ISTQB Mock Test 2
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Which defects are often MUCH cheaper to remove?
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Usability defects found by customers.
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Defects in infrequently used functionality.
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Defects that were detected early.
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Minor defects that were found by users.
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ISTQB Mock Test 2 assesses knowledge in software testing principles. It covers defect detection, inspection, test harness tools, independence testing, and complexity in testing. This quiz is crucial for those preparing for ISTQB certification, enhancing skills in identifying and addressing software defects efficiently.
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- 2.
Which of the following statements about Inspection is not true ?
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Inspection is the most formal review process.
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Inspection must be led by a trained leader.
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Managers can perform inspection on management documents.
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Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents.
Correct Answer
A. Inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents.Explanation
The given answer is correct because inspection is a review process that typically involves examining written documents or physical items to identify defects or problems. It is not appropriate to conduct an inspection when there are no written documents or physical items to inspect. Inspection is a formal review process that requires a trained leader to guide the process and ensure that it is conducted effectively. Managers can perform inspections on management documents, but this does not mean that they can conduct inspections on any type of document or item.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which test activities are supported by test harness tools?
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Test management and control
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Test Specification and design
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Performance and monitoring
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Test execution and logging
Correct Answer
A. Test execution and loggingExplanation
Test harness tools are primarily used for automating the execution of test cases and logging the results. These tools provide a framework or environment that allows testers to easily execute their tests and capture relevant data. Test execution involves running the test cases and verifying the expected outcomes, while logging involves recording the test results and any relevant information for further analysis. Therefore, test harness tools support the activities of test execution and logging.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is an advantage of independence testing?
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Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.
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Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.
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Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
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The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule.
Correct Answer
A. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.Explanation
Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs, and implementations. This is an advantage of independence testing because it helps to identify potential flaws or gaps in the project. By questioning assumptions, independent testers can provide valuable feedback and ensure that the final product meets the desired quality standards. This helps to improve the overall quality of the software and reduce the risk of errors or issues in the future.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A program with high cyclometic complexity is likely to be "
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Large
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Small
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Difficult to write
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Difficult to test
Correct Answer
A. Difficult to testExplanation
A program with high cyclomatic complexity is likely to be difficult to test because it means that the program has a large number of decision points or branches in its code. This makes it challenging to create test cases that cover all possible paths and combinations of conditions. It also increases the likelihood of bugs and makes it harder to identify and fix them during testing. Therefore, a program with high cyclomatic complexity is generally more time-consuming and resource-intensive to test effectively.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What is the MAJOR difference between re-testing and regression testing?re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effectsb) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removedc) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlierd) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
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Re-testing ensures that the original fault is removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects.
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Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done before the faults are fixed.
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Re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers.
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Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects ; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed.
Correct Answer
A. Re-testing ensures that the original fault is removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects.Explanation
Re-testing is the process of testing a specific functionality or component to ensure that the original fault or defect has been successfully fixed. It aims to verify that the issue has been resolved and the system is now functioning correctly. On the other hand, regression testing is performed to ensure that the changes made to fix the original fault have not introduced any new defects or unexpected side-effects in other areas of the system. It helps to identify any unintended consequences of the changes made during re-testing. Therefore, the major difference between re-testing and regression testing is that re-testing focuses on the original fault removal, while regression testing focuses on identifying unexpected side-effects.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is an informal test design technique where the tester uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests?
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Exploratory testing
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Error Guessing
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Use case Testing
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State Transition testing
Correct Answer
A. Exploratory testingExplanation
Exploratory testing is an informal test design technique where the tester uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests. Unlike scripted testing, exploratory testing does not follow a predefined test plan or test cases. Instead, the tester explores the system, learns about its behavior, and designs tests on the fly based on their observations and intuition. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability, making it effective in finding defects and uncovering unexpected behaviors in the software.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What should be considered when introducing a tool into an organization?
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Reviewing the exit criteria of previous projects.
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Counting the number of systems to be tested.
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Evaluating against objective requirements and criteria.
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Calculating the ratio between programmers and testers.
