ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz

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  • 1/91 Questions

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of external failure?

    • Developer training
    • Expense for test planning, design and implementation
    • Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs
    • Bugs were detected by customer
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ISTQB Ctal Test Manager Quick Practice Quiz - Quiz
About This Quiz

Quiz based on key concepts for the CTAL TM exam.
40 questions taken from a sample bank larger than 40 with 1 hour time limit.
Questions and answers are randomized.

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  • 2. 

    Test control:

    • Involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed.

    • Can be identified by analysis of the test basis, test objectives, and product risks.

    • Involves the identification of test cases by the stepwise elaboration of the identified test conditions or test basis using test techniques identified in the test strategy or the test plan.

    • Is the activity in which test designs are implemented as concrete test cases, test procedures, and test data.

    Correct Answer
    A. Involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the first option, "involves comparing actual progress against the plan and implementing corrective actions when needed." This is because test control refers to the process of monitoring and controlling the testing activities to ensure that they are being executed according to the plan. It involves comparing the actual progress of the testing against the planned progress and taking corrective actions if there are any deviations or issues. This helps to ensure that the testing is on track and any necessary adjustments can be made to meet the testing objectives.

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  • 3. 

    According to the ISTQB syllabus, System can be identified as _____________________ if the system’s operation can result in catastrophic or critical consequences.

    • Safety Critical System

    • System Integration

    • Systems of Systems

    • None

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety Critical System
    Explanation
    safety critical systems are those which lives depends on.

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  • 4. 

    Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes a Management Review?

    • Cost effective and very flexible.

    • Author is moderator.

    • Also called a Peer review

    • Carried out by management or stakeholders, procedures includes assessment of project risks, outcome and decision are documented

    • Formal, requires trained moderator, uses entry and exit criteria, management may not attend.

    • Demonstrates conformance to some sort of applicable standards or contractual obligations

    Correct Answer
    A. Carried out by management or stakeholders, procedures includes assessment of project risks, outcome and decision are documented
    Explanation
    A Management Review is a review carried out by management or stakeholders, where procedures include the assessment of project risks, and the outcome and decision are documented. This type of review is formal and requires a trained moderator. It demonstrates conformance to applicable standards or contractual obligations.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project?

    • A requirements review meeting

    • A business analyst eliciting requirements

    • A database administrator designing a table

    • A test results report showing requirements coverage

    Correct Answer
    A. A requirements review meeting
    Explanation
    A requirements review meeting is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project because it involves reviewing and validating the requirements that have been gathered. In this meeting, the project team and stakeholders come together to ensure that the requirements are complete, accurate, and meet the needs of the project. This is a crucial step in the requirements specification phase as it helps to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in the requirements and allows for necessary adjustments to be made before moving forward with the project.

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  • 6. 

    Test Closure Activities include which of the following 4 activities?

    • Test completion check

    • Test artifacts handover

    • Lessons learned

    • Archiving results

    • Test case design

    • Risk assessment

    • Identification of test cases that relate to user requirements

    • Development of the formal test plan

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Test completion check
    A. Test artifacts handover
    A. Lessons learned
    A. Archiving results
    Explanation
    The Test Closure Activities include four activities: Test completion check, Test artifacts handover, Lessons learned, and Archiving results. Test completion check involves verifying that all test activities have been completed and all test cases have been executed. Test artifacts handover involves transferring all test-related documents and materials to the appropriate stakeholders. Lessons learned involves reflecting on the testing process and identifying areas for improvement in future projects. Archiving results involves storing and organizing all test-related data and documentation for future reference.

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  • 7. 

    7.2 Individual SkillsThe ideal test team has a mix of skills and experience levels, and the team members should have a willingness and ability to teach and learn from their peers. In some environments, some skills will be more important or more respected than others.In a testing environment where API testing and programming skills are required:

    • Technical skills may be valued the most.

    • Domain expertise may be valued the most.

    • Analysis and design skills may be valued the most.

    • Reporting and tracibility skills may be valued the most.

