# NCCT Practice Test - Labs Part Two

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This is from section V of the big study book.

• 1.

### In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed to close together, the amplitude will be ______.

• A.

Small

• B.

Large

• C.

Round

• D.

Square

A. Small
Explanation
When the electrodes are placed too close together, they will pick up signals from the same region of the body, resulting in interference and overlapping of the signals. This will cause the amplitude of the recorded signal to be small.

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• 2.

### The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to

• A.

0.10 sec

• B.

0.20 sec

• C.

0.40 sec

• D.

0.09 sec

B. 0.20 sec
Explanation
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to 0.20 seconds. This is the correct answer because ECG paper is typically standardized to have a certain size for each square, and the standard size for a large square is 0.20 seconds. This allows healthcare professionals to accurately measure the duration of various electrical events on the ECG tracing, such as the duration of the PR interval or the QRS complex.

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• 3.

### A "V wave" will _____ be seen in a normal EKG.

• A.

Always

• B.

Sometimes

• C.

Never

• D.

Usually

C. Never
Explanation
In a normal EKG, a "V wave" will never be seen. The V wave is a characteristic waveform that represents the venous filling of the right atrium during atrial systole. However, the EKG primarily records the electrical activity of the heart's chambers and not the venous filling. Therefore, the V wave is not typically observed in a normal EKG.

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• 4.

### The _____ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.

• A.

Major

• B.

Sensitivity

• C.

Red

• D.

Ticker

B. Sensitivity
Explanation
The correct answer is sensitivity. The sensitivity switch on an EKG machine controls the gain or amplitude of the electrical signals being recorded from the heart. By adjusting the sensitivity, the EKG technician can ensure that the signals are displayed at an appropriate level for accurate interpretation and analysis.

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• 5.

### When preparing for lead placement you should first care for ______.

• A.

Skin preparation

• B.

Application of electrode wires

• C.

Application of electrodes

• D.

Positioning of electrodes

A. Skin preparation
Explanation
When preparing for lead placement, the first thing to care for is skin preparation. This involves cleaning the area where the electrodes will be placed to ensure proper adhesion and accurate readings. Proper skin preparation helps to remove any dirt, oil, or sweat that could interfere with the electrode's ability to stick to the skin and transmit accurate signals. It also helps to reduce the risk of infection and skin irritation. By prioritizing skin preparation, healthcare professionals can ensure optimal lead placement and improve the accuracy of the readings obtained.

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• 6.

### Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called ___.

• A.

Cardiac scan

• B.

Pacemaker implant

• C.

Defibrillation

• D.

Endarterectomy

C. Defibrillation
Explanation
Defibrillation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of converting a dysrhythmia (abnormal heart rhythm) back to a normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the chest. This shock helps to depolarize the heart muscle and restore its normal electrical activity. The other options, such as cardiac scan, pacemaker implant, and endarterectomy, are not related to the conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm through electric shock.

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• 7.

### Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?

• A.

Clean the skin with an alcohol swipe

• B.

Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode

• C.

Shave the hair from the skin

• D.

Roughen the skin for better dermis contact

B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode
Explanation
The correct answer is "make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode." This is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement because dampening the skin can interfere with the proper adhesion of the electrode and may lead to poor contact and inaccurate readings. It is important to clean the skin with an alcohol swipe to remove any dirt or oils, shave the hair from the skin to ensure proper adhesion, and roughen the skin for better dermis contact to ensure accurate and reliable readings.

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• 8.

### The electrode site should be _____.

• A.

Clean, smooth, and dry

• B.

Hairy

• C.

Have plenty of skin oil present

• D.

Moist

A. Clean, smooth, and dry
Explanation
The electrode site should be clean, smooth, and dry to ensure proper adhesion of the electrode and accurate readings. A clean surface helps to remove any dirt or oils that could interfere with the electrode's contact with the skin. A smooth surface ensures that the electrode lays flat and makes full contact with the skin. Lastly, a dry surface helps to prevent any moisture from affecting the electrode's performance or causing discomfort to the individual.

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• 9.

### An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ____ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.

• A.

Time

• B.

Route

• C.

Waves

• D.

Lines

A. Time
Explanation
An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the time it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart. This is because the electrical activity of the heart produces waves that can be detected and recorded by the ECG machine. By measuring the time it takes for these waves to travel through different parts of the heart, doctors can assess the overall health and functioning of the heart.

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• 10.

### In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the _____ area.

• A.

Center

• B.

Gel

• C.

• D.

