ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz

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1. The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of external failure?

Explanation

The cost of external failure refers to the expenses incurred when bugs or defects are detected by customers. This includes the cost of customer support, product recalls, warranty claims, and potential damage to the company's reputation. When bugs are detected by customers, it indicates that the testing process was not effective in identifying and fixing these issues before the product was released to the market. This can result in significant financial losses for the company and a decrease in customer satisfaction.

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About This Quiz
ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz - Quiz

Quiz based on key concepts for the CTAL TM exam.
40 questions taken from a sample bank larger than 40 with 1 hour time limit.
Questions and answers are randomized.

2. According to the ISTQB syllabus, System can be identified as _____________________ if the system's operation can result in catastrophic or critical consequences.

Explanation

safety critical systems are those which lives depends on.

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3. Test control:

Explanation

The correct answer is the first option, "involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed." This is because test control refers to the process of monitoring and controlling the testing activities to ensure that they are being executed according to the plan. It involves comparing the actual progress of the testing against the planned progress and taking corrective actions if there are any deviations or issues. This helps to ensure that the testing is on track and any necessary adjustments can be made to meet the testing objectives.

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4. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes a Management Review?

Explanation

A Management Review is a review carried out by management or stakeholders, where procedures include the assessment of project risks, and the outcome and decision are documented. This type of review is formal and requires a trained moderator. It demonstrates conformance to applicable standards or contractual obligations.

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5. Test Closure Activities include which of the following 4 activities?

Explanation

The Test Closure Activities include four activities: Test completion check, Test artifacts handover, Lessons learned, and Archiving results. Test completion check involves verifying that all test activities have been completed and all test cases have been executed. Test artifacts handover involves transferring all test-related documents and materials to the appropriate stakeholders. Lessons learned involves reflecting on the testing process and identifying areas for improvement in future projects. Archiving results involves storing and organizing all test-related data and documentation for future reference.

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6. 7.2 Individual SkillsThe ideal test team has a mix of skills and experience levels, and the team members should have a willingness and ability to teach and learn from their peers. In some environments, some skills will be more important or more respected than others.In a testing environment where API testing and programming skills are required:

Explanation

In a testing environment where API testing and programming skills are required, technical skills may be valued the most. This is because API testing and programming require a strong understanding of technical concepts and the ability to write and execute code effectively. These skills are crucial in ensuring that the testing process is carried out accurately and efficiently. Additionally, technical skills are often highly sought after in the industry, making them more valued in such environments.

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7. You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager. Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items:
• Verify code compliance to coding standards
• Verify comment usage frequency
• Review number of function calls 
• Review logical decision points in the applicationWhat is the purpose of this meeting?

Explanation

The purpose of the meeting is to perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early. This involves verifying the code compliance to coding standards, checking the frequency of comments, reviewing the number of function calls, and reviewing logical decision points in the application. The goal is to identify any potential issues or bugs in the code before it is released to the testing department, allowing for early detection and resolution of any problems.

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8. Innovative software solutions Inc. adopted a new way of testing their software. Testers set up the test environment, scan the software and look for problems for about 3 hours every week on Mondays and Wednesdays (in addition to their normal test activities). They create a session sheet and record testers name, date and time started, issues found, task breakdown and defects found at the end. Then the test manager holds a meeting with the testers and reviews the session sheet. Manager asks the testers for their outlook, results, what happened during testing and their feelings about past 3 hours.What type of testing activity is described above?

Explanation

This is a description of Exploratory Testing technique.

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9. Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project?

Explanation

A requirements review meeting is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project because it involves reviewing and validating the requirements that have been gathered. In this meeting, the project team and stakeholders come together to ensure that the requirements are complete, accurate, and meet the needs of the project. This is a crucial step in the requirements specification phase as it helps to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements and allows for necessary adjustments to be made before moving forward with the project.

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10. ____________ test design technique is known as white box or code based test technique. Code, the architecture or system flow is used as the basis for test design.

Explanation

Structure Based test design technique, also known as white box or code based test technique, uses the code, architecture, or system flow as the basis for test design. This technique focuses on the internal structure of the system and aims to test the logic, branches, paths, and conditions within the code. It involves techniques such as statement coverage, branch coverage, and path coverage to ensure thorough testing of the code. By examining the structure of the code, this technique helps identify potential defects and vulnerabilities in the system.

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11. Test execution:

Explanation

The correct answer is "begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied." This answer is correct because it accurately describes when test execution starts. Test execution is the phase in the testing process that begins after the test object has been delivered and all the entry criteria for test execution have been met. It is during this phase that the actual testing is performed, following the test conditions and test cases that have been defined in the earlier stages of the testing process.

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12. Which of the following is the most likely reason a user might be included in test execution?

Explanation

A user might be included in test execution because of their domain knowledge. Domain knowledge refers to their understanding and expertise in a specific industry or field. Including a user with domain knowledge in test execution ensures that the testing process is aligned with the requirements and expectations of the end-users. This user can provide valuable insights, identify potential issues, and validate the functionality of the system from a user's perspective.

