NCCT Practice Test - Labs Part Two

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 885

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NCCT Quizzes & Trivia

This is from section V of the big study book.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed to close together, the amplitude will be ______.
    • A. 

      Small

    • B. 

      Large

    • C. 

      Round

    • D. 

      Square

  • 2. 
    The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to
    • A. 

      0.10 sec

    • B. 

      0.20 sec

    • C. 

      0.40 sec

    • D. 

      0.09 sec

  • 3. 
    A "V wave" will _____ be seen in a normal EKG.
    • A. 

      Always

    • B. 

      Sometimes

    • C. 

      Never

    • D. 

      Usually

  • 4. 
    The _____ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Sensitivity

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Ticker

  • 5. 
    When preparing for lead placement you should first care for ______.
    • A. 

      Skin preparation

    • B. 

      Application of electrode wires

    • C. 

      Application of electrodes

    • D. 

      Positioning of electrodes

  • 6. 
    Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called ___.
    • A. 

      Cardiac scan

    • B. 

      Pacemaker implant

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Endarterectomy

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
    • A. 

      Clean the skin with an alcohol swipe

    • B. 

      Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode

    • C. 

      Shave the hair from the skin

    • D. 

      Roughen the skin for better dermis contact

  • 8. 
    The electrode site should be _____.
    • A. 

      Clean, smooth, and dry

    • B. 

      Hairy

    • C. 

      Have plenty of skin oil present

    • D. 

      Moist

  • 9. 
    An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the ____ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart.
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Route

    • C. 

      Waves

    • D. 

      Lines

  • 10. 
    In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the _____ area.
    • A. 

      Center

    • B. 

      Gel

    • C. 

      Adhesive

    • D. 

      Peripheral

  • 11. 
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called ______.
    • A. 

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B. 

      Absolutely regular

    • C. 

      Essentially regular

    • D. 

      Totally irregular

  • 12. 
    Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: 1. magnitude or force, and 2. _____.
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Ground electrode

    • C. 

      Direction or shape

    • D. 

      Polarization

  • 13. 
    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _____.
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

    • D. 

      S wave

  • 14. 
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called ______.
    • A. 

      Uniform

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Fused

    • D. 

      Bigeminy

  • 15. 
    When applying leads, apply the VI lead _______.
    • A. 

      Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • B. 

      The fourth intercostal space right sternal border

    • C. 

      Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • D. 

      Fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

  • 16. 
    Which fact is true about the P wave?
    • A. 

      Duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec

    • B. 

      Height deflection is small, not more than 3mm

    • C. 

      Both A and B

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 17. 
    When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called _____.
    • A. 

      Fused

    • B. 

      Multiform

    • C. 

      Life threatening

    • D. 

      Uniform

  • 18. 
    When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a _____ deflection results.
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Variation

    • C. 

      T wave

    • D. 

      Negative

  • 19. 
    The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is ______.
    • A. 

      Right arm, left leg

    • B. 

      Right arm, right leg

    • C. 

      Left arm, right arm

    • D. 

      Left arm, left leg

  • 20. 
    Concerning ECG's for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is _____.
    • A. 

      Acceptable

    • B. 

      Computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2 = 150/minute

    • C. 

      Unreliable

    • D. 

      Computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes

  • 21. 
    The ______ wave represents atrial depolarization
    • A. 

      S

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      U

  • 22. 
    While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of _____.
    • A. 

      The fact that it follows the QRS complex

    • B. 

      Shifts up or down from the baseline

    • C. 

      Upward deflection from the baseline

    • D. 

      The shift away from the ischemic area

  • 23. 
    A QRS measurement of less than _____ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.
    • A. 

      0.13

    • B. 

      0.14

    • C. 

      0.16

    • D. 

      0.12

  • 24. 
    The area between waves is referred to as _____.
    • A. 

      Back spaces

    • B. 

      Intervals

    • C. 

      Segments

    • D. 

      Cycles

  • 25. 
    A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called _____.
    • A. 

      Agonal

    • B. 

      Asystole

    • C. 

      Agonist

    • D. 

      Agogue

  • 26. 
    A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular ocillations of the baseline is called ventricular _____.
    • A. 

      Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Standstill

    • C. 

      Tachycardia

    • D. 

      Rhythm

  • 27. 
    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ____.
    • A. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • B. 

      An arrhythmia

    • C. 

      An aneurysm

    • D. 

      An embolism

  • 28. 
    The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ______.
    • A. 

      Atrial flutter

    • B. 

      Sinus arrest

    • C. 

      Ventricular arrhythmia

    • D. 

      Sinus wenckebach

  • 29. 
    A speical device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using _____.
    • A. 

      An electric thermometer

    • B. 

      A hot pad

    • C. 

      Oxygen

    • D. 

      A sphygmomanometer

  • 30. 
    Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ______.
    • A. 

      Catheter

    • B. 

      Cannula

    • C. 

      Tent

    • D. 

      All choices

  • 31. 
    The clean catch urine specimen is also called _____.
    • A. 

      Clean voided specimen

    • B. 

      24 hr urine specimen

    • C. 

      Mid stream specimen

    • D. 

      Both a and c

  • 32. 
    A 24 hour urine specimen should be ____.
    • A. 

      Kept at body temperature

    • B. 

      Left open to the air

    • C. 

      Kept at room temperature

    • D. 

      Chilled/refrigerated

  • 33. 
    The fresh fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for ______.
    • A. 

      T.B.

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Sugar

    • D. 

      High blood pressure

  • 34. 
    Another term for acetone in the urine is ______.
    • A. 

      Sugar

    • B. 

      Pus

    • C. 

      Ketone bodies (ketones)

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 35. 
    Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?
    • A. 

      Acetest

    • B. 

      Clinitest

    • C. 

      Testape

    • D. 

      Keto-diastix

  • 36. 
    To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram positive and gram negative is a special stain called _____.
    • A. 

      Glass stain

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Germicide

    • D. 

      Bacteria stain

  • 37. 
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should ____ the first drop.
    • A. 

      Collect

    • B. 

      Use

    • C. 

      Wipe away

    • D. 

      Wash off

  • 38. 
    When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ______.
    • A. 

      Stand for one hour

    • B. 

      Stand for four minutes

    • C. 

      Air dry

    • D. 

      Blow on them to dry them

  • 39. 
    When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of ______.
    • A. 

      Foil

    • B. 

      Steel

    • C. 

      Plastic

    • D. 

      Glass

  • 40. 
    Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?
    • A. 

      Edges should be thicker than the rest

    • B. 

      Edges should be feathered

    • C. 

      Smear must be at least 1.5in long

    • D. 

      Edges should be in a straight line

  • 41. 
    The glucose tolerance test is a ____ test.
    • A. 

      Saliva

    • B. 

      Timed

    • C. 

      Finger stick

    • D. 

      Dangerous

  • 42. 
    While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a ______ screen.
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Serum

    • C. 

      Prenatal

    • D. 

      Postnatal

  • 43. 
    Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth?
    • A. 

      Light and oxygen

    • B. 

      Absence of oxygen

    • C. 

      Light and the absence of oxygen

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 44. 
    To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _____ must be swabbed.
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx and tonsillar area

    • B. 

      Back of the tongue and epiglottis

    • C. 

      Under the tongue and along the gum line

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 45. 
    A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Human chorionic gonadotropin

    • C. 

      Progesterone

    • D. 

      Estrogen

  • 46. 
    When performing and CLIA waived test it is important to do which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated

    • B. 

      Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box

    • C. 

      Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 47. 
    Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical.  The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Regularly scheduled check ups

    • B. 

      Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts

    • C. 

      Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 48. 
    When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required?
    • A. 

      Stool sample

    • B. 

      Urine

    • C. 

      Semen

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 49. 
    When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?
    • A. 

      Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen

    • B. 

      The patient should consume 20 oz of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen

    • C. 

      The patient should limit dairy

    • D. 

      There are no restrictions on medications- the patient should take all medications as prescribed

  • 50. 
    In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is _____.
    • A. 

      Nebulization

    • B. 

      Spirometry

    • C. 

      Sigmoidoscopy

    • D. 

      Mantoux test