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical skills may be valued the most.
    Explanation
    In a testing environment where API testing and programming skills are required, technical skills may be valued the most. This is because API testing and programming require a strong understanding of technical concepts and the ability to write and execute code effectively. These skills are crucial in ensuring that the testing process is carried out accurately and efficiently. Additionally, technical skills are often highly sought after in the industry, making them more valued in such environments.

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  • 8. 

    You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager. Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items:• Verify code compliance to coding standards• Verify comment usage frequency• Review number of function calls • Review logical decision points in the applicationWhat is the purpose of this meeting?

    • Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.

    • Explain the testers how the program should work.

    • Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.

    • Explain the complexity of the code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the meeting is to perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early. This involves verifying the code compliance to coding standards, checking the frequency of comments, reviewing the number of function calls, and reviewing logical decision points in the application. The goal is to identify any potential issues or bugs in the code before it is released to the testing department, allowing for early detection and resolution of any problems.

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  • 9. 

    Innovative software solutions Inc. adopted a new way of testing their software. Testers set up the test environment, scan the software and look for problems for about 3 hours every week on Mondays and Wednesdays (in addition to their normal test activities). They create a session sheet and record testers name, date and time started, issues found, task breakdown and defects found at the end. Then the test manager holds a meeting with the testers and reviews the session sheet. Manager asks the testers for their outlook, results, what happened during testing and their feelings about past 3 hours.What type of testing activity is described above?

    • Exploratory Testing

    • Risk based testing

    • State transition Testing

    • Decision Testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Exploratory Testing
    Explanation
    This is a description of Exploratory Testing technique.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the most likely reason a user might be included in test execution?

    • Their domain knowledge

    • Their technical expertise

    • Their testing expertise

    • Their management expertise

    Correct Answer
    A. Their domain knowledge
    Explanation
    A user might be included in test execution because of their domain knowledge. Domain knowledge refers to their understanding and expertise in a specific industry or field. Including a user with domain knowledge in test execution ensures that the testing process is aligned with the requirements and expectations of the end-users. This user can provide valuable insights, identify potential issues, and validate the functionality of the system from a user's perspective.

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  • 11. 

    Test execution:

    • Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied." This answer is correct because it accurately describes when test execution starts. Test execution is the phase in the testing process that begins after the test object has been delivered and all the entry criteria for test execution have been met. It is during this phase that the actual testing is performed, following the test conditions and test cases that have been defined in the earlier stages of the testing process.

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  • 12. 

    ____________ test design technique is known as white box or code based test technique. Code, the architecture or system flow is used as the basis for test design.

    • Structure Based

    • Specification Based

    • Defect Based

    • Experience Based

    Correct Answer
    A. Structure Based
    Explanation
    Structure Based test design technique, also known as white box or code based test technique, uses the code, architecture, or system flow as the basis for test design. This technique focuses on the internal structure of the system and aims to test the logic, branches, paths, and conditions within the code. It involves techniques such as statement coverage, branch coverage, and path coverage to ensure thorough testing of the code. By examining the structure of the code, this technique helps identify potential defects and vulnerabilities in the system.

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  • 13. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of internal failure?

    • Developer training

    • Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    A. Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs
    Explanation
    The cost of internal failure refers to the expenses incurred when bugs or defects are detected and fixed during the development process. This includes the time and resources spent on identifying and resolving the issues. Therefore, the correct answer is "bugs were detected and development fixed bugs."

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  • 14. 

    Considering the typical objectives of testing that are identified in the Foundation syllabus, which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of those objectives?

    • Average days from defect discovery to resolution

    • Lines of code written per developer per day

    • Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

    • Percentage of requirements coverage

    Correct Answer
    A. Percentage of requirements coverage
    Explanation
    The percentage of requirements coverage is a metric that can be used to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of the typical objectives of testing. This metric indicates the extent to which the requirements have been tested. A higher percentage of requirements coverage suggests that more requirements have been tested, increasing the likelihood of identifying defects and ensuring that the system meets the specified requirements. Therefore, this metric is a good indicator of the effectiveness of the test process in achieving the objective of validating the system against the requirements.

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  • 15. 

    Test design is:

    • The activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    • The activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • Traceability from the test results back to the test conditions, the test basis, and ultimately the test objectives, and also from the test objectives forward to the test results.