Peripheral

Explanation
To secure the electrode, rubbing your finger around the adhesive area is necessary. This helps to ensure that the electrode sticks firmly to the skin and remains in place during the application process. The adhesive is responsible for creating a strong bond between the electrode and the skin, allowing for accurate readings and effective treatment if necessary. The gel, on the other hand, is typically located underneath the adhesive and is responsible for conducting electrical signals. The center and peripheral areas are not directly related to the securing process.

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• 11.

### When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called ______.

• A.

Irregular with a pattern

• B.

Absolutely regular

• C.

Essentially regular

• D.

Totally irregular

B. Absolutely regular
Explanation
When there is no variation of R-R intervals, it is called "absolutely regular." This means that the time between each R wave in the heart's electrical activity is constant and consistent, without any deviations or irregularities.

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• 12.

### Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: 1. magnitude or force, and 2. _____.

• A.

Amplitude

• B.

Ground electrode

• C.

Direction or shape

• D.

Polarization

C. Direction or shape
Explanation
Ventricular depolarization refers to the electrical activation of the ventricles of the heart. This process generates an electrical force or vector with two components. The first component is the magnitude or force, which represents the strength of the electrical signal. The second component is the direction or shape, which describes the orientation or pattern of the electrical force. Therefore, the correct answer is "direction or shape" as it completes the explanation of the two components of the electrical force produced during ventricular depolarization.

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• 13.

### A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _____.

• A.

R wave

• B.

T wave

• C.

Q wave

• D.

S wave

C. Q wave
Explanation
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is known as the Q wave. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is typically small and narrow, and its presence or absence can provide important diagnostic information about certain cardiac conditions.

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• 14.

### A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called ______.

• A.

Uniform

• B.

Malignant

• C.

Fused

• D.

Bigeminy

A. Uniform
Explanation
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an abnormal heartbeat that originates in the ventricles of the heart. When the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time it appears during a PVC, it is referred to as "uniform." This term indicates that the abnormal beats have a consistent pattern and are not varying in shape or duration.

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• 15.

• A.

Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

• B.

The fourth intercostal space right sternal border

• C.

Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

• D.

Fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

B. The fourth intercostal space right sternal border
Explanation
The correct answer is "the fourth intercostal space right sternal border". When applying leads, it is important to place the VI lead in a specific location to accurately measure the electrical activity of the heart. The fourth intercostal space refers to the space between the ribs, and the right sternal border indicates the right edge of the sternum. Placing the VI lead in this location ensures that it is in the correct position to capture the electrical signals of the heart.

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• 16.

### Which fact is true about the P wave?

• A.

Duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec

• B.

Height deflection is small, not more than 3mm

• C.

Both A and B

• D.

C. Both A and B
Explanation
The fact that both the duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec and the height deflection is small, not more than 3mm, is true.

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• 17.

### When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called _____.

• A.

Fused

• B.

Multiform

• C.

Life threatening

• D.

Uniform

C. Life threatening
Explanation
When PVCs (premature ventricular contractions) fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are considered life threatening. This is because these patterns of PVCs can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, leading to more serious arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.

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• 18.

### When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a _____ deflection results.

• A.

Positive

• B.

Variation

• C.

T wave

• D.

Negative

D. Negative
Explanation
When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a negative deflection results. This is because the positive electrode is the reference point for measuring electrical activity in the body. When the vector moves away from the positive electrode, it indicates a decrease in electrical activity in that direction, resulting in a negative deflection on the electrocardiogram (ECG) or other electrical recording.

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• 19.

### The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is ______.

• A.

Right arm, left leg

• B.

Right arm, right leg

• C.

Left arm, right arm

• D.

Left arm, left leg

C. Left arm, right arm
Explanation
The correct combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is left arm, right arm.

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• 20.

### Concerning ECG's for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is _____.

• A.

Acceptable

• B.

Computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2 = 150/minute

• C.

Unreliable

• D.

Computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes

C. Unreliable
Explanation
Any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is unreliable. This means that using this method may not provide accurate results or may not be consistent in determining the heart rate for irregular rhythms. Therefore, it is not a recommended or trustworthy approach for calculating heart rate in such cases.

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• 21.

### The ______ wave represents atrial depolarization

• A.

S

• B.

P

• C.

R

• D.

U

B. P
Explanation
The P wave represents atrial depolarization.

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• 22.

### While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of _____.

• A.

The fact that it follows the QRS complex

• B.

Shifts up or down from the baseline

• C.

Upward deflection from the baseline

• D.

