NCCT Prep-ma-medical Procedures A-d

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1. Every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control plan.

Explanation

According to OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) regulations, every medical facility is mandated to have an exposure control plan. This plan ensures the safety and protection of healthcare workers from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens or other hazardous materials. It outlines procedures, training, and equipment necessary to prevent and respond to such exposures. Therefore, it is true that every medical facility must have an exposure control plan as per OSHA requirements.

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2. Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the ______temperature.

Explanation

The correct answer is Axilliary because body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is commonly referred to as axillary temperature. This method is often used as a less invasive and more comfortable alternative to rectal temperature measurement. The axillary temperature is slightly lower than the oral temperature and may not be as accurate as other methods, but it is still a useful way to monitor body temperature in certain situations.

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3. The process of inhaling and exhaling is called _________

Explanation

The process of inhaling and exhaling is called respiration. Respiration refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment. During inhalation, oxygen is taken in and during exhalation, carbon dioxide is expelled. Respiration is a vital process for all living organisms as it provides the necessary oxygen for cellular respiration, which produces energy for the body's functions.

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4. The electrode site should be________

Explanation

The electrode site should be clean, smooth, and dry to ensure proper adhesion and accurate measurement. A clean surface helps remove any dirt or oils that may interfere with the electrode's contact. A smooth surface allows for better attachment and reduces the risk of discomfort or irritation. Lastly, a dry site prevents moisture from affecting the electrode's performance and helps maintain a stable electrical connection.

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5. When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient______ the veins will become more prominent.

Explanation

When performing a venipuncture, making a fist can help to increase the prominence of the veins. This is because making a fist causes the muscles in the hand and forearm to contract, which in turn compresses the surrounding tissues and pushes the blood into the veins. The increased blood flow and pressure make the veins more visible and easier to locate for the healthcare professional conducting the venipuncture.

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6. Use your index finger when you ______for a vein

Explanation

When looking for a vein, the most appropriate action is to palpate, which means to examine or feel with the fingers. In this context, using the index finger to palpate would involve gently pressing and feeling for the presence of a vein before any medical procedure such as sticking or injecting.

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7. The venipuncture site should be cleansed with_______

Explanation

When performing a venipuncture, it is important to cleanse the site to prevent infection. An alcohol prep is the most suitable option for this task as it contains alcohol, which has antimicrobial properties. Using a damp solution or a paper towel may not effectively kill bacteria on the skin, while using the back of your hand is unhygienic and can introduce more bacteria to the site. Therefore, an alcohol prep is the correct choice for cleansing the venipuncture site.

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8. To measure a blood pressure, the medical assistant will need_____

Explanation

To measure blood pressure accurately, a medical assistant requires a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer. A stethoscope is used to listen to the sounds of blood flow in the arteries, while a sphygmomanometer is used to measure the pressure exerted on the artery walls. These two instruments work together to provide an accurate reading of a person's blood pressure. A thermometer is not necessary for measuring blood pressure, and a mercury manometer is a type of sphygmomanometer, so it is included in the correct answer. Cleaning the area is important for hygiene, but it is not directly related to the measurement of blood pressure.

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9. Biohazard labels must be colored______

Explanation

Biohazard labels must be colored orange-red because this color is universally recognized as a warning color for hazardous materials. It is easily distinguishable and stands out, ensuring that people can quickly identify and take necessary precautions when encountering biohazardous substances. The orange-red color also signifies danger and alerts individuals to the potential risks associated with handling or being exposed to biohazards. This helps to prevent accidents, protect the health and safety of individuals, and ensure proper handling and disposal of biohazardous materials.

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10. The process of inserting a catheter is called ______

Explanation

The correct answer is catheterization. Catheterization refers to the process of inserting a catheter, a thin tube, into the body to drain fluids, administer medication, or perform other medical procedures. It is a common medical procedure used in various settings, such as hospitals, clinics, and home care. Major surgery refers to a more extensive and invasive surgical procedure, while specimen collection and testing for venereal disease are specific procedures related to collecting samples for laboratory analysis.

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11. A _______ is a small, sterilee, needle like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis

Explanation

A lancet is a small, sterile, needle-like piece of metal used to make small punctures in the dermis. It is commonly used in medical procedures such as blood glucose testing or bloodletting. The use of a lancet allows for a controlled and precise puncture, minimizing pain and tissue damage.

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12. With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the _______

Explanation

Any abnormal measurement of vital signs is a potential indication of a health issue or emergency. Therefore, it is crucial to report such abnormalities to the physician who is responsible for diagnosing and treating the patient's medical condition. The physician is the most qualified healthcare professional to interpret and act upon abnormal vital signs, ensuring appropriate medical intervention and care.

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13. Some clinical signs for head injury could be ______

Explanation

The correct answer is "all answers are correct" because vomiting, headache, and confusion are all common clinical signs of a head injury. These symptoms can occur as a result of the impact on the brain and can vary in severity depending on the extent of the injury. It is important to recognize these signs and seek medical attention promptly to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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14. The radial pulse is located in the _______

Explanation

The radial pulse is located in the wrist. It is the pulse that can be felt on the thumb side of the wrist, just below the base of the thumb. This pulse is an important indicator of the heart rate and rhythm, as it corresponds to the pulsations of the radial artery. Monitoring the radial pulse can provide valuable information about a person's cardiovascular health and can be used to assess the effectiveness of certain medical treatments or interventions.

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15. What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers?

Explanation

The correct answer is Occupational Safety and Health Administration. This federal agency is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. They require the use of Sharps Containers to prevent injuries and the spread of diseases in workplaces where sharps, such as needles or blades, are used. Sharps containers are designed to safely dispose of these hazardous materials and minimize the risk of accidental injuries.

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16. When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ______

Explanation

An arrhythmia refers to an abnormal heart rhythm. It occurs when the electrical signals that regulate the heart's pumping action are disrupted, causing the heart to beat too fast, too slow, or irregularly. This can lead to various symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. Treatment options for arrhythmias include medications, lifestyle changes, and medical procedures like ablation or implantation of a pacemaker.

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17. When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:

Explanation

When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to cleanse the site from the inside out and allow it to air dry. This is because cleaning the site from the inside out helps to remove any potential contaminants, such as bacteria, that may be present on the skin. Allowing the site to air dry helps to ensure that the alcohol has enough time to effectively kill any remaining bacteria. Wiping the site back and forth quickly with an alcohol prep or blowing on the alcohol to dry it may not provide enough time for the alcohol to properly disinfect the site. Having the patient wave the arm in the air to dry it faster is not a recommended practice as it may introduce additional contaminants to the site.

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18. Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are called ________

Explanation

The correct answer is "contagious". Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are referred to as contagious. This means that the disease can spread through direct or indirect contact with an infected individual, such as through respiratory droplets, bodily fluids, or contaminated surfaces. It is important to take necessary precautions to prevent the transmission of contagious diseases, such as practicing good hygiene, wearing masks, and maintaining social distancing.

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19. When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____the first drop.

Explanation

When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, it is recommended to wipe away the first drop of blood. This is because the first drop may contain tissue fluid or contaminants from the skin surface, which can interfere with the accuracy of the blood sample. By wiping away the first drop, a cleaner and more representative blood sample can be obtained for the smear.

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20. An instrument called a centrifuge________

Explanation

A centrifuge is an instrument that is used to separate the cellular and liquid portion of the blood. It achieves this by spinning the blood at a high speed, causing the heavier cellular components to settle at the bottom of the tube and the lighter liquid portion to remain on top. This separation allows for further analysis and testing of the blood components.

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21. With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately reported to the ______

Explanation

Any abnormal measurement of vital signs indicates a potential health issue that requires immediate attention. Among the given options, the doctor is the most appropriate person to report the abnormal measurement to. Doctors are trained medical professionals who can interpret the significance of abnormal vital signs and provide appropriate medical interventions. Nurses and orderlies may also play a role in monitoring vital signs, but ultimately, it is the doctor who has the authority and expertise to make medical decisions based on the abnormal measurements.

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22. In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes come in different sizes, and the stoppers are ______to denote the type of additive or lack of one.

Explanation

The evacuated glass tubes in the blood collection system are marked with different colors to indicate the type of additive or lack thereof. This color coding system helps healthcare professionals easily identify and select the appropriate tube for specific tests or procedures.

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23. The lid to the centrifuge should be kept _____when in use.

Explanation

The lid to the centrifuge should be kept closed when in use to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the centrifuge. Keeping the lid closed prevents any potential hazards or accidents that could occur if the lid is open, such as spills or exposure to harmful substances. It also helps maintain the proper environment inside the centrifuge for accurate and reliable results. Therefore, it is important to keep the lid closed during operation.

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24. When taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gowns, and eye wear.

Explanation

The statement is false because when taking vital signs, a medical assistant is not required to wear gloves, gowns, and eye wear. Vital signs such as measuring blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate can be taken without the need for personal protective equipment. However, it is important for the medical assistant to practice proper hand hygiene before and after taking vital signs to prevent the spread of infection.

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25. The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is ________

Explanation

Positively identifying the patient is the most important step in the performance of a venipuncture because it ensures that the procedure is being done on the right person. This is crucial for patient safety and to prevent any potential errors or complications. By verifying the patient's identity, healthcare professionals can ensure that the correct tests are being performed and that the results are accurately attributed to the right individual.

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26. The exposure control plan shall be made available to Assistant Secretary and the Director OSHA upon request for examination and copying

Explanation

The exposure control plan is a document that outlines the measures and procedures implemented by an organization to minimize employee exposure to hazardous substances. It is a crucial component of workplace safety and compliance with OSHA regulations. As such, it is necessary for the plan to be readily accessible to the Assistant Secretary and the Director of OSHA for examination and copying upon request. This ensures that the organization is transparent and accountable for their safety practices. Therefore, the statement is true.

