ISTQB- All Chapters Exam6

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ISTQB- All Chapters Exam6 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to Select one:

    • A.

      Establish a relationship with the customer

    • B.

      Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

    • C.

      Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan

    • D.

      Modify the projects organizational structure to meet the managers management style

    Correct Answer
    C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
    Explanation
    The highest priority for the project manager should be to learn the project objectives and the existing project plan. This is important because without a clear understanding of the project objectives and the plan in place, the project manager will not be able to effectively lead and manage the project. By learning the project objectives and the existing project plan, the project manager can align their actions and decisions with the overall goals of the project and ensure that the project is on track.

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  • 2. 

    A company that created software for managing libraries won a contract to manage inventories in a large hospital pharmacy. The test manager decided that the test policy and all the procedures must be reviewed and updated to meet this new challenge. Which of the following is the best explanation for this decision? Select one:

    • A.

      Different industries have different risks and quality requirements. This impacts test process.

    • B.

      The size of the software for the new project is much larger than previous one .This impacts test process.

    • C.

      Revising test policy and work procedures should be done at the beginning of each project.

    • D.

      Large organizations mandate strict testing regime from their vendors. This impacts test process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Different industries have different risks and quality requirements. This impacts test process.
    Explanation
    Different industries have different risks and quality requirements. This impacts the test process because managing inventories in a large hospital pharmacy involves different risks and quality requirements compared to managing libraries. Therefore, the test manager decided to review and update the test policy and procedures to ensure they align with the specific needs and challenges of the hospital pharmacy project.

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  • 3. 

    A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option? Select one:

    • A.

      Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

    • B.

      Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

    • C.

      Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

    • D.

      Document incidents on a large board in the lab

    Correct Answer
    A. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
    Explanation
    Managing incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet is the best option because it is a low-cost solution that can be implemented quickly. It allows for easy tracking and sharing of incident information within the company. Additionally, using a spreadsheet provides flexibility to customize the incident management process according to the company's specific needs.

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  • 4. 

    A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display Age groups are: Group I: 0-12 Group II: 13-18 Group III: Over 18 Which of the below represent boundary values? Select one:

    • A.

      (-1, 0, 12, 13, 18, 19)

    • B.

      (4, 5, 15, 20)

    • C.

      (-1, 0, 11, 12, 13, 14, 18, 19)

    • D.

      (0, 12, 13, 19)

    Correct Answer
    A. (-1, 0, 12, 13, 18, 19)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is (-1, 0, 12, 13, 18, 19) because these values represent the boundaries between the different age groups. For example, -1 and 0 represent the lower boundary of Group I, 12 and 13 represent the boundary between Group I and Group II, and 18 and 19 represent the boundary between Group II and Group III. By testing these boundary values, we can ensure that the software system correctly determines which welcome screen to display based on the user's age.

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  • 5. 

    A Test Manager decided to perform load testing during the system testing phase. Which of the following statements is correct ? Select one:

    • A.

      Load testing can be performed only in the integration testing phase

    • B.

      Load testing is a functional testing that can be performed at all test levels

    • C.

      Load testing can't be performed by the testing team

    • D.

      Load testing is a non functional testing that can be performed at all test levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Load testing is a non functional testing that can be performed at all test levels
    Explanation
    Load testing is a non-functional testing technique that focuses on evaluating the system's performance under normal and peak load conditions. It is not limited to a specific phase of testing and can be performed at any test level, including system testing. Therefore, the statement "Load testing is a non-functional testing that can be performed at all test levels" is correct.

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  • 6. 

    At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers evaluate the Testability of the test basis? Select one:

    • A.

      Test control

    • B.

      Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

    • C.

      Test analysis and design

    • D.

      Test execution

    Correct Answer
    C. Test analysis and design
    Explanation
    During the Test analysis and design stage of the Fundamental Test Process, testers evaluate the testability of the test basis. This involves assessing whether the test basis, which includes documents like requirements and design specifications, is suitable for creating effective test cases. Testability evaluation helps identify any gaps or ambiguities in the test basis that may hinder the testing process. By conducting this evaluation early on, testers can ensure that the test basis is comprehensive and well-defined, enabling them to design effective test cases and uncover potential defects in the system under test.