    • The information requirements and methods for collection and are part of test planning, monitoring and control.

    Correct Answer
    A. The activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design involves determining the approach and techniques to be used in testing a specific system or component. It includes identifying test conditions, selecting test cases, and creating test data. Test design ensures that the testing process is systematic and efficient, allowing for comprehensive coverage of the system's functionality and requirements.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

    • Big bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization.

    • Cost benefit analysis should be done before purchasing test tools and analysis should show a good potential return on investment.

    • Maintenance fees, support fees, licensing fees and learning curve should be considered before introducing test tools to an organization.

    • Scripted / automated tests can be executed faster during test execution phase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Big bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization.
    Explanation
    The statement "Big bang approach is the best way to rollout test tools to an organization" is not a true statement. The big bang approach refers to implementing all the test tools at once, which can be risky and overwhelming for an organization. It is generally recommended to adopt a gradual and phased approach to rollout test tools, allowing time for training, learning, and adjusting to the new tools. This approach minimizes disruptions and allows for better integration and adoption of the tools within the organization.

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  • 17. 

    Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes an audit?

    • Cost effective and very flexible.

    • Author is moderator.

    • Also called a Peer review

    • Carried out by management or stakeholders, procedures includes assessment of project risks, outcome and decision are documented

    • Formal, requires trained moderator, uses entry and exit criteria, management may not attend.

    • Demonstrates conformance to some sort of applicable standards or contractual obligations

    Correct Answer
    A. Demonstrates conformance to some sort of applicable standards or contractual obligations
    Explanation
    An audit is a formal process that assesses whether a system, process, or organization conforms to specific standards or contractual obligations. It is not cost-effective or flexible, does not involve a moderator, is not called a peer review, and may or may not be carried out by management or stakeholders. The correct answer accurately summarizes the purpose of an audit.

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  • 18. 

    7.4 Fitting Testing Within an OrganizationOrganizations have many ways to fit testing into the organizational structure. While quality is everyone's responsibility throughout the software development lifecycle, an independent test team can contribute significantly to a quality product.Which of the following examples has the LOWEST level of test independence?

    • Testing is done by a tester (or test team) that is part of the development team

    • Testing is done by test specialists from the business organization, user community, or other non-development technical organization

    • External test specialists perform testing on specific test types

    • Testing is done by a developer other than the one who wrote the code

    Correct Answer
    A. Testing is done by a developer other than the one who wrote the code
    Explanation
    The lowest level of test independence is when testing is done by a developer other than the one who wrote the code. In this scenario, there is no separation between the development and testing roles, and the tester may have biases or preconceived notions about the code they are testing. This lack of independence can lead to a lower quality product as potential issues may be overlooked or not thoroughly tested.

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  • 19. 

    You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more defects. Making no assumptions other than ones based on the information provided here, which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor?

    • Impose retroactive financial penalties on this vendor for the number of bugs delivered on this project.

    • Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.

    • Cancel the contract with this vendor and put it on an industry blacklist.

    • Require the vendor's developers to attend training to improve their ability to write quality code.

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.
    Explanation
    Performing an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor, is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor. This will ensure that all systems, including the one from this vendor, are thoroughly tested before implementation. By applying additional rigor to the testing process for this vendor, it will help identify any potential defects or issues early on, allowing for necessary improvements to be made before the system is put into use. This approach promotes quality assurance and helps mitigate the risk of future projects having a higher number of defects.

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  • 20. 
    A College Enrollment application used by Innova College calculates the amount each student has to pay for gym and computer lab usage.The application asks for Student ID, Name and Student’s major. Then the application calculates the fee. If student’s major is Computer Science, they have to pay the full computer lab fee. If the student’s major is not Computer Science, they have to pay only 1/3rd of the computer lab fee. All students have to pay for the gym membership.How many tests are required for path coverage of the above application? - ProProfs

    A College Enrollment application used by Innova College calculates the amount each student has to pay for gym and computer lab usage.The application asks for Student ID, Name and Student’s major. Then the application calculates the fee. If student’s major is Computer Science, they have to pay the full computer lab fee. If the student’s major is not Computer Science, they have to pay only 1/3rd of the computer lab fee. All students have to pay for the gym membership.How many tests are required for path coverage of the above application?

