A Challenging ISTQB Exam Quiz For Software Testers

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A Challenging ISTQB Exam Quiz For Software Testers - Quiz

If you want to be a certified software tester, then you need to ensure that you pass the ISTQB exam. Do you think that you are prepared for it or do you need a way to ensure that you are? Below is considerably the toughest trivia quiz you will come across for the ISTQB. Give it a shot, and if you can tackle if you are truly ready.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO Exhibit:    

    • A.

      D, A, B, C.

    • B.

      A, B, C, D.

    • C.

      D, A, B.

    • D.

      A, B, C.

    Correct Answer
    A. D, A, B, C.
    Explanation
    The given state transition table shows the sequence of state transitions as S1 -> SO -> S1 -> S2 -> SO. The test cases that cover this series of state transitions are D, A, B, C. This is because the test cases need to be executed in the order that matches the sequence of state transitions. Therefore, the correct answer is D, A, B, C.

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  • 2. 

    From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testware items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

    • A.

      Ii, iv and v.

    • B.

      Ii, iii and iv.i,

    • C.

      I, ii and iv.

    • D.

      I, iii and v.

    Correct Answer
    C. I, ii and iv.
    Explanation
    Configuration management in testing is primarily focused on identifying the version of the software under test, controlling the version of testware items, and tracking changes to testware items. These purposes ensure that the correct versions of software and testware are being used during testing, and that any changes made to the testware are properly documented and tracked. It does not involve developing new testware items or analyzing the need for new testware items. Therefore, the correct answer is i, ii, and iv.

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  • 3. 

    Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

    • A.

      Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.

    • B.

      Initiating corrective actions.

    • C.

      Monitoring progress and test coverage.

    • D.

      Measuring and analyzing results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
    Explanation
    The major task of test planning is to schedule test analysis and design tasks. Test planning involves determining the scope and objectives of testing, identifying the resources required, and creating a timeline for the various testing activities. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks ensures that these crucial activities are allocated sufficient time and resources, allowing for thorough and effective testing. It helps in ensuring that the necessary analysis and design work is completed before the actual testing phase begins, thereby increasing the chances of finding defects early in the process.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?

    • A.

      Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.

    • B.

      An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.

    • C.

      Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.

    • D.

      A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.

    Correct Answer
    B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
    Explanation
    An inspection is a formal review process where a moderator leads the session and guides the participants in examining the work product for defects and issues. It is a more structured and rigorous approach to finding errors and improving quality. On the other hand, a walkthrough is a less formal review process where the author of the work product leads the session and explains their work to the participants. It is more focused on gathering feedback and gaining a better understanding of the work rather than finding defects.

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  • 5. 

    Where may functional testing be performed?

    • A.

      At system and acceptance testing levels only.

    • B.

      At all test levels.

    • C.

      At all levels above integration testing.

    • D.

      At the acceptance testing level only.

    Correct Answer
    B. At all test levels.
    Explanation
    Functional testing is a type of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality of a system or software application. It involves testing the individual functions or features of the system to ensure that they work as intended. Since functional testing is performed to validate the functionality of the system, it should ideally be conducted at all test levels, including unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. This ensures that the system functions correctly at each level and meets the requirements specified by the stakeholders.

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  • 6. 

    What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?

    • A.

      To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.

    • B.

      To identify defects in any software work product.

    • C.

      To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.

    • D.

      To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.

    Correct Answer
    B. To identify defects in any software work product.
    Explanation
    When reviewing a software deliverable, the main objective is to identify defects in any software work product. This includes identifying any errors, bugs, or issues that may be present in the software. By identifying these defects, the review process helps to ensure that the software meets the required quality standards and functions as intended. It allows for necessary corrections and improvements to be made before the software is deployed or released to users, minimizing the risk of potential failures or problems in the application.

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  • 7. 

    Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

    • A.

      Developers

    • B.

      Analysts

    • C.

      Testers

    • D.

      Incident Managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Developers
    Explanation
    Developers usually perform debugging activities because they are responsible for writing and maintaining the code. Debugging involves identifying and fixing issues or bugs in the code, which requires a deep understanding of the codebase and the ability to analyze and troubleshoot problems. Developers have the technical knowledge and expertise to debug and resolve issues efficiently. Analysts typically focus on gathering requirements and analyzing data, testers focus on testing the software for quality assurance, and incident managers handle the coordination and resolution of incidents.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

    • A.