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13. The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of internal failure?

Explanation

The cost of internal failure refers to the expenses incurred when bugs or defects are detected and fixed during the development process. This includes the time and resources spent on identifying and resolving the issues. Therefore, the correct answer is "bugs were detected and development fixed bugs."

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14. Test design is:

Explanation

The correct answer is "the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design involves determining the approach and techniques to be used in testing a specific system or component. It includes identifying test conditions, selecting test cases, and creating test data. Test design ensures that the testing process is systematic and efficient, allowing for comprehensive coverage of the system's functionality and requirements.

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15. Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

Explanation

The statement "Big bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization" is not a true statement. The big bang approach refers to implementing all the test tools at once, which can be risky and overwhelming for an organization. It is generally recommended to adopt a gradual and phased approach to rollout test tools, allowing time for training, learning, and adjusting to the new tools. This approach minimizes disruptions and allows for better integration and adoption of the tools within the organization.

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16. Considering the typical objectives of testing that are identified in the Foundation syllabus, which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of those objectives?

Explanation

The percentage of requirements coverage is a metric that can be used to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of the typical objectives of testing. This metric indicates the extent to which the requirements have been tested. A higher percentage of requirements coverage suggests that more requirements have been tested, increasing the likelihood of identifying defects and ensuring that the system meets the specified requirements. Therefore, this metric is a good indicator of the effectiveness of the test process in achieving the objective of validating the system against the requirements.

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17. 7.4 Fitting Testing Within an OrganizationOrganizations have many ways to fit testing into the organizational structure. While quality is everyone's responsibility throughout the software development lifecycle, an independent test team can contribute significantly to a quality product.Which of the following examples has the LOWEST level of test independence?

Explanation

The lowest level of test independence is when testing is done by a developer other than the one who wrote the code. In this scenario, there is no separation between the development and testing roles, and the tester may have biases or preconceived notions about the code they are testing. This lack of independence can lead to a lower quality product as potential issues may be overlooked or not thoroughly tested.

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18. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes an audit?

Explanation

An audit is a formal process that assesses whether a system, process, or organization conforms to specific standards or contractual obligations. It is not cost-effective or flexible, does not involve a moderator, is not called a peer review, and may or may not be carried out by management or stakeholders. The correct answer accurately summarizes the purpose of an audit.

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19. A College Enrollment application used by Innova College calculates the amount each student has to pay for gym and computer lab usage.The application asks for Student ID, Name and Student's major. Then the application calculates the fee. If student's major is Computer Science, they have to pay the full computer lab fee. If the student's major is not Computer Science, they have to pay only 1/3rd of the computer lab fee. All students have to pay for the gym membership.How many tests are required for path coverage of the above application?

Explanation

To achieve path coverage for the given application, we need to consider all possible paths. In this case, there are two paths to consider: one for Computer Science majors and one for non-Computer Science majors. For Computer Science majors, they have to pay the full computer lab fee, and for non-Computer Science majors, they have to pay 1/3rd of the computer lab fee. Therefore, to cover both paths, we need to test for both scenarios, resulting in a total of 2 tests.

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20. You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more defects. Making no assumptions other than ones based on the information provided here, which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor?

Explanation

Performing an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor, is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor. This will ensure that all systems, including the one from this vendor, are thoroughly tested before implementation. By applying additional rigor to the testing process for this vendor, it will help identify any potential defects or issues early on, allowing for necessary improvements to be made before the system is put into use. This approach promotes quality assurance and helps mitigate the risk of future projects having a higher number of defects.

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21. In a sequential model (waterfall model, V-model and W-model)

Explanation

In a sequential model, all of the work products and activities for a given phase are completed before the next phase begins. This means that each phase, such as requirements, design, implementation, testing, and acceptance, is done one after the other in a linear fashion. This allows for a structured and organized approach to development, where each phase builds upon the previous one. It ensures that the necessary groundwork is completed before moving on to the next phase, reducing the risk of errors and issues later on in the project.

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22. Which one is correct?

Explanation

Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase

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23. Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step that you might take as a test manager?

Explanation

Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing is a project risk mitigation step that a test manager might take. This step helps to ensure that testing can continue uninterrupted even if one test environment fails. By having additional test environments readily available, the test manager can minimize the impact of any technical issues or failures and maintain the progress and efficiency of the testing process.

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24. For each test level:

Explanation

The correct answer is that test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level. This means that test planning is an ongoing process that begins at the start of the test level and continues until all activities for that level are completed. It emphasizes the importance of having a well-defined and comprehensive test plan that guides the testing activities throughout the project. This ensures that all necessary steps and activities are considered and executed, leading to a successful test completion.

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25. Reporting:

Explanation

The correct answer states that the frequency and level of detail required for reporting in testing are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders. This means that the specific requirements for reporting, such as how often reports should be generated and how detailed they should be, will vary depending on the project and the stakeholders involved. It emphasizes the importance of discussing and agreeing upon these requirements during the test planning phase to ensure that the reporting meets the needs and expectations of the project.