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27. "HIV' means_______

Explanation

The correct answer is "human immunodeficiency virus." HIV stands for human immunodeficiency virus, which is a virus that attacks the immune system, specifically the CD4 cells (T cells), and weakens the body's ability to fight off infections and diseases.

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28. The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by _____

Explanation

The blood lancet is a small, sharp instrument that is used to puncture the skin for the collection of blood specimens. It is not used for injection or suction, but specifically for skin puncture. This method is commonly used for blood glucose monitoring, as well as other diagnostic tests that require a small amount of blood.

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29. If during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what would be your best course of action?

Explanation

If a patient has a syncopal episode during a venipuncture, the best course of action would be to remove the needle and tourniquet and lower the patient's head and arms. This is because syncope, or fainting, is often caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. By removing the needle and tourniquet, you can help restore normal blood flow. Lowering the patient's head and arms can also help increase blood flow to the brain and prevent further injury. Beginning CPR or restraining the patient would not be appropriate in this situation.

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30. When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is that all the given statements are correct. When measuring blood pressure, the cuff should be applied to the bare upper arm to ensure accurate readings. The room should be quiet so that the healthcare professional can hear the blood pressure sounds clearly. Additionally, the sphygmomanometer, which is the device used to measure blood pressure, needs to be clearly visible for easy monitoring and reading of the measurements. Therefore, all the given answers are correct in the context of measuring blood pressure.

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31. The faucet is turned off with ______

Explanation

Using a paper towel to turn off the faucet can be a hygienic practice, especially in public spaces. By using a paper towel, you can avoid direct contact with potentially dirty surfaces, reducing the risk of spreading germs. Additionally, paper towels can provide a better grip on the faucet handle, making it easier to turn off the water without using excessive force. Overall, using a paper towel as a barrier between your hand and the faucet can help maintain cleanliness and prevent the transmission of germs.

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32. A 24-hr urin specimen should be_____

Explanation

A 24-hour urine specimen should be chilled/refrigerated in order to preserve its integrity and prevent bacterial growth. Cooling the specimen helps to slow down the breakdown of certain components and reduce the risk of contamination. By keeping the urine chilled, any potential changes or degradation in the sample can be minimized, ensuring accurate test results.

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33. To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge number the_____ needle

Explanation

The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle. This is because the gauge number refers to the thickness of the needle. A higher gauge number indicates a thinner needle, while a lower gauge number indicates a thicker needle. Therefore, the correct answer is "smaller".

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34. _______ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace.

Explanation

Blood is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the workplace because these viruses are primarily transmitted through blood-to-blood contact. HIV and HBV can be present in the blood of infected individuals, and if proper precautions are not taken, such as the use of personal protective equipment, healthcare workers and others who come into contact with blood can be at risk of contracting these viruses. Therefore, blood poses the highest risk for transmitting HIV and HBV in the workplace.

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35. The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while drawing blood is ______

Explanation

Tying a tourniquet on the upper arm for longer than 1 minute can lead to complications such as tissue damage, nerve injury, and venous congestion. By limiting the time to 1 minute, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of these complications while still ensuring an adequate blood sample is obtained.

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36. The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if_______

Explanation

The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if the patient has had breast surgery on that side, if there is an IV infusion on that arm, or if there is a cast on that arm. All of these situations can interfere with the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement or cause discomfort to the patient.

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37. The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the ____

Explanation

The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is known as body temperature. This refers to the equilibrium maintained by the body where the heat generated through metabolic processes is balanced with the heat lost through various mechanisms such as sweating, respiration, and radiation. Body temperature is crucial for the proper functioning of bodily processes and is regulated by the thermoregulatory system in order to maintain homeostasis.

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38. The first line of defense in preventing disease is ________

Explanation

The first line of defense in preventing disease is the medical hand wash. Washing hands with soap and water is a simple and effective way to remove germs and prevent the spread of infections. It helps to eliminate harmful bacteria and viruses that may be present on the hands, reducing the risk of getting sick or transmitting diseases to others. Regular hand washing is especially important before eating, after using the restroom, and after being in public places to maintain good hygiene and protect against various illnesses.

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39. When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with ______

Explanation

When using an autoclave, it is important to fill the water reservoir with distilled water. Distilled water is free from impurities and minerals, which helps to prevent any buildup or residue inside the autoclave. Using alcohol, oil, or autoclave fluid could potentially damage the autoclave or contaminate the items being sterilized. Therefore, distilled water is the correct choice for maintaining the cleanliness and functionality of the autoclave.

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40. The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganism by combining________

Explanation

The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganisms by combining heat with steam under pressure. This process effectively kills bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms by subjecting them to high temperatures and pressure. The heat helps to denature proteins and disrupt the cellular structures of the microorganisms, while the steam ensures that the heat is evenly distributed throughout the autoclave chamber. This combination of heat and steam under pressure is a highly effective method for sterilization in many industries, including healthcare and laboratory settings.

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41. The process by which an object or area becomes unclean is

Explanation

Contamination refers to the process in which an object or area becomes unclean. It involves the introduction of harmful or unwanted substances, such as dirt, bacteria, or pollutants, into the object or area. This can occur through direct contact, airborne particles, or other means. Contamination can pose a risk to health and safety, as it can lead to the spread of disease or the degradation of materials. Therefore, it is important to prevent and control contamination through proper cleaning, hygiene practices, and maintenance.

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42. The patient with an infection may have_______

Explanation

The patient with an infection may experience various symptoms such as loss of appetite and fatigue, fever, nausea, rash and vomiting, as well as pain, redness or swelling. These symptoms can vary depending on the type and severity of the infection. Therefore, all the given answers are correct as they describe possible symptoms that can be present in a patient with an infection.

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43. When using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the ______

Explanation

When using a fire extinguisher, the hose should be directed to the base of the fire. This is because the base of the fire is where the fuel source is located. By aiming the hose at the base, the extinguishing agent can effectively smother the fire and cut off its oxygen supply, thus helping to extinguish the flames. Aiming the hose at the middle, top, or around the fire would not be as effective in suppressing the fire, as it would not target the source of the flames.

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44. The fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for_______

Explanation

A fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test for sugar in the urine. This test, known as a urine glucose test, helps to diagnose and monitor conditions such as diabetes. When there is excess sugar in the blood, it can spill into the urine, indicating high blood sugar levels. By testing the urine for sugar, healthcare professionals can assess the effectiveness of diabetes management and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.

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45. When measuring blood pressure, the bottom number is called _________

Explanation

The bottom number in blood pressure measurement is called diastolic pressure. Diastolic pressure represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. It is an important indicator of the health of the cardiovascular system and can help diagnose conditions such as hypertension.

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46. How quickly will an electronic thermometer measure body temperature?

Explanation

An electronic thermometer is designed to measure body temperature quickly and accurately. It uses advanced technology to provide a reading within a short time frame. The range of 2 to 60 seconds indicates that the thermometer can give a temperature reading in as little as 2 seconds or take up to 60 seconds, depending on factors such as the specific model and the individual's body temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 to 60 seconds.

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47. Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of _________

Explanation

Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of hypertension. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This can lead to various health problems such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage. Therefore, the correct answer is hypertension.

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48. To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site of the draw and _______

Explanation

To ensure proper cleansing of the venipuncture site, it is recommended to work in a circle from the intended site of the draw towards the periphery. This technique helps to effectively clean the entire area, removing any potential contaminants and reducing the risk of infection. By starting at the center and moving outward in a circular motion, all areas of the site are adequately cleansed, preparing it for the venipuncture procedure.

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49. The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult is the_______

Explanation

The fingers are the most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a healthy adult. This is because the fingertips have a rich blood supply and are easily accessible. Additionally, the fingers have a good balance between thickness of the skin and depth of the capillaries, making it easier to obtain an adequate blood sample without causing excessive pain or discomfort.

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50. A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a(n)___________

Explanation

A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but is not ill is called a carrier. This means that the person is carrying the bacteria and can potentially transmit it to others, even though they themselves do not show any symptoms or signs of being infected. This is concerning because carriers can unknowingly spread infections to vulnerable individuals, such as patients or other healthcare workers. It is important to identify carriers and take appropriate measures to prevent the spread of infection.

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51. At the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the tourniquet around the arm approximately _____above the area.

Explanation

When feeling for a vein, it is necessary to apply a tourniquet to restrict blood flow and make the vein more visible and accessible. Wrapping the tourniquet approximately three to four inches above the area ensures that it is tight enough to restrict blood flow but not too tight to cause discomfort or damage to the arm. This allows for easier identification and palpation of the vein, making the process of drawing blood or inserting an IV needle smoother and more successful.

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52. When preparing for lead placement you should first care for______

Explanation

Before placing the leads, it is important to prepare the skin properly. This involves cleaning the skin to remove any dirt, oils, or lotions that may interfere with the adhesion of the electrodes. Proper skin preparation ensures good contact between the electrodes and the skin, which is essential for accurate and reliable readings. It also helps to minimize the risk of skin irritation or discomfort for the patient. Therefore, skin preparation should be the first step when preparing for lead placement.

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53. When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of_____

Explanation

When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of glass. This is because glass slides provide a smooth and flat surface, allowing for an even distribution of the blood sample. Glass slides are also easy to clean and sterilize, ensuring the accuracy and reliability of the blood smear. Additionally, glass slides are transparent, allowing for clear visualization of the blood cells under a microscope.