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  • 7. 

    During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from particular set of files ,which are part of critical work flow, the word processor crashes .Which of the following is the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation? Select one:

    • A.

      Do a root cause analysis

    • B.

      Perform bug isolation to find the conditions that cause the crash

    • C.

      Report the incident as is without any further actions

    • D.

      Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

    Correct Answer
    B. Perform bug isolation to find the conditions that cause the crash
    Explanation
    The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to perform bug isolation to find the conditions that cause the crash. This means that the tester should try to narrow down the specific conditions or inputs that are causing the word processor to crash when opening a file from the particular set of files. By isolating the bug, the tester can provide more detailed information to the development team, which will help them in identifying and fixing the problem more effectively.

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  • 8. 

    For which of the following activities is a static analysis tool NOT useful ? Select one:

    • A.

      Enforcement of coding standards.

    • B.

      Detecting dependencies in software modules.

    • C.

      Quantitative analysis related to tests (e.g . tests passed)

    • D.

      Calculation of complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quantitative analysis related to tests (e.g . tests passed)
    Explanation
    A static analysis tool is designed to analyze the source code or binary code of a program without actually executing it. It can be used to enforce coding standards by identifying violations and suggesting improvements. It can also detect dependencies in software modules by analyzing the code structure. Additionally, it can calculate the complexity of the code by measuring factors such as code size, nesting levels, and number of control flow paths. However, a static analysis tool cannot perform quantitative analysis related to tests, such as determining the number of tests passed or failed, as this requires executing the code.

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  • 9. 

    Given the following requirement : Requirement ID : 2.8 Requirement Description : Additional entrance fee Detailed Description : An additional fee of $3 is charged during weekend but 1.Visitors aged under 7 are not charged. 2.Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off of additional fee. 3.Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off of additional fee. Age should be an integer of 0 or above Weekend means Friday to Saturday inclusive Which of the following statements are NOT correct? Select one:

    • A.

      $3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

    • B.

      A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

    • C.

      7 and 13 are valid boundary values for equivalence class partition including age 10.

    • D.

      Thursday is a valid input value.

    Correct Answer
    D. Thursday is a valid input value.
    Explanation
    The given requirement states that the additional fee of $3 is charged during the weekend, which is defined as Friday to Saturday inclusive. Therefore, Thursday is not a valid input value as it is not part of the weekend.

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  • 10. 

    Manager responsibilities in formal review includes all expect one of the following? Select one:

    • A.

      Decide on the execution of reviews.

    • B.

      Determines if the review objectives have been met.

    • C.

      Planning the review.

    • D.

      Allocate time for review.

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning the review.
    Explanation
    The manager's responsibilities in a formal review include deciding on the execution of reviews, determining if the review objectives have been met, and allocating time for the review. However, planning the review is not one of the manager's responsibilities. This task is typically assigned to a project manager or a designated team member who is responsible for creating a detailed plan outlining the objectives, scope, timeline, and resources required for the review. The manager's role is to oversee and ensure that the review is executed according to the plan.

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  • 11. 

    ST is a software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge basis. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows: 1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access 2. If ST certified, 5 - 10 years of testing experience - allow full access 3. If not ST certified with 5 - 10 years of testing experience - allow limited access What would be the results for : A - ST certified, 12 years of testing experience B - Not ST certified, 7 years of testing experience C - Not ST certified, 3 years of testing experience Select one:

    • A.

      A-unknown B-limited access C-unknown

    • B.

      A-Full access B-Limited access C-unknown

    • C.

      A-unknown B-Full access C-unknown

    • D.

      A-Full access B-limited access C-limited access

    Correct Answer
    A. A-unknown B-limited access C-unknown
    Explanation
    Based on the given conditions, the access level to the ST knowledge base is determined by certification and testing experience.

    A - ST certified, 12 years of testing experience: According to the conditions, if ST certified with 5 - 10 years of testing experience, full access is allowed. Since A has 12 years of testing experience, it falls within the range of 5 - 10 years, so A would have full access. Therefore, the answer for A is unknown.

