Volume 1: Customer Service
AF FM SKT study questions.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
At what level is the Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) responsible for proper performance of financial management functions?
- A.
Nonappropriated funds (NAF)
- B.
All levels
- C.
MAJCOM
- D.
Base or wing level
Correct Answer
B. All levelsExplanation
The Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) is responsible for the proper performance of financial management functions at all levels. This means that they oversee and ensure the correct execution of financial management tasks across the entire organization, from nonappropriated funds (NAF) to the base or wing level and even at the major command (MAJCOM) level. Their role is to ensure that financial management is carried out efficiently and effectively throughout the organization.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which Air Staff office serves as technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force's financial management responsibilities?
- A.
SAF/FMB
- B.
SAF/FME
- C.
SAF/FMP
- D.
SAF/AFAFO
Correct Answer
A. SAF/FMBExplanation
SAF/FMB serves as the technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force's financial management responsibilities. This office provides guidance and support in budgeting, accounting, financial analysis, and financial reporting. They ensure that the Air Force's financial resources are effectively managed and allocated in accordance with regulations and policies. SAF/FMB plays a crucial role in maintaining financial transparency and accountability within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What kind of program does the Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provide to ensure effective internal controls?
- A.
Fraud, Waste, and Abuse
- B.
Management Control
- C.
Quality Assurance
- D.
Self-Inspection
Correct Answer
C. Quality AssuranceExplanation
The Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provides a Quality Assurance program to ensure effective internal controls. This program is designed to monitor and evaluate the processes and procedures within the office to ensure they are operating efficiently and effectively. It aims to identify any areas of improvement or potential weaknesses in the internal controls, and to implement corrective actions to address them. By implementing a Quality Assurance program, AFAFO can ensure that its accounting and finance operations are carried out accurately, reliably, and in compliance with regulations and policies.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service and is located in which Defense Finance and Accounting Service center?
- A.
Cleveland
- B.
Colombus
- C.
Indianapolis
- D.
Kansas City
Correct Answer
A. ClevelandExplanation
The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service. Since the question asks for the location of the Defense Finance and Accounting Service center that houses this system, the correct answer is Cleveland.Rate this question:
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- 5.
How many divisions are in the Center of Expertise (CoE)?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
C. ThreeExplanation
The Center of Expertise (CoE) is divided into three divisions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What information is obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process?
- A.
Strawman task listing
- B.
Functional area job tasks
- C.
Specialty training standards
- D.
Completed Career Field Education and Training Plan
Correct Answer
B. Functional area job tasksExplanation
The information obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process includes functional area job tasks. This means that the process helps in identifying and documenting the specific tasks that are performed within a particular job or functional area. This information is crucial for understanding the requirements and responsibilities of different roles within an organization or industry. It helps in developing job descriptions, training programs, and career development plans.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who creates the "strawman" task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership?
- A.
SME (subject matter expert)
- B.
MAJCOM training managers
- C.
MAJCOM functional managers
- D.
Occupational measurement squadron
Correct Answer
A. SME (subject matter expert)Explanation
The subject matter expert (SME) is responsible for creating the "strawman" task listing and submitting it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership. The SME is an individual who possesses expertise and knowledge in a specific field or subject area, and they are considered the authority on that particular topic. In this case, the SME would have the necessary knowledge and understanding to develop the task listing accurately and effectively. They would then present it to the Utilization and Training Workshop membership for further review and consideration.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which section of part 2 in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards?
- A.
Section A
- B.
Section B
- C.
Section C
- D.
Section D
Correct Answer
B. Section BExplanation
Section B of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards. This section provides a detailed outline of the specific objectives that students are expected to achieve during their training, as well as the standards that must be met in order to successfully complete the course. It serves as a guide for instructors and students, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same goals.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of a dedicated, focused effort by
- A.
Trainers and trainees
- B.
Trainers and supervisors
- C.
Management and trainees
- D.
Management and the comptroller
Correct Answer
A. Trainers and traineesExplanation
The success of an on-the-job training program relies on the commitment and effort put in by both the trainers and the trainees. Trainers play a crucial role in providing the necessary guidance, knowledge, and support to the trainees. They are responsible for designing and delivering effective training sessions, assessing the progress of the trainees, and addressing any challenges that may arise. On the other hand, trainees need to actively participate, demonstrate a willingness to learn, and apply the skills and knowledge acquired during the training. The collaboration and cooperation between trainers and trainees are essential for the program's success.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?
- A.
The day you are ready to use them
- B.
Two months in advance of need date
- C.
One month in advance of need date
- D.