Correct Answer
A. Evaluating against objective requirements and criteria.Explanation
When introducing a tool into an organization, it is important to evaluate it against objective requirements and criteria. This ensures that the tool aligns with the organization's specific needs and goals. By evaluating the tool against objective requirements and criteria, the organization can determine if the tool will effectively support its processes and workflows. This evaluation process helps to ensure that the tool is a good fit for the organization and will ultimately contribute to its success.Rate this question:
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- 9.
One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into discussion?
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Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person's opinion , and ask for someone else's opinion.
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Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
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Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
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Express an opinion that differs from the person's opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Correct Answer
A. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person's opinion , and ask for someone else's opinion.Explanation
The facilitator should wait for the dominating person to pause and then acknowledge their opinion. By doing this, the facilitator shows respect for the person's input while also creating an opportunity for other team members to contribute to the discussion. Asking for someone else's opinion encourages active participation from other team members and helps to balance the conversation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Conditions Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4 US Resident? F T T T Age between 18 and 60 X T F T Married? X T X F Actions Issue membership N Y N Y Offer 10% discount N N N Y For the decision table above, what is the expected result for the following test cases?TC1: A 35-year old married man staying in Chicago, US.TC2: A 30-year old bachelor staying in Atlanta, US
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TC1: Issue membership and offer 10% discount ; TC2: Don't issue membership and don't offer 10% discount,
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TC1: Don't issue membership and offer 10% discount; TC2: Issue membership and offer 10% discount.
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TC1: Issue membership but, don't offer 10% discount; TC2: Issue membership and offer 10% discount
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TC1: Don't issue membership and don't offer 10% discount; TC2: Issue membership and don't offer 10% discount.
Correct Answer
A. TC1: Issue membership but, don't offer 10% discount; TC2: Issue membership and offer 10% discount -
- 11.
Which of the following are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools?
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Capture-driven and key-hole driven
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Playback-driven and key-word driven
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Keyword-driven and Data-driven
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Data-driven and captue-driven
Correct Answer
A. Keyword-driven and Data-drivenExplanation
Keyword-driven and Data-driven are advanced scripting techniques for test execution tools.
Keyword-driven testing involves creating test scripts using keywords or action words, which represent specific actions to be performed on the application under test. These keywords are then mapped to corresponding functions or methods in the test automation framework.
Data-driven testing, on the other hand, involves separating the test script logic from the test data. Test cases are created in a way that they can be executed with multiple sets of test data. This allows for more comprehensive testing and reduces the need for creating separate test scripts for each test case.
Both techniques enhance the flexibility, reusability, and maintainability of test scripts, making them powerful tools for efficient test automation.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is not a type of coverage?
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Statement Coverage
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Branch Coverage
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Code coverage
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In-between Statement Coverage
Correct Answer
A. In-between Statement CoverageExplanation
In-between Statement Coverage is not a type of coverage. The other options mentioned, such as Statement Coverage, Branch Coverage, and Code Coverage, are all valid types of coverage in software testing. In-between Statement Coverage is not a recognized term or concept in the field of coverage testing.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following might be the reason of splitting testing into distinct phases ?
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We can run different tests in different environments.
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Each test phase has different purpose.
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It is easier to manage testing in phases.
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The more stages we have, the better the testing.
Correct Answer
A. Each test phase has different purpose.Explanation
Splitting testing into distinct phases allows for a systematic approach to testing by dividing it into different stages, each with its own specific purpose. This helps in ensuring that all aspects of the software are thoroughly tested and any potential issues or bugs are identified and resolved. It also allows for better organization and management of the testing process, making it easier to track progress and allocate resources effectively. By having different phases, it becomes possible to focus on specific areas or functionalities of the software, ensuring a comprehensive and efficient testing process.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which expression best matches the characteristics of a review processes:1. Led by author2. Led by moderator 3. undocumented4. uses entry and exit criteria5. no management participationa. inspectionb. peer reviewc. walkthroughd. informal review
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A = 2 and 4 ; b = 1; c = 3 and 5
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A = 2 and 4 ; b = 5; c = 1; d = 3
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A = 2 and 4 ; b = 3; c = 1; d = 5
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A = 2 and 4 ; b = 5; c = 3; d = 1
Correct Answer
A. A = 2 and 4 ; b = 5; c = 1; d = 3Explanation
The correct answer is a = 2 and 4; b = 5; c = 1; d = 3. This answer is correct because a review process that is led by a moderator (option 2) and uses entry and exit criteria (option 4) matches the characteristics of a peer review. Additionally, a review process with no management participation (option 5) matches the characteristics of a peer review. On the other hand, a review process that is led by the author (option 1) matches the characteristics of an inspection. Lastly, a review process that is undocumented (option 3) matches the characteristics of an informal review.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the MAIN objective during prioritizing the tests ?
