ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz

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ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz - Quiz

Quiz based on key concepts for the CTAL TM exam.
40 questions taken from a sample bank larger than 40 with 1 hour time limit.
Questions and answers are randomized.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project?

    • A.

      A requirements review meeting

    • B.

      A business analyst eliciting requirements

    • C.

      A database administrator designing a table

    • D.

      A test results report showing requirements coverage

    Correct Answer
    A. A requirements review meeting
    Explanation
    A requirements review meeting is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project because it involves reviewing and validating the requirements that have been gathered. In this meeting, the project team and stakeholders come together to ensure that the requirements are complete, accurate, and meet the needs of the project. This is a crucial step in the requirements specification phase as it helps to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements and allows for necessary adjustments to be made before moving forward with the project.

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  • 2. 

    Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Currently, the system architects have released a first draft design specification based on the approved requirements specification released previously. Identify all of the following that are appropriate test tasks to execute at this time:

    • A.

      Design tests from the requirements specification

    • B.

      Analyze design-related risks

    • C.

      Execute unit test cases

    • D.

      Write the test summary report

    • E.

      Design tests from the design specification

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Design tests from the requirements specification
    B. Analyze design-related risks
    E. Design tests from the design specification
    Explanation
    At this stage in the project, it is appropriate to design tests from both the requirements specification and the design specification. Designing tests from the requirements specification ensures that the tests cover all the intended functionality of the programmable thermostat. Analyzing design-related risks helps identify any potential issues or vulnerabilities in the design that could impact the performance or functionality of the system. Lastly, designing tests from the design specification ensures that the tests are aligned with the specific design choices made by the system architects.

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  • 3. 

    You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. Identify all of the following that are test levels that you would expect to directly manage:

    • A.

      Component testing for each system

    • B.

      Component integration testing for each system

    • C.

      System testing for each system

    • D.

      Contract acceptance testing for each system

    • E.

      System integration testing

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Contract acceptance testing for each system
    E. System integration testing
    Explanation
    As the manager of the quality assessment group, you would be directly responsible for managing the contract acceptance testing for each system and the system integration testing. Contract acceptance testing ensures that the off-the-shelf systems meet the requirements and specifications outlined in the contract. System integration testing involves testing the integration of the three off-the-shelf systems to ensure that they work together seamlessly. The other test levels, such as component testing, component integration testing, and system testing, would typically be managed by the respective development teams or testers responsible for each system.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems?

    • A.

      Test traceability

    • B.

      ISO 61508

    • C.

      Usability testing

    • D.

      Employee evaluations

    Correct Answer
    A. Test traceability
    Explanation
    Test traceability is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems. Test traceability refers to the ability to trace each requirement, design element, and test case back to a specific regulation or safety standard. It ensures that all necessary tests have been conducted and that the system meets the required safety standards. By maintaining test traceability, organizations can provide evidence of compliance during audits or inspections. ISO 61508 is a safety standard for electrical, electronic, and programmable electronic safety systems, but it is not directly related to demonstrating compliance. Usability testing and employee evaluations are not directly applicable to demonstrating compliance to safety regulations.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an accurate statement that captures a difference between a trend chart showing the total number of bugs discovered and resolved during test execution and a trend chart showing the total number of test cases passed and failed during test execution?

    • A.

      The bug trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the test case trend chart will not.

    • B.

      The bug trend chart will show test coverage while the test case trend chart will not.

    • C.

      The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart will not.

    • D.

      The test case trend chart will show test coverage while the bug trend chart will not.

    Correct Answer
    C. The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart will not.
    Explanation
    The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart will not. This is because the test case trend chart tracks the number of test cases passed and failed, indicating whether the testing process is progressing as expected. If there are a high number of failed test cases, it suggests there may be issues with the application under test. On the other hand, the bug trend chart only shows the total number of bugs discovered and resolved, which may not necessarily indicate any problems with the testing progress.

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  • 6. 

    Considering the typical objectives of testing that are identified in the Foundation syllabus, which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of those objectives?

    • A.

      Average days from defect discovery to resolution

    • B.

      Lines of code written per developer per day

    • C.

      Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

    • D.

