NCCT Prep-ma-medical Procedures A-d

194 Questions

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THIS SECTION IS TIMED. THIS IS TO GIVE YOU SOME PRACTICE FOR THE REAL NCCT TEST THAT IS TIMED THIS IS BASIC KNOWLEDGE FOR MA'S AND JUST BE SURE TO READ THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY! ncct prep questions for 2011 book


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plan.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    The exposure control plan shall be made available to Assistant Secretary and the Director OSHA upon request for examination and copying
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    "HIV' means_______
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B virus

    • B. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Human infectious virus

  • 4. 
    _______ means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skkin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tube, and exposed ends of dental wires.
    • A. 

      "Contaminated Devices"

    • B. 

      "Disposable Devices"

    • C. 

      "Contaminated Sharps"

    • D. 

      "Dangerous Incisor"

  • 5. 
    Reasonable anticipated skin,eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee's duties is called_______
    • A. 

      Occupational exposure

    • B. 

      Daily risk

    • C. 

      Occupational risk

    • D. 

      Professional threat

  • 6. 
    Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of occupational exposure to the employee is called a(n)_______
    • A. 

      Hazardous individual

    • B. 

      Source individual

    • C. 

      Infected specimen

    • D. 

      Quarantined source

  • 7. 
    To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial enospores is to______.
    • A. 

      Eradicate

    • B. 

      Detoxify

    • C. 

      Sterilize

    • D. 

      Acid wash

  • 8. 
    _______ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace.
    • A. 

      Semen

    • B. 

      Saliva in dental procedures

    • C. 

      Pleural fluid

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 9. 
    The risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately___________
    • A. 

      0.01%

    • B. 

      0.50%

    • C. 

      1.00%

    • D. 

      5.00%

  • 10. 
    General infection-control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of_________and to provide a wide margin of safety in the caried situations encountered in the health-care environment.
    • A. 

      Diseases

    • B. 

      Conditions

    • C. 

      Microbiological agents

    • D. 

      Sickness

  • 11. 
    "Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intat skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties" this definition (found in the Federal Register) applies to __________
    • A. 

      Human exposure

    • B. 

      Exposed worker

    • C. 

      Worker stress

    • D. 

      Stressed worker

  • 12. 
    All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with _______ vaccine.
    • A. 

      Human immunodeficiency

    • B. 

      Hepatitis C

    • C. 

      Small pox

    • D. 

      Hepatitis B

  • 13. 
    ________testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational eposure.
    • A. 

      Serologic

    • B. 

      Blood

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Bacterial

  • 14. 
    Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is______
    • A. 

      Frequent

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      Remote

    • D. 

      As frequent as blood transmission

  • 15. 
    After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in_____containers for disposal.
    • A. 

      Biodegradable

    • B. 

      Puncture-resistant

    • C. 

      OSHA

    • D. 

      Sanitized

  • 16. 
    Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands, but by mechanical means, such as_______
    • A. 

      By a lab technician

    • B. 

      An evacuated tube

    • C. 

      A brush and dust pan

    • D. 

      Gloved hands

  • 17. 
    Contaminated laundry shall be_______ where it was soiled.
    • A. 

      Destroyed at the location

    • B. 

      Transprted away from the location

    • C. 

      Disinfected or discarded at the location

    • D. 

      Bagged or containerized at the location

  • 18. 
    All spills of lood-contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using_____approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach.
    • A. 

      An OSHA

    • B. 

      An EPA

    • C. 

      A hospital or clinic

    • D. 

      A consumer

  • 19. 
    In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in ________biohazard plastic bags.
    • A. 

      Black

    • B. 

      Clearly marked

    • C. 

      Orange-red

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 20. 
    It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel ______
    • A. 

      When cleaning up blood or body fluids

    • B. 

      At all times in the laboratory

    • C. 

      When routinely cleaning equipment

    • D. 

      When scrubbing laboratory floors

  • 21. 
    Blood from all individuals should be considered______.
    • A. 

      Decontaminated

    • B. 

      Infective or infectious

    • C. 

      Biodegradable

    • D. 

      Chemically hazardous

  • 22. 
    When taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gowns, and eye wear.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    A specific eye, maouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called_____
    • A. 

      Unfortunate incident

    • B. 

      Hazardous exposure

    • C. 

