ISTQB Sample 1 Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is the KEY characteristics of Walkthrough?

    • A.

      Pr e-meeting preparations

    • B.

      Formal follow-up process

    • C.

      Includes metrics

    • D.

      Scenario, Dry group, Peer group

    Correct Answer
    D. Scenario, Dry group, Peer group
    Explanation
    The key characteristics of a Walkthrough include scenario, dry group, and peer group. A scenario refers to a specific situation or problem that is being discussed and analyzed during the walkthrough. A dry group refers to a group of individuals who are not directly involved in the project but can provide valuable insights and feedback. A peer group refers to a group of individuals who are similar in terms of their experience and expertise and can provide constructive criticism and suggestions during the walkthrough. These characteristics help ensure a thorough and comprehensive review of the project.

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  • 2. 

    From the choices below, which one is the ' confidence testing' ?

    • A.

      Smoke testing

    • B.

      Sanity Testing

    • C.

      System testing

    • D.

      Regression testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Smoke testing
    Explanation
    Smoke testing is a type of software testing that aims to quickly determine if the most critical functions of a program are working correctly. It is performed to ensure that the software is stable enough for further testing. Smoke testing is typically conducted after a new build or version of the software is deployed. It involves running a series of tests to check the basic functionalities and features of the software. If the software passes the smoke test, it is considered stable and can proceed to more comprehensive testing.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following life cycle models may have more, fewer or different levels of development and testing ( e.g : there may be component integration testing after component testing ) , depending on the project and software product.

    • A.

      V-Model

    • B.

      Waterfall Model

    • C.

      Spiral Model

    • D.

      RAD Model

    Correct Answer
    A. V-Model
    Explanation
    The V-Model is a software development life cycle model that emphasizes a sequential approach to development and testing. It is characterized by a V-shaped diagram that shows the relationship between each phase of development and its corresponding testing phase. The V-Model allows for more flexibility in terms of the levels of development and testing required, depending on the specific project and software product. This means that there may be more, fewer, or different levels of development and testing in the V-Model compared to other life cycle models.

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  • 4. 

     For the program below,How many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement(SC) and condition coverage(CC)?if (( temp < 0 ) or (temp >100 ))  {      alert ("Danger")      if (( speed >100 ) and (load <=50))         {             speed = 50;          }   }else       {         check = false ;       }

    • A.

      SC = 2 ; CC = 5

    • B.

      SC = 4 ; CC = 5;

    • C.

      SC = 3 ; CC = 3

    • D.

      SC = 2 ; CC = 2

    Correct Answer
    A. SC = 2 ; CC = 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SC = 2 ; CC = 5.

    In this program, there are two statements that can be covered: the alert("Danger") statement and the check = false statement. To achieve 100% statement coverage, both of these statements need to be executed at least once.

    There are five conditions in this program: temp < 0, temp > 100, speed > 100, load 100 and load

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following general testing principles are TRUE ?a. Testing of safety - critical software is similar to testing web applications.b. Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects.c. Testing should start after the completion of key development tasks.d. Testing of combinations of inputs and outputs will find all defects.

    • A.

      A, b , d are correct ; c is incorrect

    • B.

      D, c is correct ; a, b are incorrect.

    • C.

      B is correct ; a, c, d are incorrect .

    • D.

      B, c are correct ; a, d are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    C. B is correct ; a, c, d are incorrect .
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Testing shows the presence of defects but not the absence of defects. This principle emphasizes that testing can uncover defects and issues in a system, but it cannot guarantee that there are no remaining defects. It is impossible to test all possible scenarios and combinations, so there may still be defects that go undetected. Therefore, testing should be seen as a way to identify and mitigate risks rather than a way to ensure a completely defect-free system. The other options, a, c, and d, are incorrect because they do not align with established testing principles.

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  • 6. 

    From which one of the following are test conditions derived ?

    • A.

      Test Design

    • B.

      Test Cases

    • C.

      Test Data

    • D.

      Requirement specifications

    Correct Answer
    D. Requirement specifications
    Explanation
    Test conditions are derived from requirement specifications. Requirement specifications outline the functional and non-functional requirements of the software being developed. Test conditions are derived from these requirements in order to determine what needs to be tested. By analyzing the requirement specifications, testers can identify the specific conditions and scenarios that need to be tested in order to ensure that the software meets the specified requirements. Test design, test cases, and test data are all important components of the testing process, but they are derived from the test conditions, which in turn are derived from the requirement specifications.