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26. Which best defines the "Test Point Analysis (TPA)" Test Estimation Technique?

Explanation

Test Point Analysis (TPA) is a formula-based test estimation technique that is based on function point analysis. This means that it uses a specific formula or calculation to estimate the effort required for testing based on the size and complexity of the software being tested. TPA is often used in conjunction with the TMap testing methodology. This technique allows for a more accurate estimation of the testing effort by considering the specific characteristics and requirements of the software being tested.

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27. Improving the Testing ProcessTMMi is best summarized as:

Explanation

5.4 Improving the Testing Process with TMMi
The Testing Maturity Model integration (TMMi) is composed of five maturity levels and is intended to complement CMMI. Each of the maturity levels contains defined process areas that must be 85% complete by achieving specific and generic goals before the organization can advance to the next level.
The TMMi maturity levels are: Level 1: Initial
The initial level represents a state where there is no formally documented or structured testing process. Tests are typically developed in an ad hoc way after coding, and testing is seen as the same as debugging. The aim of testing is understood to be proving that the software works. Level 2: Managed
The second level is attained when testing processes are clearly separated from debugging. It can be reached by setting testing policy and goals, introducing the steps found in a fundamental test process (e.g., test planning), and implementing basic testing techniques and methods. Level 3: Defined
The third level is reached when a testing process is integrated into the software development lifecycle, and documented in formal standards, procedures, and methods. Reviews take place and there should be a distinct software testing function that can be controlled and monitored. Level 4: Measured
Level four is achieved when the testing process is capable of being effectively measured and managed at an organizational level to the benefit of specific projects. Level 5: Optimized
The final level represents a state of test process maturity where data from the testing process can be used to help prevent defects, and the focus is on optimizing the established process.
For more information on TMMi, see [vanVeenendaal11] and [www.tmmi.org].

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28. Which best defines the "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique?

Explanation

The "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique is an expert-based approach that relies on the collective wisdom of team members to make accurate estimations. It involves gathering input from multiple experts and consolidating their opinions to arrive at a consensus estimate. This technique recognizes that individual estimations may vary, but by pooling together the knowledge and experience of the team, a more reliable estimation can be achieved.

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29. Which best defines the "bottom up" Test Estimation Technique?

Explanation

The "bottom up" test estimation technique involves estimating each task individually and then deriving the overall project estimate from those estimates. This approach allows for a more detailed and accurate estimation by considering the specific effort required for each task. By breaking down the project into smaller components and estimating them individually, the overall estimate can be more reliable and realistic.

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30. Which quality risk technique properly describes "breadth first"?

Explanation

The technique of "breadth first" in quality risk refers to covering every risk at least once. This means that all potential risks are identified and addressed in a comprehensive manner, ensuring that no risk is overlooked or ignored. By covering every risk at least once, the technique aims to minimize the chances of any significant risk going unnoticed and causing potential harm or failure in the system.

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31. 6.2 Tool Selection6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)There are many risks to tool use; not all tools actually supply benefits that outweigh the risks. Tool risks were discussed in the Foundation Level syllabus. The Test Manager should also consider which of the following risks when considering ROI:

Explanation

The Test Manager should consider the immaturity of the organization when considering ROI for tool selection. This means that if the organization is not mature enough in terms of its testing processes and practices, implementing certain tools may not provide the expected benefits and may even introduce more risks. Therefore, the Test Manager needs to assess the level of maturity of the organization before making decisions about tool selection and consider whether the organization is ready to effectively utilize the chosen tools.

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32. Test design:

Explanation

The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design is the process of creating a detailed plan or strategy for testing a specific aspect of the software or system. It involves determining the specific test conditions, test cases, and test data that will be used to verify the functionality and performance of the test object. The test design phase focuses on defining the specific steps, techniques, and tools that will be used to execute the tests and gather the necessary information to evaluate the test results.

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33. Select the correct statement:
I. Comparing actual progress against the plan is part of Test Controlling activity.
II. Updating the test plan if needed is part of test controlling activity.
III. Prioritization criteria identified during risk analysis should be applied only during test execution.
IV. Test conditions are identified by analyzing the test basis and test objectives.

Explanation

Test plan can be updated during test monitoring and controlling process.

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34. 7.4 Fitting Testing Within an OrganizationOrganizations have many ways to fit testing into the organizational structure. While quality is everyone's responsibility throughout the software development lifecycle, an independent test team can contribute significantly to a quality product.Which of the following examples has the HIGHEST level of test independence?

Explanation

The highest level of test independence is when external test specialists perform testing on specific test types. This means that the testing is being done by individuals or teams who are not directly involved in the development process or part of the organization. This level of independence ensures that the testing is unbiased and objective, as the testers are not influenced by the development team or organizational pressures. It also brings in fresh perspectives and expertise from outside the organization, contributing to a higher quality product.

