ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz

40 Questions

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Quiz based on key concepts for the CTAL TM exam. 40 questions taken from a sample bank larger than 40 with 1 hour time limit. Questions and answers are randomized.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project?
    • A. 

      A requirements review meeting

    • B. 

      A business analyst eliciting requirements

    • C. 

      A database administrator designing a table

    • D. 

      A test results report showing requirements coverage

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Design tests from the requirements specification

    • B. 

      Analyze design-related risks

    • C. 

      Execute unit test cases

    • D. 

      Write the test summary report

    • E. 

      Design tests from the design specification

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Component testing for each system

    • B. 

      Component integration testing for each system

    • C. 

      System testing for each system

    • D. 

      Contract acceptance testing for each system

    • E. 

      System integration testing

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems?
    • A. 

      Test traceability

    • B. 

      ISO 61508

    • C. 

      Usability testing

    • D. 

      Employee evaluations

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is an accurate statement that captures a difference between a trend chart showing the total number of bugs discovered and resolved during test execution and a trend chart showing the total number of test cases passed and failed during test execution?
    • A. 

      The bug trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the test case trend chart will not.

    • B. 

      The bug trend chart will show test coverage while the test case trend chart will not.

    • C. 

      The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart will not.

    • D. 

      The test case trend chart will show test coverage while the bug trend chart will not.

  • 6. 
    Considering the typical objectives of testing that are identified in the Foundation syllabus, which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of those objectives?
    • A. 

      Average days from defect discovery to resolution

    • B. 

      Lines of code written per developer per day

    • C. 

      Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

    • D. 

      Percentage of requirements coverage

  • 7. 
    Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Your test team is following a risk-based testing strategy augmented with a reactive testing strategy during test execution to ensure that key risks missed during risk analysis are caught. Of the following statements, identify all that are true about the test plan.
    • A. 

      The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process.

    • B. 

      The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis.

    • C. 

      The test plan should assign specific bugs to specific developers.

    • D. 

      The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test execution.

    • E. 

      The test plan should specify overall project team metrics used to determine bonuses

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find the preconditions to start executing a level of testing?
    • A. 

      Test plan

    • B. 

      Test design specification

    • C. 

      Incident report

    • D. 

      Project plan

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is the most likely reason a user might be included in test execution?
    • A. 

      Their domain knowledge

    • B. 

      Their technical expertise

    • C. 

      Their testing expertise

    • D. 

      Their management expertise

  • 10. 
    You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more defects. Making no assumptions other than ones based on the information provided here, which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor?
    • A. 

      Impose retroactive financial penalties on this vendor for the number of bugs delivered on this project.

    • B. 

      Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.

    • C. 

      Cancel the contract with this vendor and put it on an industry blacklist.

    • D. 

      Require the vendor's developers to attend training to improve their ability to write quality code.

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step that you might take as a test manager?
    • A. 

      Testing for performance problems

    • B. 

      Hiring a contractor after a key test analyst quits

    • C. 

      Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing

    • D. 

      Performing a project retrospective using test results

  • 12. 
    Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Sequential (waterfall model, V-model and W -model)
    • A. 

      Requirements are complete and furnished early

    • B. 

      Preventive in nature

    • C. 

      Defect detection starts late

    • D. 

      Manage requirements

    • E. 

      Requirements are not complete

    • F. 

      Not preventive in nature

    • G. 

      Defect detection starts early

    • H. 

      Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas

  • 13. 
    Match 4 items that are characteristics of: Incremental (evolutionary and Agile methods)
    • A. 

      Requirements are complete and furnished early

    • B. 

      Preventive in nature

    • C. 

      Defect detection starts late

    • D. 

      Manage requirements

    • E. 

      Requirements are not complete

    • F. 

      Not preventive in nature

    • G. 

      Defect detection starts early

    • H. 