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  • 7. 

    Which one of the following statements is TRUE ? 

    • A.

      The more tests you run , the more bugs you will find.

    • B.

      The fewer the bugs, the better the testing you have done.

    • C.

      Component testing is a black-box testing , and system testing is white-box testing.

    • D.

      If you find a lot of bugs while testing, then, you should not be quite confident about the software product.

    Correct Answer
    D. If you find a lot of bugs while testing, then, you should not be quite confident about the software product.
    Explanation
    If a lot of bugs are found during testing, it indicates that there may be more undiscovered bugs in the software. Therefore, one should not be overly confident about the software product's quality.

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  • 8. 

    What is a Test Level ?

    • A.

      One or more test design specification documents.

    • B.

      A test type.

    • C.

      A testing technique.

    • D.

      A group of test activities that are organized together.

    Correct Answer
    D. A group of test activities that are organized together.
    Explanation
    A test level refers to a group of test activities that are organized together. It is not a test design specification document, a test type, or a testing technique. Instead, it represents a collection of related test activities that are performed at a specific stage or phase of the software development life cycle. This grouping ensures that the tests are organized and executed in a systematic manner, allowing for efficient testing and better coverage of the software under test.

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  • 9. 

    What is the KEY characteristic of specification-based testing technique?

    • A.

      Tests are derived based on the tester's skills and experience.

    • B.

      Tests are derived from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.

    • C.

      Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system/components.

    • D.

      Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Tests are derived from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
    Explanation
    Specification-based testing techniques involve deriving tests from models that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components. This means that the tests are based on a clear understanding of what the software is supposed to do, as defined in the specifications. By using models, such as requirement documents or use cases, testers can ensure that the tests cover all the necessary functionalities and behaviors of the software. This approach helps to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the specifications and ensures that the software meets the desired requirements.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following technique is BEST suited to find the dead code ?

    • A.

      Statement coverage Tool

    • B.

      Static Analysis Tool

    • C.

      Test Management Tool

    • D.

      Decision coverage Tool

    Correct Answer
    B. Static Analysis Tool
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool is the best technique to find dead code. Static analysis involves analyzing the source code without actually executing it. It can detect unreachable or redundant code, which is considered dead code. By analyzing the code structure, variables, and control flow, a static analysis tool can identify code that will never be executed during runtime. This helps in identifying and removing unnecessary code, improving code efficiency and maintainability. Statement coverage, decision coverage, and test management tools are not specifically designed to find dead code.

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  • 11. 

    Which one  of the following standards give the definitions of the testing terms ?

    • A.

      IEEE 829

    • B.

      BS 7925 -1

    • C.

      BS 7925 - 2

    • D.

      IEEE 729

    Correct Answer
    B. BS 7925 -1
    Explanation
    BS 7925-1 is the correct answer because it is a standard that provides definitions of testing terms. IEEE 829 is a standard for test documentation, IEEE 729 is a standard for software quality assurance, and BS 7925-2 is a standard for software component testing. Therefore, out of the given options, only BS 7925-1 is specifically focused on providing definitions of testing terms.

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  • 12. 

    From the options below, which one is not described in a unit test standard ?

    • A.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • B.

      Syntax testing

    • C.

      Stress testing

    • D.

      Condition/decision coverage

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Stress testing is not described in a unit test standard. Unit tests focus on testing individual components or functions of a software system in isolation, ensuring that each unit functions correctly. Stress testing, on the other hand, is a type of testing that evaluates the system's performance and stability under extreme conditions, such as high loads or limited resources. While stress testing is important for overall system testing, it is not typically included in a unit test standard, which primarily focuses on functional and structural testing of individual units.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is the KEY control task ?

    • A.

      Scheduling test implementation

    • B.

      Determining the scope.

    • C.

      Implementing the test policy.

    • D.

      Initiating the corrective actions.

    Correct Answer
    D. Initiating the corrective actions.
    Explanation
    Initiating the corrective actions is the key control task because it involves identifying and addressing any issues or deviations from the desired standards or objectives. This task helps in ensuring that the necessary actions are taken to correct any problems or deficiencies in the testing process, thereby improving the overall quality and effectiveness of the testing activities. It plays a crucial role in maintaining control over the testing process and ensuring that it aligns with the desired goals and objectives.