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Teat high risk areas first.
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Obtain good test coverage.
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Test whatever is easier to test.
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Find as many faults as possible.
Correct Answer
A. Teat high risk areas first.Explanation
The main objective during prioritizing the tests is to focus on testing high risk areas first. This means identifying and testing the parts of the system that have the highest potential for failure or impact on the overall functionality. By prioritizing high risk areas, it helps ensure that critical issues are addressed early on and reduces the likelihood of major failures or issues in the system. This approach allows for efficient allocation of resources and helps in mitigating potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management ?
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Status accounting of configuration items
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Identification of test versions.
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Controlled library access.
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Auditing conformance to ISO 9000
Correct Answer
A. Auditing conformance to ISO 9000Explanation
Auditing conformance to ISO 9000 is not part of configuration management because ISO 9000 is a set of quality management standards and guidelines, whereas configuration management focuses on managing and controlling changes to configurations of products, systems, or software. While auditing conformance to ISO 9000 may be important for ensuring quality, it is not directly related to configuration management processes such as status accounting, identification of test versions, and controlled library access.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is the tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests?
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Test execution tool
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Debugging tool
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Dynamic analysis tool
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Configuration management tool
Correct Answer
A. Configuration management toolExplanation
A configuration management tool is used to support traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests. It helps in managing and controlling the changes made to software and hardware configurations throughout their lifecycle. It allows for tracking and documenting changes, incidents, and test schedules, ensuring that all relevant information is recorded and easily accessible. This tool helps in maintaining the integrity and consistency of the software or system under test by providing a centralized repository for managing and controlling configuration items.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following is NOT part of performance testing?
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Simulating many users.
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Generating many transactions.
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Recovery Testing.
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As the first approach in deriving test cases.
Correct Answer
A. Recovery Testing.Explanation
Recovery Testing is not part of performance testing. Performance testing focuses on evaluating the speed, responsiveness, scalability, and stability of a system under varying load conditions. Simulating many users and generating many transactions are common activities in performance testing to assess the system's performance under heavy usage. However, Recovery Testing is a separate type of testing that checks how well a system recovers from failures, crashes, or other disruptive events. It is not directly related to evaluating performance metrics.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of risks includes potential failure areas in the software?
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Project risks
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Product risks
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Requirements risks
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Economic Risks
Correct Answer
A. Product risksExplanation
Product risks include potential failure areas in the software. These risks are related to the quality, reliability, and performance of the software product. They involve the possibility of defects, errors, or malfunctions that may occur during the development, testing, or deployment of the software. Product risks are focused on ensuring that the software meets the desired functionality, usability, and performance requirements, and that it is free from any potential issues that may impact its effectiveness or user satisfaction.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the MOST important factor for the successful performance of reviews?
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A reviewed test plan.
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Trained participants and review leaders.
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A separate scribe during the logging meeting.
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The availability of tools to support the review process.
Correct Answer
A. Trained participants and review leaders.Explanation
Trained participants and review leaders are the most important factor for the successful performance of reviews because they possess the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively evaluate the test plan. Their expertise allows them to identify any potential issues or improvements, ensuring a thorough and comprehensive review process. Additionally, their ability to provide constructive feedback and guidance helps to enhance the overall quality of the review.Rate this question:
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- 21.
For the program below, how many test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage(SC) and 100% branch coverage(BC)?If A > B then C = A - BelseC = A + BEndifRead D If C = D then print " error"Endif
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SC = 3 ; BC = 2
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SC = 2, BC = 2
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SC = 3 ; BC = 3
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Sc = 2 ; BC = 3
Correct Answer
A. SC = 2, BC = 2Explanation
The program has two possible branches: one for when A > B and one for when A B, and the second test case would be when ARate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?
