ISTQB - All Chapters Exam1

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ISTQB - All Chapters Exam1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following tools can be used by developers, testers and quality assurance personnel in looking for defects prior to dynamic testing?

    • A.

      Configuration management tool

    • B.

      Static analysis tool

    • C.

      Test data preparation tool

    • D.

      Modeling tool

    Correct Answer
    B. Static analysis tool
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool can be used by developers, testers, and quality assurance personnel to look for defects prior to dynamic testing. This tool analyzes the code or software without executing it, checking for issues such as coding errors, security vulnerabilities, and adherence to coding standards. By identifying these defects early on, teams can address them before the software is tested dynamically, saving time and effort in the testing phase.

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  • 2. 

    Consider the following pseudo code,Integer k;If (k > 1 && k < 30),      Then ....End ifWhich of the following sets of test input values is the result of correct boundary value analysis?Select one:

    • A.

      -3, -2, -1, 0, 30, 31, 32, 33

    • B.

      0, 1, 30, 31

    • C.

      1, 2, 29, 30

    • D.

      -1,0,1,2,29,30,31

    Correct Answer
    C. 1, 2, 29, 30
    Explanation
    The correct boundary value analysis for the given pseudo code would include the values 1, 2, 29, and 30. This is because the condition in the if statement is checking if k is greater than 1 and less than 30. Therefore, the boundary values would be the smallest and largest values that satisfy this condition, which are 1 and 30. Additionally, including the values just outside of this range, 2 and 29, helps to test the boundaries more thoroughly.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following structure-based technique has the strongest code coverage?Select one:

    • A.

      Statement coverage

    • B.

      Multiple condition

    • C.

      Condition coverage

    • D.

      Decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    B. Multiple condition
    Explanation
    Multiple condition coverage is a structure-based technique that ensures that every possible combination of conditions in a program is tested. It aims to achieve maximum code coverage by testing all possible combinations of conditions within a decision. This technique is more comprehensive than statement coverage, condition coverage, and decision coverage because it considers all possible combinations of conditions rather than just individual statements or decisions. Therefore, multiple condition coverage provides the strongest code coverage among the given options.

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  • 4. 

    A Test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developers has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?Select one: 

    • A.

      The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already be run, and results recorded

    • B.

      The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated

    • C.

      The test engineer should not re-run the tests; they should be part of the developer tests

    • D.

      The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix

    Correct Answer
    D. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix
    Explanation
    The test engineer should re-run the tests to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix. Even though the tests have already been run and results recorded, fixing a defect can sometimes introduce new issues or unintended consequences. By re-running the tests, the test engineer can verify that the fix did not introduce any new defects and that the system is functioning correctly after the fix.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following statement is true?Select one:

    • A.

      Experience-based testing is best used in integration testing.

    • B.

      Black-box testing is equivalent to equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      White-box testing is equally useful for low-level and high-level testing

    • D.

      Experience-based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used.

    Correct Answer
    D. Experience-based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used.
    Explanation
    Experience-based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used because systematic test methods, such as specification-based testing or structure-based testing, provide a structured and planned approach to testing. These methods ensure that all requirements and functionalities are tested thoroughly. Once systematic test methods have been exhausted, experience-based testing can be used to complement and enhance the testing process. Experience-based testing relies on the tester's knowledge, skills, and intuition to identify potential defects or issues that may not have been covered by the systematic methods. By applying experience-based testing after systematic methods, the overall test coverage and effectiveness can be improved.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not a part of the test plan (IEEE 829 standarard) ?Select one:

    • A.

      Time schedule and deadlines

    • B.

      The features not to be tested

    • C.

      Test policy

    • D.

      Information about test environment and test data

    Correct Answer
    C. Test policy
    Explanation
    The test policy is not a part of the test plan according to the IEEE 829 standard. The test plan includes various sections such as the test objectives, test deliverables, test schedule, test environment, and test data. However, the test policy is a separate document that outlines the overall approach and principles for testing within an organization. It defines the standards, guidelines, and strategies to be followed during testing activities. Therefore, it is not specifically included in the test plan as per the IEEE 829 standard.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not a test level according to the V-model?Select one:

    • A.

      Unit Test

    • B.

      Acceptance test

    • C.

      System Test

    • D.