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35. 6.2 Tool Selection6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)There are many risks to tool use; not all tools actually supply benefits that outweigh the risks. Tool risks were discussed in the Foundation Level syllabus. The Test Manager should also consider which of the following risks when considering ROI:

Explanation

The Test Manager should consider the risk that artifacts created by the tool may be difficult to maintain when considering ROI. This means that the tools used in testing may generate artifacts, such as test cases or test scripts, that may become hard to maintain over time. This can lead to increased costs and effort in managing and updating these artifacts, which can impact the overall return on investment of using the tool.

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36. Which 4 of the following are dynamic tests?

Explanation

Incorrect answers are static tests (code is not executed).

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37. Test analysis:

Explanation

The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'what' is to be tested in the form of test conditions." Test analysis is the process of determining what needs to be tested and creating test conditions that cover all the requirements and functionalities of the test object. It involves analyzing the requirements, identifying testable features, and creating a comprehensive set of test conditions that will be used to design test cases. This activity helps ensure that all the necessary aspects of the test object are covered and that the testing effort is focused on the right areas.

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38. In a spiral model:

Explanation

In a spiral model, prototypes are used early in the project to validate the feasibility of the project and to experiment with design and implementation decisions. The order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out is determined based on the level of business priority and technical risk. This approach allows for iterative development, where work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts. This helps in managing the project effectively and ensures that the features to be implemented are grouped together based on their priority or risk.

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39. 7.2 Individual SkillsWhich of the THREE skills are particularly important for Test Analysts?

Explanation

The three skills that are particularly important for Test Analysts are interpersonal skills, risk analysis and the ability to analyze a specification, and the ability to design test cases and diligently run tests and record the results. Test Analysts need strong interpersonal skills to effectively communicate and collaborate with stakeholders, give and receive constructive criticism, and influence and negotiate with others. They also need to be able to analyze risks and specifications to ensure thorough testing. Additionally, they must have the ability to design test cases and meticulously carry out tests while accurately recording the results.

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40. Which of the following statement is false about Metrics and Measurements?
Metrics and measurements are useful to identify:

Explanation

there is no Metric for motivation

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41. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.
II. Test data comparison tool can be used to avoid human data comparison mistakes.
III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.
IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work together.

Explanation

Test Automation tools can be used for multiple projects (and should be).

Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor does not guarantee that all tools will work together.

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42. According to the ISTQB syllabus, major ways to handle risks are:

I. Mitigate the risk through preventive measures.
II. Make contingency plans to reduce impact if risk occurs.
III. Transfer the risk to someone else to handle.
IV. Ignore and accept the risk.

Explanation

According to the ISTQB syllabus, all of the major ways to handle risks are true. This means that all four options are valid ways to handle risks. Mitigating the risk through preventive measures, making contingency plans to reduce impact if the risk occurs, transferring the risk to someone else to handle, and ignoring and accepting the risk are all acceptable approaches to risk management.

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43. Test team identified a possible risk during requirements review of the Functional Requirement Document. The risk was analyzed and the probability of the risk happening is 1% and impact of the risk if it occurs is $200,000. What is the cost of exposure? 

Explanation

Cost of Exposure = Probability * Impact ; = 0.01 (1 %)* $200 000 = $2000

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44. Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find the preconditions to start executing a level of testing?

Explanation

A test plan is a test document that outlines the approach, objectives, scope, and schedule of testing activities. It provides details on the resources required, the test environment, and the test deliverables. In a test plan, one would expect to find the preconditions necessary to start executing a level of testing, such as the setup and configuration of the test environment, the availability of test data, and any dependencies or prerequisites that need to be fulfilled before testing can begin. Therefore, the correct answer is a test plan.

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45. The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of prevention?

Explanation

Developer training is a cost of prevention because it involves providing training to developers to prevent bugs and defects from occurring in the first place. By investing in training, developers can enhance their skills and knowledge, resulting in improved code quality and reduced chances of introducing errors. This proactive approach helps in preventing costly issues that may arise later in the development process.

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46. Types of Process ImprovementSTEP, TMMi, TPI and CTP  test process assessment models allow an organization to determine where they stand in terms of their current test processes.Once an assessment is performed, TMMi and TPI:

Explanation

TMMi and TPI provide a prescriptive roadmap for improving the test process. This means that they offer a clear and detailed plan or guide on how to enhance the test process. They provide specific steps and recommendations for the organization to follow in order to improve their testing procedures. This roadmap helps the organization understand what actions they need to take in order to achieve better results in their testing efforts.

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47. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes an Inspection?

Explanation

An Inspection is a formal review process that requires a trained moderator and follows specific entry and exit criteria. It is not necessary for management to attend an Inspection. This type of review is focused on demonstrating conformance to applicable standards or contractual obligations.