    B - Not ST certified, 7 years of testing experience: According to the conditions, if not ST certified with 5 - 10 years of testing experience, limited access is allowed. Since B is not ST certified and has 7 years of testing experience, it falls within the range of 5 - 10 years, so B would have limited access. Therefore, the answer for B is limited access.

    C - Not ST certified, 3 years of testing experience: According to the conditions, if not ST certified with 5 - 10 years of testing experience, limited access is allowed. Since C is not ST certified and has 3 years of testing experience, it does not fall within the range of 5 - 10 years, so C would have unknown access. Therefore, the answer for C is unknown.

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  • 12. 

    The testers in company A, were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team. What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change ? Select one:

    • A.

      Advantage: being closer to customer perspective, Disadvantage: less independence in perspectives

    • B.

      Advantage: Pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage: less chances to move a tester to development

    • C.

      Advantage: increased changes to move a tester to development, Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing

    • D.

      Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test, Disadvantage: Isolation from the development team knowledge

    Correct Answer
    D. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test, Disadvantage: Isolation from the development team knowledge
    Explanation
    The advantage of the testers being part of the support team is that they have more independence in deciding what and how to test. They are not influenced by the development team and can approach testing from a customer perspective. However, the disadvantage is that they may become isolated from the development team's knowledge. They may miss out on important information or updates that could impact their testing process.

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  • 13. 

    Which of following statements contradicts the general principles of testing? Select one:

    • A.

      If new defects are to be found, we should run the same test set more often

    • B.

      Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

    • C.

      How testing is done, is based on situation in a particular project.

    • D.

      More defects are found in a small subset of a systems module.

    Correct Answer
    A. If new defects are to be found, we should run the same test set more often
    Explanation
    The general principles of testing include the idea that running the same test set repeatedly will not necessarily uncover new defects. This is because if the same tests are being run over and over again, they are unlikely to find any new issues that were not already identified in previous test runs. Therefore, the statement that suggests running the same test set more often to find new defects contradicts the general principles of testing.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following activities includes identifying deviations from the plan? Select one:

    • A.

      Test control

    • B.

      Test Planning

    • C.

      Test execution

    • D.

      Test report

    Correct Answer
    A. Test control
    Explanation
    Test control includes identifying deviations from the plan. This activity involves monitoring the progress of testing, comparing it with the planned objectives, and identifying any variances or deviations. It helps to ensure that the testing activities are on track and any issues or deviations are addressed in a timely manner. Test control also involves making necessary adjustments to the testing process to keep it aligned with the project goals and objectives.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following alternatives contains only non functional testing types? Select one:

    • A.

      Load testing, Stress testing, Maintainability testing and Structural testing.

    • B.

      Performance testing, equivalence class testing Reliability testing and Load testing.

    • C.

      Stress testing, Usability testing, Portability testing and Maintainability testing.

    • D.

      System Integration testing, Load testing, Stress testing, and Performance testing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Stress testing, Usability testing, Portability testing and Maintainability testing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Stress testing, Usability testing, Portability testing and Maintainability testing. These are all non functional testing types because they focus on aspects of the system that are not related to its specific functionality. Stress testing is done to evaluate the system's performance under extreme conditions, Usability testing assesses the system's ease of use, Portability testing checks if the system can be easily transferred to different environments, and Maintainability testing examines the system's ability to be maintained and updated.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following are correct steps in executing testing based on use cases, A. Identify possible sequences of interactions between the system and the actor B. For each input data element identify the equivalence classes C. Consider which of the normal and alternative flows should be covered in the test cases D. Identify test data based on error guessing E. Cover every combination of flows in the test cases? Select one:

    • A.

      II, III, V

    • B.

      I, II,III

    • C.

      I, II, IV

    • D.

      I, IV, V

    Correct Answer
    B. I, II,III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is I, II, III. This is because in testing based on use cases, it is important to identify possible sequences of interactions between the system and the actor (A), as well as identify the equivalence classes for each input data element (B). Additionally, it is necessary to consider which of the normal and alternative flows should be covered in the test cases (C). These three steps are essential in ensuring comprehensive and effective testing based on use cases.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following are typical tasks of test manager? I. Selecting tools to support testing. II. Deciding about the implementation of test environment. III. Monitoring test results. IV. Coordinating test strategy. V. Acquiring test resources. Select one:

    • A.