      The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.

    • B.

      Version of the Software Under Test.

    • C.

      Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.

    • D.

      Actual and expected results.

    Correct Answer
    C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
    Explanation
    A software incident report typically includes information about the person raising the problem, such as their name and organizational position. It also includes details about the version of the software being tested and the actual and expected results. However, it does not usually include suggestions on how to fix the problem. This is because the purpose of the incident report is to document and communicate the issue, not to provide solutions. The responsibility for fixing the problem usually lies with the development or support team, who will use the incident report as a reference.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

    • A.

      Test case specification.

    • B.

      Test design specification.

    • C.

      Test procedure specification.

    • D.

      Test results.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test case specification.
    Explanation
    Test case specification defines the expected results of a test. This document outlines the inputs, actions, and expected outcomes for each test case. It provides detailed instructions on how to execute the test and what results to expect. Test case specification helps ensure that the testing process is systematic and that the expected results are clearly defined, allowing for accurate evaluation of the software's functionality and performance.

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  • 10. 

    Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers ?i) Performance testing tools.ii) Coverage measurement tools.iii) Test comparators.iv) Dynamic analysis tools.v) Incident management tools.

    • A.

      I, iii. and iv. are more for developers.

    • B.

      Ii. and iv. are more for developers.

    • C.

      Ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.

    • D.

      Ii. and iii. are more for developers.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii. and iv. are more for developers.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ii. and iv. are more for developers." This is because coverage measurement tools (ii) are commonly used by developers to assess the extent to which their code is being tested, while dynamic analysis tools (iv) are also frequently used by developers to analyze the behavior of their code during runtime.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is correct?

    • A.

      Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.

    • B.

      Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.

    • C.

      Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly.

    • D.

      Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.

    Correct Answer
    D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.
    Explanation
    Impact analysis is a technique used to assess the potential effects or consequences of a change to a system. In the context of software testing, it helps determine how much regression testing is required after a change has been made to the system. By analyzing the impact of the change, testers can identify the areas that are likely to be affected and prioritize their testing efforts accordingly. This ensures that the most critical and high-risk areas are thoroughly tested, while minimizing the effort and time spent on retesting unaffected parts of the system.

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  • 12. 

    As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?

    • A.

      Test planning.

    • B.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

    • C.

      Test closure.

    • D.

      Test control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test planning.
    Explanation
    In the test planning process, determining the exit criteria is essential. Exit criteria define the conditions that must be met in order to complete testing and move on to the next phase. It helps in deciding when to stop testing and whether the product is ready for release. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting is a part of the test closure process, but the actual determination of exit criteria happens during test planning. Test control involves monitoring and adjusting the testing activities, but it does not specifically involve determining exit criteria.

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  • 13. 

    Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?

    • A.

      Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

    • B.

      Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

    • C.

      Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.

    • D.

      Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

    Correct Answer
    C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?

    • A.

      Measuring and analyzing results.

    • B.

      Reporting discrepancies as incidents.

    • C.

      Identifying test conditions or test requirements.

    • D.

      Assessing if more tests are needed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
    Explanation
    Reporting discrepancies as incidents is a major task of test implementation and execution. This involves documenting any deviations or issues found during the testing process and reporting them as incidents. By doing so, the testing team can ensure that these discrepancies are properly addressed and resolved, improving the overall quality of the software being tested. This task is crucial in identifying and tracking any problems that may arise during testing and helps in maintaining clear communication between the testing team and the development team.

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  • 15. 

    What is beta testing?

    • A.

      Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.

    • B.

      Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.

    • C.

      Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.

    • D.

      Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
    Explanation
    Beta testing is a type of testing where potential customers try out a product or software at their own locations. This allows developers to gather feedback and identify any potential issues or bugs before the product is officially released. It provides real-world usage scenarios and helps improve the product's functionality and user experience.

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  • 16. 

    Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The given code fragment contains two nested if-else statements. To achieve 100% decision coverage, we need to test each possible outcome of all the decision points. In this case, there are two decision points: the condition "width > length" and the condition "height > width".

    To cover all possible outcomes, we need to test the following scenarios:
    1. width > length and height > width
    2. width > length and height

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  • 17. 

    You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width print "Length: " & length How many more test cases are required?

    • A.

      One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.

    • B.

      Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage.

    • C.

      None, existing test cases can be used.

    • D.