      Percentage of requirements coverage

    Correct Answer
    D. Percentage of requirements coverage
    Explanation
    The percentage of requirements coverage is a metric that can be used to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of the typical objectives of testing. This metric indicates the extent to which the requirements have been tested. A higher percentage of requirements coverage suggests that more requirements have been tested, increasing the likelihood of identifying defects and ensuring that the system meets the specified requirements. Therefore, this metric is a good indicator of the effectiveness of the test process in achieving the objective of validating the system against the requirements.

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  • 7. 

    Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Your test team is following a risk-based testing strategy augmented with a reactive testing strategy during test execution to ensure that key risks missed during risk analysis are caught. Of the following statements, identify all that are true about the test plan.

    • A.

      The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process.

    • B.

      The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis.

    • C.

      The test plan should assign specific bugs to specific developers.

    • D.

      The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test execution.

    • E.

      The test plan should specify overall project team metrics used to determine bonuses

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process.
    B. The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis.
    D. The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test execution.
    Explanation
    The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process because it is important to identify and prioritize risks in order to allocate appropriate testing resources. The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis because understanding the requirements is crucial for identifying potential risks. The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test execution because reactive testing helps to catch any key risks that were missed during the risk analysis phase.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find the preconditions to start executing a level of testing?

    • A.

      Test plan

    • B.

      Test design specification

    • C.

      Incident report

    • D.

      Project plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Test plan
    Explanation
    A test plan is a test document that outlines the approach, objectives, scope, and schedule of testing activities. It provides details on the resources required, the test environment, and the test deliverables. In a test plan, one would expect to find the preconditions necessary to start executing a level of testing, such as the setup and configuration of the test environment, the availability of test data, and any dependencies or prerequisites that need to be fulfilled before testing can begin. Therefore, the correct answer is a test plan.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the most likely reason a user might be included in test execution?

    • A.

      Their domain knowledge

    • B.

      Their technical expertise

    • C.

      Their testing expertise

    • D.

      Their management expertise

    Correct Answer
    A. Their domain knowledge
    Explanation
    A user might be included in test execution because of their domain knowledge. Domain knowledge refers to their understanding and expertise in a specific industry or field. Including a user with domain knowledge in test execution ensures that the testing process is aligned with the requirements and expectations of the end-users. This user can provide valuable insights, identify potential issues, and validate the functionality of the system from a user's perspective.

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  • 10. 

    You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more defects. Making no assumptions other than ones based on the information provided here, which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor?

    • A.

      Impose retroactive financial penalties on this vendor for the number of bugs delivered on this project.

    • B.

      Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.

    • C.

      Cancel the contract with this vendor and put it on an industry blacklist.

    • D.

      Require the vendor's developers to attend training to improve their ability to write quality code.

    Correct Answer
    B. Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.
    Explanation
    Performing an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor, is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor. This will ensure that all systems, including the one from this vendor, are thoroughly tested before implementation. By applying additional rigor to the testing process for this vendor, it will help identify any potential defects or issues early on, allowing for necessary improvements to be made before the system is put into use. This approach promotes quality assurance and helps mitigate the risk of future projects having a higher number of defects.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step that you might take as a test manager?

    • A.

      Testing for performance problems

    • B.

      Hiring a contractor after a key test analyst quits

    • C.

      Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing

    • D.

      Performing a project retrospective using test results

    Correct Answer
    C. Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing
    Explanation
    Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing is a project risk mitigation step that a test manager might take. This step helps to ensure that testing can continue uninterrupted even if one test environment fails. By having additional test environments readily available, the test manager can minimize the impact of any technical issues or failures and maintain the progress and efficiency of the testing process.

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  • 12. 

    Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Sequential (waterfall model, V-model and W -model)

    • A.

      Requirements are complete and furnished early

    • B.

      Preventive in nature

    • C.

      Defect detection starts late

    • D.

      Manage requirements

    • E.

      Requirements are not complete

    • F.

      Not preventive in nature

    • G.

      Defect detection starts early

    • H.

      Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Requirements are complete and furnished early
    B. Preventive in nature
    C. Defect detection starts late
    D. Manage requirements
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements are complete and furnished early, Preventive in nature, Defect detection starts late, Manage requirements." This answer matches the characteristics of the Sequential (waterfall model, V-model, and W-model) approach. In this approach, the requirements are gathered and documented early in the project, which allows for planning and development to proceed based on a clear understanding of what needs to be done. The approach also emphasizes prevention of issues by implementing quality measures and conducting thorough testing and reviews. Defect detection starts late in the process, typically during the testing phase. Finally, managing requirements is an important aspect of this approach to ensure that they are properly understood and implemented throughout the project.