      Performance test

    Correct Answer
    D. Performance test
    Explanation
    The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the importance of testing at each stage of the development process. It consists of several test levels, including unit testing, acceptance testing, and system testing. However, performance testing is not considered a test level according to the V-model. Performance testing is a type of testing that focuses on evaluating the performance and scalability of a system under specific conditions, such as high user loads or heavy data volumes. While performance testing is an important aspect of software testing, it is not specifically mentioned as a test level in the V-model.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following statements about exit criteria is true?Select one:

    • A.

      Exit criteria are decided on the basis of entry criteria only

    • B.

      Once finalized, exit criteria cannot be changed by the test manager

    • C.

      Completion of regression testing is never a part of exit criteria

    • D.

      Exit criteria evaluation results in decision to continue or stop testing

    Correct Answer
    D. Exit criteria evaluation results in decision to continue or stop testing
    Explanation
    Exit criteria are used to determine when to stop testing. They are not solely based on entry criteria but also take into account other factors such as test coverage, test case execution, and defect resolution. The test manager has the authority to modify or update the exit criteria if needed. Regression testing can be a part of the exit criteria if it is necessary to ensure that the changes made during testing did not have any adverse effects on the existing functionality. The evaluation of the exit criteria helps in making a decision whether to continue testing or to stop based on the predefined objectives and requirements.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements describe regression testing ?I.Retesting of a fixed defect,II.Testing of an already tested program,III.Testing of new functionality in a program,IV.Regression testing applies only to functional testing,V.Tests that do not have to be repeatable, because they are only used once.Select one:

    • A.

      II,IV,V

    • B.

      I,IV

    • C.

      I,III,IV

    • D.

      II

    Correct Answer
    D. II
    Explanation
    Regression testing is the process of testing an already tested program to ensure that any changes or fixes have not introduced new defects or caused existing functionality to fail. This involves retesting of fixed defects (I) and testing of an already tested program (II). Therefore, the correct answer is II.

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  • 10. 

    Consider the following excerpt from a test report:"we tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To recreate the failure, we used test filePR624_DR78_TCB0022.pkr,available under the PR624_DR78 repository in the Ck01 server"Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?Select one:

    • A.

      Provides project managers with information on the project risks.

    • B.

      Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.

    • C.

      Provides test managers with information to report test progress.

    • D.

      Does not belong to an incident report

    Correct Answer
    B. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.
    Explanation
    The given excerpt provides developers with information to isolate the failure. It mentions that the module AX45T was tested and only 1 failure was encountered. It further specifies the test file and its location on the server, which can help developers recreate and analyze the failure to identify its cause and isolate it for further investigation and resolution.

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  • 11. 

    Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). Form the specifications you know that: . If  n<0, a message “value out of range“ must be issued. . If 0<=n<20, the program returns the exact factorial number . if 20<=n<=200 the factorial number must be approximated and visualized in floating point notation. . if n>200 a message “value out of range” must be issued Which of the following equivalence partitioning is correct? Select one:

    • A.

      N<0, 0<=n<200, n>200

    • B.

      N<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200

    • C.

      N<=0, n<20, n>=20, n>200

    • D.

      N<0, 0<=n<20, n>=20

    Correct Answer
    B. N<0,0<=n<20, 20<=n<=200, n>200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "n". This is because "n" represents any number, regardless of its value. The specifications state that if "n" is less than 0, a message "value out of range" must be issued. Therefore, "n" can be any number, positive or negative.

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  • 12. 

    A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:Group I: 0-12Group II: 13-18Group III: over 18Which of the below represent boundary values?Select one:

    • A.

      (4,5,15,20)

    • B.

      (0,12,13,18,19)

    • C.

      (-1,0,12,13,18,19)

    • D.

      (-1,0,11,12,13,14,18,19)

    Correct Answer
    B. (0,12,13,18,19)
    Explanation
    The given answer, (0,12,13,18,19), represents the boundary values for the age groups defined in the software system. The lower boundary for Group I is 0, the upper boundary for Group I and the lower boundary for Group II is 12, the upper boundary for Group II and the lower boundary for Group III is 13, the upper boundary for Group III and the lower boundary for the next group is 18, and the upper boundary for the last group is 19. These values represent the points at which the age transitions from one group to another, making them the boundary values for the age groups.

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  • 13. 

    The following program part is given,IF (condition A),               Then DO B,END IF.How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?Select one:

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      A very high number

    • D.

      2

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    In order to achieve 100% statement coverage, we need to test every possible statement in the program. In this case, we have only one IF statement with one condition and one action (DO B). Therefore, we only need one test case to cover this statement.

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  • 14. 

    Select one:

    • A.

      X-Time, Y-Percent, A-% of functional tests in the test suite, B-% of non-functional tests in the test suite

    • B.