      Occupational hazard

    • D. 

      Expsure incident

  • 24. 
    The term " Universal Precautions" is an ______.
    • A. 

      Organization to promote infection control

    • B. 

      Overall approach to infection control

    • C. 

      Organizational approach to following EPA guidelines

    • D. 

      Abbreviation for Wold Health Organization standards

  • 25. 
    Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for ______ or more years following vaccination.
    • A. 

      Seven

    • B. 

      Ten

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Twelve

  • 26. 
    The first line of defense in preventing disease is ________
    • A. 

      Wearing a mask

    • B. 

      The medical hand wash

    • C. 

      Wearing gloves

    • D. 

      Wearing a gown

  • 27. 
    Biohazard labels must be colored______
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange-red

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Grey-black

  • 28. 
    What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers?
    • A. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration

    • B. 

      Drug Enforcement Agency

    • C. 

      Department of Defense

    • D. 

      Law Enforcement Agency

  • 29. 
    Viruses can reproduce only in______
    • A. 

      Dead cells

    • B. 

      Living cells

    • C. 

      Both dead and living cells

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 30. 
    The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called________
    • A. 

      Disinfection

    • B. 

      Washing

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Dusting

  • 31. 
    The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganism by combining________
    • A. 

      Bleach and water under pressure

    • B. 

      Acid with steam

    • C. 

      Heat with steam under pressure

    • D. 

      Hot water and soap

  • 32. 
    What kind of environment do microorganisms grow best in?
    • A. 

      Cool and light

    • B. 

      Warm and light

    • C. 

      Cool and dark

    • D. 

      Dark and warm

  • 33. 
    A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is
    • A. 

      A syndrome

    • B. 

      An infection

    • C. 

      A laceration

    • D. 

      An asepsis

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Medical asepsis

    • B. 

      Contamination

    • C. 

      Clean technique

    • D. 

      Both a and c

  • 35. 
    The process by which an object or area becomes unclean is
    • A. 

      Contamination

    • B. 

      Disinfection

    • C. 

      Sterilization

    • D. 

      Heat

  • 36. 
    You should wash your hands for approximately_______
    • A. 

      15 seconds

    • B. 

      1 to 2 minutes

    • C. 

      10 minutes

    • D. 

      5 minutes

  • 37. 
    When you wash your hands you should stand _____
    • A. 

      Up against the sink

    • B. 

      Five inches from the sink

    • C. 

      So your clothes do not touch the sink

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 38. 
    The faucet is turned off with ______
    • A. 

      Your arm

    • B. 

      A paper towel

    • C. 

      Your hand

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 39. 
    A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a(n)___________
    • A. 

      Pre-infected

    • B. 

      Carrier

    • C. 

      Infectious

    • D. 

      Immune

  • 40. 
    Groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called_________
    • A. 

      Families

    • B. 

      Fungi

    • C. 

      Cultures

    • D. 

      Viruses (viri)

  • 41. 
    The patient with an infection may have_______
    • A. 

      Loss of appetite and fatigue

    • B. 

      Fever, nausea, rash and vomiting

    • C. 

      Pain, redness or swelling

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 42. 
    Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are called ________
    • A. 

      Catching

    • B. 

      Contagious

    • C. 

      Germicides

    • D. 

      Decontaminated

  • 43. 
    When using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the ______
    • A. 

      Middle of the fire

    • B. 

      Top of the fire

    • C. 

      Around the fire

    • D. 

      Base of the fire

  • 44. 
    Aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well?
    • A. 

      Increased nitrogen concentration

    • B. 

      An extremely dry environment

    • C. 

      Oxygen

    • D. 

      Temperature

  • 45. 
    How quickly will an electronic thermometer measure body temperature?
    • A. 

      7 to 8 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      2 to 60 seconds

    • D. 

      5 minutes

  • 46. 
    Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?
    • A. 

      Apical pulse

    • B. 

      Radial pulse

    • C. 

      Brachial pulse

    • D. 

      Apical-radial pulse

  • 47. 
    What is considered a normal adult pulse rate?
    • A. 

      70-170

    • B. 

      90-130

    • C. 

      70-80

    • D. 

      60-100

  • 48. 
    The radial pulse is located in the _______
    • A. 

      Chest

    • B. 

      Neck

    • C. 