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48. Improving the Testing ProcessSTEP is best summarized as:

Explanation

5.7 Improving the Testing Process with STEP
STEP (Systematic Test and Evaluation Process), like CTP and unlike TMMi and TPI Next, does not require that improvements occur in a specific order.
STEP is primarily a content reference model which is based upon the idea that testing is a lifecycle activity that begins during requirements formulation and continues until retirement of the system. The STEP methodology stresses “test then code" by using a requirements-based testing strategy to ensure that early creation of test cases validates the requirements specification prior to design and coding.
Basic premises of the methodology include: A requirements-based testing strategy Testing starts at the beginning of the lifecycle Tests are used as requirements and usage models Testware design leads software design Defects are detected earlier or prevented altogether Defects are systematically analyzed Testers and developers work together
In some cases the STEP assessment model is blended with the TPI Next maturity model.
For more information on STEP, see [Craig02].

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49. 7.2 Individual SkillsWhich of the THREE skills are particularly important for Test Managers?

Explanation

The three skills that are particularly important for Test Managers are having knowledge, skills, and experience in project management, making a plan, tracking progress, and reporting to stakeholders, and interpersonal skills such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating. These skills are crucial for Test Managers as they need to effectively manage projects, ensure progress is being made and reported to stakeholders, and have strong interpersonal skills to effectively communicate and collaborate with team members and stakeholders.

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50. Test closure activities fall into four main groups (choose 4):

Explanation

The given answer includes four activities that are commonly associated with test closure. Test completion check refers to the process of ensuring that all planned testing activities have been completed. Test artifacts handover involves transferring the test documentation, test scripts, and other artifacts to the relevant stakeholders. Lessons learned involves reflecting on the testing process and identifying areas for improvement in future projects. Archiving results refers to storing and organizing the test results and other relevant data for future reference.

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51. All of the following statements are true about decision tables, EXCEPT:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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52. Improving the Testing ProcessCTP is best summarized as:

Explanation

5.6 Improving the Testing Process with CTP
The basic premise of the Critical Testing Processes (CTP) assessment model is that certain testing processes are critical. These critical processes, if carried out well, will support successful test teams. Conversely, if these activities are carried out poorly, even talented individual testers and Test Managers are unlikely to be successful. The model identifies twelve critical testing processes. CTP is primarily a content reference model.
The CTP model is a context-sensitive approach that allows for tailoring the model including: Identification of specific challenges Recognition of attributes of good processes Selection of the order and importance of implementation of process improvements
The CTP model is adaptable within the context of all software development lifecycle models.
In addition to participant interviews, the CTP model includes the use of metrics to benchmark organizations against industry averages and best practices.
For more information on CTP, see [Black03].

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53. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes an Informal Review?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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54. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes a Technical Review?

Explanation

A technical review, also known as a peer review, involves the evaluation of a project or document by colleagues or experts in the same field. It is cost-effective and flexible, allowing for constructive feedback and improvements. The author of the project or document typically acts as the moderator during the review process. This type of review focuses on assessing project risks, documenting outcomes and decisions, and ensuring conformity to applicable standards or contractual obligations. It is a formal process that may require a trained moderator and has specific entry and exit criteria, although management may not always be present.

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55. 7.2 Individual SkillsThe ideal test team has a mix of skills and experience levels, and the team members should have a willingness and ability to teach and learn from their peers. In some environments, some skills will be more important or more respected than others.In a black box testing environment:

Explanation

In a black box testing environment, domain expertise may be the most valued because black box testing focuses on testing the functionality of a system without knowledge of its internal workings. Therefore, having a deep understanding of the domain in which the system operates is crucial in order to effectively test its functionality and identify potential issues or vulnerabilities. Technical skills may still be important, but domain expertise takes precedence in this context.

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56. Which of the following is NOT a challenge with outsourcing?

Explanation

Primary reason for outsourcing is “low cost”. The other answers are all challenges with outsourcing. Please note the question is asking what is “NOT” an issue.

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57. Which is NOT an issue with Sequential (V-model, waterfall)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building." This is not an issue with Sequential (V-model, waterfall) because it follows a linear and sequential approach where testing is typically done at the end of the development process. In this approach, there is no provision for early testing or building confidence through experimentation.

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58. 6.2 Tool Selection6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)There are many risks to tool use; not all tools actually supply benefits that outweigh the risks. Tool risks were discussed in the Foundation Level syllabus. The Test Manager should also consider which of the following risks when considering ROI:

Explanation

The Test Manager should consider the risk of reducing Test Analysts' involvement in testing tasks when considering ROI because if Test Analysts are not actively involved in testing, it may reduce the overall value of testing. Test Analysts play a crucial role in identifying defects, analyzing requirements, and ensuring the quality of the software. If their involvement is reduced, it may lead to missed defects and inadequate testing coverage, ultimately affecting the value and effectiveness of the testing process.

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59. Which of the following is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems?

Explanation

Test traceability is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems. Test traceability refers to the ability to trace each requirement, design element, and test case back to a specific regulation or safety standard. It ensures that all necessary tests have been conducted and that the system meets the required safety standards. By maintaining test traceability, organizations can provide evidence of compliance during audits or inspections. ISO 61508 is a safety standard for electrical, electronic, and programmable electronic safety systems, but it is not directly related to demonstrating compliance. Usability testing and employee evaluations are not directly applicable to demonstrating compliance to safety regulations.