      X-Time, Y-Cost, A-Cost of test(per week), B-Cost of finding a single bug(per week)

    • C.

      X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed tests, B- Number of open bugs.

    • D.

      X-Time, Y-Number of defects, A-Number of open defects, B- Number of closed defects

    Correct Answer
    C. X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed tests, B- Number of open bugs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is X-Time, Y-Count, A-Total number of executed tests, B- Number of open bugs. This answer suggests that the measurement of time (X-Time) is related to the count of something (Y-Count). In this case, X-Time represents the total time taken to execute tests, while Y-Count represents the number of tests executed. Additionally, A represents the total number of executed tests, and B represents the number of open bugs found during the testing process. This answer provides a clear and logical relationship between the variables.

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  • 15. 

    A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer.- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15.- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur.Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?Select one:

    • A.

      0-100-2000-6000

    • B.

      0-1999-2000-5000

    • C.

      1-2000-5001-10000

    • D.

      0, 99-1-2000-4999, 99

    Correct Answer
    A. 0-100-2000-6000
    Explanation
    The given correct answer of "0-100-2000-6000" covers all equivalence classes because it includes the minimum and maximum values for each range. The range of 0-100 covers amounts below 1, the range of 101-1999 covers amounts from 1 to 1999, the range of 2000-5000 covers amounts from 2000 to 5000, and the range of 5001-6000 covers amounts above 5000. Therefore, this set of amounts covers all possible integer values that can occur within the given money order system.

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  • 16. 

    What is a major difference between use case based testing and other specification-based testing techniques?Select one:

    • A.

      Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario based tests.

    • B.

      Use case based testing is more efficient than other techniques.

    • C.

      Use case-based testing cannot be used in agile projects but other techniques can be used for other models.

    • D.

      Use case based testing is used only for object-oriented projects where as other techniques can be used for all types of projects.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario based tests.
    Explanation
    Use case testing provides end-to-end scenario based tests, which means that it focuses on testing the entire flow of a specific use case or scenario. This technique helps in understanding the system's behavior in real-life situations and ensures that all the interactions between the system and its users are properly tested. On the other hand, other specification-based testing techniques may focus on specific requirements or functionalities without considering the complete scenario. This major difference makes use case testing a valuable approach for validating the system's functionality and user experience.

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  • 17. 

    Mark the correct sentences, l. Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as Failures, ll. A human mistake may produce a defect lll. A system will totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it, lV. When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure, V. Defects occur only as a result of technology changes Select one: 

    • A.

      Ll, lV

    • B.

      LV, V

    • C.

      L, ll

    • D.

      I, ll, lll, IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Ll, lV
    Explanation
    The correct sentences are:
    ll. A human mistake may produce a defect. lV. When a defect exists in a system, it may result in a failure. The correct sentences emphasize the connection between defects and failures in a system. They acknowledge that human errors can lead to defects, and when defects are present in a system, they can potentially result in failures. The incorrect sentences contain inaccuracies or overgeneralizations and should be disregarded.
     

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?Select one:

    • A.

      peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

    • B.

      Static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects.

    • C.

      Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements where as static analysis can find

    • D.

      peer reviews find defects while static analysis finds failures.

    Correct Answer
    B. Static analysis targets the code technically whereas peer review is applicable to together aspects.
    Explanation
    Static analysis of code using a tool focuses specifically on the technical aspects of the code, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, and potential vulnerabilities. It uses automated tools to analyze the code and identify these issues. On the other hand, peer review of code involves a group of developers reviewing the code manually to identify defects, such as logic errors, performance issues, and design flaws. Peer review considers not only the technical aspects but also the overall quality, maintainability, and adherence to requirements. Therefore, the key difference between the two is that static analysis is more focused on the technical aspects of the code, while peer review considers a broader range of aspects.

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  • 19. 

    What is Integration testing?Select one:

    • A.

      Testing that the interfaces work correctly.

    • B.

      Another term for testing system integrity.

    • C.

      Looking for faults in larger components or subsystems.

    • D.

      Specifying which components to integrate in which order.

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing that the interfaces work correctly.
    Explanation
    Integration testing is a type of testing that focuses on verifying that the interfaces between different components or subsystems of a system are functioning correctly. It involves testing the interactions and communication between these components to ensure that they are integrated seamlessly and work together as intended. This type of testing helps identify any issues or faults that may arise when different components are combined, ensuring that the system functions as a whole.

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  • 20. 

    For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running with a test automation tool?Select one:

    • A.