The shift away from the ischemic area

B. Shifts up or down from the baseline
Explanation
The duration of the ST segment is not generally clinically significant, but it is important because it indicates shifts up or down from the baseline. These shifts can be indicative of various cardiac conditions, such as myocardial ischemia or infarction. Monitoring these shifts helps in identifying abnormalities and making appropriate clinical decisions.

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• 23.

### A QRS measurement of less than _____ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.

• A.

0.13

• B.

0.14

• C.

0.16

• D.

0.12

D. 0.12
Explanation
A QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker. This is because the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and a shorter duration suggests that the electrical impulse is originating from above the ventricles, in the atria or AV node. Therefore, a QRS measurement of 0.12 seconds or less is indicative of a supraventricular pacemaker.

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• 24.

### The area between waves is referred to as _____.

• A.

Back spaces

• B.

Intervals

• C.

Segments

• D.

Cycles

B. Intervals
Explanation
The area between waves is commonly referred to as intervals. In waveforms or graphs, intervals represent the spaces or gaps between consecutive waves or cycles. It is a term used to describe the distance or duration between two points or events in a wave or signal. The term "intervals" accurately captures the concept of the spaces between waves in a concise and precise manner.

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• 25.

### A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called _____.

• A.

Agonal

• B.

Asystole

• C.

Agonist

• D.

Agogue

A. Agonal
Explanation
Agonal refers to the final moments before death, specifically relating to the heart. A terminal lethal dysrhythmia is a dysrhythmia that occurs when the heart is in the process of failing and ultimately leads to death. Therefore, agonal is the correct answer as it accurately describes the state of a dying heart. Asystole refers to the absence of any electrical activity in the heart, agonist refers to a substance that activates a receptor, and agogue refers to a substance that promotes the flow of bodily fluids.

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• 26.

### A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular ocillations of the baseline is called ventricular _____.

• A.

Fibrillation

• B.

Standstill

• C.

Tachycardia

• D.

Rhythm

A. Fibrillation
Explanation
Ventricular fibrillation is a condition characterized by rapid, irregular, and chaotic waves in the ventricles of the heart. This results in a loss of coordinated contractions and the heart is unable to effectively pump blood. Wide, irregular oscillations of the baseline are a characteristic feature of ventricular fibrillation. Standstill refers to the complete cessation of cardiac activity, tachycardia refers to a fast heart rate, and rhythm refers to the regular pattern of heartbeats. Therefore, the correct answer is fibrillation.

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• 27.

### When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ____.

• A.

Patent ductus arteriosus

• B.

An arrhythmia

• C.

An aneurysm

• D.

An embolism

B. An arrhythmia
Explanation
When the heart rhythm is abnormal, it is referred to as an arrhythmia. An arrhythmia is a condition in which the heart beats too fast, too slow, or irregularly. It can be caused by various factors such as heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications. An abnormal heart rhythm can disrupt the normal pumping of blood and may lead to symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Treatment options for arrhythmias include medication, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, medical procedures such as cardioversion or ablation.

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• 28.

### The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ______.

• A.

Atrial flutter

• B.

Sinus arrest

• C.

Ventricular arrhythmia

• D.

Sinus wenckebach

B. Sinus arrest
Explanation
Sinus arrest refers to the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted. It occurs when the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heart rhythm, fails to generate a signal. This interruption in the normal cardiac rhythm can lead to a pause in the heartbeat, causing symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, or even cardiac arrest in severe cases. Atrial flutter, ventricular arrhythmia, and sinus Wenckebach are different types of irregular heart rhythms, but they do not specifically refer to the absence of cardiac cycles like sinus arrest does.

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• 29.

### A speical device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using _____.

• A.

An electric thermometer

• B.

• C.

Oxygen

• D.

A sphygmomanometer

C. Oxygen
Explanation
A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using oxygen because oxygen needs to be delivered at a specific flow rate to ensure safe and effective administration. The regulator or flow meter allows the user to control and adjust the flow of oxygen to meet the individual's needs. Without a regulator or flow meter, it would be difficult to accurately control the amount of oxygen being delivered, which could result in either insufficient or excessive oxygen levels, both of which can be dangerous.

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• 30.

### Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ______.

• A.

Catheter

• B.

Cannula

• C.

Tent

• D.

All choices

D. All choices
Explanation
The correct answer is "all choices". Oxygen can be administered to a patient using various methods, including a catheter, cannula, or a tent. Each of these options allows for the delivery of oxygen to the patient in different ways, depending on their specific needs and condition.

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• 31.

### The clean catch urine specimen is also called _____.

• A.

Clean voided specimen

• B.

24 hr urine specimen

• C.

Mid stream specimen

• D.