      Wrist

    • D. 

      Head

  • 49. 
    The least reliable measurement of body temperature is_____
    • A. 

      Rectal

    • B. 

      Oral

    • C. 

      Axillary

    • D. 

      All are equally reliable

  • 50. 
    The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is_______
    • A. 

      Rectal

    • B. 

      Oral

    • C. 

      Axillary

    • D. 

      Nasal

  • 51. 
    What is considered a normal adult respiration per minute?
    • A. 

      14-20

    • B. 

      5-10

    • C. 

      25-30

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 52. 
    A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called_______
    • A. 

      Apnea

    • B. 

      Hypoventilation

    • C. 

      Tachypnea

    • D. 

      Bradypnea

  • 53. 
    Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of _________
    • A. 

      Hypotension

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Normal

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 54. 
    The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if_______
    • A. 

      The patient has had breast surgery on that side

    • B. 

      On an arm with an IV infusion

    • C. 

      On an arm with a cast

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 55. 
    To measure a blood pressure, the medical assistant will need_____
    • A. 

      A stethoscope and sphygmomanometer

    • B. 

      A thermometer

    • C. 

      A mercury manometer

    • D. 

      To clean the area first

  • 56. 
    Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure?
    • A. 

      The point where the first sound is heard

    • B. 

      The point where the last sound is heard

    • C. 

      Anything under 100 on the sphygmomanometer

    • D. 

      Anything over 100on the sphygmomanometer

  • 57. 
    When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?
    • A. 

      The cuff should be applied to the bare upper arm

    • B. 

      Room should be quiet so that the blood pressure can be heard

    • C. 

      Sphygmomanometer needs to clearly visible

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 58. 
    With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the _______
    • A. 

      Patient

    • B. 

      Physician

    • C. 

      Receptionist

    • D. 

      Chart

  • 59. 
    A medical assistant would measure the patient's temperature, pulse and respiration when the physician asks him or her to________
    • A. 

      Take blood pressure

    • B. 

      Take three

    • C. 

      Take vital signs

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is used to take an infant's rectal temperature?
    • A. 

      Oral thermometer

    • B. 

      Axillary thermometer

    • C. 

      Security thermometer

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 61. 
    Never clean a glass thermometer with _________
    • A. 

      Disinfectant

    • B. 

      Cold water

    • C. 

      Alcohol

    • D. 

      Hot water

  • 62. 
    When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs this is referred to as _____
    • A. 

      Shallow respiration

    • B. 

      Cheyne-Stokes respiration

    • C. 

      Stertorous respiration

    • D. 

      Abdominal respiration

  • 63. 
    When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when s/he is breathing, it is called ________
    • A. 

      Cheyne-Stokes respiration

    • B. 

      Irregular respiration

    • C. 

      Abdominal respiration

    • D. 

      Stertorous respiration

  • 64. 
    When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest. The pressure is called the ______
    • A. 

      Systolic pressure

    • B. 

      Diastolic pressure

    • C. 

      Air pressure

    • D. 

      High pressure

  • 65. 
    When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a(n) ________
    • A. 

      Sphygmomanometer

    • B. 

      Earphone

    • C. 

      Stethoscope

    • D. 

      Radio

  • 66. 
    The main type of sphygmomanometers used in a clinical setting is the _______
    • A. 

      Mercury type

    • B. 

      Alcohol type

    • C. 

      Aneroid type

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 67. 
    When the pressure is lowest, the pressure is called ______
    • A. 

      Diastolic pressure

    • B. 

      Air pressure

    • C. 

      Systolic pressure

    • D. 

      Water pressure

  • 68. 
    The process of inhaling and exhaling is called _________
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Pulse

    • C. 

      Respiration

    • D. 

      Coughing

  • 69. 
    When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall of the chest is not steady, it is called______
    • A. 

      Abdominal respiration

    • B. 

      Stertorous respiration

    • C. 

      Shallow respiration

    • D. 

      Irregular respiration

  • 70. 
    When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the ______
    • A. 

      Rhythm of pulse beats

    • B. 

      Rate (number of pulse beats per minute)

    • C. 

      Force of the beat

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 71. 
    The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the ____
    • A. 

      Pulse

    • B. 

      Respiration

    • C. 

      Body temperature

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 72. 
    A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening is called _______
    • A. 