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60. Which quality risk technique properly describes "depth first"?

Explanation

"Depth first" refers to a quality risk technique where test cases are executed in a strict risk order. This means that the test cases are prioritized based on the level of risk associated with them, and the ones with higher risks are executed first. This approach ensures that the most critical risks are identified and addressed early in the testing process, minimizing the potential impact on the system. By following a strict risk order, the team can focus on resolving the most significant risks before moving on to lower priority ones.

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61. Improving the Testing ProcessTPI Next is best summarized as:

Explanation

5.5 Improving the Testing Process with TPI Next
The TPI Next model defines 16 key areas, each of which covers a specific aspect of the test process, such as test strategy, metrics, test tools and test environment.
Four maturity levels are defined in the model: Initial Controlled Efficient Optimizing
Specific checkpoints are defined to assess each key area at each of the maturity levels. Findings are summarized and visualized by means of a maturity matrix which covers all key areas. The definition of improvement objectives and their implementation can be tailored according to the needs and capacity of the testing organization.
The generic approach makes TPI Next independent of any software process improvement model. It covers both the test engineering aspects as well as support for managerial decision making [deVries09].
For more information on TPI Next, see [www.tpinext.com].

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62. Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Your test team is following a risk-based testing strategy augmented with a reactive testing strategy during test execution to ensure that key risks missed during risk analysis are caught. Of the following statements, identify all that are true about the test plan.

Explanation

The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process because it is important to identify and prioritize risks in order to allocate appropriate testing resources. The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis because understanding the requirements is crucial for identifying potential risks. The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test execution because reactive testing helps to catch any key risks that were missed during the risk analysis phase.

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63. Which is NOT an issue with Incremental (Agile- SCRUM) also called as evolutionary

Explanation

Schedule compression pressure is not an issue with Incremental (Agile-SCRUM) methodology. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability in the development process, allowing the team to adjust the schedule as needed. In Agile-SCRUM, the focus is on delivering working increments of the product in short iterations, which allows for better time management and reduces the need for schedule compression. Therefore, schedule compression pressure is not a problem with this methodology.

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64. The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of detection?

Explanation

The expense for test planning, design, and implementation is a cost of detection because it refers to the resources and effort required to identify and uncover bugs or defects in the software during the testing phase. This cost includes activities such as creating test plans, designing test cases, and implementing the tests. By investing in these activities, organizations aim to detect and identify bugs early in the development process, which helps in reducing the overall cost of quality and ensuring that the software meets the desired standards and requirements.

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65. Which 4 of the following are static tests?

Explanation

Incorrect answers are dynamic tests (code is executed).

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66. Which of the following is an accurate statement that captures a difference between a trend chart showing the total number of bugs discovered and resolved during test execution and a trend chart showing the total number of test cases passed and failed during test execution?

Explanation

The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart will not. This is because the test case trend chart tracks the number of test cases passed and failed, indicating whether the testing process is progressing as expected. If there are a high number of failed test cases, it suggests there may be issues with the application under test. On the other hand, the bug trend chart only shows the total number of bugs discovered and resolved, which may not necessarily indicate any problems with the testing progress.

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67. Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes a walkthrough?

Explanation

A walkthrough is a type of review where the author of a project or document serves as the moderator. This means that the person who created the project or document leads the review process and guides the participants through it. This type of review is typically informal and allows for flexibility in terms of cost and process. It is also sometimes referred to as a peer review, indicating that it involves colleagues or peers reviewing each other's work.

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68. Test implementation:

Explanation

The correct answer is "is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts." This answer accurately describes the process of test implementation, which involves organizing and prioritizing tests. It does not involve defining what is to be tested or how something is to be tested, as those activities are covered in other stages of the testing process.

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69. 6.2 Tool SelectionRecurring tool costs include the following (choose 4):

Explanation

6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)
It is the responsibility of the Test Manager to ensure that all tools introduced into the testing organization add value to the team’s work and can show a positive ROI to the organization. To ensure that a tool will achieve real and lasting benefits, a cost-benefit analysis should be performed before acquiring or building a tool. In this analysis, the ROI should consider both recurring and non-recurring costs, some of which are monetary and some of which are resource or time costs, and the risks that may reduce the value of the tool.

Submit
70. One disadvantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level is:

Explanation

Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can create uncertainty in relating other test work products to the test basis and test objectives. This can make it difficult for a Test Manager to monitor and control the testing process effectively. Additionally, detailed test conditions can contribute to defect injection by occurring early in a project before system architecture and detailed design are available. This can impact not only testing activities but also other development activities. To address these issues, a level of formality needs to be defined and implemented across the team.

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71. Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Currently, the system architects have released a first draft design specification based on the approved requirements specification released previously. Identify all of the following that are appropriate test tasks to execute at this time:

Explanation

At this stage in the project, it is appropriate to design tests from both the requirements specification and the design specification. Designing tests from the requirements specification ensures that the tests cover all the intended functionality of the programmable thermostat. Analyzing design-related risks helps identify any potential issues or vulnerabilities in the design that could impact the performance or functionality of the system. Lastly, designing tests from the design specification ensures that the tests are aligned with the specific design choices made by the system architects.