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  • 13. 

    Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Incremental (evolutionary and Agile methods)

    • A.

      Requirements are complete and furnished early

    • B.

      Preventive in nature

    • C.

      Defect detection starts late

    • D.

      Manage requirements

    • E.

      Requirements are not complete

    • F.

      Not preventive in nature

    • G.

      Defect detection starts early

    • H.

      Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. Requirements are not complete
    F. Not preventive in nature
    G. Defect detection starts early
    H. Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements are not complete, Not preventive in nature, Defect detection starts early, Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas". Incremental (evolutionary and Agile methods) are characterized by having incomplete requirements, not being preventive in nature, starting defect detection early, and identifying and prioritizing key quality risk areas. This means that these methods focus on iterative development, adapting to changes, and continuously improving the product. By starting defect detection early and identifying key quality risk areas, the development team can address potential issues and ensure a high-quality end product.

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  • 14. 

    Which is NOT an issue with Sequential (V-model, waterfall)?

    • A.

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B.

      Pressurized development

    • C.

      Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building

    • D.

      Test team involved late

    Correct Answer
    C. Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building." This is not an issue with Sequential (V-model, waterfall) because it follows a linear and sequential approach where testing is typically done at the end of the development process. In this approach, there is no provision for early testing or building confidence through experimentation.

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  • 15. 

    Which is NOT an issue with Incremental (Agile- SCRUM) also called as evolutionary

    • A.

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B.

      Regression of N+1 increment is always complex

    • C.

      Bugs planning failure

    • D.

      Lack of testing culture in agile world

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule compression pressure is always there
    Explanation
    Schedule compression pressure is not an issue with Incremental (Agile-SCRUM) methodology. This approach allows for flexibility and adaptability in the development process, allowing the team to adjust the schedule as needed. In Agile-SCRUM, the focus is on delivering working increments of the product in short iterations, which allows for better time management and reduces the need for schedule compression. Therefore, schedule compression pressure is not a problem with this methodology.

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  • 16. 

    Which is NOT an issue with Iterative (RAD; Spiral)?

    • A.

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B.

      Flexibility in TC and design changes of system is too often

    • C.

      Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building

    • D.

      Dealing with unknowns

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule compression pressure is always there
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Schedule compression pressure is always there." This means that schedule compression pressure is not an issue with Iterative (RAD; Spiral) development. In other words, this development approach does not face the problem of time constraints and the need to compress the schedule to meet deadlines.

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  • 17. 

    One disadvantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level is:

    • A.

      Creates uncertainty in relating other test work products (e.g., test cases) to the test basis and test objectives, thus providing better and more detailed monitoring and control for a Test Manager.

    • B.

      Contributes to defect injection, as discussed in the Foundation Level, by occurring early in a project for higher levels of testing, as soon as the test basis is established and potentially before system architecture and detailed design are available.

    • C.

      Potentially will influence and direct not just other testing activities, but also other development activities.

    • D.

      Level of formality needs to be defined and implemented across the team.

    Correct Answer
    D. Level of formality needs to be defined and implemented across the team.
    Explanation
    Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can create uncertainty in relating other test work products to the test basis and test objectives. This can make it difficult for a Test Manager to monitor and control the testing process effectively. Additionally, detailed test conditions can contribute to defect injection by occurring early in a project before system architecture and detailed design are available. This can impact not only testing activities but also other development activities. To address these issues, a level of formality needs to be defined and implemented across the team.

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  • 18. 

    Specification of detailed test conditions can be particularly effective in the following situations EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Lightweight test design documentation methods, such as checklists, are being used due to accommodate the development lifecycle, cost and/or time constraints or other factors.

    • B.

      Little or no formal requirements or other development work products are available as the test basis

    • C.

      The project is large-scale, complex or high risk and requires a level of monitoring and control that cannot be delivered by simply relating test cases to development work products.

    • D.