      I, II, IV

    • B.

      II, III, IV

    • C.

      All the statements are true.

    • D.

      I, II, IV, V

    Correct Answer
    C. All the statements are true.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All the statements are true." This means that all of the tasks listed in options I, II, IV, and V are typical tasks of a test manager. These tasks include selecting tools to support testing, deciding about the implementation of the test environment, coordinating test strategy, and acquiring test resources. Additionally, the test manager is responsible for monitoring test results.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of an inspection ? Select one:

    • A.

      Open-ended sessions

    • B.

      Usually peer examination

    • C.

      Pre-meeting preparation

    • D.

      Inspection report

    Correct Answer
    A. Open-ended sessions
    Explanation
    Open-ended sessions are not a key characteristic of an inspection. Inspections typically involve structured and focused sessions where specific items or criteria are examined. Open-ended sessions, on the other hand, allow for a more free-flowing discussion without a specific agenda or goal. Therefore, open-ended sessions do not align with the purpose and nature of an inspection.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of a tester? Select one:

    • A.

      Finding root cause of a defect

    • B.

      Reporting and tracking bugs

    • C.

      Writing test specifications

    • D.

      Producing interim test report

    Correct Answer
    A. Finding root cause of a defect
    Explanation
    Finding the root cause of a defect is not a major responsibility of a tester. While testers are responsible for identifying and reporting bugs, writing test specifications, and producing interim test reports, finding the root cause of a defect is typically the responsibility of developers or engineers who investigate and fix the issue. Testers focus on identifying and documenting the presence of defects, rather than determining the underlying cause.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is true regarding structural based testing? Select one:

    • A.

      Can be applied only at system level testing.

    • B.

      Will include only path coverage.

    • C.

      Cannot be applied by using tool support.

    • D.

      May include level of coverage that is stronger than decision coverage.

    Correct Answer
    D. May include level of coverage that is stronger than decision coverage.
    Explanation
    Structural-based testing refers to a testing approach that focuses on the internal structure and design of the software system. It aims to test the individual components, such as functions or modules, and their interactions within the system. This type of testing can be applied at various levels, including unit testing, integration testing, and system testing. It involves analyzing the code and designing test cases to achieve a certain level of coverage, which can be stronger than decision coverage. This means that structural-based testing may include criteria such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which provide a more comprehensive assessment of the code's execution.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following lists factors that contribute to PROJECT risks ? Select one:

    • A.

      Skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues

    • B.

      Problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor softwae quality characteristics.

    • C.

      Skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements

    • D.

      Poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues
    Explanation
    The factors that contribute to project risks include skill and staff shortages, problems in defining the right requirements, and contractual issues. These factors can increase the likelihood of project failure or delays. Skill and staff shortages can lead to a lack of expertise and resources needed to successfully complete the project. Problems in defining the right requirements can result in misunderstandings or misalignment between stakeholders, leading to scope creep or changes in project objectives. Contractual issues can introduce legal or financial risks that may impact the project's progress and success.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following metrics are useful for monitoring the test progress? Select one:

    • A.

      The number of features implemented in the code

    • B.

      Percentage of work done in test environment preparation

    • C.

      The number of changes done to the product's requirements

    • D.

      Percentage of work done on the user's manuals

    Correct Answer
    B. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation
    Explanation
    Monitoring the test progress involves tracking the completion of various tasks related to testing. One important aspect of testing is the preparation of the test environment. The percentage of work done in test environment preparation can provide insights into how much progress has been made in setting up the necessary infrastructure and resources for testing. This metric helps in assessing the readiness of the test environment and can indicate if any delays or issues are impacting the overall progress of testing.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following provides the weakest level of structural coverage? Select one:

    • A.

      Statement coverage

    • B.

      Multiple condition coverage

    • C.

      Decision coverage

    • D.

