SQTL : ISTQB Paper-2
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Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
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Determining the test approach.
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Preparing test specifications.
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Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
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Measuring and analyzing results.
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- 2.
Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
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Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
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Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
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Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
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Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
Correct Answer
A. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.Explanation
Component testing is a type of testing that focuses on finding defects in individual components or modules of a software system. It involves testing each component separately to ensure that it functions correctly and meets its intended requirements. This statement is most often true because component testing is specifically designed to identify and address defects within individual programs or modules, allowing for more effective and efficient testing of the software system as a whole.Rate this question:
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- 3.
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%. The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
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£4000; £5000; £5500.
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£32001; £34000; £36500.
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£28000; £28001; £32001.
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£4000; £4200; £5600.
Correct Answer
A. £4000; £4200; £5600.Explanation
The given groups of numbers fall into three different equivalence classes because they fall into different tax brackets. £4000 is tax-free, £4200 falls into the 10% tax bracket, and £5600 falls into the 22% tax bracket. Therefore, these numbers have different tax rates and belong to different equivalence classes.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
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Parameter type mismatches.
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Errors in requirements.
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Undeclared variables.
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Uncalled functions.
Correct Answer
A. Errors in requirements.Explanation
Static analysis is a method used to analyze code without actually executing it. It can detect various issues such as parameter type mismatches, undeclared variables, and uncalled functions. However, static analysis is not designed to detect errors in requirements. Requirements are typically specified in documentation or through discussions with stakeholders, and static analysis focuses on analyzing the code itself rather than the requirements. Therefore, errors in requirements would not be detected by static analysis.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following test activities can be automated? i Reviews and inspections. ii Metrics gathering. iii Test planning. iv Test execution. v Data generation.
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I, iii, iv.
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I, ii, iii.
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I, iv, v.
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Ii, iii, v
Correct Answer
A. I, iv, v.Explanation
Reviews and inspections cannot be automated as they involve human judgment and analysis. However, test planning, test execution, and data generation can be automated to improve efficiency and accuracy in the testing process. Automated test planning can help in generating test cases and test scripts, while automated test execution can execute these test cases and scripts. Data generation can also be automated to create test data sets for different scenarios. Therefore, the correct answer is i, iv, v.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
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Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
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Complete the testing of a key project.
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Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
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Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
Correct Answer
A. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.Explanation
The objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool is to assess whether the benefits of using the tool will be achieved at a reasonable cost. This means that the pilot project aims to determine if the tool will provide the expected benefits and if the cost of implementing and using the tool is justified. The pilot project helps in evaluating the cost-effectiveness of the tool and helps in making an informed decision about its adoption. It is not about evaluating testers' competence, completing testing of a key project, or discovering tool requirements.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
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To communicate how incidents will be managed.
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To communicate how testing will be performed.
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To produce a test schedule.
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To produce a work breakdown structure.
Correct Answer
A. To communicate how testing will be performed.Explanation
The main purpose of a Master Test Plan is to communicate how testing will be performed. This document outlines the overall approach, objectives, and scope of the testing activities for a project. It provides a roadmap for the testing team, detailing the test strategy, test objectives, test deliverables, test environments, test schedules, and resources required. The Master Test Plan ensures that all stakeholders have a clear understanding of the testing process and helps to align expectations. It serves as a reference guide for the testing team and helps in coordinating and managing the testing effort effectively.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
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After the software or system has been produced.
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During development.
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As early as possible.
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During requirements analysis.
Correct Answer
A. After the software or system has been produced.Explanation
In a reactive approach to testing, the test design work is expected to begin after the software or system has been produced. This means that the testing process is initiated once the software or system is already completed. This approach is typically used when there is a limited amount of time or resources available for testing and the focus is on identifying and fixing any issues or bugs that arise during the testing phase. By starting the test design work after the software or system has been produced, the testing team can prioritize their efforts and focus on ensuring that the final product meets the desired quality standards.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the objective of debugging? i To localise a defect. ii To fix a defect. iii To show value. iv To increase the range of testing.