      Identify and prioritize key quality risk areas

  • 14. 
    Which is NOT an issue with Sequential (V-model, waterfall)?
    • A. 

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B. 

      Pressurized development

    • C. 

      Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building

    • D. 

      Test team involved late

  • 15. 
    Which is NOT an issue with Incremental (Agile- SCRUM) also called as evolutionary
    • A. 

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B. 

      Regression of N+1 increment is always complex

    • C. 

      Bugs planning failure

    • D. 

      Lack of testing culture in agile world

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Schedule compression pressure is always there

    • B. 

      Flexibility in TC and design changes of system is too often

    • C. 

      Experimental model of early testing and not confidence building

    • D. 

      Dealing with unknowns

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Creates uncertainty in relating other test work products (e.g., test cases) to the test basis and test objectives, thus providing better and more detailed monitoring and control for a Test Manager.

    • B. 

      Contributes to defect injection, as discussed in the Foundation Level, by occurring early in a project for higher levels of testing, as soon as the test basis is established and potentially before system architecture and detailed design are available.

    • C. 

      Potentially will influence and direct not just other testing activities, but also other development activities.

    • D. 

      Level of formality needs to be defined and implemented across the team.

  • 18. 
    Specification of detailed test conditions can be particularly effective in the following situations EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Lightweight test design documentation methods, such as checklists, are being used due to accommodate the development lifecycle, cost and/or time constraints or other factors.

    • B. 

      Little or no formal requirements or other development work products are available as the test basis

    • C. 

      The project is large-scale, complex or high risk and requires a level of monitoring and control that cannot be delivered by simply relating test cases to development work products.

    • D. 

      Less complex projects where simple hierarchical relationships exist between what is to be tested and how it is to be tested.

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      The activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    • B. 

      The activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • C. 

      Traceability from the test results back to the test conditions, the test basis, and ultimately the test objectives, and also from the test objectives forward to the test results.

    • D. 

      The information requirements and methods for collection and are part of test planning, monitoring and control.

  • 20. 
    Test Closure Activities include which of the following 4 activities?
    • A. 

      Test completion check

    • B. 

      Test artifacts handover

    • C. 

      Lessons learned

    • D. 

      Archiving results

    • E. 

      Test case design

    • F. 

      Risk assessment

    • G. 

      Identification of test cases that relate to user requirements

    • H. 

      Development of the formal test plan

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    • B. 

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • C. 

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • D. 

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    • B. 

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • C. 

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • D. 

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

  • 23. 
    With Iterative or incremental models, such as Rapid Application Development (RAD) and the Rational Unified Process (RUP)
    • A. 

      The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • B. 

      All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    • C. 

      Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • D. 

      Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

  • 24. 
    Test control:
    • A. 

      Involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed.

    • B. 

      Can be identified by analysis of the test basis, test objectives, and product risks.

    • C. 

      Involves the identification of test cases by the stepwise elaboration of the identified test conditions or test basis using test techniques identified in the test strategy or the test plan.

    • D. 

      Is the activity in which test designs are implemented as concrete test cases, test procedures, and test data.

  • 25. 
    For each test level:
    • A. 

      Test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level.

    • B. 

      Negotiation should include consultation with relevant project stakeholders about the schedule.

    • C. 

      Members of the test team provide information required for exit criteria reporting to avoid having to conduct a lessons learned meeting after testing is completed.

    • D. 

      Ensure that effective processes are in place to provide project status reports for users.

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B. 

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C. 

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D. 

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

  • 27. 
    Test analysis:
    • A. 

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B. 

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C. 

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D. 

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

  • 28. 
    Test design:
    • A. 

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B. 

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C. 

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D. 

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

  • 29. 
    Test execution:
    • A. 

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B. 

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C. 

      Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • D. 

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

  • 30. 
    Reporting:
    • A. 

      Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • B. 

      Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • C. 

      Frequency and level of detail required are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders.

    • D. 

      Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

  • 31. 
    Test closure activities fall into four main groups (choose 4):
    • A. 

      Test completion check

    • B. 

      Test artifacts handover

    • C. 

      Lessons learned

    • D. 

      Archiving results

    • E. 

      Exit criteria

    • F. 

      Requirements management

    • G. 

      Reporting

    • H. 

      Maintenance

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      Is an ongoing activity.

    • B. 

      Compares actual progress against the plan

    • C. 

      Must respond to changes in mission, strategies, testing objective

    • D. 

      Implements test strategy

    • E. 

      Sets framework for deriving test cases, test conditions an test procedures from test basis

    • F. 

      Planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Is an ongoing activity.

    • B. 

      Compares actual progress against the plan

    • C. 

      Must respond to changes in mission, strategies, testing objective

    • D. 

      Implements test strategy

    • E. 

      Sets framework for deriving test cases, test conditions an test procedures from test basis

    • F. 

      Planned versus actual hours to develop test ware and execute test cases

  • 34. 
    Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are Black Box?
    • A. 

      Equivalence Partitioning

    • B. 

      Boundary Value Analysis

    • C. 

      Cause Effect Graphing

    • D. 

      Syntax Testing

    • E. 

      Statement Testing

    • F. 

      Branch/Decision Testing

    • G. 

      Data Flow

    • H. 

      LCSAJ

  • 35. 
    Which of the following FOUR Test design techniques are White Box?
    • A. 

      Equivalence Partitioning

    • B. 

      Boundary Value Analysis

    • C. 

      Cause Effect Graphing

    • D. 

      Syntax Testing

    • E. 

      Statement Testing

    • F. 

      Branch/Decision Testing

    • G. 

      Data Flow

    • H. 

      LCSAJ

  • 36. 
    Which quality risk technique properly describes "depth first"?
    • A. 

      Execute test cases in strict risk order

    • B. 

      Cover every risk at least once

    • C. 

      Try to understand hazards that create risks for our systems

    • D. 

      Select a function and find its possible failure modes

  • 37. 
    Which quality risk technique properly describes "breadth first"?
    • A. 

      Execute test cases in strict risk order

    • B. 

      Cover every risk at least once

    • C. 

      Try to understand hazards that create risks for our systems

    • D. 

      Select a function and find its possible failure modes

  • 38. 
    Test Management DocumentationWhich 4 of the following describe the Test Policy?
    • A. 

      Why of testing for an organization

    • B. 

      Objective that organization wants to achieve

    • C. 

      Company management establishes or approves this document

    • D. 

      Short high level document that including definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets etc

    • E. 

      How of testing for an organization

    • F. 

      Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects

    • G. 

      Dividing testing into levels

    • H. 

      High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level

  • 39. 
    Test Management DocumentationWhich 4 of the following describe the Test Strategy?
    • A. 

      Why of testing for an organization

    • B. 

      Objective that organization wants to achieve

    • C. 

      Company management establishes or approves this document

    • D. 

      Short high level document that including definition of testing, fundamental Test process, Quality targets etc

    • E. 

      How of testing for an organization

    • F. 

      Independent of any project but lays out approach to testing for most projects

    • G. 

      Dividing testing into levels

    • H. 

      High level testing activities i.e. Entry & Exit criteria of each level

  • 40. 
    Which 4 items describe the Master Test Plan?
    • A. 

      How of testing for a single project but spanning multiple levels.

    • B. 

      Application of Test Strategy for a particular project. Deviation from Test plan and Test strategy should be explained.

    • C. 

      Mentions items and quality attributes to be tested and not to be tested

    • D. 

      Includes particular levels and relationship between them.

    • E. 

      How of testing for a level

    • F. 

      Schedule, tasks and milestone details not necessarily covered in Master test plan

    • G. 

      Particular test activities within each test level

    • H. 

      Expands the test activity details found in the Master test plan for the specific test level