      The number of round bugs is reduced.

    • B.

      The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.

    • C.

      The total cost of the test project always decreases

    • D.

      Test coverage is increased.

    Correct Answer
    B. The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced.
    Explanation
    A benefit of using a test automation tool is that it reduces the time spent on repetitive tasks. Test automation allows for the creation of automated test scripts that can be executed repeatedly, saving time and effort. This eliminates the need for manual execution of repetitive test cases, freeing up resources to focus on more critical tasks. Additionally, automation tools can also provide faster feedback on test results, enabling quicker identification and resolution of issues.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following describes best, when incident reporting may occur?Select one:

    • A.

      During development and testing of a product

    • B.

      During review and testing of a product

    • C.

      During testing and maintenance of a product

    • D.

      During development, review, testing and use of a product

    Correct Answer
    D. During development, review, testing and use of a product
    Explanation
    Incident reporting may occur during the development, review, testing, and use of a product. This means that incidents can be reported at any stage of the product's lifecycle, starting from its development phase, continuing through the review and testing phases, and even after the product has been released and is being used by customers. This comprehensive approach ensures that any issues or incidents that arise during any stage of the product's lifecycle can be properly documented and addressed.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following describes the pesticide paradox principle?Select one:

    • A.

      Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects

    • B.

      If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs

    • C.

      Testing everything (all combinations of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible, except for trivial cases

    • D.

      A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during pre-release testing, or show most of the operational failures

    Correct Answer
    B. If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs
  • 23. 

    Agile development can be classified as which life cycle model?Select one:

    • A.

      Agile development is not related to any life cycle model

    • B.

      RAD

    • C.

      V Model

    • D.

      Iterative or incremental

    Correct Answer
    D. Iterative or incremental
    Explanation
    Agile development can be classified as an iterative or incremental life cycle model. This is because Agile focuses on delivering software in small, incremental iterations, allowing for flexibility and adaptability throughout the development process. Agile methodologies, such as Scrum or Kanban, emphasize continuous collaboration, frequent feedback, and regular iterations to deliver value to customers. This approach enables teams to quickly respond to changes, incorporate feedback, and continuously improve the product, making it an iterative or incremental life cycle model.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements regarding incidents is NOT true?Select one:

    • A.

      Incidents may be raised during development, review, testing or use of a software product

    • B.

      Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development

    • C.

      Incidents should be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution

    • D.

      The discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes need to be logged as incidents

    Correct Answer
    B. Since incidents are the discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes they cannot be raised during development
    Explanation
    This statement is not true because incidents can be raised during development. Incidents are discrepancies between actual and expected outcomes, and these discrepancies can occur at any stage of the software development process, including during development, review, testing, or use of the software product. Therefore, the statement contradicts the fact that incidents can be raised during development.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements is correct?Select one:

    • A.

      Since test planning is influenced by the developers work, test planning should not start before the entire project plan of the development team is available.

    • B.

      Because independence of testers enhances quality and improves testing, test planning should not take into account constraints from the development team.

    • C.

      Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources.

    • D.

      Test planning is an activity that is only performed at the very beginning of the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. Test planning is influenced by among others, the scope of testing, the risks and the availability of resources.
    Explanation
    Test planning is influenced by various factors such as the scope of testing, the risks involved, and the availability of resources. This means that test planning should consider these factors while creating a plan for testing activities. It does not necessarily depend on the availability of the entire project plan from the development team or the independence of testers. The statement highlights the importance of considering these factors in test planning to ensure effective and efficient testing.

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  • 26. 

    What is true about software testers?Select one:

    • A.

      The evaluation done by testers is not influenced by personal experience

    • B.

      Testers and programmer must always have opposite mindsets

    • C.

      Testers need good communication skills

    • D.

      Experienced testers always guarantee high software quality

    Correct Answer
    C. Testers need good communication skills
    Explanation
    Testers need good communication skills because they are responsible for effectively conveying information about bugs and issues to the development team. They need to clearly communicate the steps to reproduce a bug, provide detailed information about the issue, and collaborate with developers to ensure it is resolved. Additionally, testers may need to communicate with stakeholders, such as project managers or clients, to provide updates on testing progress and discuss any concerns or questions. Good communication skills help testers effectively perform their role and contribute to the overall quality of the software.

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  • 27. 

    You are managing the testing of a fluid dynamics package to be used for designing the sewage system of an upcoming city. All testers are domain experts who understand fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering and all of them have tested similar packages in the past. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?Select one:

    • A.