One week in advance of need date
Correct Answer
A. The day you are ready to use them -
- 11.
Nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to
- A.
MAJCOM by 31 December
- B.
SAF/FMPC by 31 December
- C.
SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January
- D.
MAJCOM by the first workday in January
Correct Answer
C. SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in JanuaryExplanation
The correct answer is SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January. This is because the nominations for annual comptroller awards are submitted to SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January. The other options, MAJCOM by 31 December and SAF/FMPC by 31 December, have earlier deadlines and do not align with the given information.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the four categories for comptroller awards carries the most weight during the selection process?
- A.
Outstanding Achievement
- B.
Leadership/Management Traits
- C.
Job Knowledge and Duty Performance
- D.
Professional/Community Accomplishments
Correct Answer
A. Outstanding AchievementExplanation
Outstanding Achievement carries the most weight during the selection process for comptroller awards. This category is likely to focus on exceptional accomplishments and significant contributions made by the candidates. It could include achievements such as surpassing targets, implementing innovative strategies, or making significant improvements in financial management. This category is crucial as it highlights the candidate's ability to go above and beyond their regular duties and make a significant impact in their role as a comptroller.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is actually more important then the underlying quality of the product or service you provide when providing customer service?
- A.
Accurate results
- B.
Timely feedback
- C.
Customer perception
- D.
Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer
C. Customer perceptionExplanation
When providing customer service, customer perception is more important than the underlying quality of the product or service. This is because customers' perception of the product or service will ultimately determine their satisfaction and loyalty. Even if the product or service is of high quality, if customers perceive it negatively, they are likely to have a negative experience and may not return or recommend it to others. On the other hand, if customers perceive the product or service positively, they are more likely to be satisfied and become loyal customers. Therefore, understanding and managing customer perception is crucial for successful customer service.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is the first thing you should do when approached at the customer service desk?
- A.
Listen carefully to the customer
- B.
Greet the person and introduce yourself
- C.
Restate the problem back to the customer
- D.
Ask if there is anything else you can assist them with
Correct Answer
B. Greet the person and introduce yourselfExplanation
When approached at the customer service desk, the first thing you should do is greet the person and introduce yourself. This helps in establishing a friendly and professional rapport with the customer. By doing so, you create a welcoming atmosphere and make the customer feel valued. Introducing yourself also adds a personal touch and shows that you are ready to assist them. This initial step sets a positive tone for the conversation and helps in building trust and effective communication with the customer.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which organization writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues for the government travel charge card program?
- A.
DRU
- B.
GSA
- C.
SAF/FM
- D.
MAJCOM
Correct Answer
B. GSAExplanation
The correct answer is GSA. GSA stands for the General Services Administration, which is responsible for managing and overseeing various government programs, including the government travel charge card program. As part of their role, GSA writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues related to the program.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for administering the trvael charge card program at the base and unit levels?
- A.
Supervisor
- B.
Wing commander
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Agency program coordinator
Correct Answer
D. Agency program coordinatorExplanation
The agency program coordinator is responsible for administering the travel charge card program at the base and unit levels. They oversee and manage the program, ensuring that all necessary procedures and policies are followed. They coordinate with supervisors, wing commanders, and squadron commanders to ensure that the program is effectively implemented and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 17.
After how many days is a delinquent travel charge card cancelled?
- A.
45
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
C. 90Explanation
A delinquent travel charge card is cancelled after 90 days. This means that if a travel charge card is not paid off within 90 days, it will be cancelled. This is likely a measure taken by the card issuer to ensure that outstanding balances are not left unpaid for an extended period of time. Cancelling the card after 90 days of delinquency helps to protect the issuer from potential financial loss and encourages cardholders to make timely payments.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who appoints the quality assurance manager to have the primary responsibility for administering the Quality Assurance Program?
- A.
FM
- B.
FSO
- C.
FMA officer
- D.
Wing commander
Correct Answer
A. FMExplanation
The correct answer is FM. This is because FM stands for Facility Manager, who is responsible for overseeing the administration of the Quality Assurance Program. The Facility Manager is typically appointed by the organization or company to ensure that quality standards are met and maintained.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Who is the comptroller focal point for MAJCOM/FM inspections?
- A.
IG
- B.
FM
- C.
FSO
- D.
QAM
Correct Answer
D. QAMExplanation
The correct answer is QAM, which stands for Quality Assurance Manager. The QAM is responsible for overseeing and managing the quality assurance program within the MAJCOM/FM inspections. They ensure that all inspections are conducted in accordance with established standards and procedures, and they serve as the focal point for coordinating and communicating inspection activities. The QAM plays a crucial role in maintaining the quality and integrity of the inspections process.Rate this question:
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- 20.