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I, iii
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Ii, iii, iv
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Ii, iv
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I, ii
Correct Answer
A. I, iiExplanation
The objective of debugging is to both localize and fix defects. Localizing a defect means identifying the specific location or cause of the issue in the code or program. Fixing a defect involves making the necessary changes or adjustments to eliminate the issue and ensure the program functions correctly. Therefore, options i and ii are the correct answers. Option iii, "To show value," is not directly related to the objective of debugging. Option iv, "To increase the range of testing," is also not a primary objective of debugging, although debugging can help identify areas for further testing.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Given the following decision table: Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions UK resident? False True True True Age between 18 - 55? Don’t care False True True Smoker? Don’t care Don’t care False True Actions Insure client? False False True True Offer 10% discount? False False True False What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris
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A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
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A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
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A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
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A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.
Correct Answer
A. A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.Explanation
For test case A, Fred is a 32-year-old smoker resident in London. According to the decision table, he is a UK resident (True), his age is between 18-55 (True), and he is a smoker (False). Based on these conditions, the expected result is to insure the client (True) without offering a 10% discount (False).
For test case B, Jean-Michel is a 65-year-old non-smoker resident in Paris. According to the decision table, he is not a UK resident (False) and his age is not between 18-55 (False). Based on these conditions, the expected result is to not insure the client (False).Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following are valid objectives for testing? i.To find defects. ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality. iii.To identify the cause of defects. iv.To prevent defects.
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i,ii, and iii.
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ii, iii and iv.
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i, ii and iv.
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i,iii and iv.
Correct Answer
A. i, ii and iv.Explanation
The correct answer is i, ii and iv. These objectives are valid for testing because testing is conducted to find defects, gain confidence in the level of quality, and prevent defects. By finding defects, testers can identify and fix issues in the software. Gaining confidence in the level of quality means ensuring that the software meets the desired standards. Preventing defects involves implementing measures to avoid introducing defects in the software. Therefore, these objectives are important in the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities: i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques. ii. Specify the order of test case execution. iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions. iv. Specify expected results. According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?
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Iii, i, iv, ii.
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Iii, iv, i, ii.
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iii, ii, i, iv.
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ii, iii, i, iv.
Correct Answer
A. Iii, i, iv, ii.Explanation
The correct order of activities in the process of identifying and designing tests is as follows:
1. Analyze requirements and specifications to determine test conditions (iii).
2. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques (i).
3. Specify expected results (iv).
4. Specify the order of test case execution (ii).Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
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To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
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To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
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To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
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To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
Correct Answer
A. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.Explanation
The main purpose of impact analysis for testers is to determine how the existing system may be affected by changes. This involves analyzing the potential impact of changes on different aspects of the system, such as functionality, performance, and usability. By conducting impact analysis, testers can identify potential risks and prioritize their testing efforts accordingly. This helps ensure that any changes made to the system do not have unintended consequences and that the system continues to function properly after the changes are implemented.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
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The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
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The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
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The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
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The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
Correct Answer
A. The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.Explanation
A functional system test is designed to test the system's ability to perform its intended functions. The requirement "The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer" directly relates to the system's functionality. This requirement tests whether the system can successfully handle the task of allowing a user to update a customer's address. Therefore, it is a requirement that would be tested by a functional system test.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%. The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Any further amount is taxed at 40%. To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
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£28000.
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£33501.
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£32001.
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£1500.
Correct Answer
A. £33501.Explanation
The valid Boundary Value Analysis test case is £33501 because it falls within the boundary of the next tax bracket. The employee's salary is tax-free up to £4000, the next £1500 is taxed at 10%, and the next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%. Therefore, any amount between £28501 and £31501 would be taxed at 22%. Since £33501 is greater than £31501, it would be taxed at the next rate of 40%.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
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Test plan.
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Test procedure specification.
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Test case specification.
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Test design specification.
Correct Answer
A. Test procedure specification.Explanation
The test procedure specification defines the sequence in which tests should be executed. It provides detailed instructions on how to execute each test case, including the order in which they should be performed. This document outlines the specific steps, inputs, and expected outputs for each test, ensuring that the testing process is organized and systematic. The test plan, test case specification, and test design specification are important documents in the testing process but do not specifically define the sequence of test execution.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Given the following state transition Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
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A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
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A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
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A, B, E, B, C, D.