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54. When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to _______for a vein

Explanation

When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped around the arm about three to four inches from where you are going to feel for a vein. This is because the tourniquet helps to constrict the blood vessels, making it easier to locate and access a vein. By wrapping it a few inches above the intended area, it allows for better blood flow and visibility of the veins, making it easier to feel for a suitable vein to perform the venipuncture.

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55. In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be disposed of in ________biohazard plastic bags.

Explanation

In cases of blood contamination, it is important to dispose of shoe coverings and gloves in orange-red biohazard plastic bags. The color orange-red is commonly associated with biohazard materials, indicating that the contents inside the bag are potentially infectious or hazardous. Using orange-red bags helps to clearly identify and separate contaminated items, ensuring proper disposal and minimizing the risk of spreading infections or contaminants.

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56. To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial enospores is to______.

Explanation

To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores is to sterilize. Sterilization refers to the process of eliminating or killing all forms of microbial life, including bacteria, viruses, and spores. This procedure ensures complete eradication of any potential pathogens and renders the object or area free from any microbial contamination.

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57. Arterioles are the smallest type of ______

Explanation

Arterioles are the smallest type of blood vessels that branch out from the arteries. They are responsible for regulating blood flow and controlling blood pressure. Unlike tendons, bones, and veins, arterioles are specifically involved in the transportation of oxygenated blood away from the heart to the various organs and tissues of the body.

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58. Blood from all individuals should be considered______.

Explanation

Blood from all individuals should be considered infective or infectious because it may contain pathogens such as bacteria or viruses that can cause infections or diseases. Proper handling and disposal of blood is necessary to prevent the spread of these pathogens to others.

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59. Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up directly with the hands, but by mechanical means, such as_______

Explanation

Broken glassware that may be contaminated should not be picked up directly with the hands to avoid the risk of injury or contamination. Instead, it should be picked up using mechanical means such as a brush and dust pan. This method ensures that the glass fragments are safely collected without any direct contact with the hands, reducing the risk of cuts or exposure to harmful substances.

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60. The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the __________

Explanation

The instrument used to examine the eyes is called an ophthalmoscope. This device is specifically designed to view the interior structures of the eye, such as the retina, optic disc, and blood vessels. It consists of a light source, a series of lenses, and a mirror to direct the light into the eye and allow the examiner to visualize the structures. The ophthalmoscope is an essential tool for ophthalmologists and optometrists to diagnose and monitor various eye conditions and diseases.

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61. Another term for acetone in the urine is _____

Explanation

Acetone in the urine is commonly referred to as ketone bodies or ketones. Ketones are produced when the body breaks down fat for energy instead of glucose. High levels of ketones in the urine may indicate a condition called ketosis, which can occur in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or during periods of fasting or extreme dieting. Therefore, the correct answer is ketone bodies (ketones).

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62. To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is a special stain called ______

Explanation

The correct answer is "gram stain." Gram staining is a special staining technique used in microbiology to classify bacteria into two groups: gram-positive and gram-negative. This staining method involves the use of crystal violet dye, iodine, alcohol, and safranin. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet dye and appear purple under a microscope, while gram-negative bacteria lose the dye and appear pink. This staining technique is essential in identifying and differentiating between different types of bacteria.

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63. Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called_______

Explanation

Defibrillation is the correct answer because it involves the use of an electric shock to restore a normal heart rhythm in a person experiencing a dysrhythmia. This procedure is commonly used in emergency situations such as cardiac arrest or ventricular fibrillation, where the heart's electrical signals become chaotic and ineffective. By delivering a controlled electric shock to the chest, defibrillation aims to reset the heart's electrical activity and allow it to resume a normal rhythm. This can be a life-saving intervention in critical situations.

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64. When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, you should use a __________

Explanation

When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, a lancet should be used. A lancet is a small, sharp instrument specifically designed for making a small incision in the skin to obtain a blood sample. It is preferred over needles or scalpels because it minimizes pain and trauma to the infant's delicate skin. The lancet's small size and precision allow for a controlled and shallow incision, making it safer and more suitable for collecting blood from infants.

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65. A(n) _______requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time.

Explanation

A glucose tolerance test is a medical procedure that requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken every hour for a predetermined time. This test is used to measure how well the body can process glucose, which is a type of sugar. It helps in diagnosing conditions like diabetes or gestational diabetes, as it shows how the body responds to a glucose load. By monitoring blood sugar levels over time, healthcare professionals can evaluate the body's ability to regulate glucose and identify any abnormalities.

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66. When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would be required?

Explanation

Occult blood refers to the presence of hidden blood in the stool that cannot be seen with the naked eye. To test for occult blood, a stool sample is required. This sample is analyzed in a laboratory to detect any traces of blood that may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding or other related conditions. Urine, semen, and blood are not typically used in testing for occult blood as they do not directly provide information about the presence of blood in the digestive system.

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67. Hich degree of burn is the most serious?

Explanation

Third-degree burn is the most serious degree of burn. It involves damage to all layers of the skin, including the underlying tissues. The skin may appear charred or white, and there may be no pain due to nerve damage. Third-degree burns often require medical intervention, such as skin grafting, and can result in long-term complications, including scarring, loss of function, and even death in severe cases.

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68. The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for collection of serum)________

Explanation

The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is red. This is because red stoppers are typically used for tubes that are used for collecting serum samples. Serum is the liquid portion of blood that is obtained after the blood has clotted and the clot has been removed. Using red stoppers helps to ensure that the tube is correctly identified for serum collection purposes.

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69. When the pressure is lowest, the pressure is called ______

Explanation

Diastolic pressure refers to the lowest pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. It represents the pressure exerted by the blood against the arterial walls during the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. This is in contrast to systolic pressure, which is the highest pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting and pumping blood. Therefore, diastolic pressure is the correct answer as it accurately describes the lowest pressure in the given context.

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70. What is considered a normal adult respiration per minute?

Explanation

The normal adult respiration per minute is considered to be between 14 and 20 breaths. This range indicates a healthy and typical breathing rate for an adult. Respiration rates below or above this range may indicate a respiratory problem or other medical condition. It is important to monitor respiration rate as it can provide valuable information about a person's overall health and well-being.

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71. When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are_________

Explanation

When using a centrifuge, it is important to ensure that equal weights are placed opposite each other. This is because the centrifugal force generated by the spinning motion of the centrifuge causes objects of equal weight to move outward in opposite directions. By placing the weights opposite each other, balance is maintained and the centrifuge operates effectively without any disturbances or imbalances.

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72. All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities with exposure to blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply, should be vaccinated with _______ vaccine.

Explanation

All workers who are exposed to blood or other body fluids that may contain infectious diseases should be vaccinated with the hepatitis B vaccine. This vaccine provides protection against hepatitis B, a viral infection that can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids. Hepatitis B is a serious disease that can cause liver damage and even death, so it is important for workers in high-risk occupations to be vaccinated to prevent infection.

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73. The standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is _____in length (note: Please check current guidelines, as this changes.)

Explanation

The standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from a newborn heel is 2.4 mm in length. This length is determined based on current guidelines, which may change over time.

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74. After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in_____containers for disposal.

Explanation

After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in puncture-resistant containers for disposal. This is because these items can cause injuries if not handled properly, and puncture-resistant containers are designed to prevent accidental needle sticks or cuts. By using puncture-resistant containers, healthcare workers can safely dispose of these sharp items without risking harm to themselves or others.

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75. It is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which one of the following?

Explanation

Wiping away the first drop of blood is important when performing a capillary stick because the first drop may contain tissue fluid or contaminants from the skin surface. By wiping it away, we ensure that the blood sample collected is free from any potential contaminants, providing a more accurate result for testing or analysis.

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76. Performing a routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following?

Explanation

Regularly scheduled check-ups, daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts, and routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth are all important components of a maintenance plan for laboratory equipment. Regular check-ups ensure that any potential issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Daily examination helps to prevent accidents or malfunctions caused by damaged cords or broken parts. Routine cleaning of the equipment maintains its cleanliness and prevents the buildup of dirt or contaminants that could affect its performance. Therefore, all of these answers are correct in terms of including them in a maintenance plan for laboratory equipment.

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77. A patient positioned on her back with feet in stirrups is said to be in the ______

Explanation

The correct answer is lithotomy position. This position is commonly used in gynecological and urological examinations or procedures. In this position, the patient lies on her back with her feet in stirrups, allowing easy access to the pelvic area. It provides optimal visualization and access to the genital and rectal areas for examination or surgery. The other options, Sims' position and sitting position, are different positions used for specific procedures or examinations, but they do not match the given description.

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78. A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is

Explanation

An infection is a disease state that occurs when microorganisms invade and multiply in the body. This can be caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. Infections can range from mild to severe and can affect various parts of the body. Symptoms of an infection may include fever, inflammation, pain, and general malaise. Treatment for infections typically involves the use of antibiotics or antiviral medications, depending on the type of microorganism causing the infection.

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79. A medical assistant would measure the patient's temperature, pulse and respiration when the physician asks him or her to________

Explanation

When the physician asks a medical assistant to "take vital signs," it means that the assistant should measure the patient's temperature, pulse, and respiration. These are key indicators of the patient's overall health and can provide important information to the physician for diagnosis and treatment. Taking blood pressure is also a part of measuring vital signs, so it is included in the correct answer. Therefore, all the given answers are correct.

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80. An apical pulse is the method of choice for ________

Explanation

An apical pulse is the method of choice for infants and young children because their chest walls are still thin and their heartbeats are easier to hear at the apex of the heart. This method allows for accurate measurement of the heart rate in this age group.