      Less complex projects where simple hierarchical relationships exist between what is to be tested and how it is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    D. Less complex projects where simple hierarchical relationships exist between what is to be tested and how it is to be tested.
    Explanation
    In less complex projects where simple hierarchical relationships exist between what is to be tested and how it is to be tested, detailed test conditions may not be necessary. This is because the testing requirements and their corresponding test cases can be easily derived from the project's structure and hierarchy. In such cases, lightweight test design documentation methods like checklists can be sufficient to accommodate the development lifecycle, cost, time constraints, or other factors. However, in the other situations mentioned, detailed test conditions are important. For example, when little or no formal requirements or development work products are available, or when the project is large-scale, complex, or high-risk and requires extensive monitoring and control.

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  • 19. 

    Test design is:

    • A.

      The activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    • B.

      The activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • C.

      Traceability from the test results back to the test conditions, the test basis, and ultimately the test objectives, and also from the test objectives forward to the test results.

    • D.

      The information requirements and methods for collection and are part of test planning, monitoring and control.

    Correct Answer
    A. The activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design involves determining the approach and techniques to be used in testing a specific system or component. It includes identifying test conditions, selecting test cases, and creating test data. Test design ensures that the testing process is systematic and efficient, allowing for comprehensive coverage of the system's functionality and requirements.

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  • 20. 

    Test Closure Activities include which of the following 4 activities?

    • A.

      Test completion check

    • B.

      Test artifacts handover

    • C.

      Lessons learned

    • D.

      Archiving results

    • E.

      Test case design

    • F.

      Risk assessment

    • G.

      Identification of test cases that relate to user requirements

    • H.

      Development of the formal test plan

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Test completion check
    B. Test artifacts handover
    C. Lessons learned
    D. Archiving results
    Explanation
    The Test Closure Activities include four activities: Test completion check, Test artifacts handover, Lessons learned, and Archiving results. Test completion check involves verifying that all test activities have been completed and all test cases have been executed. Test artifacts handover involves transferring all test-related documents and materials to the appropriate stakeholders. Lessons learned involves reflecting on the testing process and identifying areas for improvement in future projects. Archiving results involves storing and organizing all test-related data and documentation for future reference.

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  • 21. 

    In a sequential model (waterfall model, V-model and W-model)

    • A.

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    • B.

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • C.

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • D.

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.
    Explanation
    In a sequential model, all of the work products and activities for a given phase are completed before the next phase begins. This means that each phase, such as requirements, design, implementation, testing, and acceptance, is done one after the other in a linear fashion. This allows for a structured and organized approach to development, where each phase builds upon the previous one. It ensures that the necessary groundwork is completed before moving on to the next phase, reducing the risk of errors and issues later on in the project.

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  • 22. 

    In a spiral model:

    • A.

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    • B.

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • C.

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • D.

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.
    Explanation
    In a spiral model, prototypes are used early in the project to validate the feasibility of the project and to experiment with design and implementation decisions. The order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out is determined based on the level of business priority and technical risk. This approach allows for iterative development, where work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts. This helps in managing the project effectively and ensures that the features to be implemented are grouped together based on their priority or risk.

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  • 23. 

    With Iterative or incremental models, such as Rapid Application Development (RAD) and the Rational Unified Process (RUP)

    • A.

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • B.

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    • C.

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • D.

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    Correct Answer
    A. The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.
    Explanation
    In iterative or incremental models such as RAD and RUP, the features to be implemented are grouped together based on factors like business priority or risk. Then, the project phases, along with their work products and activities, are carried out for each group of features. This means that all the work products and activities for a particular phase are completed before moving on to the next phase. Similarly, the work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before starting the next iteration. Additionally, prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and experiment with design and implementation decisions, with the order of prototyping experiments determined by business priority and technical risk.

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  • 24. 

    Test control:

    • A.

      Involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed.

    • B.

      Can be identified by analysis of the test basis, test objectives, and product risks.

    • C.

      Involves the identification of test cases by the stepwise elaboration of the identified test conditions or test basis using test techniques identified in the test strategy or the test plan.

    • D.

      Is the activity in which test designs are implemented as concrete test cases, test procedures, and test data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the first option, "involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed." This is because test control refers to the process of monitoring and controlling the testing activities to ensure that they are being executed according to the plan. It involves comparing the actual progress of the testing against the planned progress and taking corrective actions if there are any deviations or issues. This helps to ensure that the testing is on track and any necessary adjustments can be made to meet the testing objectives.