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72. With Iterative or incremental models, such as Rapid Application Development (RAD) and the Rational Unified Process (RUP)

Explanation

In iterative or incremental models such as RAD and RUP, the features to be implemented are grouped together based on factors like business priority or risk. Then, the project phases, along with their work products and activities, are carried out for each group of features. This means that all the work products and activities for a particular phase are completed before moving on to the next phase. Similarly, the work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before starting the next iteration. Additionally, prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and experiment with design and implementation decisions, with the order of prototyping experiments determined by business priority and technical risk.

Submit
73. Which of the following THREE describe Test Control?

Explanation

Test Control is an ongoing activity that involves comparing the actual progress against the plan. It also requires the ability to respond to changes in mission, strategies, and testing objectives. Test Control is responsible for implementing the test strategy and setting the framework for deriving test cases, test conditions, and test procedures from the test basis. It also involves tracking the planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases.

Submit
74. Which is NOT an issue with Iterative (RAD; Spiral)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Schedule compression pressure is always there." This means that schedule compression pressure is not an issue with Iterative (RAD; Spiral) development. In other words, this development approach does not face the problem of time constraints and the need to compress the schedule to meet deadlines.

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75. Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are White Box?

Explanation

Statement Testing, Branch/Decision Testing, Data Flow, and LCSAJ are all white box test design techniques. White box testing focuses on the internal structure and logic of the system. Statement testing involves testing each statement in the code to ensure that it executes as intended. Branch/Decision testing focuses on testing all possible branches and decisions in the code. Data flow testing involves testing the flow of data within the system. LCSAJ (Loop/Condition Simplexity Analysis and Justification) is a technique that analyzes the complexity of loops and conditions within the code. These techniques require knowledge of the internal workings of the system, which is characteristic of white box testing.

Submit
76. Consider the following perl statement.
$type = $blue || $redHow many test cases are required at a minimum for condition coverage?

Explanation

3 Test cases are required at minimum (True True, False True, False Fasle).
False True is not required because it is covered as part of True False test case.

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77. Specification of detailed test conditions can be particularly effective in the following situations EXCEPT:

Explanation

In less complex projects where simple hierarchical relationships exist between what is to be tested and how it is to be tested, detailed test conditions may not be necessary. This is because the testing requirements and their corresponding test cases can be easily derived from the project's structure and hierarchy. In such cases, lightweight test design documentation methods like checklists can be sufficient to accommodate the development lifecycle, cost, time constraints, or other factors. However, in the other situations mentioned, detailed test conditions are important. For example, when little or no formal requirements or development work products are available, or when the project is large-scale, complex, or high-risk and requires extensive monitoring and control.

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78. 6.2 Tool Selection6.2.4 Selection ProcessTest tools are a long-term investment, likely extending over many iterations of a single project, and/or applicable to many projects. A Test Manager must consider a prospective tool from several different viewpoints. Choose THREE of the following that are examples of considerations prior to purchasing a new tool:

Explanation

The given answer options provide examples of considerations that a Test Manager should make prior to purchasing a new tool. The first option emphasizes the importance of ensuring that the new tool can interoperate with other tools used by the organization. This is crucial for maximizing the value of the investment. The second option highlights the fact that some tools may take time to start earning a positive return on investment (ROI), and the ROI may not occur during the initial project but in subsequent releases or during maintenance. The third option emphasizes the need for the tool to support project members in performing their tasks more efficiently and effectively. These considerations help the Test Manager make an informed decision about selecting a new tool.

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79. 7.3 Test Team DynamicsWhen determining whom to hire or add to the test team, an objective assessment of skills can be helpful. This can be done via interviewing, testing the candidate, reviewing work samples and by verifying references.Which 7 of the following would be examples of interpersonal skills?

Explanation

Incorrect answers relate to technical skills

Submit
80. 6.2 Tool SelectionNon-recurring tool costs include the following (choose 4):

Explanation

6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)
It is the responsibility of the Test Manager to ensure that all tools introduced into the testing organization add value to the team’s work and can show a positive ROI to the organization. To ensure that a tool will achieve real and lasting benefits, a cost-benefit analysis should be performed before acquiring or building a tool. In this analysis, the ROI should consider both recurring and non-recurring costs, some of which are monetary and some of which are resource or time costs, and the risks that may reduce the value of the tool.

Submit
81. Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Incremental (evolutionary and Agile methods)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Requirements are not complete, Not preventive in nature, Defect detection starts early, Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas". Incremental (evolutionary and Agile methods) are characterized by having incomplete requirements, not being preventive in nature, starting defect detection early, and identifying and prioritizing key quality risk areas. This means that these methods focus on iterative development, adapting to changes, and continuously improving the product. By starting defect detection early and identifying key quality risk areas, the development team can address potential issues and ensure a high-quality end product.