      Injection

    • B. 

      Venipuncture

    • C. 

      Catheter

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 73. 
    The process of inserting a catheter is called ______
    • A. 

      Major surgery

    • B. 

      Catheterization

    • C. 

      Specimen collection

    • D. 

      Testing for venereal disease

  • 74. 
    When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with ______
    • A. 

      Distilled water

    • B. 

      Alcohol

    • C. 

      Oil

    • D. 

      Autoclave fluid

  • 75. 
    A patient positioned on her back with feet in stirrups is said to be in the ______
    • A. 

      Sims' position

    • B. 

      Sitting position

    • C. 

      Lithotomy position

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      Percussion

    • B. 

      Auscultation

    • C. 

      Audiometry

    • D. 

      Proprioceptor ideaul

  • 77. 
    When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the physical characteristics of tissues or organs it is called ________
    • A. 

      Auscultation

    • B. 

      Percussion

    • C. 

      Palpation

    • D. 

      Measuring

  • 78. 
    Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the ______temperature.
    • A. 

      Oral

    • B. 

      Rectal

    • C. 

      Maxillary

    • D. 

      Axilliary

  • 79. 
    Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with fingers is called________
    • A. 

      Percussion

    • B. 

      Audition

    • C. 

      Auditive

    • D. 

      Propitiation

  • 80. 
    The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the __________
    • A. 

      Ophthalmoscope

    • B. 

      Stethoscope

    • C. 

      Sphygmomanometer

    • D. 

      Otoscope

  • 81. 
    An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the ________
    • A. 

      Percussion hammer

    • B. 

      Tuning fork

    • C. 

      Tape measure

    • D. 

      Speculum

  • 82. 
    An apical pulse is the method of choice for ________
    • A. 

      Infants and young children

    • B. 

      Children over four years old

    • C. 

      Adolescents

    • D. 

      Young adults (20-40)

  • 83. 
    Hich degree of burn is the most serious?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 84. 
    On a visual acuity reading of 20/60, what does the 20 represent?
    • A. 

      Distance between patient and test chart

    • B. 

      Patient eye acuity

    • C. 

      Distance that the patient can see with glasses

    • D. 

      That the patient has perfect vision

  • 85. 
    Some clinical signs for head injury could be ______
    • A. 

      Vomiting

    • B. 

      Headache

    • C. 

      Confusion

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 86. 
    Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the _________position.
    • A. 

      Prone

    • B. 

      Supine

    • C. 

      Dorsal

    • D. 

      Lazy

  • 87. 
    Lying supine with knees sharply flexed and separated is known as the ________position.
    • A. 

      Prone

    • B. 

      Dorsal recumbent

    • C. 

      Knee chest

    • D. 

      Supine

  • 88. 
    When a patient's feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are psitioned at the edge of the exam table, the patient is in the ________position
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lithotomy

    • D. 

      Sims'

  • 89. 
    When a patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, With the head turned to one side the patient is in the _______position
    • A. 

      Dorsal recumbent

    • B. 

      Lithotomy

    • C. 

      Prone

    • D. 

      Supine

  • 90. 
    When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table with buttocks elevated, it is called the _____position
    • A. 

      Knee-chest

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lithotomy

    • D. 

      Proctal

  • 91. 
    An otoscope is used for examination of the ________
    • A. 

      Eyes

    • B. 

      Ears

    • C. 

      Nose

    • D. 

      Mouth

  • 92. 
    When measuring blood pressure, the bottom number is called _________
    • A. 

      Diastolic pressure

    • B. 

      Systolic pressure

    • C. 

      Air pressure

    • D. 

      Water pressure

  • 93. 
    With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the ______
    • A. 

      Patient

    • B. 

      Doctor

    • C. 

      Nurse

    • D. 

      Orderly

  • 94. 
    A(n)__________reported includes information relating to the patien's main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician.
    • A. 

      Consultation

    • B. 

      Operative

    • C. 

      History and physical examination

    • D. 

      Referral

  • 95. 
    The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by _____
    • A. 

      Injection

    • B. 

      Suction

    • C. 

      Cutting

    • D. 

      Skin puncture

  • 96. 
    The standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is _____in length (note: Please check current guidelines, as this changes.)
    • A. 

      2.4 mm

    • B. 