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100% LCSAJ coverage always means 100% branch coverage.
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100% Decision coverage always means 100% statement coverage.
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100% statement coverage will detect generally more faults than 100% branch coverage.
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100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than 100% statement coverage.
Correct Answer
A. 100% statement coverage will detect generally more faults than 100% branch coverage. -
- 23.
Which of the following can help testers understand the root cause of defects from previous projects?
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Fishbone diagram
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Cause-and-effect diagram
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Lessons learned
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Pareto Charts
Correct Answer
A. Lessons learnedExplanation
Lessons learned can help testers understand the root cause of defects from previous projects by providing insights and knowledge gained from past experiences. These lessons capture information about what went wrong, why it happened, and how it can be prevented in the future. They allow testers to learn from mistakes and make improvements in their testing processes, ultimately reducing the occurrence of defects.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following could be used to access the coverage achieved for white-box test techniques?a. decisions exercisedb. boundaries exercisedc. statements exercisedd. partitions exercisede. multiple conditions exercised
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A, b, d
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A, c, e
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A, c, d
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A, e, b
Correct Answer
A. A, c, eExplanation
The coverage achieved for white-box test techniques can be accessed by considering the decisions exercised, statements exercised, and multiple conditions exercised. These factors help determine the extent to which the test cases have covered the different aspects of the code being tested. By analyzing the decisions, statements, and multiple conditions exercised during testing, the effectiveness and thoroughness of the white-box test techniques can be evaluated.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What is the MAIN purpose of test completion criteria?
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To determine when to stop testing.
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To ensure that the test case specification is complete.
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To know when the specific test has finished it's execution.
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To set the criteria in generating the test inputs.
Correct Answer
A. To determine when to stop testing.Explanation
The main purpose of test completion criteria is to determine when to stop testing. Test completion criteria help in setting specific conditions or requirements that need to be met in order to consider the testing process complete. These criteria help in defining the scope and objectives of the testing phase, ensuring that all necessary tests have been executed and the desired level of quality has been achieved. By having well-defined completion criteria, testing teams can make informed decisions on when to stop testing and proceed with the next phase of the software development process.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following is NOT a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 standard?
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Usability
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Supportability
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Functionality
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Maintainability
Correct Answer
A. SupportabilityExplanation
Supportability is not listed as a quality characteristic in the ISO 9126 standard. The ISO 9126 standard defines six quality characteristics: functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, and portability. Supportability refers to the ability of a system to be supported, maintained, and evolved over time, but it is not explicitly mentioned as a quality characteristic in this standard.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which one of the following between test management terms and activity descriptions make the BEST pair?a. test controlb. test monitoringc. test estimationd. incident managemente. configuration control1. calculation of required test resources2. maintenance of test result records.3. re-allocation of resources when test overruns4. report on deviation from test plan5. tracking of anomalous test results.
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A = 3; b = 5; c = 1; d = 4; e = 2
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A = 3; b = 4; c = 2; d = 5; e = 1
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A = 3; b = 4; c =1 ; d =2; e = 5;
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A = 3; b = 4; c = 1; d = 5; e = 2
Correct Answer
A. A = 3; b = 4; c = 1; d = 5; e = 2Explanation
Test estimation involves the calculation of required test resources, which aligns with activity description 3. Incident management involves the maintenance of test result records, which aligns with activity description 5. Test control involves the re-allocation of resources when test overruns, which aligns with activity description 1. Report on deviation from test plan aligns with activity description 4. Configuration control involves tracking of anomalous test results, which aligns with activity description 2. Therefore, the best pair is a = 3, b = 4, c = 1, d = 5, e = 2.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What could be the MAIN reason for developers to have difficulty in testing their own work ?
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Lack of objectivity
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Lack of training
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Lack of technical documentation
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Lack of test tools in market for developers.