      Condition coverage

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement coverage
    Explanation
    Statement coverage provides the weakest level of structural coverage because it only ensures that each statement in the code has been executed at least once. It does not guarantee that all possible paths or conditions within the statements have been tested. Other coverage criteria like decision coverage, condition coverage, and multiple condition coverage offer higher levels of structural coverage by considering different combinations of decisions and conditions in the code.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following sentences describes best what "Functional Testing" is? Select one:

    • A.

      A test in which the test cases and test data are based on the program structure of the test object

    • B.

      A static comparison of test and requirements specification of a test object

    • C.

      A dynamic test which is based on the specification of the test object

    • D.

      A test focused on the efficient interactions among different parts of the system.

    Correct Answer
    D. A test focused on the efficient interactions among different parts of the system.
    Explanation
    Functional testing is a type of testing that focuses on the efficient interactions among different parts of the system. It aims to ensure that the system functions correctly and meets the specified requirements. This type of testing is dynamic in nature, meaning it involves executing the system and observing its behavior. It is different from structural testing, which is based on the program structure of the test object, and from static testing, which involves comparing the test and requirements specifications of the test object.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE ? I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by author. II. Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting. III. Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews. IV. Management rarely participates in technical review meetings. Select one:

    • A.

      I,II

    • B.

      II,III

    • C.

      I,IV

    • D.

      III,IV

    Correct Answer
    C. I,IV
    Explanation
    In the given question, statements I and IV are true. Statement I states that in walkthroughs, the review meeting is typically led by the author, which means that the author of the document being reviewed takes charge of the meeting. Statement IV states that management rarely participates in technical review meetings, indicating that management is usually not involved in the review process. Therefore, the correct answer is I, IV.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following statements about test execution effort is true? Select one:

    • A.

      An increasing number of testers always reduce testing time.

    • B.

      A large number of test repetitions mean less test execution effort.

    • C.

      Test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.

    • D.

      Test case execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.

    Correct Answer
    D. Test case execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that test case execution effort is independent of the number of test environments. This means that the effort required to execute test cases does not change based on the number of test environments available. The number of test environments may affect other aspects of testing, such as setup and configuration, but it does not directly impact the effort required to execute the test cases themselves.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following statements correctly reflect the relationship between testing and debugging I. Debugging identifies the location of a defect in the code. II. Testing can identify the failures caused by the defects III. Debugging finds the failure in the system behavior IV. Testing phase replaces debugging Select one:

    • A.

      I, III

    • B.

      I, II

    • C.

      III,IV

    • D.

      II , IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I, II
    Explanation
    I. Debugging identifies the location of a defect in the code. This statement is correct because debugging involves finding and fixing errors or defects in the code.

    II. Testing can identify the failures caused by the defects. This statement is also correct because testing helps to uncover failures or issues that may be caused by defects in the code.

    Therefore, the correct answer is I, II.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statements is true about the minimum number of test cases required to reach 100% statement coverage and 100% branch coverage of the piece of the program given below  Read A Read B IF(A>B) THEN C=A-B ELSE C=A+B ENDIF IF(B=D)THEN PRINT "equal" ENDIF Select one:

    • A.

      2 test case for statement coverage , 2 test case for branch coverage.

    • B.

      3 test case for statement coverage , 3 test case for branch coverage.

    • C.

      2 test case for statement coverage , 3 test case for branch coverage.

    • D.

      1 test case for statement coverage , 3 test case for branch coverage.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 test case for statement coverage , 2 test case for branch coverage.
    Explanation
    The given program has two IF-ELSE statements. In order to achieve 100% statement coverage, we need to test both paths of each IF-ELSE statement, which requires a minimum of 2 test cases. Similarly, in order to achieve 100% branch coverage, we need to test both branches of each IF-ELSE statement, which also requires a minimum of 2 test cases. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 test cases for statement coverage and 2 test cases for branch coverage.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following statements is true? Select one:

    • A.

      Developers not needing testers is high level of independence.

    • B.

      Independence of testers results in efficient finding of bugs during unit testing.

    • C.

      Developers should not test their own code because they are NOT objective towards their own code.

    • D.

      Independence of testing does NOT mean that developers should not test their own code.