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81. When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a(n) ________

Explanation

A stethoscope is used to listen to the brachial pulse. It is a medical instrument that consists of a chest piece, tubing, and earpieces. The chest piece is placed on the brachial artery, and the sound of the pulse is transmitted through the tubing to the earpieces, allowing the listener to hear the heartbeat. A sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure, an earphone is used to listen to audio, and a radio is used to receive radio signals. Therefore, the correct answer is stethoscope.

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82. While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type of RH are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a _____screen.

Explanation

During pregnancy, it is common to order a prenatal screening test to identify any potential risks or complications for both the mother and the baby. This screening test helps in assessing the overall health of the pregnant woman and her unborn child. Therefore, the correct answer is "prenatal" as it refers to the type of screening that is ordered for pregnant women.

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83. Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure?

Explanation

The systolic blood pressure is recorded as the point where the first sound is heard. This is because the first sound, known as the Korotkoff sound, indicates the opening of the arteries as the heart contracts and blood is forced through them. The systolic blood pressure is the maximum pressure exerted on the arterial walls during this contraction phase.

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84. A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening is called _______

Explanation

A catheter is a flexible tube made of rubber or plastic that is used to drain or inject fluids through a body opening. It is commonly used in medical procedures to access or deliver fluids to various parts of the body, such as the bladder, blood vessels, or the digestive system. The other options, injection and venipuncture, do not specifically refer to a tube used for draining or injecting fluids, making catheter the correct answer.

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85. Contaminated laundry shall be_______ where it was soiled.

Explanation

Contaminated laundry should be bagged or containerized at the location where it was soiled. This is important to prevent the spread of any potential contaminants or pathogens present in the laundry. By bagging or containerizing the contaminated laundry, it can be safely transported to the appropriate area for further processing, such as disinfection or discarding. This practice helps to maintain a clean and safe environment, minimizing the risk of contamination to individuals handling the laundry or coming into contact with it.

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86. _______ means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skkin including, but not limited to needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tube, and exposed ends of dental wires.

Explanation

The term "Contaminated Sharps" refers to any objects that are contaminated and can penetrate the skin, such as needles, scalpels, broken glass, broken capillary tubes, and exposed ends of dental wires. These objects pose a risk of transmitting infectious agents if they come into contact with a person's skin. It is important to handle and dispose of contaminated sharps properly to prevent injuries and the spread of infections.

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87. A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called_______

Explanation

A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) is an extra heartbeat that occurs before the regular heartbeat. In this case, the term "uniform" refers to the fact that the QRS complex, which represents the electrical activity of the ventricles, has the same configuration each time the PVC occurs. This means that the abnormal heartbeat is consistently similar in appearance, suggesting a regular pattern.

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88. When applying leads, apply the V1 lead________

Explanation

The correct answer is "the fourth intercostal space right sternal border." When applying leads, the V1 lead should be placed in the fourth intercostal space, which is the space between the ribs, on the right side of the sternum. This placement allows for accurate recording of electrical activity in the heart's right ventricle.

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89. When a patient's feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are psitioned at the edge of the exam table, the patient is in the ________position

Explanation

When a patient's feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are positioned at the edge of the exam table, the patient is in the lithotomy position. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs raised and supported by the stirrups. This position allows for easy access to the genital area and is commonly used during gynecological examinations or childbirth.

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90. Groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are called_________

Explanation

In laboratory studies, groups or clusters of bacteria are referred to as "cultures". This term is used to describe the collection of bacteria that are grown and maintained in a controlled environment for research or diagnostic purposes. Cultures allow scientists to study the characteristics, behavior, and growth patterns of specific bacteria strains.

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91. When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest. The pressure is called the ______

Explanation

When the heart is contracting, it pumps blood into the arteries, causing an increase in pressure. This pressure is known as systolic pressure. Diastolic pressure, on the other hand, refers to the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. Air pressure and high pressure are not specific terms related to the heart's contraction.

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92. The cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are _______ used for venipuncture.

Explanation

The cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are primarily used for venipuncture. This means that these veins are the main or most commonly used veins for the procedure. Other veins may also be used, but these three are the preferred choices due to their accessibility and size.

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93. When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them_______

Explanation

When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, it is suggested to let them air dry. This means allowing them to dry naturally without using any external methods such as blowing on them or using a fan. Air drying is a common practice to ensure that any moisture or liquid between the slides evaporates on its own. This method is recommended as it reduces the risk of causing damage to the slides or contaminating them with external substances.

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94. Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

Explanation

The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are preferred because they are large enough to allow for a smooth and efficient draw of blood, while still being small enough to minimize discomfort for the patient. Additionally, these gauges are suitable for most patients and can accommodate a variety of blood collection needs.

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95. Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?

Explanation

The given question asks which of the four evacuated tubes would be drawn first. Without any additional information, it is impossible to determine the order in which the tubes would be drawn. Therefore, an explanation for the correct answer is not available.

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96. The______switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.

Explanation

The sensitivity switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG. By adjusting the sensitivity, the amplitude of the EKG waveform can be increased or decreased. This allows for better visualization and analysis of the electrical activity of the heart.

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97. Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?

Explanation

Keto-diastix is the correct answer because it is a test that measures both sugar and acetone in the urine. This test is commonly used by individuals with diabetes to monitor their blood sugar levels and detect the presence of ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis. The test strips of keto-diastix change color based on the levels of sugar and ketones present in the urine, providing a simple and convenient way to monitor these parameters.

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98. During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper, you need a __________

Explanation

During a venipuncture, a holder is needed to secure the needle during insertion into the tube stopper. This is because the holder provides stability and control, ensuring that the needle is properly inserted and does not move or slip out of place. The holder also allows for easy manipulation and adjustment of the needle position if necessary. Without a holder, it would be difficult to accurately and safely perform the venipuncture procedure.

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99. What is considered a normal adult pulse rate?

Explanation

A normal adult pulse rate refers to the average number of times the heart beats per minute in a resting state. The range of 60-100 beats per minute is considered normal for most adults. This range indicates that the heart is functioning properly and efficiently, pumping an adequate amount of blood throughout the body. A pulse rate below or above this range may indicate an underlying health condition that requires further evaluation and medical attention.

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100. Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ________

Explanation

Oxygen can be administered to a patient using various methods, such as a catheter, cannula, or tent. Each of these options allows for the delivery of oxygen to the patient in different ways. A catheter is a thin tube that can be inserted into a body cavity or blood vessel to deliver oxygen directly. A cannula is a small tube that is inserted into the nostrils to deliver oxygen. A tent is a larger enclosure that covers the patient's head and upper body, delivering oxygen to the surrounding air. Therefore, all of the choices listed are valid methods for administering oxygen to a patient.

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101. A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the _________

Explanation

The Q wave is a downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram that follows the P wave. It represents the depolarization of the interventricular septum. The Q wave is usually small and narrow, and its presence or absence can provide valuable information about certain cardiac conditions.

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102. An otoscope is used for examination of the ________

Explanation

An otoscope is a medical device specifically designed for examining the ears. It is used to visualize the ear canal and eardrum, allowing healthcare professionals to diagnose and treat various ear-related conditions such as infections, blockages, or abnormalities. By providing a clear view of the ear's internal structures, an otoscope enables doctors to make accurate assessments and provide appropriate medical interventions if necessary.

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103. When nticoagulated blood is centrifuged _____goes to the top of the tube.

Explanation

When anticoagulated blood is centrifuged, the different components of the blood separate based on their density. The heaviest component, red blood cells, settles at the bottom of the tube. The lighter component, plasma, rises to the top of the tube. Therefore, plasma goes to the top of the tube when anticoagulated blood is centrifuged.

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104. An ECG tracing measures the amount of coltage and the ______it takes for the coltage to travel thoughout the heart.

Explanation

The correct answer is "time" because an ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the time it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart. This is important in analyzing the electrical activity of the heart and identifying any abnormalities or irregularities. By measuring the time it takes for the voltage to travel, healthcare professionals can assess the heart's rhythm and determine if there are any issues that need to be addressed.

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105. A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called_______

Explanation

Tachypnea refers to a respiratory rate greater than 24 breaths per minute. It is characterized by rapid and shallow breathing. This can be seen in various conditions such as anxiety, fever, lung diseases, or when the body needs to compensate for low oxygen levels. Tachypnea is a clinical sign that indicates an underlying issue and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.

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106. Viruses can reproduce only in______

Explanation

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they require a host cell to reproduce and carry out their life cycle. They cannot replicate on their own and lack the necessary cellular machinery for reproduction. Therefore, they can only reproduce within living cells, where they hijack the host cell's machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce new virus particles. Dead cells do not possess the necessary cellular machinery for viral replication, so viruses cannot reproduce in them.

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107. What kind of environment do microorganisms grow best in?

Explanation

Microorganisms are best suited to grow in a dark and warm environment. Darkness allows them to thrive without competition from light-dependent organisms, while warmth provides an optimal temperature for their metabolic processes. This combination creates favorable conditions for their growth and reproduction.

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108. On a visual acuity reading of 20/60, what does the 20 represent?

Explanation

The visual acuity reading of 20/60 indicates that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with perfect vision can see at 60 feet. Therefore, the 20 in the reading represents the distance between the patient and the test chart, as it indicates the distance at which the patient's vision is being tested.

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109. When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the table with buttocks elevated, it is called the _____position

Explanation

The correct answer is knee-chest. When a patient kneels and places their head and chest on a table with their buttocks elevated, it is known as the knee-chest position. This position is often used in medical examinations or procedures involving the rectum or lower abdomen. It allows for better access and visualization of the area while maintaining patient comfort and stability.