Correct Answer
A. Lack of objectivityExplanation
Developers may have difficulty in testing their own work due to a lack of objectivity. When developers are personally invested in their code, they may unintentionally overlook potential issues or biases. They may assume that their code is functioning correctly, leading to a lack of thorough testing. Objectivity is crucial in identifying and addressing potential bugs or errors, and without it, developers may struggle to effectively test their own work.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
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Usability testing
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Top-down integration testing
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Stress and volume testing
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Business process-based testing
Correct Answer
A. Top-down integration testingExplanation
Top-down integration testing is a type of integration testing where the higher-level modules are tested first before the lower-level modules are integrated. It focuses on the flow of data and control from the main module to the sub-modules. On the other hand, system testing involves testing the entire system as a whole to ensure that it meets the specified requirements. This includes testing the system's functionality, performance, security, and usability. Usability testing, stress and volume testing, and business process-based testing are all part of system testing, but top-down integration testing is not.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which one of the following is the potential product risk factor ?
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Training issues
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Failure of third-party vendor.
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Poor software functionality
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Problems requirements definition
Correct Answer
A. Poor software functionalityExplanation
Poor software functionality is a potential product risk factor because it can lead to user dissatisfaction, decreased productivity, and potential loss of customers. If the software does not perform as expected or fails to meet the needs of the users, it can result in negative reviews, increased support costs, and potential legal issues. Poor software functionality can also impact the reputation of the company and its ability to compete in the market. Therefore, it is important to address and mitigate this risk factor during the development and testing phases of the product.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What technique captures system requirements that contain logical condition?
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Decision table testing
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State transition testing
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Equivalence partitioning
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Boundary Value
Correct Answer
A. Decision table testingExplanation
Decision table testing is a technique that captures system requirements that contain logical conditions. It is used to systematically test different combinations of inputs and their corresponding outputs based on the conditions specified in the decision table. This technique helps to ensure that all possible scenarios and outcomes are considered and tested, making it an effective way to validate system requirements that involve logical conditions.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which document specifies the sequence of test executions?
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Test plan
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Test procedure specification
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Test case specification
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Test design specification
Correct Answer
A. Test procedure specificationExplanation
The test procedure specification document specifies the sequence of test executions. This document outlines the steps and procedures that need to be followed in order to execute the tests. It provides detailed instructions on how to conduct each test, including the order in which they should be executed. By following the test procedure specification, the testing team can ensure that the tests are executed in a systematic and organized manner, allowing for accurate and reliable results.Rate this question:
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- 33.
An input field takes the birth year of the candidate between 1994 to 2000. what are the test inputs that cover all the three- value boundary values?
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1994, 1995, 1996, 2000, 2001, 2002
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1993, 1994, 1995, 1998, 1999, 2000
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1993, 1994, 1995, 1999, 2000, 2001
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1993, 1994, 1995, 1999, 2000, 2004
Correct Answer
A. 1993, 1994, 1995, 1999, 2000, 2001Explanation
The given answer covers all the three-value boundary values for the birth year input field. The minimum boundary value is 1994, the maximum boundary value is 2000, and the value just outside the boundary is 1993 and 2001. Therefore, the test inputs 1993, 1994, 1995, 1999, 2000, and 2001 cover all the three-value boundary values.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following statements about early test design are TRUE :a. Early test design can cause requirements to change.b. Faults found during early test design are expensive to fix.c. Early test design can find faults.d. Early test design normally takes more effort.e. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication.
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B, d are correct and a,c, e are incorrect.
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A, b, d are correct and c, e are incorrect
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A, c are correct and b, d, e are incorrect.
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A, c, e are correct and b, d are incorrect
Correct Answer
A. A, c, e are correct and b, d are incorrectExplanation
Early test design can cause requirements to change because when defects are found during the testing phase, it may lead to changes in the requirements to address those defects. Early test design can also find faults by identifying issues and weaknesses in the system before it is fully developed. Additionally, early test design can prevent fault multiplication by catching and fixing defects early on, preventing them from propagating and causing further issues. On the other hand, faults found during early test design are not necessarily expensive to fix as they can be addressed and resolved at an early stage, reducing the cost and effort required. Similarly, early test design does not necessarily require more effort compared to later stages as it focuses on identifying and addressing issues early on, which can save time and effort in the long run. Therefore, the correct answer is that a, c, and e are correct, while b and d are incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following tasks are performed by a test leader versus a tester?w. Scheduling testsx. Selecting tools to support testingy. Writing a project test strategyz. Preparing and acquiring data.