At a minimum, how often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Annually
- D.
Biannually
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
Performance indicators should be reviewed annually to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management. This timeframe allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the indicators' effectiveness and relevance in measuring the organization's progress towards its goals. It also provides sufficient time to collect and analyze data, identify any necessary adjustments or improvements, and make informed decisions based on the findings. Quarterly or monthly reviews may be too frequent and may not allow for a thorough assessment of long-term trends and patterns. Biannually reviews may not provide enough timely feedback to address emerging issues or changes in the organization's performance.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which process tool provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area?
- A.
Compliance Review
- B.
Performance Indicator
- C.
Quality Assurance Review
- D.
Discrepancy Tracking Form
Correct Answer
C. Quality Assurance ReviewExplanation
A quality assurance review is a process tool that provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area. This review helps to ensure that the functional area is operating in compliance with established standards and procedures. It allows the comptroller to assess the quality of the processes and identify any areas that need improvement or corrective actions. The quality assurance review helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the functional area's operations.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Defense Joint Military Pay System transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members not appearing on the Off-line Reporting Control roster?
- A.
SC03
- B.
SC04
- C.
SG03
- D.
SG04
Correct Answer
B. SC04Explanation
The SC04 transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members who do not appear on the Off-line Reporting Control roster. This indicator allows these members to have access to their pay records, even if they are not listed on the roster.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which net change of a Master Military Pay Account requires a further Pay Record Accessibility audit?
- A.
$100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave
- B.
$50 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave
- C.
$25 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave
- D.
$50 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave
Correct Answer
A. $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leaveExplanation
An increase of $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave would require a further Pay Record Accessibility audit because it represents a larger change compared to the other options. The other options involve smaller amounts of money or smaller increases in leave days, which may not require additional scrutiny. However, the $100 increase or the 2.5 days of leave increase could potentially have a greater impact on the overall pay account and therefore warrants a closer examination.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management control objectives is known as
- A.
A risk
- B.
An audit finding
- C.
A control weakness
- D.
A material weakness
Correct Answer
D. A material weaknessExplanation
A material weakness refers to a condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management control objectives. It indicates a deficiency in the design or operation of internal controls that could adversely affect the organization's ability to prevent or detect errors or fraud in financial reporting. Unlike a control weakness, which may not have a significant impact, a material weakness is considered more severe and requires immediate attention and remediation. It is a term commonly used in the field of auditing to identify and address significant control deficiencies.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level?
- A.
Auditors
- B.
Subordinates
- C.
Management
- D.
Functional OPR
Correct Answer
C. ManagementExplanation
Management determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level. As the individuals responsible for overseeing and making decisions within an organization, management has the authority and knowledge to assess the significance of a weakness. They consider factors such as the potential impact on the organization's operations, financial statements, and compliance with regulations. Based on their evaluation, management decides whether to escalate the weakness to a higher level for further action or reporting.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the preferred style for conflict resolution?
- A.
Avoiding
- B.
Competing
- C.
Collaborating
- D.
Compromising
Correct Answer
C. CollaboratingExplanation
Collaborating is the preferred style for conflict resolution because it involves actively working together to find a solution that satisfies the needs and interests of all parties involved. This approach promotes open communication, trust, and cooperation, allowing for the exploration of different perspectives and the generation of creative solutions. By collaborating, individuals can build stronger relationships and achieve mutually beneficial outcomes, fostering a positive and productive work environment.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who ensures that two ISSOs are appointed at each field site?
- A.
Comptroller
- B.
Chief, Customer Service
- C.
Chief, Customer Support
- D.
Financial services office
Correct Answer
D. Financial services officeExplanation
The Financial Services Office ensures that two ISSOs (Information Systems Security Officers) are appointed at each field site. ISSOs are responsible for implementing and managing the security of information systems within an organization. The Financial Services Office, being responsible for financial operations, likely plays a role in overseeing the appointment and allocation of resources for ISSOs at field sites to ensure the security of financial information and systems.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which Defense Joint Military Pay System profile is used to verify electronic funds transfer payments?
- A.
JJUMPSR
- B.
JPBBPpFL
- C.
JPBXPFL
- D.
JJINQFL
Correct Answer
C. JPBXPFLExplanation
The Defense Joint Military Pay System profile used to verify electronic funds transfer payments is JPBXPFL.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Military pay information will be stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System within the current month and
- A.