      3.6 mm

    • C. 

      4.7 mm

    • D. 

      5.5 mm

  • 97. 
    The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is ________
    • A. 

      Selecting the correct needle gauge

    • B. 

      Selecting the appropriate cleansing agent

    • C. 

      Positively identifying the patient

    • D. 

      Selecting the appropriate tourniquet

  • 98. 
    When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:
    • A. 

      Wipe the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep

    • B. 

      Blow on the alcohol to dry it so it doesn't burn

    • C. 

      Cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry

    • D. 

      Have the patient wave the arm in the air to dry it faster

  • 99. 
    To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the_____ needle
    • A. 

      Longer

    • B. 

      Smaller

    • C. 

      Larger

    • D. 

      Shorter

  • 100. 
    An instrument called a centrifuge________
    • A. 

      Freezes specimens

    • B. 

      Heats specimens

    • C. 

      Is used for incubation

    • D. 

      Separates the cellular and liquid portion of the blood

  • 101. 
    Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for _________
    • A. 

      Sterilization

    • B. 

      Slower draw of blood

    • C. 

      Multiple use

    • D. 

      Faster draw of blood

  • 102. 
    Preparing for a glucose tolerance test______hours before or during a test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Ten

    • C. 

      One half

    • D. 

      Two

  • 103. 
    During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a __________
    • A. 

      Holder

    • B. 

      Sleeve

    • C. 

      Tape

    • D. 

      Ball of cotton

  • 104. 
    In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are ______to denote the type of additive or lack of one.
    • A. 

      Striped

    • B. 

      Serrated

    • C. 

      Stamped

    • D. 

      Color coded

  • 105. 
    Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?
    • A. 

      24-25

    • B. 

      21-22

    • C. 

      19-20

    • D. 

      16-18

  • 106. 
    When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to _______for a vein
    • A. 

      Apply soap

    • B. 

      Scrape

    • C. 

      Tap

    • D. 

      Feel

  • 107. 
    When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient______ the veins will become more prominent.
    • A. 

      Cough

    • B. 

      Hold their breath

    • C. 

      Make a fist

    • D. 

      Take a deep breath

  • 108. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Veins feel like an elastic tube

    • B. 

      Veins pulsate

    • C. 

      Veins give under pressure

    • D. 

      Veins go different directions

  • 109. 
    Use your index finger when you ______for a vein
    • A. 

      Stick

    • B. 

      Scratch

    • C. 

      Palpate

    • D. 

      Inject

  • 110. 
    Arterioles are the smallest type of ______
    • A. 

      Tendons

    • B. 

      Arteries

    • C. 

      Bones

    • D. 

      Veins

  • 111. 
    The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is ______
    • A. 

      4 minutes

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      2 minutes

    • D. 

      1 minute

  • 112. 
    To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and _______
    • A. 

      Work in a circle to the periphery

    • B. 

      Wipe carefully back and forth

    • C. 

      Cleanse vigorously for 30 seconds

    • D. 

      Use a lifting motion to move away from the skin

  • 113. 
    The venipuncture site should be cleansed with_______
    • A. 

      A damp solution

    • B. 

      A paper towel

    • C. 

      The back of your hand

    • D. 

      An alcohol prep

  • 114. 
    When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are_________
    • A. 

      Side by side

    • B. 

      Liquid

    • C. 

      Opposite each other

    • D. 

      One space apart

  • 115. 
    The lid to the centrifuge should be kept _____when in use.
    • A. 

      Closed

    • B. 

      Open

    • C. 

      Ajar

    • D. 

      Lifted

  • 116. 
    When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a________
    • A. 

      Blue-top tube

    • B. 

      Red-top tube

    • C. 

      Black-top tube

    • D. 

      Lavender-top tube

  • 117. 
    When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a ________
    • A. 

      Lavender-top evacuated tube

    • B. 

      Red-top evacuated tube

    • C. 

      Blue-top evacuated tube

    • D. 

      Yellow-top evacuated tube

  • 118. 
    When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a ______top evacuated tube
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Blue

    • D. 

      Lavender

  • 119. 
    • A. 

      Background staining

    • B. 

      Red cell preservation

    • C. 

      Clotting

    • D. 

      Blood films

  • 120. 
    Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the ________
    • A. 

      Pro-coagulants

    • B. 