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  • 14. 

    Which tools needs to interface with the other office automation software in order to generate reports in the format required by the organization ?

    • A.

      Metrics management tools

    • B.

      Progress tracking tools

    • C.

      Test execution tools

    • D.

      Test management tools

    Correct Answer
    D. Test management tools
    Explanation
    Test management tools need to interface with other office automation software in order to generate reports in the format required by the organization. These tools are specifically designed to manage and organize the testing process, including test planning, test execution, and defect tracking. By integrating with office automation software, such as spreadsheets or word processors, test management tools can generate reports that provide insights into test progress, test coverage, and other important metrics. This integration allows for seamless communication and collaboration between testing teams and other stakeholders, ensuring that the organization receives accurate and relevant information in the desired format.

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  • 15. 

    What are the various phases of a formal review ?

    • A.

      Planning ; kick-off ; Review meeting ; defects logging ; Rework ; Follow-up

    • B.

      Planning ; select personnel ; define entry and exit criteria ; log defects; fix defects; follow-up

    • C.

      Planning ; Kick-off ; individual preparation ; review meeting ; rework ; follow-up

    • D.

      Planning ; kick-off ; individual preparation; fix defects ; rework ; exit phase

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning ; Kick-off ; individual preparation ; review meeting ; rework ; follow-up
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Planning ; Kick-off ; individual preparation ; review meeting ; rework ; follow-up". This answer accurately lists the various phases of a formal review, starting with planning and kick-off, followed by individual preparation, review meeting, rework, and finally, follow-up. Each phase plays a crucial role in ensuring a thorough and effective review process.

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  • 16. 

    Which set of test data demonstrates  all of the three-value boundaries to check whether a candidate is teenager or not ?

    • A.

      12, 13, 15, 19, 20, 21

    • B.

      11, 12, 13 , 19, 20, 21

    • C.

      12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20

    • D.

      10, 11, 12, 17, 18, 19

    Correct Answer
    C. 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20
    Explanation
    The set of test data 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20 demonstrates all of the three-value boundaries to check whether a candidate is a teenager or not. The three-value boundaries for this scenario are 12-13, 13-14, and 18-19. This set covers all three boundaries by including values on either side of each boundary, ensuring that all possible scenarios are tested.

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  • 17. 

    What is the MOST important factor for the success of a review ?

    • A.

      A reviewed test plan

    • B.

      Availability of tools to support the review process.

    • C.

      Trained participants and leaders.

    • D.

      A separate recorder during the review meeting.

    Correct Answer
    C. Trained participants and leaders.
    Explanation
    Trained participants and leaders are the most important factor for the success of a review because they possess the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively evaluate and provide feedback on the reviewed test plan. Their expertise allows for a thorough and comprehensive analysis, leading to better outcomes and improvements in the reviewed plan. Availability of tools and a separate recorder are helpful but not as crucial as having trained individuals who can actively contribute to the review process.

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  • 18. 

    According to the ISTQB glossary , what is a Testware?

    • A.

      A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests.

    • B.

      A document describing the scope, approach , resources and schedule of intended test activities.

    • C.

      Artifacts produced during the test process required to plan ,design and execute tests , such as documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results , and any additional software or utilities used in testing

    • D.

      A set of several test cases for a component/system under test, where the postcondition of one test is often used as precondition for the next one.

    Correct Answer
    C. Artifacts produced during the test process required to plan ,design and execute tests , such as documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results , and any additional software or utilities used in testing
    Explanation
    Testware refers to the artifacts produced during the test process that are necessary for planning, designing, and executing tests. This includes documentation, scripts, inputs, expected results, and any additional software or utilities used in testing. Testware is essential for ensuring that tests are properly planned and executed, and it helps in maintaining a record of relevant details about the execution of tests.

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  • 19. 

    Which of these is a functional test ?

    • A.

      Measuring response time on an on-line ticket booking system.

    • B.

      Checking how easy the system is to use.

    • C.

      Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.

    • D.

      Checking the effort of high volumes of traffic in a call-center system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Checking the on-line booking screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.
  • 20. 

    During which FUNDAMENTAL test  process activity  do we determine if more tests are needed?

    • A.

      Test implementation and execution

    • B.

      Test analysis and design

    • C.

      Test planning and control

    • D.