      One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

    Correct Answer
    D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.
    Explanation
    The given code fragment has an if-else statement that assigns the value of either "width" or "length" to the variable "biggest_dimension" based on the condition "width > length". The added code at the bottom prints the values of "biggest_dimension", "width", and "length". To achieve 100% statement coverage, all the statements in the code need to be executed at least once. Since the added code prints the values of "width" and "length", an additional test case is required to cover the statement that prints "Width: & width" and "Length: & length". Therefore, one more test case is required for 100% statement coverage.

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  • 18. 

    A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

    • A.

      15, 19 and 25.

    • B.

      17, 18 and19.

    • C.

      18, 20 and22.

    • D.

      16, 26 and 32.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15, 19 and 25.
    Explanation
    The best values to cover all equivalence partitions are 15, 19, and 25. This is because the temperature falls below 18 degrees, so the heating is switched off. Therefore, any value below 18 degrees should be covered. Additionally, the heating is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. Therefore, any value above 21 degrees should also be covered. The values 15, 19, and 25 cover both of these conditions, ensuring all equivalence partitions are accounted for.

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  • 19. 

    Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficienttest execution?

    • A.

      Implementation and execution.

    • B.

      Planning and control.

    • C.

      Analysis and design.

    • D.

      Test closure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementation and execution.
    Explanation
    The activity of "Implementation and execution" in the fundamental test process involves creating test suites for efficient test execution. This means that during this phase, the actual tests are implemented and executed, and test suites are created to ensure that the tests are executed in an efficient and organized manner. This activity focuses on the practical aspect of executing the tests and ensuring that they are carried out effectively.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is TRUE?

    • A.

      Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

    • B.

      Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.

    • C.

      Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.

    • D.

      Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that confirmation testing is focused on testing fixes to a set of defects, while regression testing is focused on testing to determine if any new defects have been introduced as a result of changes. This means that confirmation testing is aimed at ensuring that the fixes for known defects are effective, while regression testing is aimed at ensuring that the changes made do not introduce new defects.

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  • 21. 

    Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?

    • A.

      23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.

    • B.

      51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.

    • C.

      31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.

    • D.

      43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
    Explanation
    The given answer is valid because it matches the information provided in the decision table. According to the table, a 23-year-old in insurance class A should have a premium of 0 and an excess of 500.

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  • 22. 

    When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

    • A.

      During test planning.

    • B.

      During test analysis.

    • C.

      During test execution.

    • D.

      When evaluating exit criteria

    Correct Answer
    A. During test planning.
    Explanation
    Configuration management procedures should be implemented during test planning because this is the stage where the overall test strategy and approach are defined. Implementing configuration management procedures at this stage ensures that the necessary tools, processes, and resources are in place to manage and control the configuration items throughout the testing lifecycle. This includes identifying and documenting the configuration items, establishing baselines, and defining the change control processes. By implementing configuration management procedures during test planning, the testing team can effectively manage and control the changes to the configuration items, ensuring the integrity and consistency of the testing environment.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ? i) Regression testing is run ONLY once ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made iii) Regression testing is often automated iv) Regression tests need not be maintained

    • A.

      Ii, iv

    • B.

      Ii, iii

    • C.

      I, iii, iv

    • D.

      Iii

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii, iii
    Explanation
    Regression testing is used after fixes have been made (ii) because it is performed to ensure that the previous functionality of the system has not been affected by the fixes. Regression testing is often automated (iii) to save time and effort by running the tests automatically. However, regression testing is not run only once (i) as it is performed repeatedly throughout the software development lifecycle. Regression tests need to be maintained (iv) to ensure that they remain relevant and effective as the system evolves.

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  • 24. 

    A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

    • A.

      5, 6, 20

    • B.

      4, 5, 80

    • C.

      4, 5, 99

    • D.

      1, 20, 100

    Correct Answer
    C. 4, 5, 99
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 4, 5, 99. This group contains three test inputs that represent the boundaries of the valid range for the number of printer cartridges ordered. The first test input (4) is the minimum value allowed, the second test input (5) is the minimum order quantity, and the third test input (99) is just below the threshold for the 20% discount. By including these boundary values in the test cases, we can ensure that the system handles them correctly and that any potential issues with the minimum order quantity or discount calculation are identified.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organization's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.

    • A.

      I, ii, iii.

    • B.

      Ii, iii, iv.