      Red blood cells

    • C. 

      White blood cells

    • D. 

      Enzyme inhibitors

  • 121. 
    The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ______stopper
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Lavender

    • C. 

      Green

    • D. 

      Yellow

  • 122. 
    The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)________
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Black

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Blue

  • 123. 
    At the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately _____above the area.
    • A. 

      Nine to ten inches

    • B. 

      One foot

    • C. 

      Three to four inches

    • D. 

      One inch

  • 124. 
    The cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are _______ used for venipuncture.
    • A. 

      Seldom

    • B. 

      Never

    • C. 

      Dangerous when

    • D. 

      Primarily

  • 125. 
    When doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be_______the venipuncture site to prevent back-flow.
    • A. 

      Above

    • B. 

      Below

    • C. 

      Moved from side to side

    • D. 

      Moved in and out

  • 126. 
    When nticoagulated blood is centrifuged _____goes to the top of the tube.
    • A. 

      White blood cells

    • B. 

      Red blood cells

    • C. 

      Plasma

    • D. 

      Water

  • 127. 
    When anticoagulated blood is centriguged _____goes to the bottom of the tube
    • A. 

      Red blood cells

    • B. 

      White blood cells

    • C. 

      Plasma

    • D. 

      Water

  • 128. 
    When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, you should use a __________
    • A. 

      25 ga needle

    • B. 

      Lancet

    • C. 

      Scalpel

    • D. 

      23 ga needle

  • 129. 
    The tube used to collect a blood sample for a Complete Blood Count (CBC) is_______
    • A. 

      Red top, no additive

    • B. 

      Blue top, sodium citrate additive

    • C. 

      Lavender top, ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive

    • D. 

      Green top, lithium heparin additive

  • 130. 
    Which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy?
    • A. 

      PT and PTT

    • B. 

      T3 and T4

    • C. 

      Hb and Hct

    • D. 

      ABO and Rh

  • 131. 
    Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Lavender

    • C. 

      Grey

    • D. 

      Green

  • 132. 
    Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient's complete name and identification number is part of the facilities ______plan.
    • A. 

      Exposure control

    • B. 

      Incident report

    • C. 

      Quality control

    • D. 

      All choices

  • 133. 
    When performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this situation?
    • A. 

      Gently insert the needle a little deeper

    • B. 

      Gently pull the needle out just a little

    • C. 

      Remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site

    • D. 

      All choices could be correct

  • 134. 
    If during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what would be your best course of action?
    • A. 

      Continue the draw, you need the specimen

    • B. 

      Remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient's head and arms

    • C. 

      Begin CPR and activate 11

    • D. 

      Restrain the patient to keep the patient from causing bodily injury

  • 135. 
    The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult is the_______
    • A. 

      Great toe

    • B. 

      Earlobes

    • C. 

      Fingers

    • D. 

      Forearms

  • 136. 
    It is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Wipe away the first drop of blood

    • B. 

      To forcefully make a puncture

    • C. 

      Not use alcohol to clean the site

    • D. 

      It is very important to do all of the above

  • 137. 
    Performing a _____as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the colume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood.
    • A. 

      Differential

    • B. 

      Hematocrit

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Glucose

  • 138. 
    ______values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease
    • A. 

      Glucose

    • B. 

      Hematocrit

    • C. 

      Erythrocyte sedimentation rates

    • D. 

      Coagulation studies

  • 139. 
    What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?
    • A. 

      EDTA added

    • B. 

      Serum only

    • C. 

      White blood cells

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 140. 
    How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 141. 
    What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?
    • A. 

      Venipuncture

    • B. 

      Capillary

    • C. 

      Either one is acceptable

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 142. 
    A _______ is a small, sterilee, needle like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis
    • A. 

      Scarificator

    • B. 

      Fleam

    • C. 

      Lancet

    • D. 

      Cup

  • 143. 
    In drug testing the _____regulates describe how evidence is to be collected and handled.
    • A. 

      Chain of command

    • B. 

      Chain of custody

    • C. 

      Person in charge

    • D. 

      Local law enforcement

  • 144. 
    A(n) _______requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time.
    • A. 

      Cholesterol test

    • B. 

      White blood cell count

    • C. 

      Differential

    • D. 