    • 2

    • 5

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    To achieve path coverage for the given application, we need to consider all possible paths. In this case, there are two paths to consider: one for Computer Science majors and one for non-Computer Science majors. For Computer Science majors, they have to pay the full computer lab fee, and for non-Computer Science majors, they have to pay 1/3rd of the computer lab fee. Therefore, to cover both paths, we need to test for both scenarios, resulting in a total of 2 tests.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step that you might take as a test manager?

    • Testing for performance problems

    • Hiring a contractor after a key test analyst quits

    • Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing

    • Performing a project retrospective using test results

    Correct Answer
    A. Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing
    Explanation
    Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing is a project risk mitigation step that a test manager might take. This step helps to ensure that testing can continue uninterrupted even if one test environment fails. By having additional test environments readily available, the test manager can minimize the impact of any technical issues or failures and maintain the progress and efficiency of the testing process.

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  • 22. 

    In a sequential model (waterfall model, V-model and W-model)

    • All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    • The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.
    Explanation
    In a sequential model, all of the work products and activities for a given phase are completed before the next phase begins. This means that each phase, such as requirements, design, implementation, testing, and acceptance, is done one after the other in a linear fashion. This allows for a structured and organized approach to development, where each phase builds upon the previous one. It ensures that the necessary groundwork is completed before moving on to the next phase, reducing the risk of errors and issues later on in the project.

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  • 23. 

    Which one is correct?

    • Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase.

    • Collecting test evidence / test logging is always up to the tester to decide.

    • Customers should not be involved in any level of test execution.

    • If the expected and actual results do not match, it is always because of a defect in the software under test.

    Correct Answer
    A. Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase.
    Explanation
    Actual and expected results comparison is part of test execution phase

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  • 24. 

    For each test level:

    • Test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level.

    • Negotiation should include consultation with relevant project stakeholders about the schedule.

    • Members of the test team provide information required for exit criteria reporting to avoid having to conduct a lessons learned meeting after testing is completed.

    • Ensure that effective processes are in place to provide project status reports for users.

    Correct Answer
    A. Test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that test planning starts at the initiation of the test process for that level and continues throughout the project until the completion of closure activities for that level. This means that test planning is an ongoing process that begins at the start of the test level and continues until all activities for that level are completed. It emphasizes the importance of having a well-defined and comprehensive test plan that guides the testing activities throughout the project. This ensures that all necessary steps and activities are considered and executed, leading to a successful test completion.

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  • 25. 

    Reporting:

    • Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • Frequency and level of detail required are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders.

    • Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency and level of detail required are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the frequency and level of detail required for reporting in testing are dependent on the project and should be negotiated during the test planning phase in consultation with relevant project stakeholders. This means that the specific requirements for reporting, such as how often reports should be generated and how detailed they should be, will vary depending on the project and the stakeholders involved. It emphasizes the importance of discussing and agreeing upon these requirements during the test planning phase to ensure that the reporting meets the needs and expectations of the project.

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  • 26. 

    Which best defines the "Test Point Analysis (TPA)" Test Estimation Technique?

    • Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • A formula based test estimation method based on function point analysis. [TMap]

    • An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    A. A formula based test estimation method based on function point analysis. [TMap]
    Explanation
    Test Point Analysis (TPA) is a formula-based test estimation technique that is based on function point analysis. This means that it uses a specific formula or calculation to estimate the effort required for testing based on the size and complexity of the software being tested. TPA is often used in conjunction with the TMap testing methodology. This technique allows for a more accurate estimation of the testing effort by considering the specific characteristics and requirements of the software being tested.

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  • 27. 