    Correct Answer
    D. Independence of testing does NOT mean that developers should not test their own code.
    Explanation
    The statement "Independence of testing does NOT mean that developers should not test their own code" is true because independence in testing refers to the separation of roles and responsibilities between developers and testers. While it is important to have independent testers for unbiased and objective testing, it does not imply that developers should not perform any testing on their own code. Developers can and should perform unit testing to ensure the functionality and quality of their code before it is handed over to the testing team. This allows for early detection and resolution of issues, leading to more efficient bug finding during unit testing.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software I. Re-writing a code segment in which lot of bugs were found. II. A test case fails ,defects get logged which subsequently fails. III. Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available. IV. A bug is found. Select one:

    • A.

      I,II,III

    • B.

      I,II

    • C.

      I,IV

    • D.

      I,II,IV

    Correct Answer
    B. I,II
    Explanation
    Re-writing a code segment in which a lot of bugs were found (I) can increase the overall quality of the software as it allows for the identification and fixing of bugs, improving the functionality and stability of the code. When a test case fails and defects are logged (II), it indicates that there are issues in the software that need to be addressed, leading to improvements in the quality. Therefore, selecting options I and II would likely increase the overall quality of the software.

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  • 31. 

    Which one of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct? Select one:

    • A.

      Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.

    • B.

      The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.

    • C.

      Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.

    • D.

      The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system,not to find defects.

    Correct Answer
    C. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
    Explanation
    Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release. The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not to find defects. However, testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing as it falls under a different type of testing called recovery testing.

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  • 32. 

    Why should you choose a test technique? Select one:

    • A.

      Because this way you cover the full scope of the products functionality.

    • B.

      Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project.

    • C.

      Because choosing a test technique is a common practice in software testing.

    • D.

      Because you need to match the way you test to the content of the product under test.

    Correct Answer
    B. Because of the time constraints that usually accompany a test project.
    Explanation
    Choosing a test technique is important because it allows testers to match the way they test to the content of the product under test. This helps ensure that the testing approach is appropriate for the specific product being tested, increasing the effectiveness and efficiency of the testing process. Additionally, considering the time constraints that typically accompany a test project is crucial in order to optimize the use of available resources and meet project deadlines.

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  • 33. 

    You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three different types of rooms (in increasing order of luxury): Platinum, Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a preferred Guest Card holder is eligible for an upgrade. Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility: Conditons --------------------------------------- Preferred Guest Card holder YES YES NO NO Room Type Silver Platinum Silver Platinum Actions ---------------------------------------- Offer upgrade to Gold Luxury YES NO NO NO Offer upgrade to Silver N/A YES N/A NO What is the expected result for each of the following test cases Customer A: Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a silver room Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room? Select one:

    • A.

      Cusotmer A: doesn't offer any upgrade, Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room

    • B.

      Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room, Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

    • C.

      Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade, Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

    • D.

      Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room, Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room

    Correct Answer
    B. Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room, Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade
    Explanation
    Customer A, who is a Preferred Guest Card holder and holding a silver room, is eligible for an upgrade. According to the decision table, the system should offer an upgrade to Gold Luxury for this customer. On the other hand, Customer B is a Non-Preferred Guest Card holder and holding a Platinum room, which does not meet the conditions for an upgrade. Therefore, the system should not offer any upgrade to Customer B.

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  • 34. 

    Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number . If n<0, a message “value out of range“ must be issued. . If 0<=n<20, the program returns the exact factorial number . if 20<=n<=200 the factorial number must be approximated . if n>200 a message “value out of range” must be issued Which of the following equivalence partitioning is correct? Select one:

    • A.

      N

    • B.

      N

    • C.

      N

    • D.

      N200

    Correct Answer
    D. N200
    Explanation
    The given equivalence partitioning is correct because it divides the input values into four partitions based on their ranges. The first partition is for values less than 0, which should result in an error message. The second partition is for values between 0 and 20, which should return the exact factorial number. The third partition is for values between 20 and 200, which should approximate the factorial number. The fourth partition is for values greater than 200, which should result in an error message. Therefore, the equivalence partitioning n200 correctly represents the different ranges of input values and their corresponding actions.