      Evaluating test exit criteria

    Correct Answer
    D. Evaluating test exit criteria
    Explanation
    During the evaluation of test exit criteria, we assess whether the current set of tests is sufficient or if additional tests are required. This activity helps us determine if we have achieved the desired level of quality and if any further testing is necessary to ensure the software meets the required standards. It involves reviewing the test results, coverage, and other criteria to make an informed decision about the need for additional tests.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is the BEST definition of 'complete testing' ?

    • A.

      You have completed every test in the test plan.

    • B.

      You have detected every bug in the software .

    • C.

      You have reached the schedule ship date .

    • D.

      You have tested every statement, branch and combination of branches in the program.

    Correct Answer
    A. You have completed every test in the test plan.
    Explanation
    Complete testing refers to the process of executing all the tests that are included in the test plan. It means that every test case, scenario, and condition outlined in the test plan has been executed and verified. This ensures that all the intended functionality of the software has been tested and validated. It does not necessarily imply that every bug in the software has been detected or that the schedule ship date has been reached. The focus is on fulfilling the testing requirements outlined in the test plan.

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  • 22. 

    What is a test design technique ?

    • A.

      A process of selecting test cases.

    • B.

      A way to measure the quality of the software.

    • C.

      A process of determining expected outputs.

    • D.

      A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done.

    Correct Answer
    A. A process of selecting test cases.
    Explanation
    A test design technique refers to a process of selecting test cases. It involves systematically identifying and choosing specific test cases that will be executed to evaluate the functionality and performance of software. This technique helps in ensuring that a comprehensive set of test cases is selected, covering various scenarios and requirements of the software. It aids in maximizing test coverage and effectiveness, ultimately improving the overall quality of the software.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are the KEY tasks of a test leader ?a. Using monitoring tools as needed.b. Scheduling tests and other activities.c. Understanding the project risks.d. Measuring performance of components.

    • A.

      C and d

    • B.

      A and c

    • C.

      B and c

    • D.

      B and d

    Correct Answer
    C. B and c
    Explanation
    The key tasks of a test leader include scheduling tests and other activities (task b) and understanding the project risks (task c). Scheduling tests and activities is important to ensure that the testing process is organized and efficient. Understanding project risks allows the test leader to identify potential issues and develop strategies to mitigate them. Measuring performance of components (task d) and using monitoring tools as needed (task a) may also be important tasks for a test leader, but they are not mentioned as key tasks in this question.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following tools will you use to detect  a memory leak ?

    • A.

      Dynamic analysis

    • B.

      Memory analysis

    • C.

      State analysis

    • D.

      Coverage analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Dynamic analysis
    Explanation
    Dynamic analysis is the correct answer because it is a technique used to analyze the behavior of a program while it is running. It involves monitoring the program's memory usage and detecting any memory leaks, which occur when a program does not release memory that it no longer needs. By using dynamic analysis, developers can identify and fix memory leaks, ensuring that the program runs efficiently and does not consume excessive memory resources.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are BEST candidates of static testing ?

    • A.

      Requirement specification, website, code , use cases

    • B.

      Requirement specification , user guide, performance

    • C.

      Requirement specification , test cases , user guide

    • D.

      Requirement specification , test plan, test memory leaks

    Correct Answer
    C. Requirement specification , test cases , user guide
    Explanation
    The best candidates for static testing are requirement specification, test cases, and user guide. Static testing involves reviewing documents and artifacts without executing the code. Requirement specification and user guide documents can be reviewed to ensure they are clear, complete, and consistent. Test cases can be reviewed to ensure they cover all necessary scenarios and are well-written. This type of testing helps identify defects early in the development process, improving the overall quality of the software.

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  • 26. 

    Regression testing can be applied to which of the following ?a. Functional testingb. Non-functional testingc. Structural testing

    • A.

      A and b only

    • B.

      A and c only

    • C.

      A, b and c

    • D.

      B and c only

    Correct Answer
    C. A, b and c
    Explanation
    Regression testing can be applied to functional testing, non-functional testing, and structural testing. Functional testing involves testing the functionality of the software to ensure that it meets the specified requirements. Non-functional testing focuses on testing the performance, reliability, and usability aspects of the software. Structural testing involves testing the internal structure of the software, such as code coverage and path testing. Regression testing is performed to ensure that any changes or updates to the software do not introduce new defects or impact the existing functionality, performance, or structure. Therefore, regression testing can be applied to all three types of testing mentioned in the question.