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  • 25. 

    For each test level:

    • A.

      Test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level.

    • B.

      Negotiation should include consultation with relevant project stakeholders about the schedule.

    • C.

      Members of the test team provide information required for exit criteria reporting to avoid having to conduct a lessons learned meeting after testing is completed.

    • D.

      Ensure that effective processes are in place to provide project status reports for users.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level. This means that test planning is an ongoing process that begins at the start of the test level and continues until all activities for that level are completed. It emphasizes the importance of having a well-defined and comprehensive test plan that guides the testing activities throughout the project. This ensures that all necessary steps and activities are considered and executed, leading to a successful test completion.

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  • 26. 

    Test implementation:

    • A.

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B.

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C.

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D.

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts." This answer accurately describes the process of test implementation, which involves organizing and prioritizing tests. It does not involve defining what is to be tested or how something is to be tested, as those activities are covered in other stages of the testing process.

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  • 27. 

    Test analysis:

    • A.

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B.

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C.

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D.

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'what' is to be tested in the form of test conditions." Test analysis is the process of determining what needs to be tested and creating test conditions that cover all the requirements and functionalities of the test object. It involves analyzing the requirements, identifying testable features, and creating a comprehensive set of test conditions that will be used to design test cases. This activity helps ensure that all the necessary aspects of the test object are covered and that the testing effort is focused on the right areas.

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  • 28. 

    Test design:

    • A.

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B.

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C.

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D.

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    D. Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design is the process of creating a detailed plan or strategy for testing a specific aspect of the software or system. It involves determining the specific test conditions, test cases, and test data that will be used to verify the functionality and performance of the test object. The test design phase focuses on defining the specific steps, techniques, and tools that will be used to execute the tests and gather the necessary information to evaluate the test results.

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  • 29. 

    Test execution:

    • A.

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B.

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C.

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D.

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    B. Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied." This answer is correct because it accurately describes when test execution starts. Test execution is the phase in the testing process that begins after the test object has been delivered and all the entry criteria for test execution have been met. It is during this phase that the actual testing is performed, following the test conditions and test cases that have been defined in the earlier stages of the testing process.

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  • 30. 

    Reporting:

    • A.

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B.

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C.

      Frequency and level of detail required are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders.

    • D.

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Frequency and level of detail required are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the frequency and level of detail required for reporting in testing are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders. This means that the specific requirements for reporting, such as how often reports should be generated and how detailed they should be, will vary depending on the project and the stakeholders involved. It emphasizes the importance of discussing and agreeing upon these requirements during the test planning phase to ensure that the reporting meets the needs and expectations of the project.

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  • 31. 

    Test closure activities fall into four main groups (choose 4):

    • A.

      Test completion check

    • B.

      Test artifacts handover

    • C.

      Lessons learned

    • D.

      Archiving results

    • E.

      Exit criteria

    • F.

      Requirements management

    • G.

      Reporting

    • H.

      Maintenance

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Test completion check
    B. Test artifacts handover
    C. Lessons learned
    D. Archiving results
    Explanation
    The given answer includes four activities that are commonly associated with test closure. Test completion check refers to the process of ensuring that all planned testing activities have been completed. Test artifacts handover involves transferring the test documentation, test scripts, and other artifacts to the relevant stakeholders. Lessons learned involves reflecting on the testing process and identifying areas for improvement in future projects. Archiving results refers to storing and organizing the test results and other relevant data for future reference.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following THREE describe Test Control?

    • A.

      Is an ongoing activity.

    • B.

      Compares actual progress against the plan

    • C.

      Must respond to changes in mission, strategies, testing objective

    • D.

      Implements test strategy

    • E.

      Sets framework for deriving test cases, test conditions an test procedures from test basis

    • F.

      Planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Is an ongoing activity.
    B. Compares actual progress against the plan
    C. Must respond to changes in mission, strategies, testing objective
    Explanation
    Test Control is an ongoing activity that involves comparing the actual progress against the plan. It also requires the ability to respond to changes in mission, strategies, and testing objectives. Test Control is responsible for implementing the test strategy and setting the framework for deriving test cases, test conditions, and test procedures from the test basis. It also involves tracking the planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following THREE describe Test Planning?

    • A.