      The test specification should follow IEEE standard template.

    • B.

      The test specification should be written very detailed to ensure that everyone understands the application.

    • C.

      The tests should be very detailed with step by step procedures, including button clicks, tabs and menu selections

    • D.

      The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise

    Correct Answer
    D. The tests can be written with less details because of the testers expertise
    Explanation
    The testers' expertise in fluid dynamics and hydraulic engineering, as well as their previous experience with similar packages, suggests that they have a strong understanding of the application. Therefore, the tests can be written with less detail, as the testers are likely to have a good grasp of the necessary steps and procedures involved in testing the fluid dynamics package.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statements is correct?Select one:

    • A.

      A test suite must include static and dynamic code analysis tool

    • B.

      monitoring tools are available only for functional testing

    • C.

      COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific needs

    • D.

      Stress testing is focused on the ability of the system to work under minimum load

    Correct Answer
    C. COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific needs
    Explanation
    COTS (Commercial Off-The-Shelf) tools are software tools that are readily available in the general market and can be customized or adapted to meet specific needs. These tools are designed to be used by a wide range of users and can be easily modified or configured to suit different requirements. This statement implies that COTS tools are flexible and can be tailored to specific use cases, making them a valuable resource for organizations looking for efficient and cost-effective solutions.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is an example of static testing?Select one:

    • A.

      Requirements review

    • B.

      Calculating path coverage using tools

    • C.

      Usability testing

    • D.

      Performance testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements review
    Explanation
    Static testing refers to a type of testing that is performed without executing the code. It involves reviewing and examining the documents, code, and other artifacts to identify defects, errors, and inconsistencies. In this context, a requirements review is an example of static testing as it involves examining and evaluating the requirements documentation to ensure that they are complete, consistent, and meet the desired quality standards. This type of review helps in identifying any ambiguities, contradictions, or missing information in the requirements, which can then be addressed and corrected before the development phase begins.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following statement regarding IEEE 829 standards is correct?Select one:

    • A.

      IEEE standard 829 covers only test case design specifications.

    • B.

      IEEE standard 829 doesn't cover test case design. It only relates to test planning.

    • C.

      IEEE standard 829 applies mainly for HW testing projects.

    • D.

      IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation.

    Correct Answer
    D. IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IEEE standard 829 is a standard for SW test documentation. This means that IEEE standard 829 provides guidelines and requirements for documenting software testing processes, including test plans, test cases, and test procedures. It is not limited to test case design specifications alone, and it is not specific to hardware testing projects.

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  • 31. 

    Which statement about use case testing is true?Select one:

    • A.

      The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

    • B.

      The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers.

    • C.

      the test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

    • D.

      The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

    Correct Answer
    C. the test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.
    Explanation
    Use case testing is a technique where test cases are designed to validate the system's behavior based on user interactions or scenarios. These test cases are created to simulate real-life situations and ensure that the system's process flow is functioning correctly. By executing these test cases, defects or issues in the process flow can be identified and addressed, helping to improve the overall quality and reliability of the system.

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  • 32. 

    In maintenance testing, What is the relationship between impact analysis and Regression testing?Select one:

    • A.

      Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements when there are new changes integrated (new functionalities).

    • B.

      There is no relation between impact analysis and regression testing.

    • C.

      The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed

    • D.

      Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in Previous SW release.

    Correct Answer
    C. The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed
    Explanation
    Impact analysis is used to evaluate the impact of changes on the existing system. It helps in identifying the areas of the system that may be affected by the changes. Regression testing, on the other hand, is performed to ensure that the existing functionalities of the system are not affected by the changes. The impact analysis helps in determining the amount of regression testing that needs to be performed. It helps in prioritizing the tests and focusing on the areas that are most likely to be impacted by the changes.

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  • 33. 

    When is use case testing appropriate ?I.   For acceptance testing with user participation,II.  For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the system is specified by use cases,III. For testing the interaction between the user and the system depending on user input and system state.,IV. For tests reflecting real-world use of the system under test,V.  For testing mathematical algorithms if the program flow differs depending on the input given.Select one: 

    • A.

      I, III, IV

    • B.

      I, III, IV, V

    • C.

      I, II, III, V

    • D.

      II, IV

    Correct Answer
    D. II, IV
    Explanation
    Use case testing is appropriate in the following scenarios:
    - For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the system is specified by use cases (option II)
    - For tests reflecting real-world use of the system under test (option IV)

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?Select one:

    • A.

      A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

    • B.

      A tester installs a test item in the test environment

    • C.