    Improving the Testing ProcessTMMi is best summarized as:

    • Maturity levels are: Initial, Managed, Defined, Measured, Optimized

    • 4 maturity levels: Initial, Controlled, Efficient, Optimizing

    • A context-sensitive approach that allows for tailoring the model including Identification of specific challenges, Recognition of attributes of good processes and Selection of the order and importance of implementation of process improvements

    • Does not require that improvements occur in a specific order. Methodology stresses “test then code" by using a requirements-based testing strategy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maturity levels are: Initial, Managed, Defined, Measured, Optimized
    Explanation
    5.4 Improving the Testing Process with TMMi
    The Testing Maturity Model integration (TMMi) is composed of five maturity levels and is intended to complement CMMI. Each of the maturity levels contains defined process areas that must be 85% complete by achieving specific and generic goals before the organization can advance to the next level.
    The TMMi maturity levels are: Level 1: Initial
    The initial level represents a state where there is no formally documented or structured testing process. Tests are typically developed in an ad hoc way after coding, and testing is seen as the same as debugging. The aim of testing is understood to be proving that the software works. Level 2: Managed
    The second level is attained when testing processes are clearly separated from debugging. It can be reached by setting testing policy and goals, introducing the steps found in a fundamental test process (e.g., test planning), and implementing basic testing techniques and methods. Level 3: Defined
    The third level is reached when a testing process is integrated into the software development lifecycle, and documented in formal standards, procedures, and methods. Reviews take place and there should be a distinct software testing function that can be controlled and monitored. Level 4: Measured
    Level four is achieved when the testing process is capable of being effectively measured and managed at an organizational level to the benefit of specific projects. Level 5: Optimized
    The final level represents a state of test process maturity where data from the testing process can be used to help prevent defects, and the focus is on optimizing the established process.
    For more information on TMMi, see [vanVeenendaal11] and [www.tmmi.org].

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  • 28. 

    Which best defines the "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique?

    • Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • Decompose Test project into activities, tasks, subtasks etc

    • An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    A. An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members
    Explanation
    The "Wide Band Delphi" Test Estimation Technique is an expert-based approach that relies on the collective wisdom of team members to make accurate estimations. It involves gathering input from multiple experts and consolidating their opinions to arrive at a consensus estimate. This technique recognizes that individual estimations may vary, but by pooling together the knowledge and experience of the team, a more reliable estimation can be achieved.

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  • 29. 

    Which quality risk technique properly describes "breadth first"?

    • Execute test cases in strict risk order

    • Cover every risk at least once

    • Try to understand hazards that create risks for our systems

    • Select a function and find its possible failure modes

    Correct Answer
    A. Cover every risk at least once
    Explanation
    The technique of "breadth first" in quality risk refers to covering every risk at least once. This means that all potential risks are identified and addressed in a comprehensive manner, ensuring that no risk is overlooked or ignored. By covering every risk at least once, the technique aims to minimize the chances of any significant risk going unnoticed and causing potential harm or failure in the system.

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  • 30. 

    Which best defines the "bottom up" Test Estimation Technique?

    • Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates

    • Estimate test effort all at once (i.e. 20% of whole project estimates)

    • Decompose Test project into activities, tasks, subtasks etc

    • An expert based test estimation technique that aims at making an accurate estimation using the collective wisdom of the team members

    Correct Answer
    A. Estimate each task individually an then drive the project estimate from those estimates
    Explanation
    The "bottom up" test estimation technique involves estimating each task individually and then deriving the overall project estimate from those estimates. This approach allows for a more detailed and accurate estimation by considering the specific effort required for each task. By breaking down the project into smaller components and estimating them individually, the overall estimate can be more reliable and realistic.

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  • 31. 

    Test design:

    • Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'how' something is to be tested." This is because test design is the process of creating a detailed plan or strategy for testing a specific aspect of the software or system. It involves determining the specific test conditions, test cases, and test data that will be used to verify the functionality and performance of the test object. The test design phase focuses on defining the specific steps, techniques, and tools that will be used to execute the tests and gather the necessary information to evaluate the test results.

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  • 32. 