6 prior months
- B.
11 prior months
- C.
12 prior months
- D.
18 prior months
Correct Answer
B. 11 prior monthsExplanation
The military pay information is stored within the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System for a period of 11 prior months. This means that the system will retain and store the pay information for the current month and the 11 months preceding it.Rate this question:
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- 30.
How are closed entries identified in Defense Joint Military Pay System?
- A.
A "c" follows the FID
- B.
A hyphen follows the FID
- C.
The word "closed" appears
- D.
Closed entries are not in DJMS
Correct Answer
B. A hyphen follows the FIDExplanation
Closed entries in the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) are identified by a hyphen following the FID (Financial Identifier). This means that after the FID, there will be a hyphen to indicate that the entry is closed. This allows for easy identification and differentiation of closed entries from other entries in the system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following is not a type of inquiry requesdt in Defense Joint Military Pay System?
- A.
FID
- B.
Table
- C.
Group
- D.
Individual
Correct Answer
D. IndividualExplanation
The Defense Joint Military Pay System includes various types of inquiry requests such as FID, Table, and Group. However, Individual is not a type of inquiry request in the system. This suggests that the system does not have a specific category or option for individual inquiry requests.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which section of the leave and earning statement lists the member's expiration term of service?
- A.
Pay data
- B.
Remarks
- C.
ID section
- D.
Current pay information
Correct Answer
C. ID sectionExplanation
The ID section of the leave and earning statement lists the member's expiration term of service. This section typically includes important information about the member, such as their name, rank, and service number. It is likely that the expiration term of service is included in this section to provide a clear record of when the member's service is expected to end.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which section of the leave and earning statement lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date?
- A.
Taxes
- B.
Remarks
- C.
Pay Data
- D.
Entitlements
Correct Answer
B. RemarksExplanation
The section of the leave and earning statement that lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date is "Remarks". This section provides a summary of the employee's earnings and deductions for the current year, including any additional remarks or notes related to their pay. It helps the employee understand their overall entitlements and deductions over the course of the year.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following is NOT characterized as a Case Management System (CMS) case?
- A.
Documents
- B.
Processes
- C.
Problems
- D.
Queries
Correct Answer
A. DocumentsExplanation
A Case Management System (CMS) is a software solution that helps organizations manage and track cases or incidents. It typically includes features such as document management, workflow automation, and issue tracking. In this context, "Documents" can be characterized as a case within a CMS, as it refers to the management of documents related to a case. Therefore, the correct answer is "Documents" because it is not NOT characterized as a CMS case.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What would you do in CMS, after you enter a member's social security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case section?
- A.
Click on the Add New Case button
- B.
Read the comment sections section
- C.
Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu
- D.
Determine if the individual is being paid through the normal DJMS system
Correct Answer
C. Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menuExplanation
After entering a member's social security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case section in CMS, the next step would be to select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu. This is likely because the pull-down menu contains a list of subjects or categories that are relevant to the case, and selecting the appropriate subject helps to categorize and organize the information accurately.Rate this question:
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- 36.
How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?
- A.
9
- B.
10
- C.
11
- D.
12
Correct Answer
D. 12Explanation
In a non-leap year, the month of February has 28 days. If a member enters active duty on 19 February, they would receive pay for the remaining days of that month, which is 10 days. Additionally, they would receive pay for the entire month of March, which is 31 days. Therefore, the member would receive a total of 41 days of pay. Since the options provided are 9, 10, 11, and 12, the correct answer is 12.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A member who only serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives how many days of basic pay?
- A.
20
- B.
21
- C.
22
- D.
23
Correct Answer
C. 22Explanation
A member who serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives 22 days of basic pay because both the start and end dates are included in the calculation. The member serves for a total of 22 days, which corresponds to the period from 15 March to 5 April, inclusive.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?
- A.
FSO
- B.
FMO
- C.
MAJCOM
- D.
Unit commander
Correct Answer
B. FMOExplanation
The correct answer is FMO. The FMO, or Financial Management Office, determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP). This office is responsible for managing the financial aspects of military operations, including determining eligibility for various pay and benefits. They would review the member's duty assignment and determine if it meets the criteria for receiving HDIP.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is based on
- A.
Years of aviation service only
- B.
Grade and years of aviation service
- C.
Type or aircraft and years of officer service
- D.
Years of aviation service and officer service
Correct Answer
A. Years of aviation service onlyExplanation
The correct answer is "years of aviation service only." This means that the rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is solely determined by the number of years they have served in aviation. Other factors such as grade, type of aircraft, and years of officer service do not affect the rate of pay for this incentive.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How long must a member be subject to hostile actions before he or she is entitled to hostile fire pay?
