SQTL : ISTQB Paper 3

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  • 1/40 Questions

    One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

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SQTL : ISTQB Paper 3 - Quiz
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Are you studying and preparing for a Sqtl: ISTQB Paper 3 exam? Then this quiz is specifically designed to help you with your revision. Take up the challenge and see how you fair. All the best.

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  • 2. 

    One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class

    • 17

    • 19

    • 24

    • 21

    Correct Answer
    A. 17
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    In this case, first we should identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

    Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
    Below 18 | 18 to 25 | 26 and above

    Option ‘a’ falls under invalid class. Options ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ fall under valid class.

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 3. 

    White Box Techniques are also called as :-

    • Structural Testing

    • Design Based Testing

    • Error Guessing Technique

    • Experience Based Technique

    Correct Answer
    A. Structural Testing
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

    • Statement Testing and coverage

    • Decision Testing and coverage

    • Condition Coverage

    • Boundary value analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Boundary value analysis
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black box.

    The answer is ‘D’

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  • 5. 

    A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.

    • Security Testing

    • Recovery Testing

    • Performance Testing

    • Functionality Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Testing
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 6. 

    Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.

    • Load Testing

    • Integration Testing

    • System Testing

    • Usability Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Load Testing
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 7. 

    Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :-

    • System Level Testing

    • Integration Level Testing

    • Unit Level Testing

    • Component Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Integration Level Testing
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’ component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 8. 

    The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order. i. Planning ii. Review Meeting iii. Rework iv. Individual Preparations v. Kick Off vi. Follow Up

    • I,ii,iii,iv,v,vi

    • Vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v

    • I,v,iv,ii,iii,vi

    • I,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

    Correct Answer
    A. I,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can eliminate option ’b’. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will be Kick off. That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’

    The answer is ’C’

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  • 9. 

    A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.

    • Moderator

    • Scribe

    • Author

    • Manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Scribe
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 10. 

    Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :- i. Manager ii. Moderator iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager

    • I,ii,iii,iv are true

    • I,ii,iii are true and iv is false.

    • Ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.

    • I,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 11. 

    Link Testing is also called as :

    • Component Integration testing

    • Component System Testing

    • Component Sub System Testing

    • Maintenance testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Component Integration testing
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    As the name suggests, this testing is performed by linking (say modules). Now if
    we look at the options, only option ‘a’ is performed by linking or integrating
    modules/components.

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 12. 

    Static analysis is best described as:

    • The analysis of batch programs.

    • The reviewing of test plans.

    • The analysis of program code.

    • The use of black box testing.

    Correct Answer
    A. The analysis of program code.
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    In this case we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.
    a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
    b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
    c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
    d) Option d: This option ca be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.

    The answer is ‘C’

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects

    • Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

    • I,iii,iv are true and ii is false

    • I,iii,iv are false and ii is true

    • Iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,iii,iv are true and ii is false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator. Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 14. 

    In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

    • 22,23,26

    • 21,39,40

    • 29,30,31

    • 0,15,22

    Correct Answer
    A. 29,30,31
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Let’s use the approach given in question 4. Identify valid and invalid equivalence classes.

    Invalid Class | Valid Class | Invalid Class
    Below 24 | 24 to 40 | 41 and above

    The question is to identify valid equivalence values. So all the values must be from ‘Valid class’ only.

    a) Option a: all the values are not from valid class
    b) Option b: all the values are not from valid class
    c) Option c: all the values are from valid class
    d) Option d: all the values are not from valid class

    So, the answer is ‘C’

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

    • Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group

    • Pre Meeting Preparations

    • Formal Follow Up Process

    • Includes Metrics

    Correct Answer
    A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 16. 

    The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.

    • 12,16,22

    • 24,27,17

    • 22,23,24

    • 14,15,19

    Correct Answer
    A. 22,23,24
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from same class. So first divide the classes. When temperature falls below 18 switch is turned off. This forms a class (as shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is turned on. For values between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class as shown below.

    Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
    Class II: 18 to 21
    Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

    From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular class. Option ‘a’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘b’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘c’ values are in one class. Option ‘d’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. (please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)

    The answer is ‘C’

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase

    • Creating test suites from the test cases

    • Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

    • Comparing actual results

    • Designing the Tests

    Correct Answer
    A. Designing the Tests
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c. The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.

    The answer is ‘D’

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  • 18. 

    Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

    • Test Analysis and Design

    • Test Implementation and execution

    • Test Closure Activities

    • Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Analysis and Design
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 19. 

    Incidents would not be raised against:

    • Requirements

    • Documentation

    • Test cases

    • Improvements suggested by users

    Correct Answer
    A. Improvements suggested by users
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.

    The answer is ‘D’

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  • 20. 

    A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:- i. Test Items ii. Test Scripts iii. Test Deliverables iv. Responsibilities

    • I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • I,iii,iv are true and ii is false

    • Ii,iii are true and i and iv are false

    • I,ii are false and iii , iv are true

    Correct Answer
    A. I,iii,iv are true and ii is false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Let’s use the approach given in question no. 2. Test scripts are not part of the test plan (this must be clear). So choose the options where (ii) is false. So we end up selecting ‘b’ and ‘d’. Now evaluate the option (i), as option (iii) and (iv) are already given as true in both the cases. Test items are part of the test plan. Test items are the modules or features which will be tested and these will be part of the test plan.

    So, the answer is ‘B’

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  • 21. 

    Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase

    • Test Implementation and execution

    • Test Analysis and Design

    • Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting

    • Test Closure Activities

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Analysis and Design
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: as the name suggests these activities are part of the actual implementation cycle. So do not fall under set-up
    b) Option b: Analysis and design activities come before implementation. The test environment set-up, identifying any required infrastructure and tools are part of this activity.
    c) Option c: These are post implementation activities
    d) Option d: These are related to closing activities. This is the last activity.

    So, the answer is ‘B’

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  • 22. 

    What can static analysis NOT find?

    • The use of a variable before it has been defined

    • Unreachable (“dead”) code

    • Memory leaks

    • Array bound violations

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory leaks
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Static analysis cover all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

    The answer is ‘C’

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  • 23. 
    What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta. B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo. - ProProfs

    What is the expected result for each of the following test cases? A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta. B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.

    • A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B–Issue membership, offer no discount. B

    • A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C

    • A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.

    • A – Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.

    Correct Answer
    A. A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
    Explanation
    Based on the given test cases, it can be inferred that the criteria for issuing a membership is being married and residing in a specific location. In TC1, Anand meets these criteria as he is married and residing in Kolkatta, so a membership should be issued to him. However, no discount is offered to him. In TC3, Attapattu is also married but residing in Colombo, so a membership should not be issued to him. Therefore, the expected result is that a membership should be issued to Anand without any discount, while no membership should be issued to Attapattu.

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  • 24. 

    Component Testing is also called as :- i. Unit Testing ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing iv. System Component Testing .

    • I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • I,ii,iii,iv are false

    • I,ii,iv are true and iii is false

    • All of above is true

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: correct, component testing is also called as unit testing
    b) Option b: not sure (but as all the options indicate this as true, we can conclude that Program testing is also called as unit testing)
    c) Option c: correct, component testing is also called as module testing
    d) Option d: wrong. System component testing comes under system testing.

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 25. 

    A Project risk includes which of the following

    • Organizational Factors

    • Poor Software characteristics

    • Error Prone software delivered.

    • Software that does not perform its intended functions

    Correct Answer
    A. Organizational Factors
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
    b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
    c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of software.
    d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of software.

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 26. 

    Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

    • Test Analysis and Design

    • Test Planning and control

    • Test Closure Activities

    • Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Closure Activities
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.