      A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

    • D.

      A test leader writes a test summary report

    Correct Answer
    C. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release
    Explanation
    This statement is an example of testing contributing to higher quality because it shows that the tester's efforts in finding a bug led to its resolution before the release of the product. By identifying and resolving the bug, the tester ensures that the product is of higher quality and meets the expected standards before it reaches the end users. This demonstrates the value of testing in improving the overall quality of the product.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following lists represents the correct sequence of the main activities of the fundamental test process (leaving out the activity of control which should take place in parallel to all the other activities)?Select one:

    • A.

      Planning, analysis and reporting, design and implementation, execution, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

    • B.

      Planning, analysis, design and implementation, execution, logging, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria.

    • C.

      Planning, analysis and design, execution, logging and reporting, regression testing

    • D.

      Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Planning, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities." This sequence represents the main activities of the fundamental test process. It starts with planning, analysis, and design, which involve understanding the requirements, identifying test conditions, and creating test cases. Then, implementation and execution involve executing the test cases and logging any defects found. Evaluation of exit criteria and reporting is done to assess if the testing is complete and to report the test results. Finally, test closure activities are performed to ensure that all necessary documentation is completed and the testing process is properly closed.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following sentence lists the main advantage of reviews over testing?Select one:

    • A.

      Clear allocation of roles to review members, confidence that participants are familiar with the reviewed subject.

    • B.

      No need to write specific plans for reviews , code reviews can save white box testing

    • C.

      Low cost of defects detection, enhancement of code and documents quality, identification improvement opportunities

    • D.

      No need of specific tools, lower risk verification, better classification of detected defects

    Correct Answer
    C. Low cost of defects detection, enhancement of code and documents quality, identification improvement opportunities
    Explanation
    The main advantage of reviews over testing is that it allows for low cost detection of defects, enhances the quality of code and documents, and identifies opportunities for improvement.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following statements correctly describes tracebility?Select one:

    • A.

      The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs software design.

    • B.

      The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test design.

    • C.

      An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first.

    • D.

      The capability of software product to enable modified software to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs software design.
    Explanation
    Traceability refers to the ability to track and identify the relationship between different items in documentation. In this context, it specifically refers to the ability to identify the connection between requirements and software design. This means being able to trace how a particular requirement is implemented in the software design, ensuring that all requirements are properly addressed and implemented. Traceability is important for ensuring that the software meets the specified requirements and for facilitating effective testing and verification processes.

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  • 38. 

    In the fundamental test process, what does primarily entail the test analysis and design activity?Select one:

    • A.

      The test ability evaluation of the test basis and test objects and the root-cause analysis

    • B.

      The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases

    • C.

      The continues comparison between current progress and the test plan, in order to identify deviations

    • D.

      The data collection on the completed test activities, in order to consolidate experience, testware, facts and figures

    Correct Answer
    B. The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases
    Explanation
    The test analysis and design activity primarily entails the transformation of the test objectives into testing conditions and tangible test cases. This involves analyzing the test basis and test objects, understanding the requirements and specifications, and designing test cases that will effectively test the system. By transforming the objectives into test conditions and tangible test cases, the testing team can ensure that all aspects of the system are thoroughly tested and any defects or issues are identified.

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  • 39. 

    Which type of automation test design is used in the example below, An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web based applications. Realizing that they need to use different test cycles, they decide not to hardcode any data in their scripts. Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.Select one:

    • A.

      Dynamic test design

    • B.

      Keyword-driven

    • C.

      data coverage analysis

    • D.

      Data driven

    Correct Answer
    D. Data driven
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "data driven". In the given example, the automation team designs an automation framework for testing web-based applications and decides not to hardcode any data in their scripts. Instead, they read all the data from text files during test execution. This approach of using external data files to drive the test cases is known as data-driven testing. It allows for flexibility and reusability as the test scripts can be executed with different sets of data without the need for modifying the scripts themselves.

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  • 40. 

    In what way do configuration management effects testing?Select one:

    • A.

      There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project

    • B.

      Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed

    • C.

      Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

    • D.

      Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item

    Correct Answer
    D. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item
    Explanation
    Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item. This means that configuration management allows testers to accurately and precisely identify the specific version or configuration of the software or system that is being tested. This is crucial for effective testing because it ensures that testers are testing the correct version and can track any changes or issues that may arise during testing. Without proper configuration management, testers may mistakenly test the wrong version or configuration, leading to inaccurate results and potential issues in the software or system.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 09, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 09, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Sheeraj
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