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110. Preparing for a glucose tolerance test______hours before or during a test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol

Explanation

In order to prepare for a glucose tolerance test, the patient should not eat, smoke, drink coffee or alcohol for ten hours before or during the test. This is important because these activities can affect the accuracy of the test results by altering blood sugar levels. By abstaining from these activities for a sufficient period of time, the test can provide more accurate information about the body's ability to process glucose.

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111. When performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how would you correct this situation?

Explanation

All of the given choices could potentially be correct depending on the specific situation. If no blood flows into the tube, it could indicate that the needle is not deep enough in the vein, so gently inserting the needle a little deeper may help. On the other hand, if the needle is too deep or has punctured through the vein, gently pulling the needle out just a little may be necessary. If both of these actions do not work or if there are other complications, it may be necessary to remove the needle and tourniquet and prepare another site for the venipuncture. Therefore, all choices could be correct depending on the specific circumstances.

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112. A QRS measuement of less than _______ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker.

Explanation

A QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker. This is because a QRS complex represents the electrical activity in the ventricles of the heart. In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical impulse travels through the atria and then to the ventricles, resulting in a QRS complex that is typically around 0.12-0.20 seconds in duration. However, in the presence of a supraventricular pacemaker, the electrical impulse bypasses the atrioventricular node and directly stimulates the ventricles, resulting in a shorter QRS duration. Therefore, a QRS measurement of less than 0.12 seconds suggests the presence of a supraventricular pacemaker.

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113. You should wash your hands for approximately_______

Explanation

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114. Never clean a glass thermometer with _________

Explanation

Cleaning a glass thermometer with hot water is not recommended because it can cause the glass to expand rapidly, leading to breakage or damage to the thermometer. Hot water can also cause the mercury or other liquid inside the thermometer to expand, resulting in inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is important to avoid using hot water when cleaning a glass thermometer.

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115. When doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be_______the venipuncture site to prevent back-flow.

Explanation

When doing a venipuncture, the syringe or tube should be positioned below the venipuncture site to prevent back-flow. Placing it below the site ensures that gravity helps in the flow of blood into the syringe or tube, preventing any blood from flowing back into the vein. This helps to maintain the integrity of the sample and prevents contamination.

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116. A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of the following?

Explanation

A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin. This hormone is produced by the placenta during pregnancy and can be detected in the urine or blood of a pregnant woman. The presence of human chorionic gonadotropin indicates that a woman is pregnant, making it a reliable marker for pregnancy tests. Testosterone, progesterone, and estrogen are not specific to pregnancy and would not be used as markers for a pregnancy test.

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117. The area between waves is referred to as ______

Explanation

The area between waves is referred to as intervals. Intervals are the spaces or gaps between consecutive waves. In the context of waves, intervals represent the distance or time between two successive wave crests or troughs. They are commonly used to measure and analyze the frequency, wavelength, and amplitude of waves.

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118. When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the physical characteristics of tissues or organs it is called ________

Explanation

Palpation refers to the act of using fingers or hands to feel and examine tissues or organs in the body. This technique allows the physician to assess the physical characteristics such as texture, temperature, size, and tenderness of the area being examined. By palpating, the physician can gather valuable information about the condition of the patient and make a more accurate diagnosis. Auscultation involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, percussion is the act of tapping on the body to produce sounds, and measuring refers to quantifying or determining the size or amount of something.

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119. Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with fingers is called________

Explanation

Percussion is the correct answer because it refers to the act of tapping or striking the patient's body with fingers or a percussion hammer to produce sounds. This technique is commonly used by healthcare professionals to assess the density and condition of underlying organs and tissues. Audition, auditive, and propitiation are not relevant terms in this context.

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120. When you wash your hands you should stand _____

Explanation

When washing hands, it is recommended to stand so that your clothes do not touch the sink. This helps to prevent any potential contamination or transfer of germs from the sink to your clothes. Standing in this manner ensures proper hygiene and cleanliness while washing hands.

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121. Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement?

Explanation

Dampening the skin is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement. The purpose of skin preparation is to ensure good adhesion and conductivity of the electrode. Cleaning the skin with an alcohol swipe removes oils and dirt, shaving the hair allows for better adhesion, and roughening the skin improves contact with the dermis. Dampening the skin is not necessary and may even interfere with proper adhesion of the electrode.

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122. A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using ______

Explanation

A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using oxygen. Oxygen is typically stored in high-pressure cylinders, and the regulator or flow meter is used to control the flow of oxygen from the cylinder to the user. This is important because too much oxygen flow can be dangerous, while too little may not provide the necessary therapeutic effect. The regulator or flow meter allows for precise control of the oxygen flow rate, ensuring the safe and effective use of oxygen therapy.

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123. A "V wave" will________be seen in a normal EKG

Explanation

A "V wave" refers to a prominent upward deflection seen in the jugular venous pulse waveform. This waveform is not directly related to an electrocardiogram (EKG) which records the electrical activity of the heart. Therefore, a "V wave" will never be seen in a normal EKG.

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124. When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called_______

Explanation

When there is no variation of R-R intervals, it is referred to as "absolutely regular." This means that the time interval between each R wave in an electrocardiogram (ECG) is constant and does not deviate. This can indicate a normal and healthy heart rhythm, where the electrical signals are consistently generated and propagated at a steady pace.

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125. What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?

Explanation

When performing a PKU (phenylketonuria) test, a capillary blood sample is needed. Capillary blood is obtained by pricking the skin with a lancet and collecting a small amount of blood from the fingertip. This method is commonly used for newborn screening tests, including PKU, as it is less invasive and easier to obtain compared to venipuncture, which requires drawing blood from a vein. Therefore, the correct answer is capillary.

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126. An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the ________

Explanation

A tuning fork is a small metal instrument that produces a specific pitch when struck. It is commonly used in auditory and sensory perception tests to assess a person's ability to hear and detect different frequencies. The vibrations produced by the tuning fork can be felt and heard, making it a useful tool for evaluating hearing and sensory functions.

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127. Aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to grow well?

Explanation

Aerobic bacteria require oxygen to grow and thrive. They have the ability to use oxygen as a final electron acceptor in their metabolic processes, which allows them to generate energy efficiently. Without oxygen, these bacteria cannot carry out aerobic respiration and their growth is severely limited. Therefore, oxygen is the preferred environmental condition for aerobic bacteria to grow well.

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128. The tube used to collect a blood sample for a Complete Blood Count (CBC) is_______

Explanation

The correct tube used to collect a blood sample for a Complete Blood Count (CBC) is a lavender top tube with ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) additive. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents the blood from clotting and preserves the cell morphology for accurate analysis of the different blood cell types. The lavender top tube is specifically designed for hematological tests, including CBC, as it ensures proper preservation of the blood sample for accurate results.

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129. Which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy?

Explanation

PT (Prothrombin Time) and PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) are lab tests that monitor anticoagulation therapy. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effectiveness of medications like warfarin. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot in response to a specific activator and is used to monitor medications like heparin. These tests help healthcare professionals adjust the dosage of anticoagulant medications to ensure that the blood is not too thick or too thin, reducing the risk of blood clots or bleeding disorders.

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130. The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is_______

Explanation

Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate and reliable method for measuring body temperature. This is because the rectum is closer to the body's core, providing a more accurate reflection of internal body temperature. Additionally, the rectal method eliminates the potential for external factors, such as environmental temperature, to influence the reading. While oral, axillary, and nasal methods can also provide temperature readings, they are generally considered less accurate and reliable compared to the rectal method.

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131. In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is ______

Explanation

Spirometry is the most frequently performed pulmonary function test in a medical office. It is a non-invasive test that measures lung function by assessing the amount and speed of air that can be inhaled and exhaled. This test is commonly used to diagnose and monitor lung conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and pulmonary fibrosis. By measuring lung volumes and airflow, spirometry provides valuable information about a patient's respiratory health and helps healthcare professionals determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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132. Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?

Explanation

The radial pulse is usually used for taking a pulse. The radial artery is located on the wrist, on the thumb side. It is easily accessible and commonly used to measure the heart rate by feeling the pulsations of the artery. The pulse can be easily felt by placing two fingers (usually the index and middle finger) on the radial artery and applying slight pressure. This location is commonly used because it provides an accurate and convenient way to assess the heart rate.

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133. It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, be worn by laboratory technicians, or housekeeping personnel ______

Explanation

Protective masks and eye wear, or face shields, should be worn by laboratory technicians or housekeeping personnel when cleaning up blood or body fluids to prevent the spread of infectious diseases and protect themselves from potential contamination.

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134. To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _______must be swabbed.

Explanation

To obtain a specimen for a throat culture, the nasopharynx and tonsillar area must be swabbed. This is because the nasopharynx and tonsillar area are the specific regions in the throat where bacteria or viruses causing infections are most likely to be present. Swabbing these areas allows for the collection of a sample that can be cultured in a laboratory to identify any potential pathogens. The other options, such as the back of the tongue and epiglottis or under the tongue and along the gum line, are not the recommended areas for obtaining a throat culture specimen.

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135. The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is called________

Explanation

Sterilization is the correct answer because it refers to the process of killing all microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi, in a certain area. This process is commonly used in medical settings, laboratories, and food preparation to ensure the complete elimination of any potential pathogens. Disinfection, on the other hand, refers to the reduction of microorganisms to a safe level, while washing and dusting are not specifically focused on killing microorganisms.

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136. When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct?