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A, B, C, F, F, D.
Correct Answer
A. A, B, E, B, C, F, D.Explanation
The series of state transitions A, B, E, B, C, F, D provides 0-switch coverage because it covers all the states in the given state transition. Each letter represents a different state, and the transitions between them are represented by the commas. Therefore, this series of state transitions ensures that all the states are covered at least once, resulting in 0-switch coverage.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Given the following decision table Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 Conditions False True True True Frequent Flyer Member Yes Yes No No Class Business Economy Business Economy Actions Offer upgrade to First Yes No No No Offer upgrade to Business NA Yes NA No What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class
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A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
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A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
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A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
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A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
Correct Answer
A. A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.Explanation
For test case A, the condition "Frequent Flyer Member" is true and the condition "Class" is Business, which matches with Rule 1. According to Rule 1, the action "Offer upgrade to First" is set to Yes, so the expected result is to offer an upgrade to First class.
For test case B, the condition "Frequent Flyer Member" is false and the condition "Class" is Economy, which matches with Rule 2. According to Rule 2, the action "Offer upgrade to Business" is set to Yes, so the expected result is not to offer any upgrade.Rate this question:
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- 19.
During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
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Test implementation and execution.
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Evaluating test exit criteria.
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Test analysis and design.
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Test planning and control.
Correct Answer
A. Evaluating test exit criteria.Explanation
During the evaluation of test exit criteria, we determine if more tests are needed. Test exit criteria define the conditions under which testing should be stopped, such as achieving a certain level of test coverage or meeting specific quality metrics. By evaluating these criteria, we can assess if the testing performed so far is sufficient or if additional tests are required to meet the desired level of quality. This activity helps in ensuring that all necessary tests have been conducted before the software is ready for release.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
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Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the Project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
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Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
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Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
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Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
Correct Answer
A. Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.Explanation
The correct answer explains that project risks are related to the project's ability to achieve its objectives, while product risks are potential areas of failure in the software or system being developed. This means that project risks focus on the overall success of the project, while product risks focus on the specific functionality and quality of the end product.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition? If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
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17, 18, 19.
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29, 30, 31.
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18, 29, 30.
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17, 29, 31.
Correct Answer
A. 18, 29, 30.Explanation
The given specification divides the age range into three equivalence partitions: less than 18, between 18 and 30 inclusive, and over 30. According to the specification, anyone less than 18 is too young to be insured, so 17 is in a different equivalence partition than 18 and above. Similarly, anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount, so 31 is in a different equivalence partition than 30 and below. Therefore, the values 18, 29, and 30 are in the same equivalence partition because they fall within the range of 18 to 30 inclusive and are eligible for a 20% discount.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively. READ A READ B READ C IF C>A THEN IF C>B THEN PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number" ELSE PRINT "Proceed to next stage" ENDIF ELSE PRINT "B can be smaller than C" ENDIF
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3, 3.
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2, 3.
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2, 4.
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3, 2.
Correct Answer
A. 3, 3.Explanation
The given pseudo-code consists of nested if-else statements. In order to achieve statement coverage, each line of code needs to be executed at least once. There are a total of 9 lines of code, so the minimum number of test cases for statement coverage is 9.
For decision coverage, each possible outcome of each decision needs to be tested. In this case, there are two decisions: the first decision is whether C > A, and the second decision is whether C > B. Each decision has two possible outcomes, so the minimum number of test cases for decision coverage is 2 * 2 = 4.
Therefore, the correct answer is 9, 4.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
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Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
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Testing is isolated from development.
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Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
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Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
Correct Answer
A. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.Explanation
Independent testing provides the benefit of identifying additional defects that may not have been found by the development team. Independent testers have a fresh perspective and are not influenced by the biases or assumptions of the developers. This helps in uncovering hidden issues and ensuring a higher level of quality in the software. Additionally, independent testing allows for a more objective evaluation of the system, as it is not influenced by the vested interests of the development team.Rate this question:
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- 24.
)Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
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Dynamic Analysis tool.
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Test Execution tool.
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Static Analysis tool.
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Security tool.