    6.2 Tool Selection6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)There are many risks to tool use; not all tools actually supply benefits that outweigh the risks. Tool risks were discussed in the Foundation Level syllabus. The Test Manager should also consider which of the following risks when considering ROI:

    • Immaturity of the organization

    • Test data may be more valid using data generation tools

    • Test result comparisons may be more accurate using comparison tools

    • Reuse of test assets such as test cases, test scripts and test data

    Correct Answer
    A. Immaturity of the organization
    Explanation
    The Test Manager should consider the immaturity of the organization when considering ROI for tool selection. This means that if the organization is not mature enough in terms of its testing processes and practices, implementing certain tools may not provide the expected benefits and may even introduce more risks. Therefore, the Test Manager needs to assess the level of maturity of the organization before making decisions about tool selection and consider whether the organization is ready to effectively utilize the chosen tools.

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  • 33. 

    7.4 Fitting Testing Within an OrganizationOrganizations have many ways to fit testing into the organizational structure. While quality is everyone's responsibility throughout the software development lifecycle, an independent test team can contribute significantly to a quality product.Which of the following examples has the HIGHEST level of test independence?

    • Testing is done by a tester (or test team) that is part of the development team

    • Testing is done by test specialists from the business organization, user community, or other non-development technical organization

    • External test specialists perform testing on specific test types

    • Testing is done by a developer other than the one who wrote the code

    Correct Answer
    A. External test specialists perform testing on specific test types
    Explanation
    The highest level of test independence is when external test specialists perform testing on specific test types. This means that the testing is being done by individuals or teams who are not directly involved in the development process or part of the organization. This level of independence ensures that the testing is unbiased and objective, as the testers are not influenced by the development team or organizational pressures. It also brings in fresh perspectives and expertise from outside the organization, contributing to a higher quality product.

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  • 34. 

    Select the correct statement:I. Comparing actual progress against the plan is part of Test Controlling activity.II. Updating the test plan if needed is part of test controlling activity.III. Prioritization criteria identified during risk analysis should be applied only during test execution.IV. Test conditions are identified by analyzing the test basis and test objectives.

    • I, II and IV true. III false.

    • I and IV true. II and II false.

    • I, II and III true. IV false.

    • II, III and IV true. I false.

    Correct Answer
    A. I, II and IV true. III false.
    Explanation
    Test plan can be updated during test monitoring and controlling process.

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  • 35. 

    Test analysis:

    • Is the activity during which tests are organized and prioritized by the Test Analysts.

    • Begins once the test object is delivered and the entry criteria to test execution are satisfied.

    • Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.

    • Is the activity that defines “how” something is to be tested.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the activity that defines “what” is to be tested in the form of test conditions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is the activity that defines 'what' is to be tested in the form of test conditions." Test analysis is the process of determining what needs to be tested and creating test conditions that cover all the requirements and functionalities of the test object. It involves analyzing the requirements, identifying testable features, and creating a comprehensive set of test conditions that will be used to design test cases. This activity helps ensure that all the necessary aspects of the test object are covered and that the testing effort is focused on the right areas.

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  • 36. 

    Which 4 of the following are dynamic tests?

    • Control Flow Analysis

    • Data Flow Analysis

    • Compliance to Coding Standards

    • Generate code metrics

    • Detecting Wild Pointers (Pointers “lost” the object to which they should be pointing to)

    • Performance testing

    • Load testing

    • Stress testing

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Detecting Wild Pointers (Pointers “lost” the object to which they should be pointing to)
    A. Performance testing
    A. Load testing
    A. Stress testing
    Explanation
    Incorrect answers are static tests (code is not executed).

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  • 37. 

    6.2 Tool Selection6.2.3 Return on Investment (ROI)There are many risks to tool use; not all tools actually supply benefits that outweigh the risks. Tool risks were discussed in the Foundation Level syllabus. The Test Manager should also consider which of the following risks when considering ROI:

    • Artifacts created by the tool may be difficult to maintain

    • Test data may be more valid using data generation tools

    • Test result comparisons may be more accurate using comparison tools

    • Reuse of test assets such as test cases, test scripts and test data

    Correct Answer
    A. Artifacts created by the tool may be difficult to maintain
    Explanation
    The Test Manager should consider the risk that artifacts created by the tool may be difficult to maintain when considering ROI. This means that the tools used in testing may generate artifacts, such as test cases or test scripts, that may become hard to maintain over time. This can lead to increased costs and effort in managing and updating these artifacts, which can impact the overall return on investment of using the tool.

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  • 38. 