- A.
One full month
- B.
Any part of a month
- C.
Eight consecutive days
- D.
Two consecutive months
Correct Answer
B. Any part of a monthExplanation
A member is entitled to hostile fire pay if they are subject to hostile actions for any part of a month. This means that even if they are exposed to hostile actions for just a few days within a month, they are still eligible for hostile fire pay. The requirement is not limited to a full month or a specific duration of consecutive days, but rather any presence in a month where hostile actions occur.Rate this question:
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- 41.
If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be entitled to in order to receive hostile fire pay?
- A.
Basic pay
- B.
Foreign duty pay
- C.
Special duty assignment pay
- D.
Hazardous duty incentive pay
Correct Answer
A. Basic payExplanation
The member must be entitled to Basic pay in order to receive hostile fire pay. This means that if all other qualifications are met, the member's Basic pay will be the minimum requirement for them to receive hostile fire pay.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay?
- A.
Log into DMO
- B.
Verify country code
- C.
Verify source document
- D.
Ask member for social security number
Correct Answer
C. Verify source documentExplanation
The first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay is to verify the source document. This is important to ensure that the pay is being processed correctly and for the appropriate reason. By verifying the source document, it helps to confirm the eligibility of the individual for receiving the pay and prevents any potential errors or fraudulent claims.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What code stops hardship duty pay?
- A.
1401
- B.
1402
- C.
2301
- D.
2302
Correct Answer
B. 1402 -
- 44.
To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for
- A.
PF
- B.
VSP
- C.
ISP
- D.
ASP
Correct Answer
B. VSPExplanation
To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for VSP.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract?
- A.
Dentists in grades 0-5 and above
- B.
Dentists in grades 0-5 and below
- C.
Physicians in grades 0-6 and above
- D.
Physicians in grades 0-6 and below
Correct Answer
D. Physicians in grades 0-6 and belowExplanation
Physicians in grades 0-6 and below receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based upon
- A.
Rank and longevity
- B.
Rank and number of dependents
- C.
Rank, dependency status, and duty location
- D.
Pay date, dependency status, and duty location
Correct Answer
C. Rank, dependency status, and duty locationExplanation
The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based on the rank of the individual, their dependency status (whether they have dependents or not), and their duty location. These factors are taken into consideration to determine the appropriate housing allowance for each individual, as different ranks, dependency statuses, and duty locations may require different levels of financial support for housing expenses.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which document can you use to verify a person's relationship to a primary dependent (those not needing a dependency determination)?
- A.
DD Form 2AF
- B.
Final adoption decree
- C.
Court decree for child support
- D.
In-fact determination
Correct Answer
B. Final adoption decreeExplanation
A final adoption decree is a legal document issued by a court that establishes the legal relationship between an adoptive parent and a child. This document proves that the person is the legal parent of the dependent through adoption. Therefore, it can be used to verify a person's relationship to a primary dependent.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The financial services office can process dependency determinations for
- A.
Air Force sponsors
- B.
Retired Air Force and Army sponsors
- C.
Active duty Air Force and Army sponsors
- D.
Sponsors from all branches of service regardless of status
Correct Answer
A. Air Force sponsorsExplanation
The financial services office is able to process dependency determinations for Air Force sponsors. This means that they can assess and determine the eligibility of dependents of individuals serving in the Air Force to receive certain financial benefits or support.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which person is not considered a primary dependent?
- A.
Spouse
- B.
Parent
- C.
Stepchild under 21 years of age
- D.
Child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established
Correct Answer
B. ParentExplanation
A parent is not considered a primary dependent because a primary dependent refers to someone who relies on another person for financial support. In this case, a spouse, a stepchild under 21 years of age, and a child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established can all be considered primary dependents as they are dependent on someone else for financial support. However, a parent is typically considered to be financially independent and not reliant on their children for support, therefore they are not considered a primary dependent.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation in excess of 180 days where members subsist in a government mess is called
- A.
Field duty
- B.
Temporary field assignment
- C.
Operational field assignment
- D.
Permanent change of assignment
Correct Answer
A. Field dutyExplanation
Field duty refers to any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation that lasts for more than 180 days and requires members to subsist in a government mess. This term is used to describe the temporary assignment of military personnel to field operations where they are expected to perform their duties in a field environment. It is different from permanent change of assignment, which refers to a long-term change in a military member's duty station. Operational field assignment and temporary field assignment are not accurate terms for this scenario.Rate this question:
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