Both a and c

D. Both a and c
Explanation
The clean catch urine specimen is also called both a clean voided specimen and a mid stream specimen. This is because both terms refer to the same method of collecting urine, where the initial and final parts of the urine stream are avoided to minimize contamination.

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• 32.

### A 24 hour urine specimen should be ____.

• A.

Kept at body temperature

• B.

Left open to the air

• C.

Kept at room temperature

• D.

Chilled/refrigerated

D. Chilled/refrigerated
Explanation
A 24 hour urine specimen should be chilled/refrigerated to prevent bacterial growth and maintain the integrity of the sample. Cooling the specimen helps to slow down the breakdown of certain substances in the urine, such as glucose and proteins, which can be affected by temperature changes. This ensures that accurate results can be obtained when analyzing the urine for various diagnostic purposes.

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• 33.

### The fresh fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ______.

• A.

T.B.

• B.

Pneumonia

• C.

Sugar

• D.

High blood pressure

C. Sugar
Explanation
The fresh fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for sugar. This is because sugar in the urine can be an indication of diabetes or other metabolic disorders. By analyzing the urine sample, healthcare professionals can determine the presence of sugar and monitor the patient's glucose levels. This test is important in diagnosing and managing conditions related to sugar metabolism.

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• 34.

### Another term for acetone in the urine is ______.

• A.

Sugar

• B.

Pus

• C.

Ketone bodies (ketones)

• D.

C. Ketone bodies (ketones)
Explanation
Acetone is a type of ketone body that can be found in the urine. Ketone bodies are produced when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of glucose. In conditions like diabetes or fasting, the production of ketone bodies increases, leading to their presence in the urine. Therefore, the correct answer for another term for acetone in the urine is "ketone bodies (ketones)".

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• 35.

### Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?

• A.

Acetest

• B.

Clinitest

• C.

Testape

• D.

Keto-diastix

D. Keto-diastix
Explanation
Keto-diastix is the correct answer because it is a test that measures both sugar and acetone in the urine. Acetest, clinitest, and testape are not specifically designed to measure both sugar and acetone in the urine.

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• 36.

### To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram positive and gram negative is a special stain called _____.

• A.

Glass stain

• B.

Gram stain

• C.

Germicide

• D.

Bacteria stain

B. Gram stain
Explanation
The correct answer is "gram stain." Gram staining is a special staining technique used in microbiology to classify bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative. This technique involves the use of crystal violet dye, iodine solution, alcohol, and safranin dye. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet dye and appear purple under a microscope, while gram-negative bacteria do not retain the dye and appear pink/red. Gram staining is an essential tool in bacterial identification and helps in determining appropriate treatment strategies.

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• 37.

### When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ____ the first drop.

• A.

Collect

• B.

Use

• C.

Wipe away

• D.

Wash off

C. Wipe away
Explanation
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. Wiping away the first drop ensures that the subsequent drops collected for the blood smear are pure and uncontaminated, allowing for more accurate results in laboratory analysis.

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• 38.

### When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ______.

• A.

Stand for one hour

• B.

Stand for four minutes

• C.

Air dry

• D.

Blow on them to dry them

C. Air dry
Explanation
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, it is suggested to let them air dry. This means allowing them to dry naturally without any external assistance such as blowing on them or using any other drying method. This is the most appropriate option as it ensures that the slides dry in a controlled and gentle manner, reducing the risk of damage or contamination.

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• 39.

### When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of ______.

• A.

Foil

• B.

Steel

• C.

Plastic

• D.

Glass

C. Plastic
Explanation
When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of plastic because plastic is non-reactive and does not interfere with the blood sample. It is also smooth and allows for an even spread of the blood on the slide. Additionally, plastic slides are disposable, reducing the risk of contamination and ensuring accurate results. Glass slides may cause the blood to clot, while foil and steel slides can react with the blood and affect its composition.

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• 40.

### Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?

• A.

Edges should be thicker than the rest

• B.

Edges should be feathered

• C.

Smear must be at least 1.5in long

• D.

Edges should be in a straight line

B. Edges should be feathered
Explanation
In order to make a blood smear for a differential blood count, it is crucial for the edges to be feathered. Feathering the edges helps to create a smooth and even distribution of the blood sample across the slide, allowing for accurate examination and analysis of the different types of blood cells present. This technique ensures that the cells are evenly spread out and prevents clumping or overlapping, which could lead to inaccurate results.

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• 41.

### The glucose tolerance test is a ____ test.

• A.

Saliva

• B.

Timed

• C.

Finger stick

• D.