      Is an ongoing activity.

    • B.

      Compares actual progress against the plan

    • C.

      Must respond to changes in mission, strategies, testing objective

    • D.

      Implements test strategy

    • E.

      Sets framework for deriving test cases, test conditions an test procedures from test basis

    • F.

      Planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Implements test strategy
    E. Sets framework for deriving test cases, test conditions an test procedures from test basis
    F. Planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases
    Explanation
    Test planning is an ongoing activity that involves implementing the test strategy, setting the framework for deriving test cases, test conditions, and test procedures from the test basis, and comparing actual progress against the plan. It also must respond to changes in mission, strategies, and testing objectives. Additionally, it includes the planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are Black Box?

    • A.

      Equivalence Partitioning

    • B.

      Boundary Value Analysis

    • C.

      Cause Effect Graphing

    • D.

      Syntax Testing

    • E.

      Statement Testing

    • F.

      Branch/Decision Testing

    • G.

      Data Flow

    • H.

      LCSAJ

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Equivalence Partitioning
    B. Boundary Value Analysis
    C. Cause Effect Graphing
    D. Syntax Testing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Equivalence Partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis, Cause Effect Graphing, and Syntax Testing. These four techniques are considered black box testing techniques because they focus on testing the functionality of the system without considering its internal structure or implementation details. Equivalence Partitioning involves dividing the input data into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. Boundary Value Analysis focuses on testing the boundaries and limits of input values. Cause Effect Graphing is used to identify and test the relationship between inputs and outputs. Syntax Testing checks for the correct syntax and structure of the system.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are White Box?

    • A.

      Equivalence Partitioning

    • B.

      Boundary Value Analysis

    • C.

      Cause Effect Graphing

    • D.

      Syntax Testing

    • E.

      Statement Testing

    • F.

      Branch/Decision Testing

    • G.

      Data Flow

    • H.

      LCSAJ

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. Statement Testing
    F. Branch/Decision Testing
    G. Data Flow
    H. LCSAJ
    Explanation
    Statement Testing, Branch/Decision Testing, Data Flow, and LCSAJ are all white box test design techniques. White box testing focuses on the internal structure and logic of the system. Statement testing involves testing each statement in the code to ensure that it executes as intended. Branch/Decision testing focuses on testing all possible branches and decisions in the code. Data flow testing involves testing the flow of data within the system. LCSAJ (Loop/Condition Simplexity Analysis and Justification) is a technique that analyzes the complexity of loops and conditions within the code. These techniques require knowledge of the internal workings of the system, which is characteristic of white box testing.

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  • 36. 

    Which quality risk technique properly describes "depth first"?

    • A.

      Execute test cases in strict risk order

    • B.

      Cover every risk at least once

    • C.

      Try to understand hazards that create risks for our systems

    • D.

      Select a function and find its possible failure modes

    Correct Answer
    A. Execute test cases in strict risk order
    Explanation
    "Depth first" refers to a quality risk technique where test cases are executed in a strict risk order. This means that the test cases are prioritized based on the level of risk associated with them, and the ones with higher risks are executed first. This approach ensures that the most critical risks are identified and addressed early in the testing process, minimizing the potential impact on the system. By following a strict risk order, the team can focus on resolving the most significant risks before moving on to lower priority ones.

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  • 37. 

    Which quality risk technique properly describes "breadth first"?

    • A.

      Execute test cases in strict risk order

    • B.

      Cover every risk at least once

    • C.

      Try to understand hazards that create risks for our systems

    • D.

      Select a function and find its possible failure modes

    Correct Answer
    B. Cover every risk at least once
    Explanation
    The technique of "breadth first" in quality risk refers to covering every risk at least once. This means that all potential risks are identified and addressed in a comprehensive manner, ensuring that no risk is overlooked or ignored. By covering every risk at least once, the technique aims to minimize the chances of any significant risk going unnoticed and causing potential harm or failure in the system.

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  • 38. 

    Test Management DocumentationWhich 4 of the following describe the Test Policy?

    • A.

      Why of testing for an organization

    • B.

      Objective that organization wants to achieve

    • C.

      Company management establishes or approves this document

    • D.

      Short high level document that including definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets etc

    • E.

      How of testing for an organization

    • F.

      Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects

    • G.