Correct Answer
A. Test Execution tool.Explanation
A test execution tool is most likely to contain a comparator because it is used to compare the actual results of a test with the expected results. The comparator in the tool helps in identifying any discrepancies or differences between the actual and expected results, allowing testers to determine the success or failure of the test. This helps in identifying any bugs or issues in the software being tested. Dynamic analysis tools are used to analyze the behavior of an application during runtime, static analysis tools are used to analyze the source code for defects, and security tools are used to identify vulnerabilities in the software. None of these tools necessarily require a comparator for their primary function.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Given the following State Table: A B2 B D E F SS S1 S1 S2 S2 S3 S1 S3 ES S3 ES Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?
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E from State S2.
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E from State S3.
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B from State S1.
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F from State S3.
Correct Answer
A. E from State S3.Explanation
The state table shows the possible transitions between states. In this case, the transition from State S3 to State E is marked as invalid. This means that there is no direct path from State S3 to State E according to the given state table. Therefore, the correct answer is E from State S3.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
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All document reviews involve the development team.
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Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
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Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
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Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
Correct Answer
A. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.Explanation
Each test level having test objectives specific to that level is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model. This means that at each stage of testing, there are clear objectives and goals that need to be achieved. This ensures that the testing process is focused and targeted, leading to more effective and efficient testing. It also helps in identifying and addressing specific risks and issues at each level of testing.Rate this question:
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- 27.
)Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
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Test analysis and design.
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Test planning and control.
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Test closure.
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Test implementation and execution.
Correct Answer
A. Test analysis and design.Explanation
Test analysis and design is the correct answer because this activity involves evaluating the testability of the requirements and system. During this phase, the testers analyze the requirements and design test cases and test scenarios based on the identified risks and test objectives. They also evaluate the testability of the system by checking if the requirements are clear, unambiguous, and measurable. This activity helps in identifying any gaps or issues in the requirements or system design that may affect the testability and helps in planning the testing activities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques: i information about how the software is constructed. ii models of the system, software or components. iii analysis of the test basis documentation. iv analysis of the internal structure of the components. Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
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ii and iii.
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Ii and iv.
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i and iv.
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i and iii.
Correct Answer
A. ii and iii.Explanation
The basis for black box techniques involves using models of the system or software (ii) and performing an analysis of the test basis documentation (iii). These techniques focus on testing the functionality of the software without considering its internal structure or construction details. Therefore, the correct combination of statements that describes the basis for black box techniques is ii and iii.Rate this question:
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- 29.
)What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
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Because testing everything is not feasible.
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Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
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Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
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Because software is inherently risky.
Correct Answer
A. Because testing everything is not feasible.Explanation
The most important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts is because testing everything is not feasible. This means that it is not practical or possible to test every aspect of a software system, so it is important to prioritize testing based on the level of risk associated with different areas or features. By focusing on high-risk areas, resources can be allocated effectively and potential issues can be identified and addressed in a more efficient manner.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
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The coverage of the current regression pack.
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The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
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The time since the last change was made to the system.
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Defects found at the last regression test run.
Correct Answer
A. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.Explanation
The scope of maintenance testing is defined by the size and risk of any change(s) to the system. This means that the extent of testing required for maintenance activities depends on the magnitude and potential impact of the changes being made to the system. The larger and riskier the changes, the more comprehensive and thorough the testing needs to be in order to ensure that the system continues to function correctly and remains stable after the modifications are implemented.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
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An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
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An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
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An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
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An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
Correct Answer
A. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.Explanation
An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software because they have a fresh perspective and are not biased by their familiarity with the software. They can approach the testing process objectively and identify potential issues that the software developer may have overlooked. This helps to ensure that all possible defects are identified and addressed before the software is released to the users.Rate this question:
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- 32.
For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management? i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled; ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test; iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository; iv. All items of testware are tracked for change; v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner; vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
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I, iv, vi.
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ii, iii, v.
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i, iii, iv.
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Iv, v, vi.
Correct Answer
A. I, iv, vi.Explanation
The main concerns of Configuration Management in testing include identifying and version controlling all items of testware, tracking them for change, and ensuring that they are related to each other and to development items. This involves keeping a record of the versions of testware, managing any changes made to them, and ensuring that they are properly integrated with the development process. Option i represents the identification and version control aspect, option iv represents the tracking for change aspect, and option vi represents the relationship between testware and development items.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
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Number of undetected defects.