    • C.

      I, iii, iv.

    • D.

      I, ii, iv.

    Correct Answer
    D. I, ii, iv.
    Explanation
    During the selection and implementation of a testing tool, it is important to investigate the organization's test process to understand its requirements and align the tool accordingly. Conducting a proof of concept helps in evaluating the tool's effectiveness and suitability for the organization's needs. Additionally, identifying coaching and mentoring requirements ensures that the users are properly trained and supported in using the selected tool effectively. Implementing the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time is not a recommended activity as it may lead to further delays and issues.

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  • 26. 

    What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

    • A.

      It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.

    • B.

      It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.

    • C.

      Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.

    • D.

      It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

    Correct Answer
    B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
    Explanation
    Designing tests early in the life cycle helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code. By identifying and addressing potential issues early on, developers can ensure that the code is more robust and less prone to errors. This can save time and resources that would otherwise be spent on fixing bugs later in the development process. Additionally, early testing allows for better understanding of the requirements and helps in building a solid foundation for the testing phases.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests.

    • A.

      Ii and iv

    • B.

      Ii and iii

    • C.

      I and iv

    • D.

      I and iii

    Correct Answer
    C. I and iv
    Explanation
    Test tools can help in achieving easy access to information about tests and testing, as they provide features for documenting and organizing test cases, test results, and other testing-related information. This makes it easier for testers to retrieve and analyze the necessary information during the testing process. Additionally, test tools can contribute to greater consistency of tests by automating repetitive tasks and ensuring that the same test cases are executed consistently. Therefore, options i and iv are the most likely benefits to be achieved by using test tools.

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  • 28. 

    What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?

    • A.

      Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.

    • B.

      Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.

    • C.

      Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.

    • D.

      Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

    Correct Answer
    B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.
    Explanation
    Preventative tests are designed early in the software development process, with the aim of identifying and preventing defects before they occur. These tests are proactive in nature and focus on finding issues in the early stages to minimize the impact on the final product. On the other hand, reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced, with the purpose of identifying and fixing defects that were not caught during the preventative testing phase. Reactive testing is a response to the identified issues and is performed to ensure that the software meets the required quality standards.

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  • 29. 

    What is the purpose of exit criteria?

    • A.

      To define when a test level is complete.

    • B.

      To determine when a test has completed.

    • C.

      To identify when a software system should be retired.

    • D.

      To determine whether a test has passed.

    Correct Answer
    A. To define when a test level is complete.
    Explanation
    Exit criteria are used to define when a test level is complete. These criteria help in determining whether all the planned activities and deliverables for a particular test level have been successfully achieved. It helps the testing team to assess if the test objectives have been met and if the software system is ready to move on to the next level or phase of testing. By setting clear exit criteria, it ensures that the testing process is controlled and allows for effective decision-making regarding the progression of the testing activities.

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  • 30. 

    What determines the level of risk?

    • A.

      The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.

    • B.

      The probability that an adverse event will occur.

    • C.

      The amount of testing planned before release of a system.

    • D.

      The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

    Correct Answer
    D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.
    Explanation
    The level of risk is determined by both the likelihood of an adverse event occurring and the impact that event would have. This means that the more likely an adverse event is to happen and the more severe the consequences of that event, the higher the level of risk. It is important to consider both factors when assessing risk because even if an event is unlikely to occur, if the impact is significant, it can still pose a high level of risk. Similarly, even if an event is highly likely to occur, if the impact is minimal, the level of risk may be lower.

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  • 31. 

    With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated?

    • A.

      Tool support for performance and monitoring.

    • B.

      Tool support for static testing.

    • C.

      Tool support for test execution and logging.

    • D.

      Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

    Correct Answer
    C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
    Explanation
    A test comparator tool is usually associated with tool support for test execution and logging. This type of tool is designed to compare the actual results of a test with the expected results and provide detailed logs and reports. It helps in identifying any discrepancies or errors in the test execution process and allows for effective debugging and troubleshooting. Additionally, it assists in generating comprehensive test execution reports for analysis and documentation purposes.

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  • 32. 

    Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions.

    • A.

      I, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.

    • B.

      Ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.

    • C.

      Iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

    • D.

      I, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. Test planning involves defining the overall approach to testing and assigning resources. Developing test cases, building the test environment, and writing test conditions are not part of test planning.

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  • 33. 