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  • 27. 

    Non-functional testing includes which of the following ?

    • A.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action.

    • B.

      Testing to see where the function does not function properly.

    • C.

      Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

    • D.

      Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.

    Correct Answer
    D. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability.
    Explanation
    Non-functional testing refers to the testing of quality attributes of a system, such as performance and usability, rather than testing specific system features. This type of testing focuses on evaluating the overall behavior and characteristics of the system, ensuring that it meets the required standards and performance expectations. By conducting non-functional testing, organizations can identify any potential issues or shortcomings in the system's performance, usability, security, reliability, and other quality aspects, and make necessary improvements to enhance the overall user experience and satisfaction.

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  • 28. 

    For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% branch coverage(BC)?SWITCH PC ONSTART 'OUTLOOK'IF OUTLOOK OPEN SEND MAILCLOSE OUTLOOK

    • A.

      SC = 1 ; BC = 2

    • B.

      SC = 1 ; BC = 1

    • C.

      SC = 2 ; BC = 2

    • D.

      SC = 2 ; BC = 1

    Correct Answer
    A. SC = 1 ; BC = 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SC = 1 ; BC = 2. In order to achieve 100% statement coverage, only one test case is needed because there is only one statement in the program. However, to achieve 100% branch coverage, two test cases are needed because there is one branch in the program, which is the IF statement. The first test case covers the branch when OUTLOOK is open, and the second test case covers the branch when OUTLOOK is not open.

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  • 29. 

    In which testing type, 'Test charters' are used?

    • A.

      Exploratory testing

    • B.

      Usability testing

    • C.

      Component testing.

    • D.

      Maintainability testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Component testing.
    Explanation
    Test charters are used in exploratory testing, which is a testing type that focuses on discovering and learning about the system under test. It involves simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution. Component testing, on the other hand, focuses on testing individual software components to ensure their functionality and integration with other components. Therefore, the given answer "Component testing" is incorrect.

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  • 30. 

    Given the following types of tools, which tools would typically be used by developers and which would be used by the independent testers :i. performance testingii. test management iii. dynamic analysisiv. test data preparationv. test runningvi. static analysis

    • A.

      Developers : iv , iii , vi Independent Testers : i, ii, v

    • B.

      Developers : iii , v, vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii, iv

    • C.

      Developers : iii and vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii,iv, v

    • D.

      Developers: iii , i, vi Independent Testers: ii , iv, v

    Correct Answer
    C. Developers : iii and vi ; Independent Testers: i, ii,iv, v
    Explanation
    Developers typically use dynamic analysis (iii) and static analysis (vi) tools to analyze and debug their code. These tools help them identify any errors or vulnerabilities in the code. On the other hand, independent testers use performance testing (i) tools to test the performance and scalability of the software, test management (ii) tools to manage and organize test cases, and test running (v) tools to execute the tests. Additionally, they may also use test data preparation (iv) tools to generate test data for their tests.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following will not be checked in statement testing ?

    • A.

      Missing statements

    • B.

      Unreachable code

    • C.

      Unused statement

    • D.

      Unused branches

    Correct Answer
    A. Missing statements
    Explanation
    Statement testing involves checking each statement in the code to ensure that it is correct and functional. Missing statements refer to statements that are not included in the code, and therefore cannot be checked. In statement testing, the focus is on the existing statements rather than the ones that are missing. Unreachable code, unused statements, and unused branches are all checked in statement testing to identify any potential issues or errors in the code.

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  • 32. 

    What is the MAIN focus of acceptance testing?

    • A.

      Testing for a business perspective.

    • B.

      Finding faults in the system.

    • C.

      Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users.

    • D.

      Testing the system with other systems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing for a business perspective.
    Explanation
    The main focus of acceptance testing is to test for a business perspective. This means that the testing process aims to ensure that the system meets the requirements and expectations of the business, and that it is able to perform the necessary functions and processes effectively. It involves evaluating the system's ability to meet business objectives, comply with industry standards, and align with the overall business strategy. By conducting acceptance testing, organizations can gain confidence that the system is suitable for deployment and use in a business environment.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following are the activities of equivalence partitioning ?

    • A.

      Identify all inputs and all outputs.

    • B.

      Identify equivalence classes for each input.

    • C.

      Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure that the test cases test each input and output at least once.
    Explanation
    The activities of equivalence partitioning include identifying all inputs and outputs, as well as identifying equivalence classes for each input. However, the most important activity is to ensure that the test cases cover each input and output at least once, as this is the main goal of equivalence partitioning.

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  • 34. 

    Which acceptance test is USUALLY performed by system administrators ?

    • A.

      Customer

    • B.

      Operational

    • C.

      Regulatory

    • D.

      Contractual

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational
    Explanation
    System administrators are responsible for the day-to-day operation and maintenance of a system. Therefore, the acceptance test that is usually performed by system administrators is the operational acceptance test. This test ensures that the system meets the operational requirements and functions correctly in a production environment.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following a programmer needs to write in order to call a function to be tested and then passes it the test data ?

    • A.

      Stub

    • B.

      Driver

    • C.

      Proxy

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Driver
    Explanation
    A programmer needs to write a Driver in order to call a function to be tested and then pass it the test data. A driver is a program or module that calls a function or method with specific inputs to test its behavior and functionality. It provides the necessary environment and inputs to execute the function being tested and captures the output or behavior for verification. A driver is commonly used in unit testing to isolate and test individual functions or modules.

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  • 36. 

    Who are the persons involved in a formal review process ?a. managerb. moderatorc. recorderd. assistant manager

    • A.

      A , c are correct ; b , d are incorrect

    • B.

      A , b are correct ; c, d are incorrect

    • C.

      A, b ,c are correct and d is incorrect

    • D.

      A , b , c , d are correct

    Correct Answer
    C. A, b ,c are correct and d is incorrect
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a, b, c are correct and d is incorrect. In a formal review process, the persons involved typically include a manager, who oversees the process and ensures its effectiveness; a moderator, who facilitates the review and ensures that discussions stay on track; and a recorder, who takes notes and documents the outcomes of the review. An assistant manager may or may not be involved in the formal review process, so option d is incorrect.

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  • 37. 

    Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?

    • A.

      Minor defects that were found by users.

    • B.

      Defects that were detected early .

    • C.

      Usability defects found by customers.

    • D.

      Defects in infrequently used functionality.

    Correct Answer
    B. Defects that were detected early .
    Explanation
    Defects that are detected early are often much cheaper to remove because they can be addressed and fixed before they have a chance to cause further issues or impact other parts of the system. Early detection allows for quicker and more efficient resolution, reducing the potential costs associated with rework, debugging, and potential customer dissatisfaction. Additionally, early detection helps in preventing the defect from propagating into other areas of the system, saving time and resources in the long run.

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  • 38. 

    With a highly experienced tester and with a good business background, which approach to defining test procedures would be effective and most efficient for a project under severe time pressure?

    • A.

      Detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step taken in the testing.

    • B.

      Every step in the test spelled out in detail.

    • C.

      A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.

    • D.

      A high-level outline of the test conditions with the steps to take discussed in detail with another experienced tester.

    Correct Answer
    C. A high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take.
    Explanation
    Given the severe time pressure for the project, a highly experienced tester with a good business background would find it effective and efficient to use a high-level outline of the test conditions and general steps to take. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability in the testing process, as it does not involve detailed documentation of all test cases and careful records of each step. Instead, it provides a general framework that can be followed while allowing the tester to make decisions and adjustments as necessary. Discussing the steps with another experienced tester can further enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of this approach.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not the integration strategy ?

    • A.

      Top-down

    • B.

      Bottom-up

    • C.

      Big-bang

    • D.

      Design-based

    Correct Answer
    D. Design-based
  • 40. 

    One of the fields on a student registration form contains a text box that accepts alphanumeric values.Identify the invalid  and valid equivalence class?

    • A.

      BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t

    • B.

      BO1kLEt ; BOOKLET

    • C.

      B01kle8 ; Bo0klet ,

    • D.

      BOOklet ; Booklet

    Correct Answer
    A. BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t
    Explanation
    The valid equivalence class for the field that accepts alphanumeric values would be any combination of uppercase and lowercase letters with numbers included, such as "BoOkLeT" and "B01kL0t". The invalid equivalence class would be any input that includes special characters or symbols, such as "Bo0klet" or "Bo1kle8". The correct answer, "BoOkLeT ; B01kL0t", falls into the valid equivalence class as it consists of a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters with numbers included.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Salbhar
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