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Total number of defects in the product.
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Number of test cases not yet executed.
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Effort required to fix all defects.
Correct Answer
A. Number of test cases not yet executed.Explanation
The number of test cases not yet executed would be a valid measure of test progress because it indicates how much testing still needs to be done. As test cases are executed and completed, the number of remaining test cases decreases, reflecting the progress made in testing the product. This measure helps track the completion of testing activities and provides an indication of how much work is left to be done.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be performed: i once a month ii when a defect has been fixed iii when the test environment has changed iv when the software has changed
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Ii and iv
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ii, iii and iv.
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I, ii and iii.
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I and iii.
Correct Answer
A. ii, iii and iv.Explanation
Regression testing should be performed when a defect has been fixed, when the test environment has changed, and when the software has changed. This ensures that any changes or fixes made to the software do not introduce new defects or issues, and that the software continues to function correctly in the updated environment.Rate this question:
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- 35.
In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
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Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
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Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
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Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
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Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
Correct Answer
A. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.Explanation
The phases of a formal review usually occur in the following order: planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, and follow up. This sequence ensures that the necessary preparations are made before the review meeting takes place. The planning phase involves determining the objectives, scope, and participants of the review. The kick off phase involves initiating the review process and setting expectations. The preparation phase involves gathering and reviewing the necessary documents or materials. The meeting phase is where the actual review takes place, with discussions and evaluations. The rework phase involves addressing any identified issues or making necessary changes. Finally, the follow up phase ensures that the outcomes and actions from the review are documented and implemented.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports? i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary. ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement. iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence. iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
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i, ii, iii.
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i, ii, iv.
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i, iii, iv.
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ii, iii, iv.
Correct Answer
A. i, ii, iv.Explanation
The correct answer is i, ii, iv. Incident reports serve multiple purposes, including providing feedback to developers and other parties to help identify and correct problems, providing ideas for test process improvement, and allowing testers to track the quality of the system under test. Assessing tester competence is not typically an objective of incident reports.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques? i. Equivalence Partitioning. ii. Use Case Testing. iii.Data Flow Analysis. iv.Exploratory Testing. v. Decision Testing. vi Inspections.
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I-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
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Iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
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Ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
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Vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
Correct Answer
A. Iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.Explanation
The correct answer is iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic. This is because Equivalence Partitioning, Use Case Testing, Exploratory Testing, and Decision Testing are all dynamic techniques that involve executing the software and observing its behavior. On the other hand, Data Flow Analysis and Inspections are static techniques that involve analyzing the software without executing it.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
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Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
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Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
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Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
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Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.
Correct Answer
A. Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.Explanation
Static testing and dynamic testing are described as complementary because they both aim to identify defects in software, but they differ in the types of defects they find. Static testing involves reviewing and analyzing the software code, requirements, and design documents to identify defects, while dynamic testing involves executing the software and observing its behavior to find defects. Therefore, both types of testing are necessary to ensure comprehensive defect identification and improve the overall quality of the software.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester? i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur. ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script. iii Expected results must be added to the captured script. iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester. v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
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i, iii, iv, v.
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ii, iv and v.
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I, ii and iv.
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I and v.
Correct Answer
A. i, iii, iv, v.Explanation
Capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual tester has several disadvantages. Firstly, the script may become unstable when unexpected events occur, making it difficult to accurately replay the test. Secondly, data for similar tests is stored separately from the script, which can lead to confusion and inefficiency. Thirdly, expected results must be manually added to the captured script, increasing the chance of errors. Lastly, when replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn't play correctly, adding extra time and effort to the testing process.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
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Extent of testing.
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Scope for the use of test automation.
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Size of the test team.
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Requirement for regression testing.
Correct Answer
A. Extent of testing.Explanation
The level of product risk identified directly affects the extent of testing that needs to be conducted. Higher levels of product risk require more extensive testing to ensure that all potential issues and vulnerabilities are identified and addressed. Therefore, the extent of testing is determined by the level of product risk identified.Rate this question:
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Mar 04, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Dec 06, 2011Quiz Created by
Akre_minal
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