    In a spiral model:

    • Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.

    • Work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts.

    • The features to be implemented are grouped together (e.g., according to business priority or risk), and then the various project phases, including their work products and activities, occur for each group of features.

    • All of the work products and activities for a given phase (e.g., requirements, design, implementation, unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing) are completed before the next phase begins.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prototypes are used early in the project to confirm feasibility and to experiment with design and implementation decisions, using the level of business priority and technical risk to select the order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out.
    Explanation
    In a spiral model, prototypes are used early in the project to validate the feasibility of the project and to experiment with design and implementation decisions. The order in which the prototyping experiments are carried out is determined based on the level of business priority and technical risk. This approach allows for iterative development, where work products and activities for each iteration are concluded before the next iteration starts. This helps in managing the project effectively and ensures that the features to be implemented are grouped together based on their priority or risk.

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  • 39. 

    7.2 Individual SkillsWhich of the THREE skills are particularly important for Test Analysts?

    • Having knowledge, skills and experience in project management

    • Making a plan, tracking progress and reporting to stakeholders

    • Interpersonal skills, such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating

    • Participate in risk analysis and ability to analyze a specification

    • Design test cases, and diligence for running tests and recording the results

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Interpersonal skills, such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating
    A. Participate in risk analysis and ability to analyze a specification
    A. Design test cases, and diligence for running tests and recording the results
    Explanation
    The three skills that are particularly important for Test Analysts are interpersonal skills, risk analysis and the ability to analyze a specification, and the ability to design test cases and diligently run tests and record the results. Test Analysts need strong interpersonal skills to effectively communicate and collaborate with stakeholders, give and receive constructive criticism, and influence and negotiate with others. They also need to be able to analyze risks and specifications to ensure thorough testing. Additionally, they must have the ability to design test cases and meticulously carry out tests while accurately recording the results.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following statement is false about Metrics and Measurements?Metrics and measurements are useful to identify:

    • Testers motivation

    • Workload and resource usage

    • Actual and planed costs

    • Defects found, defect fixed, duration of correction

    Correct Answer
    A. Testers motivation
    Explanation
    there is no Metric for motivation

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following statements are true?I. Test automation tools can be used only for one project.II. Test data comparison tool can be used to avoid human data comparison mistakes.III. A company can utilize multiple test tools to efficiently perform their test activities.IV. Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor guarantees that the tools will work together.

    • II, III true. I , IV false

    • I, II true. III , IV false

    • II, III, IV true. I false

    • I, II, IV true. III false

    Correct Answer
    A. II, III true. I , IV false
    Explanation
    Test Automation tools can be used for multiple projects (and should be).

    Purchasing suite of test tools from the same vendor does not guarantee that all tools will work together.

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  • 42. 

    According to the ISTQB syllabus, major ways to handle risks are:I. Mitigate the risk through preventive measures.II. Make contingency plans to reduce impact if risk occurs.III. Transfer the risk to someone else to handle.IV. Ignore and accept the risk.

    • All are true

    • I, II and III true

    • I, II and IV true

    • II, III, IV true

    Correct Answer
    A. All are true
    Explanation
    According to the ISTQB syllabus, all of the major ways to handle risks are true. This means that all four options are valid ways to handle risks. Mitigating the risk through preventive measures, making contingency plans to reduce impact if the risk occurs, transferring the risk to someone else to handle, and ignoring and accepting the risk are all acceptable approaches to risk management.

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  • 43. 

    Test team identified a possible risk during requirements review of the Functional Requirement Document. The risk was analyzed and the probability of the risk happening is 1% and impact of the risk if it occurs is $200,000. What is the cost of exposure? 

    • $ 2,000

    • $ 500

    • $ 200,000

    • $ 20,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $ 2,000
    Explanation
    Cost of Exposure = Probability * Impact ; = 0.01 (1 %)* $200 000 = $2000

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find the preconditions to start executing a level of testing?

