12. 

    If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?

    • Position certification item.

    • Wartime task.

    • Critical task.

    • Core task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Core task.
  • 13. 

    Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?

    • Squadron aviation resouce management.

    • Tenant aviation resouce management.

    • Host aviation resouce management.

    • Standardization and evaluation office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standardization and evaluation office.
  • 14. 

    The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining HARM office are the IDS, ITS,

    • FHR, instrument flight rules (IFR) or individual flight recors (IFR).

    • JHR, and IFR.

    • JHR, and IJR.

    • FHR, and IJR.

    Correct Answer
    A. JHR, and IJR.
  • 15. 

    Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?

    • HARM NCOIC

    • Group 1COX2 (FM)

    • CHARM

    • SARM NCOIC

    Correct Answer
    A. CHARM
  • 16. 

    The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-

    • 401

    • 402

    • 410

    • 421

    Correct Answer
    A. 421
  • 17. 

    Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?

    • Trainee's request letter.

    • Trainer's/supervisor's letter.

    • Copy of the individuals STS

    • Group 1COX2 functional letter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee's request letter.
  • 18. 

    If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?

    • Database information.

    • Training information.

    • Resource information.

    • Flying hour information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resource information.
  • 19. 

    An aircrew member whoes birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August. When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?

    • Prior to departure.

    • Within 10 workdays after PCS date

    • Within three months after arriving at the new base

    • They do not need to be scheduled because they will receive an initial clearance exam upon arrival at their new base,

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to departure.
  • 20. 

    The second character of the ASC identifies the

    • Flying status code.

    • Qualification code.

    • Entitlement code

    • DNIF status code

    Correct Answer
    A. Flying status code.
  • 21. 

    The first character of the ASC identifies

    • Flying status code.

    • Qualification code.

    • Entitlement status code.

    • DNIF status code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Entitlement status code.
  • 22. 

    What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?

    • Refresher.

    • Continuation.

    • Initial qualification.

    • Mission qualification.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission qualification.
  • 23. 

    What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?

    • AAG

    • AWG

    • FAB

    • ASG

    Correct Answer
    A. AWG
  • 24. 

    If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the

    • Information must be re-entered.

    • Interface must be done manually.

    • Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS.

    • MILPDS will overwrite ARMS and cause errors in the data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS.
  • 25. 

    What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copilot who upgraded to a pilot?

    • Flyer.

    • Training Program.

    • Profile Assignment.

    • Aircraft Assignment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft Assignment.
  • 26. 

    An aeronautical rating board waiver

    • Is approved by the MAJCOM/A3.

    • Is forwarded to HQ USAF/XOOT for final approval.

    • Must be forwarded for final approval 60 days prior to publishing an aeronautical order.

    • Is only approved for officers who have been on active flying status within 6 years of the request

    Correct Answer
    A. Is approved by the MAJCOM/A3.
  • 27. 

    Physiological training is required for

    • Only rated members assigned active aircraft

    • Only pilots who fly high-G onset rate aircraft

    • Any personnel authorized to fly in AF aircraft

    • All personnel who are or will be palced in flying status

    Correct Answer
    A. All personnel who are or will be palced in flying status
  • 28. 

    HAP initial training is provieded to

    • Any aircrew member who has a "J" duty prefix.`

    • Personel personnelapplying to be placed on active jump status.

    • Qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea leve;.

    • Aircrew members in an authorized "J" duty prefix position who are applying to be placed on active jump status.

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea leve;.
  • 29. 

    For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge it the date

    • Of the first flight

    • Of the application letter.

    • The member met all applicable criteria.

    • The member's commander signed application letter.

    Correct Answer
    A. The member met all applicable criteria.
  • 30. 

    A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar and received HDIP for a 3-calender  month period. Which pay rule would apply to the member?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 31. 

    A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001. If still grounded, what is the effective date of medical disqualification?

    • 15 April 2002.

    • 16 April 2002.

    • 15 December 2002

    • 16 December 2002

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 December 2002
  • 32. 

    What consideration for indentifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?

    • Special training.

    • Recurring training.

    • Mission requirements.

    • Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Special training.
  • 33. 

    Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?

    • LAN

    • EPL

    • CAR

    • AFEPL

    Correct Answer
    A. CAR
  • 34. 

    What API codes must the Host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions?

    • 5,3,4,B and D.

    • 5,3,4,C and E.

    • 5,6,8,B and D.

    • 5,6,8,C and E.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5,6,8,B and D.
  • 35. 

    What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?

    • 10-201.

    • 10-701.

    • 11-401.

    • 11-402.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-701.
  • 36. 

    FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for

    • Review, evaluation, recommendation.

    • Aeronautical order publishing.

    • Recommendation.

    • Final action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Final action.
  • 37. 

    When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?

    • Aircraft and person.

    • Aircraft and flight.

    • Flight and resource.

    • Personnel and resource.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft and person.
  • 38. 

    Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?

    • 0.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 8.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.
  • 39. 

    What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?

    • User Administration.

    • Organization.

    • Password.

    • Security.

    Correct Answer
    A. Security.
  • 40. 

    What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron?

    • Training profile master list.

    • Individual training summary.

    • Training profile assignment list.

    • Unit training currency summary.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training profile assignment list.
  • 41. 

    Guidance on how to complete an AFTO Form 781 is in AFI 11-

    • 401.

    • 402.

    • 410.

    • 421.

    Correct Answer
    A. 401.
  • 42. 

    What congressional act increased OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates?

    • ACIA of 1974.

    • ACIA of 1989.

    • FY 96 NDAA.

    • FY 99 NDAA.

    Correct Answer
    A. ACIA of 1989.
  • 43. 

    An aeronautical rating board

    • Makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating.

    • Makes the final decision whether to award a USAF aeronautical rating.

    • Is required for medical officers who hold a comparable flight surgeon rating.

    • Determines if the applicant meets the required criteria and notifies the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating.
  • 44. 

    Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly

    • Manning, activities, equipment

    • Plans, activities, capabilities and limitations

    • Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations.

    • Potential, capabilities, intentions and limitations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations.
  • 45. 

    What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been place on flying status?

    • 9C.

    • 9D.

    • 9E.

    • 9J.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9D.
  • 46. 

    When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending HALO school?

    • Prior to attending initial HALO school.

    • Upon return from initial HALO school.

    • Class start date of initial HALO school.

    • Upon graduation of initial HALO school.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to attending initial HALO school.
  • 47. 

    A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5 level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?

    • 12

    • 18

    • 21

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 21
  • 48. 

    What ASC would be assigned to an operational support memberwho has been placed on flying status?

    • 9C.

    • 9D.

    • 9E.

    • 9J.

    Correct Answer
    A. 9C.
  • 49. 

    If an ARC aircrew member flies 2.0 inactive duty (IAD) for the month of Jan and is also on AD status from 1-9 (1.2 AD hour requirement), how would the flight hours be applied?

    • 2.0 must be applied to the AD hour requirement.

    • 2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement.

    • 1.2 must be applies to the AD/0.8 must be applied to the IAD hour repuirements

    • 0.8 must be applied to the AD/1.2 must be applied to the IAD hour repuirements

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement.

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Sarmgirl
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