Dangerous

B. Timed
Explanation
The glucose tolerance test is a timed test because it involves measuring the blood glucose levels at specific time intervals after consuming a glucose solution. This test helps to evaluate the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels and diagnose conditions like diabetes. The timing of blood glucose measurements during the test is crucial for accurate results and interpretation.

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• 42.

### While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a ______ screen.

• A.

Blood

• B.

Serum

• C.

Prenatal

• D.

Postnatal

C. Prenatal
Explanation
The given question is asking for the term used to describe the type and RH screening that is typically ordered for all pregnant women. This screening is commonly referred to as a prenatal screen.

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• 43.

### Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth?

• A.

Light and oxygen

• B.

Absence of oxygen

• C.

Light and the absence of oxygen

• D.

B. Absence of oxygen
Explanation
Anaerobic pathogens are microorganisms that can only survive and grow in the absence of oxygen. They are adapted to environments where oxygen is limited or completely absent, such as deep wound cultures. These pathogens have evolved to utilize alternative metabolic pathways that do not require oxygen. Therefore, the absence of oxygen is necessary for their growth and survival.

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• 44.

### To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _____ must be swabbed.

• A.

Nasopharynx and tonsillar area

• B.

Back of the tongue and epiglottis

• C.

Under the tongue and along the gum line

• D.

A. Nasopharynx and tonsillar area
Explanation
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, the nasopharynx and tonsillar area must be swabbed. This is because these areas contain the most common sites for bacterial or viral infections in the throat. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that can be tested for the presence of pathogens and helps in diagnosing and treating throat infections.

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• 45.

### A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following?

• A.

Testosterone

• B.

• C.

Progesterone

• D.

Estrogen

Explanation
A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This hormone is produced by the placenta after implantation occurs, and its presence in urine or blood indicates pregnancy. Testosterone, progesterone, and estrogen are not specific indicators of pregnancy and do not increase significantly during early pregnancy. Therefore, hCG is the correct answer for a CLIA waived pregnancy test.

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• 46.

### When performing and CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?

• A.

Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated

• B.

Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box

• C.

Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter

• D.

C. Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter
Explanation
When performing a CLIA waived test, it is important to perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter. This ensures that the test results are accurate and reliable. Quality control testing helps to identify any potential issues with the kit or the testing process, allowing for corrective actions to be taken. By regularly performing quality control testing, healthcare professionals can maintain the integrity of the testing process and ensure the validity of the results.

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• 47.

### Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical.  The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?

• A.

Regularly scheduled check ups

• B.

Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts

• C.

Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth

• D.

Explanation
Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical to ensure its proper functioning and longevity. Regularly scheduled check-ups allow for early detection and prevention of potential issues. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts helps identify safety hazards and prevents accidents. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth helps maintain cleanliness and prevent contamination. Therefore, all of the given answers are correct as they contribute to the overall maintenance plan for laboratory equipment.

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• 48.

### When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required?

• A.

Stool sample

• B.

Urine

• C.

Semen

• D.

Blood

A. Stool sample
Explanation
When testing for occult blood, a stool sample would be required. Occult blood refers to the presence of small amounts of blood that are not visible to the naked eye. Stool samples are commonly used to detect occult blood as it can indicate various gastrointestinal conditions such as ulcers, polyps, or colorectal cancer. By analyzing the stool sample, medical professionals can determine if there is any hidden blood present, which can help in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition.

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• 49.

### When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?

• A.

Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen

• B.

The patient should consume 20 oz of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen

• C.

The patient should limit dairy

• D.

There are no restrictions on medications- the patient should take all medications as prescribed

A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen
Explanation
Prior to collecting a sample for occult blood testing, it is necessary for the patient to make dietary modifications for 48 hours. This means that the patient should avoid certain foods and beverages that may affect the test results, such as red meat, certain fruits and vegetables, and certain medications. This ensures that the test accurately detects any presence of blood in the sample. Limiting dairy and taking all medications as prescribed are not relevant instructions for occult blood testing.

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• 50.

### In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is _____.

• A.

Nebulization

• B.

Spirometry

• C.

Sigmoidoscopy

• D.

Mantoux test

B. Spirometry
Explanation
Spirometry is the most frequently performed pulmonary function test in a medical office. This test measures the amount of air a person can inhale and exhale, as well as how quickly they can do so. It helps in diagnosing and monitoring lung conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and pulmonary fibrosis. Nebulization is a method of delivering medication to the lungs, not a pulmonary function test. Sigmoidoscopy is a procedure used to examine the lower part of the colon, and the Mantoux test is a screening test for tuberculosis, both of which are unrelated to pulmonary function testing.

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• Mar 20, 2023
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• Oct 11, 2013
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