      Dividing testing into levels

    • H.

      High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Why of testing for an organization
    B. Objective that organization wants to achieve
    C. Company management establishes or approves this document
    D. Short high level document that including definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets etc
    Explanation
    The Test Policy is a short high-level document that includes the definition of testing, the fundamental test process, quality targets, and other important aspects. It is established or approved by the company management and serves as a guide for the organization's testing approach. It explains the "why" of testing for the organization and the objectives that the organization wants to achieve. It is independent of any project but provides a framework for testing in most projects.

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  • 39. 

    Test Management DocumentationWhich 4 of the following describe the Test Strategy?

    • A.

      Why of testing for an organization

    • B.

      Objective that organization wants to achieve

    • C.

      Company management establishes or approves this document

    • D.

      Short high level document that including definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets etc

    • E.

      How of testing for an organization

    • F.

      Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects

    • G.

      Dividing testing into levels

    • H.

      High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. How of testing for an organization
    F. Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects
    G. Dividing testing into levels
    H. High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level
    Explanation
    The Test Strategy is a high-level document that outlines the approach to testing for an organization. It is independent of any specific project and provides a framework for testing in most projects. The Test Strategy includes dividing testing into levels, defining the entry and exit criteria for each level, and identifying the high-level testing activities. It does not include the why of testing for an organization or the objective that the organization wants to achieve. The Test Strategy is established or approved by the company management and serves as a short, high-level document that defines testing, the fundamental test process, and quality targets.

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  • 40. 

    Which 4 items describe the Master Test Plan?

    • A.

      How of testing for a single project but spanning multiple levels.

    • B.

      Application of Test Strategy for a particular project. Deviation from Test plan and Test strategy should be explained.

    • C.

      Mentions items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested

    • D.

      Includes particular levels and relationship between them.

    • E.

      How of testing for a level

    • F.

      Schedule, tasks and milestone details not necessarily covered in Master test plan

    • G.

      Particular test activities within each test level

    • H.

      Expands the test activity details found in the Master test plan for the specific test level

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. How of testing for a single project but spanning multiple levels.
    B. Application of Test Strategy for a particular project. Deviation from Test plan and Test strategy should be explained.
    C. Mentions items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested
    D. Includes particular levels and relationship between them.
    Explanation
    The Master Test Plan describes how testing will be conducted for a single project that spans multiple levels. It includes the application of the Test Strategy specifically for that project, with an explanation of any deviations from the Test Plan and Test Strategy. The Master Test Plan also mentions the items and quality attributes that will be tested, as well as those that will not be tested. It includes the particular levels of testing and the relationship between them, providing an overall testing framework for the project.

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  • 41. 

    Which 4 items describe the Level Test Plan?

    • A.

      How of testing for a single project but spanning multiple levels.

    • B.

      Application of Test Strategy for a particular project. Deviation from Test plan and Test strategy should be explained.

    • C.

      Mentions items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested

    • D.

      Includes particular levels and relationship between them.

    • E.

      How of testing for a level

    • F.

      Schedule, tasks and milestone details not necessarily covered in Master test plan

    • G.

      Particular test activities within each test level

    • H.

      Expands the test activity details found in the Master test plan for the specific test level

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. How of testing for a level
    F. Schedule, tasks and milestone details not necessarily covered in Master test plan
    G. Particular test activities within each test level
    H. Expands the test activity details found in the Master test plan for the specific test level
    Explanation
    The Level Test Plan describes the "how" of testing for a specific level. It includes the particular test activities within each test level and expands on the test activity details found in the Master test plan for that specific level. It also includes schedule, tasks, and milestone details that may not be covered in the Master test plan. The Level Test Plan does not focus on the application of Test Strategy or deviation from the Test plan and Test strategy. It also does not mention the items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested, or the relationship between different levels.

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  • 42. 

    Which best defines the "bottom up" Test Estimation Technique?

    • A.

      Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • B.

      Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • C.

      Decompose Test project into activities, tasks, subtasks etc

    • D.

      An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    A. Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates
    Explanation
    The "bottom up" test estimation technique involves estimating each task individually and then deriving the overall project estimate from those estimates. This approach allows for a more detailed and accurate estimation by considering the specific effort required for each task. By breaking down the project into smaller components and estimating them individually, the overall estimate can be more reliable and realistic.