Explanation

For occult blood testing, dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen. This is because certain foods and medications can affect the results of the test. By avoiding certain foods and medications, the accuracy of the test can be improved. Limiting dairy is not specifically mentioned as a requirement for occult blood testing. Consuming red meat in the four hours prior to the collection of the specimen is not recommended as it may interfere with the test results. There are no restrictions on medications, and the patient should take all medications as prescribed.

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137. Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the _________position.

Explanation

The correct answer is "supine." The supine position refers to lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side. This position is often used in medical settings for examinations or procedures, as it allows for easy access to the body and provides a neutral position for the spine.

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138. In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed to close together, the amplitude will be _________

Explanation

If the electrodes are placed too close together in the positioning, the amplitude of the signal will be small. This is because when the electrodes are close, they pick up signals from a smaller area, resulting in a weaker signal.

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139. When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the ______

Explanation

When taking the pulse, it is important to report accurately the rhythm of pulse beats, the rate (number of pulse beats per minute), and the force of the beat. This means that all of the given answers are correct.

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140. How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because hematocrit tubes are used to collect blood samples for hematocrit testing. Typically, two tubes are collected from the patient to ensure accuracy and to have a backup sample in case one is damaged or compromised during the testing process.

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141. Which of the following is false?

Explanation

Veins pulsate is the false statement. Veins do not pulsate like arteries do. Arteries have a strong and rhythmic pulse due to the pumping of blood from the heart, while veins carry blood back to the heart and do not have a pulsating sensation.

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142. Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is______

Explanation

The correct answer is "remote". This suggests that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV is very low or unlikely. It implies that the chances of transmitting HIV through saliva are minimal compared to other modes of transmission, such as blood transmission.

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143. When a vector travels away from a positive electrode, a ___________ deflection results.

Explanation

When a vector travels away from a positive electrode, a negative deflection results because the positive electrode is the reference point for measuring electrical activity. As the vector moves away from the positive electrode, it creates a downward or negative deflection on the graph or recording.

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144. In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ________area

Explanation

To ensure the electrode is properly secured, it is recommended to rub your finger around the adhesive area. This will help to create better adhesion between the electrode and the skin, preventing it from coming off during use. The adhesive area is specifically designed to stick to the skin and provide a secure attachment for the electrode. By rubbing your finger around this area, you can enhance the contact and ensure the electrode stays in place for accurate readings or treatment.

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145. Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for _________

Explanation

Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for multiple use. The rubber sleeves act as a barrier between the blood and the tube, preventing any contamination or contact with the tube itself. This allows the tube to be reused for multiple patients without the risk of cross-contamination.

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146. When anticoagulated blood is centriguged _____goes to the bottom of the tube

Explanation

When anticoagulated blood is centrifuged, the red blood cells settle at the bottom of the tube due to their higher density compared to other components. This is because red blood cells contain a high concentration of hemoglobin, which makes them heavier and causes them to separate and settle at the bottom under the influence of centrifugal force.

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147. What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?

Explanation

To perform a hemoglobin test, a blood sample with EDTA added is needed. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents the blood from clotting, allowing accurate measurement of hemoglobin levels. Serum only or white blood cells are not suitable for this test as they do not contain the necessary components for hemoglobin measurement. Therefore, the correct answer is EDTA added.

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148. The_______wave represents atrial depolarization

Explanation

The P wave represents atrial depolarization. Depolarization is the process in which the electrical charge of the heart muscle cells changes, causing them to contract. In the cardiac cycle, the P wave is the first wave observed on an electrocardiogram (ECG). It represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the contraction of the atrial muscles. This wave is followed by the QRS complex, which represents the depolarization of the ventricles. Therefore, the correct answer is P.

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149. The risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately___________

Explanation

The risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with HIV is approximately 0.50%. This means that there is a 0.50% chance of contracting HIV after being exposed to the infected blood through a needle-stick. It is important for healthcare workers to take proper precautions to minimize the risk of exposure and follow appropriate protocols in case of such incidents.

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150. The glucose tolerance test is a ______-test

Explanation

The glucose tolerance test is a timed test because it involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals over a set period of time. This test is typically used to diagnose diabetes or gestational diabetes by assessing how the body processes glucose. The timing of the test allows healthcare professionals to monitor how the body responds to the glucose load and determine if there are any abnormalities in glucose metabolism.

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151. The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to __________

Explanation

The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to 0.20 sec. This is because the ECG paper is typically divided into small and large squares to help measure time intervals. The small squares usually represent 0.04 sec, while the large squares represent 0.20 sec. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.20 sec.

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152. Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient's complete name and identification number is part of the facilities ______plan.

Explanation

In order to ensure the accuracy and safety of patient care, it is important to label tubes correctly with the patient's complete name and identification number. This is a crucial step in quality control, as it helps to prevent any mix-ups or errors in the laboratory or healthcare facility. By implementing a comprehensive quality control plan, healthcare providers can ensure that all aspects of patient care, including proper labeling, are consistently monitored and maintained at a high standard.

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153. ______values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease

Explanation

Erythrocyte sedimentation rates (ESR) are increased in infections and inflammatory diseases. ESR is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is commonly used to assess the presence and severity of inflammatory conditions. Infections and inflammatory diseases cause an increase in the production of certain proteins in the blood, known as acute phase reactants, which can cause red blood cells to clump together and settle faster. This leads to an elevated ESR value, indicating the presence of inflammation or infection in the body.

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154. Lying supine with knees sharply flexed and separated is known as the ________position.

Explanation

The correct answer is dorsal recumbent. Dorsal recumbent position refers to lying on the back with knees sharply flexed and separated. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures that require access to the genital or rectal area. It allows for easy examination and access to these areas while providing comfort and support to the patient.

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155. A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular oscillations of the baseline is called ventricular ________

Explanation

Ventricular fibrillation is a condition characterized by rapid, irregular, and chaotic waves in the ventricles of the heart. This abnormal heart rhythm causes the heart to quiver rather than contract effectively, leading to a lack of blood flow to the body. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention and intervention, such as CPR and defibrillation, to restore a normal heart rhythm.

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156. The least reliable measurement of body temperature is_____

Explanation

The axillary measurement is considered the least reliable measurement of body temperature. This is because it is taken in the armpit, which is further away from the body's core and can be influenced by external factors such as clothing or ambient temperature. Rectal and oral measurements are generally more accurate as they are closer to the body's core temperature.

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157. Reasonable anticipated skin,eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that may result from the performance of an employee's duties is called_______

Explanation

Occupational exposure refers to the potential contact with blood or other infectious materials that an employee may encounter while performing their duties. This can include skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact. It is important for employers to take measures to minimize occupational exposure and ensure the safety of their employees. The term "occupational exposure" accurately describes the situation described in the question.

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158. The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a ______stopper

Explanation

The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a lavender stopper. Lavender stoppers are commonly used for tubes containing the anticoagulant EDTA, which is used to prevent blood from clotting. This additive is often used for hematological tests, such as complete blood count (CBC), as it helps preserve the integrity of the blood sample. The color coding of stoppers helps healthcare professionals identify the type of additive present in the tube and ensures accurate testing and analysis of the blood sample.

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159. When a patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, With the head turned to one side the patient is in the _______position

Explanation

When a patient is positioned on the abdomen with the arms under the head and the head turned to one side, the patient is in the prone position. In this position, the patient lies flat on their stomach with the back facing upwards. This position is commonly used for procedures or examinations that require access to the back or spine. It allows for optimal exposure of the posterior body surface and facilitates the examination or treatment of the back area.

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160. The main type of sphygmomanometers used in a clinical setting is the _______

Explanation

The aneroid type of sphygmomanometer is the main type used in a clinical setting. This type of sphygmomanometer does not use mercury or alcohol to measure blood pressure. Instead, it uses a mechanical system that includes a dial and a pressure gauge to measure blood pressure. The aneroid type is preferred in clinical settings due to its accuracy, portability, and ease of use.

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161. In drug testing the _____regulates describe how evidence is to be collected and handled.

Explanation

Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation that tracks the handling, transfer, and storage of evidence in drug testing. It ensures the integrity and reliability of the evidence by providing a clear record of who had control over it at each stage. This process is crucial in maintaining the admissibility of evidence in court and preventing tampering or contamination. The regulations governing the collection and handling of evidence in drug testing are referred to as the chain of custody, making it the correct answer.

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162. When performing any CLIA waived test it is important do to which one of the following?

Explanation

Performing quality control testing with every new kit and routinely thereafter is important when performing any CLIA waived test. This ensures that the test results are accurate and reliable. Quality control testing helps to identify any potential issues or errors in the testing process, allowing for corrective actions to be taken. By regularly performing quality control testing, healthcare professionals can maintain the integrity and validity of the test results, ensuring the highest level of patient care.

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163. The term " Universal Precautions" is an ______.

Explanation

The term "Universal Precautions" refers to an overall approach to infection control. It is a set of guidelines and practices that are designed to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. These precautions involve treating all patients as if they are potentially infectious, regardless of their actual diagnosis. By following universal precautions, healthcare workers can minimize the risk of spreading infections and ensure the safety of both themselves and their patients.

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164. When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs this is referred to as _____

Explanation

Shallow respiration refers to breathing with only the upper part of the lungs. This means that the patient is not taking deep breaths and is not fully utilizing their lung capacity. Shallow respiration can be caused by various factors such as lung diseases, muscle weakness, or pain. It can lead to inadequate oxygen intake and can be a sign of respiratory distress. Monitoring and addressing shallow respiration is important to ensure proper oxygenation and respiratory function.