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  • 35. 

    When is use case testing appropriate ? I. For acceptance testing with user participation, II. For exhaustive testing of subsystems interaction if the system is specified by use cases, III. For testing the interaction between the user and the system depending on user input and system state., IV. For tests reflecting realworld use of the system under test, V. For testing mathematical algorithms if the program flow differs depending on the input given. Select one:

    • A.

      I, III, IV, V

    • B.

      I, III, IV

    • C.

      II, IV

    • D.

      I, II, III, V

    Correct Answer
    C. II, IV
  • 36. 

    Which of the following statements is correct? Select one:

    • A.

      Stress testing is focused on the ability of the system to work under minimum load

    • B.

      Monitoring tools are available only for functional testing

    • C.

      COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific needs

    • D.

      A test suite must include static and dynamic code analysis tool

    Correct Answer
    C. COTS tools are available for the general market and can be adapted to meet specific needs
    Explanation
    COTS stands for Commercial Off-The-Shelf tools, which are software tools that are readily available in the market for general use. These tools can be purchased and then customized or adapted to meet specific needs or requirements of a particular organization or project. This statement is correct because it accurately describes the nature and purpose of COTS tools.

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  • 37. 

    The following chart represents metrics related to testing indicates what is represented by lines A,B and axis X,Y Select one:

    • A.

      XTime, YCost,ACost of test(per week), BCost of finding a single bug(per week)

    • B.

      XTime, YNumber of defects, ANumber of open defects, BNumber of closed defects

    • C.

      XTime, YCount, ATotal number of executed tests, BNumber of open bugs.

    • D.

      XTime, YPercent, A% of functional tests in the test suite, B% of nonfunctional tests in the test suite

    Correct Answer
    C. XTime, YCount, ATotal number of executed tests, BNumber of open bugs.
    Explanation
    The chart represents the relationship between time (X-axis) and count (Y-axis). Line A represents the total number of executed tests, while line B represents the number of open bugs. This indicates that the chart is showing the correlation between the time spent on testing and the number of tests executed, as well as the number of bugs that are still open.

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  • 38. 

    Consider the following pseudo code, Integer k; If (k > 1 && k < 30), Then .... End if, Which of the following sets of test input values is the result of correct boundary value analysis? Select one:

    • A.

      3, 2,1,0, 30, 31, 32, 33

    • B.

      1, 2, 29, 30

    • C.

      0, 1, 30, 31

    • D.

      1,0,1,2,29,30,31

    Correct Answer
    B. 1, 2, 29, 30
    Explanation
    The correct boundary value analysis for the given pseudo code would include testing the lower and upper boundaries of the condition. In this case, the condition is (k > 1 && k < 30). Therefore, we need to test values that are just above and below the boundaries. The set of test input values 1, 2, 29, and 30 covers these boundaries and ensures that the condition is tested correctly.

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  • 39. 

    In the fundamental test process, what does primarily entail the test analysis and design activity? Select one:

    • A.

      The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases

    • B.

      The continues comparison between current progress and the test plan, in order to identify deviations

    • C.

      The test ability evaluation of the test basis and test objects and the rootcause analysis

    • D.

      The data collection on the completed test activities, in order to consolidate experience, testware, facts and figures

    Correct Answer
    A. The transformation of the test objectives in testing conditions and tangible test cases
  • 40. 

    Which of the following statement is true? Select one:

    • A.

      Experience based testing is best used in integration testing.

    • B.

      Black box testing is equivalent to equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      Experience based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used.

    • D.

      White box testing is equally useful for low level and high level testing

    Correct Answer
    C. Experience based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used.
    Explanation
    Experience based testing should be applied after systematic test methods have been used because systematic test methods provide a structured approach to testing, ensuring that all necessary test cases are covered. Once systematic test methods have been exhausted, experience based testing can be used to complement and enhance the testing process. This type of testing relies on the tester's knowledge, skills, and intuition to identify potential issues that may not have been covered by the systematic approach. By combining both systematic and experience based testing, the overall effectiveness and coverage of the testing process can be improved.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 19, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Abdul Jaleel
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