    The answer is ‘C’

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

    • Static testing requires the running of tests through the code

    • Static testing includes desk checking

    • Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections

    • Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

    Correct Answer
    A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: is wrong. Static testing has nothing to do with code
    b) Option b: correct, static testing does include desk checking
    c) Option c: correct, it includes reviews and inspections
    d) Option d: correct, it can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 28. 
    Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off. Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage? - ProProfs

    Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off. Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?

    • A,C,B

    • B,C,A

    • A,B,C

    • C,B,A

    Correct Answer
    A. A,B,C
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case the start state is ‘OFF’, and then press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.

    An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state. So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and end with ‘C’.

    The answer is ’C’

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  • 29. 

    What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

    • A set of test cases for testing classes of objects

    • An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case

    • An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case

    • An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.

    Correct Answer
    A. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield same output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the task of a Tester? i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications

    • I, ii, iii is true and iv is false

    • Ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

    • I is true and ii,iii,iv are false

    • Iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    A. Ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?

    • Operating systems

    • Test documentation

    • Live data

    • User requirement document

    Correct Answer
    A. Live data
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management (CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and documentation.
    a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test cycle is part of CM.
    b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
    c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
    d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
    The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’

    The answer is ‘C’

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  • 32. 

    The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-

    • Explaining the objectives

    • Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.

    • Follow up

    • Individual Meeting preparations

    Correct Answer
    A. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2 options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 33. 

    In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to : i. Determine the test technique to be employed ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible. iv. Determine the cost of the project

    • Ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

    • I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • Ii & iii are True; i, iv are False

    • Ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

    Correct Answer
    A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
    b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk
    c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize testing to find defects asap.
    d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on the project as a whole.
    Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 34. 

    Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

    • Breadth Test and Depth Test

    • Retesting

    • Confirmation Testing

    • Sanity Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a product in full detail.
    b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
    c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
    d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
    Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment) and for some features detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth testing.

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 35. 

    Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

    • Test Analysis and Design

    • Test Implementation and execution

    • Test Closure Activities

    • Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Test Implementation and execution
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 36. 

    Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?

    • Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.

    • Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.

    • Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

    • Determining the exit criteria.

    Correct Answer
    A. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Let’s follow a different approach in this case. As can be seen from the above options, determining the exit criteria is definitely not a part of test implementation and execution. So choose the options where (iv) is false. This filters out ‘b’ and ‘d’.

    We need to select only from ‘a’ and ‘c’. We only need to analyze option (iii) as (i) and (ii) are marked as true in both the cases. Verification of the test environment is part of the implementation activity. Hence option (iii) is true. This leaves the only option as ‘a’.

    So, the answer is ‘A’

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  • 37. 

    Exhaustive Testing is

    • Is impractical but possible

    • Is practically possible

    • Is impractical and impossible

    • Is always possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Is impractical but possible
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option ‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible

    The answer is ‘A’

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

    • Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

    • Logging the outcome of test execution.

    • Assessing if more tests are needed.

    • Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Logging the outcome of test execution.
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    The question is about ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this. Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and ‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

    The answer is ‘B’

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  • 39. 

    Verification involves which of the following:- i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.

    • Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.

    • I is true and ii,iii,iv are false

    • I,ii,iii are true and iv is false

    • Ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

    Correct Answer
    A. I is true and ii,iii,iv are false
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    a) Option a: The quality of the product can be checked only after building it.
    Verification is a cycle before completing the product.
    b) Option b: Verification checks that we have built the right product.
    c) Option c: it does not help in developing the product
    d) Option d: it does not involve monitory activities.

    So, the answer is ‘B’

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  • 40. 

    The Test Cases Derived from use cases

    • Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system

    • Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system

    • Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system

    • Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

    Correct Answer
    A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
    Explanation
    Evaluating the options:
    Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow during real world use of the system.

    The answer is ‘A’

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Akre_minal
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