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  • 43. 

    Which best defines the "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique?

    • A.

      Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • B.

      Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • C.

      Decompose Test project into activities, tasks, subtasks etc

    • D.

      An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    D. An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members
    Explanation
    The "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique is an expert-based approach that relies on the collective wisdom of team members to make accurate estimations. It involves gathering input from multiple experts and consolidating their opinions to arrive at a consensus estimate. This technique recognizes that individual estimations may vary, but by pooling together the knowledge and experience of the team, a more reliable estimation can be achieved.

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  • 44. 

    Which best defines the "Test Point Analysis (TPA)" Test Estimation Technique?

    • A.

      Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • B.

      Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • C.

      A formula based test estimation method based on function point analysis. [TMap]

    • D.

      An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    C. A formula based test estimation method based on function point analysis. [TMap]
    Explanation
    Test Point Analysis (TPA) is a formula-based test estimation technique that is based on function point analysis. This means that it uses a specific formula or calculation to estimate the effort required for testing based on the size and complexity of the software being tested. TPA is often used in conjunction with the TMap testing methodology. This technique allows for a more accurate estimation of the testing effort by considering the specific characteristics and requirements of the software being tested.

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  • 45. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of prevention?

    • A.

      Developer training

    • B.

      Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • C.

      Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • D.

      Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    A. Developer training
    Explanation
    Developer training is a cost of prevention because it involves providing training to developers to prevent bugs and defects from occurring in the first place. By investing in training, developers can enhance their skills and knowledge, resulting in improved code quality and reduced chances of introducing errors. This proactive approach helps in preventing costly issues that may arise later in the development process.

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  • 46. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of detection?

    • A.

      Developer training

    • B.

      Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • C.

      Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • D.

      Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    B. Expense for test planning, design and implementation
    Explanation
    The expense for test planning, design, and implementation is a cost of detection because it refers to the resources and effort required to identify and uncover bugs or defects in the software during the testing phase. This cost includes activities such as creating test plans, designing test cases, and implementing the tests. By investing in these activities, organizations aim to detect and identify bugs early in the development process, which helps in reducing the overall cost of quality and ensuring that the software meets the desired standards and requirements.

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  • 47. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of internal failure?

    • A.

      Developer training

    • B.

      Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • C.

      Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • D.

      Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    C. Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs
    Explanation
    The cost of internal failure refers to the expenses incurred when bugs or defects are detected and fixed during the development process. This includes the time and resources spent on identifying and resolving the issues. Therefore, the correct answer is "bugs were detected and development fixed bugs."

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  • 48. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of external failure?

    • A.

      Developer training

    • B.

      Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • C.

      Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • D.

      Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    D. Bugs were detected by customer
    Explanation
    The cost of external failure refers to the expenses incurred when bugs or defects are detected by customers. This includes the cost of customer support, product recalls, warranty claims, and potential damage to the company's reputation. When bugs are detected by customers, it indicates that the testing process was not effective in identifying and fixing these issues before the product was released to the market. This can result in significant financial losses for the company and a decrease in customer satisfaction.

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  • 49. 

    Which 4 of the following are static tests?

    • A.

      Control Flow Analysis

    • B.

      Data Flow Analysis

    • C.

      Compliance to Coding Standards

    • D.

      Generate code metrics

    • E.

      Detecting Wild Pointers (Pointers “lost” the object to which they should be pointing to)

    • F.

      Performance testing

    • G.

      Load testing

    • H.

      Stress testing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Control Flow Analysis
    B. Data Flow Analysis
    C. Compliance to Coding Standards
    D. Generate code metrics
    Explanation
    Incorrect answers are dynamic tests (code is executed).

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  • 50. 

    Which 4 of the following are dynamic tests?

    • A.

      Control Flow Analysis

    • B.

      Data Flow Analysis

    • C.

      Compliance to Coding Standards

    • D.

      Generate code metrics

    • E.

      Detecting Wild Pointers (Pointers “lost” the object to which they should be pointing to)

    • F.

      Performance testing

    • G.

      Load testing

    • H.

      Stress testing

    Correct Answer(s)
    E. Detecting Wild Pointers (Pointers “lost” the object to which they should be pointing to)
    F. Performance testing
    G. Load testing
    H. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Incorrect answers are static tests (code is not executed).

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