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165. When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a ________

Explanation

When collecting blood for a hematocrit test, a lavender-top evacuated tube is used. This type of tube contains the anticoagulant ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), which prevents the blood from clotting. Since a hematocrit test measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume, it is important to use an anticoagulated tube to obtain accurate results. The lavender-top evacuated tube is specifically designed for this purpose, making it the correct choice for collecting blood for a hematocrit test.

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166. Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for ______ or more years following vaccination.

Explanation

Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against hepatitis B for seven or more years following vaccination. This means that after receiving the vaccine, individuals are protected from hepatitis B for at least seven years. It is important to note that the protection may last even longer than seven years, but the minimum duration of protection is seven years.

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167. "Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intat skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties" this definition (found in the Federal Register) applies to __________

Explanation

The definition provided in the Federal Register states that "Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal precautions apply through percutaneous inoculation, or contact with an open wound, non-intact skin, or mucous membrane during the performance of normal duties" applies to human exposure. This means that the definition is specifically referring to situations where individuals come into contact with blood or body fluids in a way that could potentially lead to exposure to infectious diseases or pathogens.

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168. When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a ______top evacuated tube

Explanation

When collecting blood for cholesterol tests, a red top evacuated tube is used. The red top tube contains no additives and is used for serum or plasma separation. This tube is commonly used for various types of blood tests, including cholesterol tests, as it allows for accurate measurement of cholesterol levels in the blood. The red top tube helps to ensure that the blood sample remains uncontaminated and suitable for cholesterol testing.

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169. Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth?

Explanation

Anaerobic pathogens are organisms that can survive and grow in the absence of oxygen. They are adapted to environments where oxygen is limited or completely absent. Therefore, the correct condition required for their growth is the absence of oxygen. Light is not a necessary requirement for their growth, so options that include light are incorrect.

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170. Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain of the ________

Explanation

Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies because it protects certain pro-coagulants. This means that it prevents these pro-coagulants from becoming inactive or being degraded, allowing them to remain active and participate in the coagulation process. By preserving the pro-coagulants, sodium citrate ensures that the coagulation studies accurately reflect the clotting potential of the blood sample.

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171. When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall of the chest is not steady, it is called______

Explanation

Irregular respiration refers to a change in the depth of breathing and an inconsistent rate of rise and fall of the chest. This means that the individual's breathing pattern is not steady or regular. It could be characterized by periods of rapid or shallow breathing followed by slower or deeper breaths. This can be caused by various factors such as respiratory disorders, lung diseases, or even emotional distress.

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172. Performing a _____as part of a complete blood count determines the ratio of the colume packed red blood cells to that of whole blood.

Explanation

Hematocrit is a test that measures the percentage of red blood cells in the total volume of blood. It is an important component of a complete blood count as it helps in diagnosing conditions such as anemia or dehydration. By determining the ratio of packed red blood cells to whole blood, hematocrit provides valuable information about the overall health and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

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173. Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components (1) magnitude or force and (2)_______

Explanation

Ventricular depolarization refers to the contraction of the ventricles in the heart. This contraction produces an electrical force or vector that has two components. One component is the magnitude or force of the electrical activity, while the other component is the direction or shape of the electrical activity. The direction or shape of the electrical activity refers to the path or pattern that the electrical signals take as they spread through the ventricles. This component is important for ensuring that the ventricles contract in a coordinated and efficient manner, allowing for effective pumping of blood throughout the body.

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174. The clean-catch urine specimen is also called________

Explanation

The clean-catch urine specimen is also called both a clean-voided specimen and a mid-stream specimen. This is because both terms refer to the same method of collecting urine, which involves cleaning the genital area before urinating and then collecting a sample mid-stream to avoid contamination from the initial and final urine.

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175. Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential blood count?

Explanation

Feathering the edges of a blood smear is crucial in making a differential blood count. Feathering refers to the technique of gently pulling the spreader slide at an angle across the slide to create a smooth and gradual transition from the thick area to the thin area of the smear. This allows for better visualization of individual blood cells and ensures an even distribution of cells across the slide, making it easier to perform an accurate differential blood count.

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176. Practices to achieve asepsis are known as _________

Explanation

The correct answer is "both a and c" because practices to achieve asepsis can be referred to as medical asepsis and clean technique. Medical asepsis involves measures to prevent the spread of microorganisms in medical settings, such as hand hygiene, disinfection, and sterilization. Clean technique, on the other hand, focuses on maintaining a clean environment and using clean equipment to minimize the risk of infection. Both approaches aim to reduce the presence of pathogens and maintain a sterile or clean environment.

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177. When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use a________

Explanation

The correct answer is a red-top tube. This is because a red-top tube is typically used for collecting blood samples for serum or plasma testing, which may include electrolyte analysis. The red-top tube contains no additives or anticoagulants, allowing the blood to clot and separate into serum or plasma, which can then be used for electrolyte testing.

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178. A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called______

Explanation

Agonal refers to the final moments before death or the period during which a person is dying. A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, also known as a dying heart, is characterized by irregular or abnormal heart rhythms. Therefore, agonal is the correct answer as it accurately describes the condition of a dying heart. Asystole refers to the absence of any heartbeat or electrical activity in the heart, agonist refers to a substance that activates a receptor to produce a biological response, and agogue refers to a substance that induces or stimulates a physiological process.

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179. Concerning ECG's, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ________

Explanation

For irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is unreliable. This means that using methods such as computing the rate by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes or using 1/2 as fast (300/2=150/minute) may not give accurate results. Therefore, these methods should not be relied upon for calculating the heart rate in irregular ECG rhythms.

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180. When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when s/he is breathing, it is called ________

Explanation

Stertorous respiration refers to the abnormal noise produced during breathing, such as snoring sounds. This can occur when there is an obstruction in the airway, causing the airflow to be partially blocked. It is often associated with conditions like sleep apnea or nasal congestion. Cheyne-Stokes respiration, on the other hand, is a specific pattern of breathing characterized by periods of deep breathing followed by periods of no breathing. Irregular respiration refers to breathing that does not follow a regular pattern. Abdominal respiration refers to the use of the abdominal muscles during breathing.

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181. Which fact is true about the P wave?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both a and b." This means that both statements about the P wave are true. The duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 seconds, and the height-deflection is smaller, not more than 3mm.

Submit
182. All spills of lood-contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up using_____approved germicide, or a 1:10 solution of household bleach.

Explanation

The correct answer is an EPA. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) is responsible for protecting human health and the environment. They provide guidelines and regulations for the proper handling and cleanup of hazardous materials, including blood-contaminated fluids. Using an EPA-approved germicide or a solution of household bleach is in accordance with their recommendations to ensure the safe and effective cleanup of spills.

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183. While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical signigicance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of _______

Explanation

The ST segment is an important portion of the ECG because it provides information about shifts in the electrical activity of the heart. It is measured from the end of the QRS complex to the beginning of the T wave. Shifts up or down from the baseline in the ST segment can indicate various cardiac conditions, such as myocardial ischemia or injury. These shifts can be indicative of abnormal electrical activity in the heart and can help in diagnosing and monitoring cardiac conditions.

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184. The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is__________

Explanation

The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is left arm, right arm. This is the standard placement for lead #1 in a 12-lead ECG. The left arm electrode is placed on the left arm, and the right arm electrode is placed on the right arm. This placement allows for the measurement of electrical activity between the left and right sides of the heart, providing valuable information about the heart's electrical conduction system and overall function.

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185. When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called_______

Explanation

When PVCs (premature ventricular contractions) fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are considered life-threatening. This is because these patterns can disrupt the normal electrical conduction of the heart and lead to more serious arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal if not promptly treated.

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186. General infection-control procedures are designed to prevent transmission of a wide range of_________and to provide a wide margin of safety in the caried situations encountered in the health-care environment.

Explanation

General infection-control procedures are designed to prevent the transmission of a wide range of microbiological agents in the healthcare environment. These procedures aim to provide a wide margin of safety by implementing measures such as hand hygiene, proper use of personal protective equipment, disinfection, and sterilization. By targeting microbiological agents, which include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, these procedures help reduce the risk of infection and ensure the safety of both healthcare workers and patients.

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187. ________testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who maybe concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational eposure.

Explanation

Serologic testing should be made available by the employer to all workers who may be concerned they have been infected with HIV through an occupational exposure. Serologic testing refers to the examination of blood serum to detect the presence of antibodies or antigens related to a particular infection or disease, in this case, HIV. This type of testing is important for early detection and diagnosis of HIV infection, allowing for prompt medical intervention and prevention of further transmission. By offering serologic testing, employers can ensure the health and safety of their workers and prevent the spread of HIV in the workplace.

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188. The primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. It has an advantage of preventing platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts, therefore, good for the preparation of _______

Explanation

EDTA is a primary anticoagulant additive that removes calcium from the blood by forming insoluble or un-ionized calcium salts. This property of EDTA is advantageous for the preparation of blood films because it prevents platelet clumping and the formation of artifacts. Blood films require a homogeneous distribution of blood cells, and the absence of platelet clumping ensures accurate examination and analysis of the blood sample under a microscope. Therefore, EDTA is good for the preparation of blood films.

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189. Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of occupational exposure to the employee is called a(n)_______

Explanation

A source individual refers to any individual, living or dead, whose blood or other potentially infectious materials may pose a risk of occupational exposure to an employee. This term is used in the context of ensuring workplace safety and preventing the transmission of infections or diseases. It encompasses individuals who may carry infectious agents, such as HIV or hepatitis, and could potentially expose others to these pathogens. The term "source individual" highlights the importance of identifying and managing individuals who may pose a risk in occupational settings.