      Glucose tolerance test

  • 145. 
    In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed to close together, the amplitude will be _________
    • A. 

      Small

    • B. 

      Large

    • C. 

      Round

    • D. 

      Square

  • 146. 
    The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to __________
    • A. 

      0.10 sec

    • B. 

      0.20 sec

    • C. 

      0.04 sec

    • D. 

      0.09 sec

  • 147. 
    A "V wave" will________be seen in a normal EKG
    • A. 

      Always

    • B. 

      Sometimes

    • C. 

      Never

    • D. 

      Usually

  • 148. 
    The______switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.
    • A. 

      Major

    • B. 

      Sensitivity

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      Ticker

  • 149. 
    When preparing for lead placement you should first care for______
    • A. 

      Skin preparation

    • B. 

      Application of electrode wires

    • C. 

      Application of electrodes

    • D. 

      Positioning of electrodes

  • 150. 
    Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called_______
    • A. 

      Cardiac scan

    • B. 

      Pacemaker implant

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Endarterectomy

  • 151. 
    Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?
    • A. 

      Clean the skin with an alcohol swipe

    • B. 

      Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode

    • C. 

      Shave the hair from the skin

    • D. 

      Roughen the skin for better dermis contact

  • 152. 
    The electrode site should be________
    • A. 

      Clean, smooth, and dry

    • B. 

      Hairy

    • C. 

      Have plenty of skin oil present

    • D. 

      Moist

  • 153. 
    An ECG tracing measures the amount of coltage and the ______it takes for the coltage to travel thoughout the heart.
    • A. 

      Time

    • B. 

      Route

    • C. 

      Waves

    • D. 

      Lines

  • 154. 
    In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ________area
    • A. 

      Center

    • B. 

      Gel

    • C. 

      Adhesive

    • D. 

      Peripheral

  • 155. 
    When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called_______
    • A. 

      Irregular with a pattern

    • B. 

      Absolutely regular

    • C. 

      Essentially regular

    • D. 

      Totally irregular

  • 156. 
    Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components (1) magnitude or force and (2)_______
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Ground electrode

    • C. 

      Direction or shape

    • D. 

      Polarization

  • 157. 
    A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _________
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

    • D. 

      S wave

  • 158. 
    A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called_______
    • A. 

      Uniform

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Fused

    • D. 

      Bigeminy

  • 159. 
    When applying leads, apply the V1 lead________
    • A. 

      Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line

    • B. 

      The fourth intercostal space right sternal border

    • C. 

      Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line

    • D. 

      Fifth intercostal space midclavicular line

  • 160. 
    • A. 

      Duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec

    • B. 

      Height-deflection is smaller, not more than 3mm

    • C. 

      Both a and b

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 161. 
    When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called_______
    • A. 

      Fused

    • B. 

      Multiform

    • C. 

      Life threatening

    • D. 

      Uniform

  • 162. 
    When a vector travels away from a positive electrode, a ___________ deflection results.
    • A. 

      Positive

    • B. 

      Variation

    • C. 

      T wave

    • D. 

      Negative

  • 163. 
    The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is__________
    • A. 

      Right arm, left leg

    • B. 

      Right arm, right leg

    • C. 

      Left arm, right arm

    • D. 

      Left arm, left leg

  • 164. 
    Concerning ECG's, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ________
    • A. 

      Acceptable

    • B. 

      Computed using 1/2 as fast: 300/2= 150/minute

    • C. 

      Unreliable

    • D. 

      Computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes

  • 165. 
    The_______wave represents atrial depolarization
    • A. 

      S

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      U

  • 166. 
    • A. 

      The fact that it follows the QRS complex

    • B. 

      Shifts up or down from the baseline

    • C. 

      Upward deflection from the baseline

    • D. 

      The shift away from the ischemic area

  • 167. 
    A QRS measuement of less than _______ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.
    • A. 

      0.13

    • B. 

      0.14

    • C. 

      0.16

    • D. 

      0.12

  • 168. 
    The area between waves is referred to as ______
    • A. 

      Back spaces

    • B. 

      Intervals

    • C. 

      Segments

    • D. 

      Cycles

  • 169. 
    A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called______
    • A. 

      Agonal

    • B. 

      Asystole

    • C. 

      Agonist

    • D. 

      Agogue

  • 170. 
    When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ______
    • A. 