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Test Leader : w ; Tester : x, y, z
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Test leader : w, x, z ; Tester : y
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Test leader :w, x, y ; Tester: z
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Test Leader : w, x, ; Tester : z, y
Correct Answer
A. Test leader :w, x, y ; Tester: zExplanation
A test leader is responsible for scheduling tests, selecting tools to support testing, and writing a project test strategy. On the other hand, a tester is responsible for preparing and acquiring data for testing. Therefore, the correct answer is that the test leader performs tasks w, x, and y, while the tester performs task z.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following tools will be involved in the automation of regression test?
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Capture/playback.
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Data Tester.
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Boundary Tester.
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Output comparator.
Correct Answer
A. Capture/playback.Explanation
Capture/playback is a tool that records user interactions with an application and then plays them back to automate the regression testing process. It captures the actions performed during manual testing and creates a script that can be replayed later to repeat the same actions. This tool is useful for automating repetitive tasks and ensuring that the application functions correctly after changes have been made. Data Tester, Boundary Tester, and Output Comparator are not specifically related to regression testing automation.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following except :
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Reading test values from a data file.
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Comparison of expected results with the actual ones.
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Calculating expected outputs.
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Recording test inputs.
Correct Answer
A. Calculating expected outputs.Explanation
A commercial test execution tool is designed to automate the execution of test cases and assist in various testing activities. It can read test values from a data file, compare expected results with actual ones, and record test inputs. However, calculating expected outputs requires specific knowledge and logic that cannot be automated by a generic test execution tool. This task usually requires the expertise of a tester or a specialized tool designed for that purpose.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What happens to the cost of fixing the faults as we move ahead in the life cycle ?
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Cannot be determined.
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Decreases as we move towards the go live.
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Increases as we move towards the go live.
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Is expensive if found in requirements phase than in the design phase.
Correct Answer
A. Increases as we move towards the go live.Explanation
As we move ahead in the life cycle, the cost of fixing faults typically increases. This is because as the project progresses, more work has been done and more components have been integrated, making it more difficult and time-consuming to identify and fix faults. Additionally, as the go-live date approaches, there is often increased pressure to complete the project, which can lead to rushed or incomplete testing and a higher likelihood of undiscovered faults. Therefore, it is generally more expensive to fix faults as we move towards the go-live phase.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which approaches can help increase the quality of the software ?a. Allocating schedule contingenciesb. Incorporating rigorous testing.c. Establishing defect metrics.d. Preventing change requests
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A, d are correct ; b, c are incorrect.
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C, d are correct; a, b are incorrect.
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A, b are correct ; c, d are incorrect.
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B , c are correct ; a, d are incorrect.
Correct Answer
A. B , c are correct ; a, d are incorrect.Explanation
Allocating schedule contingencies and preventing change requests are not approaches that directly contribute to increasing the quality of software. Allocating schedule contingencies refers to setting aside extra time in the project schedule to account for unexpected delays, which may help with project management but does not directly improve the quality of the software. Preventing change requests refers to minimizing or avoiding changes to the software requirements during the development process, which can help with stability but does not directly impact the quality of the software. On the other hand, incorporating rigorous testing and establishing defect metrics are approaches that directly focus on improving the quality of the software by identifying and addressing defects and ensuring thorough testing.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which one of the following statements regarding the black-box tester is NOT true ?
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He/She should be able to understand the source code.
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He/She is highly motivated to find faults.
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He/She is creative to find the system's weaknesses.
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He/she should be able to understand the requirements documentation.
Correct Answer
A. He/She should be able to understand the source code.Explanation
The statement "He/She should be able to understand the source code" is not true because a black-box tester does not need to have knowledge of the internal workings or source code of the system being tested. Their focus is on testing the system's functionality and behavior based on the requirements and specifications provided. Understanding the source code is the responsibility of white-box testers or developers.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 23, 2012Quiz Created by
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