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190. A specific eye, maouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood, or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employees duties is called_____

Explanation

An exposure incident refers to a specific contact with potentially infectious materials that occurs while performing work duties. This can include contact with the eyes, mouth, mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or through parenteral contact with blood or other infectious substances. It is considered an occupational hazard because it poses a risk to the employee's health and safety.

Submit
191. A stethoscope is used to listen to body sounds by _________.

Explanation



Auscultation is a medical technique involving the use of a stethoscope to listen to sounds within the body, such as the heartbeat, lung sounds, and bowel movements. This non-invasive method helps healthcare professionals diagnose various conditions by assessing the frequency, intensity, duration, and quality of these sounds.
Submit
192. A(n)__________reported includes information relating to the patien's main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician.

Explanation

A referral report includes information relating to the patient's main reason for scheduling an appointment to see the physician. This report is typically generated when a patient is referred to a specialist by their primary care physician or another healthcare provider. It includes details about the patient's medical history, symptoms, and any relevant test results that prompted the referral. The referral report helps the specialist understand the patient's condition and determine the appropriate course of treatment or further diagnostic tests.

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193. Which of the following is used to take an infant's rectal temperature?

Explanation

None of the options provided are used to take an infant's rectal temperature. Rectal thermometers are specifically designed for this purpose and are inserted into the baby's rectum to measure their body temperature accurately.

Submit
194. The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as ______

Explanation

Atrial flutter is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted. Atrial flutter is a type of abnormal heart rhythm that occurs in the atria, the upper chambers of the heart. It is characterized by a rapid and regular heartbeat, which can cause symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and fatigue. It is important to diagnose and treat atrial flutter to prevent complications such as blood clots and stroke.

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Every medical facility is required by OSHA to have an exposure control...
Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the...
The process of inhaling and exhaling is called _________
The electrode site should be________
When performing a venipuncture, if you have the patient______ the...
Use your index finger when you ______for a vein
The venipuncture site should be cleansed with_______
To measure a blood pressure, the medical assistant will need_____
Biohazard labels must be colored______
The process of inserting a catheter is called ______
A _______ is a small, sterilee, needle like piece of metal used to...
With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately...
Some clinical signs for head injury could be ______
The radial pulse is located in the _______
What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers?
When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ______
When cleansing the venipuncture site, it is good practice to:
Diseases that can be communicated from one person to another are...
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____the...
An instrument called a centrifuge________
With vital signs, any abnormal measurement must be immediately...
In the evacuated blood collection system the evacuated glass tubes...
The lid to the centrifuge should be kept _____when in use.
When taking vital signs, a medical assistant must wear gloves, gowns,...
The most important step in the performance of a venipuncture is...
The exposure control plan shall be made available to Assistant...
"HIV' means_______
The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by...
If during a venipuncture a patient has a syncopal episode what would...
When measuring blood pressure, which of the following is correct?
The faucet is turned off with ______
A 24-hr urin specimen should be_____
To determine the size of the needle remember that the higher the gauge...
_______ is the single most important source of HIV and HBV in the...
The maximum time a tourniquet should be tied on the upper arm while...
The blood pressure should not be taken on an arm if_______
The balance between the heat produced and the heat lost is the ____
The first line of defense in preventing disease is ________
When you use an autoclave, fill the water reservoir with ______
The autoclave sterilizes or completely destroys microorganism by...
The process by which an object or area becomes unclean is
The patient with an infection may have_______
When using a fire extinguisher the hose should be directed to the...
The fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for_______
When measuring blood pressure, the bottom number is called _________
How quickly will an electronic thermometer measure body temperature?
Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative...
To cleanse the typical venipuncture site, begin at the intended site...
The most appropriate site for performing a capillary puncture in a...
A health care worker who unconsciously transports harmful bacteria but...
At the location where you are going to feel for a vein, wrap the...
When preparing for lead placement you should first care for______
When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of_____
When performing a venipuncture, the tourniquet should be wrapped...
In cases of blood contamination shoe coverings and gloves should be...
To use a physical chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life...
Arterioles are the smallest type of ______
Blood from all individuals should be considered______.
Broken glassware which may be contaminated shall not be picked up...
The instrument used to examine the eyes is called the __________
Another term for acetone in the urine is _____
To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and...
Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric...
When collecting blood by skin puncture on an infant, you should use a...
A(n) _______requires the patient to be fasting and then blood is taken...
When testing for occult blood which of the following specimens would...
Hich degree of burn is the most serious?
The color coding for a stopper of a tube with no additives is (for...
When the pressure is lowest, the pressure is called ______
What is considered a normal adult respiration per minute?
When using a centrifuge, make sure equal weights are_________
All workers whose jobs involve participation in tasks, or activities...
The standard point of the lancet to be used when collecting blood from...
After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades,...
It is very important when performing a capillary stick to do which one...
Performing a routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical....
A patient positioned on her back with feet in stirrups is said to be...
A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of...
A medical assistant would measure the patient's temperature, pulse...
An apical pulse is the method of choice for ________
When listening to the brachial pulse you will use a(n) ________
While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type of RH are ordered...
Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure?
A rubber or plastic tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body...
Contaminated laundry shall be_______ where it was soiled.
_______ means any contaminated objects that can penetrate the skkin...
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same...
When applying leads, apply the V1 lead________
When a patient's feet are placed in stirrups and the buttocks are...
Groups or clusters of bacteria taken for laboratory study are...
When the heart is contracting, the pressure is highest. The pressure...
The cephalic, medial cubital, and basilic veins are _______ used for...
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let...
Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?
Which one of the following evacuated tubes would be drawn first?
The______switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG.
Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine?
During a venipuncture, to secure the needle during insertion into the...
What is considered a normal adult pulse rate?
Oxygen is administered to the patient by way of a ________
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P...
An otoscope is used for examination of the ________
When nticoagulated blood is centrifuged _____goes to the top of the...
An ECG tracing measures the amount of coltage and the ______it takes...
A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called_______
Viruses can reproduce only in______
What kind of environment do microorganisms grow best in?
On a visual acuity reading of 20/60, what does the 20 represent?
When the patient kneels, and places his/her head and chest on the...
Preparing for a glucose tolerance test______hours before or during a...
When performing a venipuncture if no blood flows into the tube how...
A QRS measuement of less than _______ seconds indicates a...
You should wash your hands for approximately_______
Never clean a glass thermometer with _________
When doing a venipuncture the syringe or tube should be_______the...
A CLIA waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which one of...
The area between waves is referred to as ______
When the physician feels with fingers or hands to determine the...
Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with...
When you wash your hands you should stand _____
Which of the following is not a criteria for skin preparation for lead...
A special device called a "regulator" or "flow...
A "V wave" will________be seen in a normal EKG
When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called_______
What type of blood sample is needed when performing a PKU?
An instrument used for auditory and sensory perception is called the...
Aerobic bacteria prefer which of these environmental conditions to...
The tube used to collect a blood sample for a Complete Blood Count...
Which of these lab tests monitor anticoagulation therapy?
The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature...
In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function...
Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?
It is recommended that protective masks and eye wear, or face shields,...
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the _______must be swabbed.
The process of killing all microorganisms in a certain area is...
When providing a patient instructions on the collection of a sample...
Lying flat on one's back with arms at one's side is the...
In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed to...
When taking the pulse, you must be able to report accurately the...
How many hematocrit tubes should be collected from the patient?
Which of the following is false?
Studies suggest that the potential for salivary transmission of HIV...
When a vector travels away from a positive electrode, a ___________...
In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your...
Rubber sleeves on an evacuated tube system make it possible for...
When anticoagulated blood is centriguged _____goes to the bottom of...
What type of blood sample will be needed to perform a hemoglobin test?
The_______wave represents atrial depolarization
The risk of infection with HIV following one needle-stick exposure to...
The glucose tolerance test is a ______-test
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to __________
Making sure that a tube is correctly labeled with the patient's...
______values are increased in infections and inflammatory disease
Lying supine with knees sharply flexed and separated is known as the...
A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide,...
The least reliable measurement of body temperature is_____
Reasonable anticipated skin,eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral...
The tube to collect whole blood with an additive in it has a...
When a patient is positioned on the abdomen, arms under the head, With...
The main type of sphygmomanometers used in a clinical setting is the...
In drug testing the _____regulates describe how evidence is to be...
When performing any CLIA waived test it is important do to which one...
The term " Universal Precautions" is an ______.
When the patient is breathing with only the upper part of the lungs...
When collecting blood for a hematocrit test use a ________
Vaccinations against HBV infection provide 90% protection against...
"Contact with blood, or other body fluids to which universal...
When collecting blood for cholesterol tests use a ______top evacuated...
Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain...
Sodium citrate is an anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies...
When the depth of breathing changes and the rate of the rise and fall...
Performing a _____as part of a complete blood count determines the...
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with...
The clean-catch urine specimen is also called________
Which of these is crucial in making a blood smear for a differential...
Practices to achieve asepsis are known as _________
When using an evacuated tube for collection of electrolytes use...
A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called______
Concerning ECG's, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate...
When the patient makes abnormal noises like snoring sounds when s/he...
Which fact is true about the P wave?
All spills of lood-contaminated fluids should be promptly cleaned up...
While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical...
The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is__________
When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more,...
General infection-control procedures are designed to prevent...
________testing should be made available by the employer to all...
The primary anticoagulant additive EDTA removes calcium by forming...
Any individual, living or dead, whose blood, or other potentially...
A specific eye, maouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or...
A stethoscope is used to listen to body sounds by _________.
A(n)__________reported includes information relating to the...
Which of the following is used to take an infant's rectal...
The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is...
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