Submit
82. Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Sequential (waterfall model, V-model and W -model)

Explanation

The correct answer is "Requirements are complete and furnished early, Preventive in nature, Defect detection starts late, Manage requirements." This answer matches the characteristics of the Sequential (waterfall model, V-model, and W-model) approach. In this approach, the requirements are gathered and documented early in the project, which allows for planning and development to proceed based on a clear understanding of what needs to be done. The approach also emphasizes prevention of issues by implementing quality measures and conducting thorough testing and reviews. Defect detection starts late in the process, typically during the testing phase. Finally, managing requirements is an important aspect of this approach to ensure that they are properly understood and implemented throughout the project.

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83. Types of Process ImprovementSTEP, TMMi, TPI and CTP test process assessment models allow an organization to determine where they stand in terms of their current test processes.Once an assessment is performed, STEP and CTP:

Explanation

STEP and CTP test process assessment models help organizations identify their current test processes and determine areas for improvement. Once the assessment is done, these models provide a roadmap for improving the test process, identify the organization's biggest return on investment (ROI) for process improvement, recommend the use of IEEE 892 standards to address specific deviations, and list possible process improvements in order of priority based on factors such as ROI, risks, alignment to organizational strategy, and measurable benefits.

Submit
84. Test Management DocumentationWhich 4 of the following describe the Test Policy?

Explanation

The Test Policy is a short high-level document that includes the definition of testing, the fundamental test process, quality targets, and other important aspects. It is established or approved by the company management and serves as a guide for the organization's testing approach. It explains the "why" of testing for the organization and the objectives that the organization wants to achieve. It is independent of any project but provides a framework for testing in most projects.

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85. Which 4 items describe the Master Test Plan?

Explanation

The Master Test Plan describes how testing will be conducted for a single project that spans multiple levels. It includes the application of the Test Strategy specifically for that project, with an explanation of any deviations from the Test Plan and Test Strategy. The Master Test Plan also mentions the items and quality attributes that will be tested, as well as those that will not be tested. It includes the particular levels of testing and the relationship between them, providing an overall testing framework for the project.

Submit
86. Which 4 items describe the Level Test Plan?

Explanation

The Level Test Plan describes the "how" of testing for a specific level. It includes the particular test activities within each test level and expands on the test activity details found in the Master test plan for that specific level. It also includes schedule, tasks, and milestone details that may not be covered in the Master test plan. The Level Test Plan does not focus on the application of Test Strategy or deviation from the Test plan and Test strategy. It also does not mention the items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested, or the relationship between different levels.

Submit
87. Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are Black Box?

Explanation

The correct answer is Equivalence Partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis, Cause Effect Graphing, and Syntax Testing. These four techniques are considered black box testing techniques because they focus on testing the functionality of the system without considering its internal structure or implementation details. Equivalence Partitioning involves dividing the input data into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. Boundary Value Analysis focuses on testing the boundaries and limits of input values. Cause Effect Graphing is used to identify and test the relationship between inputs and outputs. Syntax Testing checks for the correct syntax and structure of the system.

Submit
88. 7.3 Test Team DynamicsWhen determining whom to hire or add to the test team, an objective assessment of skills can be helpful. This can be done via interviewing, testing the candidate, reviewing work samples and by verifying references.Which 7 of the following would be examples of technical skills?

Explanation

Incorrect answers relate to interpersonal skills

Submit
89. You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. Identify all of the following that are test levels that you would expect to directly manage:

Explanation

As the manager of the quality assessment group, you would be directly responsible for managing the contract acceptance testing for each system and the system integration testing. Contract acceptance testing ensures that the off-the-shelf systems meet the requirements and specifications outlined in the contract. System integration testing involves testing the integration of the three off-the-shelf systems to ensure that they work together seamlessly. The other test levels, such as component testing, component integration testing, and system testing, would typically be managed by the respective development teams or testers responsible for each system.

Submit
90. Test Management Documentation Which 4 of the following describe the Test Strategy?

Explanation



The four descriptions that typically apply to the Test Strategy are:

"Why of testing for an organization": The Test Strategy outlines the reasons behind the testing activities for the organization, including the goals and objectives it aims to achieve through testing.

"Objective that organization wants to achieve": This aligns with the overall objectives and goals that the organization aims to accomplish through testing, which are defined in the Test Strategy document.

"Short high level document that includes definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets, etc.": The Test Strategy document is indeed a high-level document that provides an overview of the testing approach, including fundamental processes, quality targets, and other key aspects.

"Company management establishes or approves this document": The Test Strategy is typically established or approved by company management as it outlines the overarching approach to testing for the organization's projects.

The descriptions "How of testing for an organization," "Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects," "Dividing testing into levels," and "High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level" more closely align with the Test Plan rather than the Test Strategy.
Submit
91. Which of the following THREE describe Test Planning?

Explanation

Test planning is an ongoing activity that involves implementing the test strategy, setting the framework for deriving test cases, test conditions, and test procedures from the test basis, and comparing actual progress against the plan. It also must respond to changes in mission, strategies, and testing objectives. Additionally, it includes the planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases.

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