    Match the following terms and statements.1.Decision Table Testing2.Decision Testing3.State Transition Testing4.Exploratory TestingW. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complementstructured testing.X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending oncurrent conditions or previous history.Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise havebeen exercised during testing.Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

    • A.

      1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.

    • B.

      1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.

    • C.

      1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.

    • D.

      1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. This is because decision table testing (Y) is a technique that combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. State transition testing (X) is a test technique used to verify different system responses depending on current conditions or previous history. Exploratory testing (W) is testing carried out with boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. And decision testing (Z) is a form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component?

    • A.

      Black Box Techniques.

    • B.

      White Box Techniques.

    • C.

      Glass Box Techniques.

    • D.

      Experience Based Techniques.

    Correct Answer
    A. Black Box Techniques.
    Explanation
    The statement describes deriving test cases based on the specification of a component, which is a characteristic of black box techniques. Black box techniques focus on testing the functionality of the software without considering its internal structure or implementation details. This approach allows testers to validate the system's behavior and ensure that it meets the specified requirements, making it the most suitable choice in this scenario.

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  • 35. 

    For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?

    • A.

      Supporting reviews.

    • B.

      Validating models of the software.

    • C.

      Testing code executed in a special test harness.

    • D.

      Enforcement of coding standards.

    Correct Answer
    D. Enforcement of coding standards.
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool would be most useful for the enforcement of coding standards. This tool can analyze the source code without executing it and identify any violations of coding standards. It can detect issues such as unused variables, incorrect syntax, and potential bugs. By enforcing coding standards, the tool helps maintain consistency and quality in the codebase, making it easier to read, understand, and maintain. It can also help identify potential security vulnerabilities and improve overall code reliability.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to uncover? i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system. ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing. iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components. iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.

    • A.

      Ii, iii.

    • B.

      I, iii.

    • C.

      Iii, iv.

    • D.

      I, ii

    Correct Answer
    B. I, iii.
    Explanation
    Use case testing is a technique that focuses on testing the system's behavior based on user scenarios or interactions. It aims to validate that the system functions correctly in real-world situations. Therefore, it is most likely to uncover defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system (i) as well as integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components (iii). The other options (ii, iv) are not directly related to the main objective of use case testing.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

    • A.

      Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.

    • B.

      The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.

    • C.

      Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.

    • D.

      The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

    Correct Answer
    C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
    Explanation
    The most important factor in the selection of a test approach is the available skills and experience in the proposed techniques. This is because the success of a test approach heavily relies on the competence and knowledge of the test team in utilizing the techniques effectively. Without the necessary skills and experience, the team may struggle to properly implement the approach, leading to ineffective testing and potential issues in the software being tested. The availability of tools, budget for training, and willingness to learn new techniques are also important, but they are secondary factors that can be addressed and improved upon if the team has the required skills and experience.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

    • A.

      It does not require familiarity with the code.

    • B.

      It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.

    • C.

      It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.

    • D.

      Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

    Correct Answer
    C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
    Explanation
    Test independence is a benefit because it avoids author bias in defining effective tests. When the author of the code is responsible for testing it, they may unintentionally overlook certain scenarios or defects. By having a separate tester who is not involved in the development process, there is a higher chance of identifying potential issues and ensuring that the tests are comprehensive and effective. This helps in improving the overall quality of the software being tested.

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  • 39. 

    The above diagram represents the following paths through the code.A. vwyB. vwzC. vxyD. vxzWhat is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      ABD

    • C.

      ABCD

    • D.

      ACD

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The minimum combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage is A. This means that by following path A alone, all the statements in the code will be executed at least once. Following any additional paths, such as B, C, or D, would not provide any additional coverage as they would duplicate the execution of statements already covered by path A. Therefore, path A is sufficient to achieve full statement coverage.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques?

    • A.

      Test cases can be easily automated.

    • B.

      Test cases are independent of each other.

    • C.

      Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .

    • D.

      Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

    Correct Answer
    C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system .
    Explanation
    Specification-based (black-box) techniques involve deriving test cases systematically from models of the system. This means that the test cases are based on the requirements or specifications of the system, rather than the internal structure or code. This approach allows for a more objective and systematic testing process, as the focus is on ensuring that the system meets the specified requirements. Additionally, this characteristic also implies that the test cases can be easily automated, as they are derived from models that can be used to generate automated tests.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Minal_akre
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