      Patent ductus arteriosus

    • B. 

      An arrhythmia

    • C. 

      An aneurysm

    • D. 

      An embolism

  • 171. 
    A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ________
    • A. 

      Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Stanstill

    • C. 

      Tachycardia

    • D. 

      Rhythm

  • 172. 
    The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ______
    • A. 

      Atrial flutter

    • B. 

      Sinus arrest

    • C. 

      Ventricular arrhythmia

    • D. 

      Sinus wenckebach

  • 173. 
    A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using ______
    • A. 

      An electric thermometer

    • B. 

      A hot pad

    • C. 

      Oxygen

    • D. 

      A sphygmomanometer

  • 174. 
    Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ________
    • A. 

      Catheter

    • B. 

      Cannula

    • C. 

      Tent

    • D. 

      All choices

  • 175. 
    The clean-catch urine specimen is also called________
    • A. 

      Clean-voided specimen

    • B. 

      24-hr urine specimen

    • C. 

      Mid-stream specimen

    • D. 

      Both a and c

  • 176. 
    A 24-hr urin specimen should be_____
    • A. 

      Kept at body temperature

    • B. 

      Left open to the air

    • C. 

      Kept at room temperature

    • D. 

      Chilled/refrigerated

  • 177. 
    The fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for_______
    • A. 

      T.B.

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Sugar

    • D. 

      High blood pressure

  • 178. 
    Another term for acetone in the urine is _____
    • A. 

      Sugar

    • B. 

      Pus

    • C. 

      Ketone bodies (ketones)

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 179. 
    Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?
    • A. 

      Acetest

    • B. 

      Clinitest

    • C. 

      Testape

    • D. 

      Keto-diastix

  • 180. 
    To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is a special stain called ______
    • A. 

      Glass stain

    • B. 

      Gram stain

    • C. 

      Germicide

    • D. 

      Bacteria stain

  • 181. 
    When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____the first drop.
    • A. 

      Collect

    • B. 

      Use

    • C. 

      Wipe away

    • D. 

      Wash off

  • 182. 
    When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them_______
    • A. 

      Stand for one hour

    • B. 

      Stand for four minutes

    • C. 

      Air dry

    • D. 

      Blow on them to dry them

  • 183. 
    When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of_____
    • A. 

      Foil

    • B. 

      Steel

    • C. 

      Plastic

    • D. 

      Glass

  • 184. 
    Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?
    • A. 

      Edges should be thicker than the rest

    • B. 

      Edges should be feathered

    • C. 

      Smear must be at least 1.5 inches long

    • D. 

      Edges should be in a straight line

  • 185. 
    The glucose tolerance test is a ______-test
    • A. 

      Salica

    • B. 

      Timed

    • C. 

      Finger stick

    • D. 

      Dangerous

  • 186. 
    While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type of RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a _____screen.
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Serum

    • C. 

      Prenatal

    • D. 

      Postnatal

  • 187. 
    Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth?
    • A. 

      Light and oxygen

    • B. 

      Absence of oxygen

    • C. 

      Light and the absence of oxygen

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 188. 
    To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _______must be swabbed.
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx and tonsillar area

    • B. 

      Back of the tongue and epiglottis

    • C. 

      Under the tongue and along the gum line

    • D. 

      No correct answer

  • 189. 
    A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Testosterone

    • B. 

      Human chorionic gonadotropin

    • C. 

      Progesterone

    • D. 

      Estrogen

  • 190. 
    When performing any CLIA waived test it is important do to which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Keep all CLIA waived tests refrigerated

    • B. 

      Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box

    • C. 

      Perform quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 191. 
    Performing a routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?
    • A. 

      Regularly scheduled check-ups

    • B. 

      Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts

    • C. 

      Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth

    • D. 

      All answers are correct

  • 192. 
    When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required?
    • A. 

      Stool sample

    • B. 

      Urine

    • C. 

      Semen

    • D. 

      Blood

  • 193. 
    When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?
    • A. 

      Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen

    • B. 

      The patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of specimen

    • C. 

      The patient should limit dairy

    • D. 

      There are no restrictions on medications- the patient should take all medications as prescribed

  • 194. 
    In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is ______
    • A. 

      Nebulization

    • B. 

      Spirometry

    • C. 

      Sigmoidoscopy

    • D. 

      Mantoux test