    • Test plan

    • Test design specification

    • Incident report

    • Project plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Test plan
    Explanation
    A test plan is a test document that outlines the approach, objectives, scope, and schedule of testing activities. It provides details on the resources required, the test environment, and the test deliverables. In a test plan, one would expect to find the preconditions necessary to start executing a level of testing, such as the setup and configuration of the test environment, the availability of test data, and any dependencies or prerequisites that need to be fulfilled before testing can begin. Therefore, the correct answer is a test plan.

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  • 45. 

    The quantitative business value of testing can be measured by cost of quality.Which of the following is a cost of prevention?

    • Developer training

    • Expense for test planning, design and implementation

    • Bugs were detected and development fixed bugs

    • Bugs were detected by customer

    Correct Answer
    A. Developer training
    Explanation
    Developer training is a cost of prevention because it involves providing training to developers to prevent bugs and defects from occurring in the first place. By investing in training, developers can enhance their skills and knowledge, resulting in improved code quality and reduced chances of introducing errors. This proactive approach helps in preventing costly issues that may arise later in the development process.

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  • 46. 

    Types of Process ImprovementSTEP, TMMi, TPI and CTP  test process assessment models allow an organization to determine where they stand in terms of their current test processes.Once an assessment is performed, TMMi and TPI:

    • Provide a prescriptive roadmap for improving the test process

    • Determine where a organization's biggest process improvement ROI will come from

    • Recommend the organization apply IEEE 892 standards to correct specific test process deviations

    • List the possible process improvements in order of priority (based upon ROI, risks, alignment to organizational strategy, measurable quantitative or qualitative benefits).

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide a prescriptive roadmap for improving the test process
    Explanation
    TMMi and TPI provide a prescriptive roadmap for improving the test process. This means that they offer a clear and detailed plan or guide on how to enhance the test process. They provide specific steps and recommendations for the organization to follow in order to improve their testing procedures. This roadmap helps the organization understand what actions they need to take in order to achieve better results in their testing efforts.

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  • 47. 

    Review TypesWhich definition best summarizes an Inspection?

    • Cost effective and very flexible.

    • Author is moderator.

    • Also called a Peer review

    • Carried out by management or stakeholders, procedures includes assessment of project risks, outcome and decision are documented

    • Formal, requires trained moderator, uses entry and exit criteria, management may not attend.

    • Demonstrates conformance to some sort of applicable standards or contractual obligations

    Correct Answer
    A. Formal, requires trained moderator, uses entry and exit criteria, management may not attend.
    Explanation
    An Inspection is a formal review process that requires a trained moderator and follows specific entry and exit criteria. It is not necessary for management to attend an Inspection. This type of review is focused on demonstrating conformance to applicable standards or contractual obligations.

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  • 48. 

    Improving the Testing ProcessSTEP is best summarized as:

    • Maturity levels are: Initial, Managed, Defined, Measured, Optimized

    • 4 maturity levels: Initial, Controlled, Efficient, Optimizing

    • A context-sensitive approach that allows for tailoring the model including Identification of specific challenges, Recognition of attributes of good processes and Selection of the order and importance of implementation of process improvements

    • Does not require that improvements occur in a specific order. Methodology stresses “test then code" by using a requirements-based testing strategy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Does not require that improvements occur in a specific order. Methodology stresses “test then code" by using a requirements-based testing strategy.
    Explanation
    5.7 Improving the Testing Process with STEP
    STEP (Systematic Test and Evaluation Process), like CTP and unlike TMMi and TPI Next, does not require that improvements occur in a specific order.
    STEP is primarily a content reference model which is based upon the idea that testing is a lifecycle activity that begins during requirements formulation and continues until retirement of the system. The STEP methodology stresses “test then code" by using a requirements-based testing strategy to ensure that early creation of test cases validates the requirements specification prior to design and coding.
    Basic premises of the methodology include: A requirements-based testing strategy Testing starts at the beginning of the lifecycle Tests are used as requirements and usage models Testware design leads software design Defects are detected earlier or prevented altogether Defects are systematically analyzed Testers and developers work together
    In some cases the STEP assessment model is blended with the TPI Next maturity model.
    For more information on STEP, see [Craig02].

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  • 49. 

    7.2 Individual SkillsWhich of the THREE skills are particularly important for Test Managers?

    • Having knowledge, skills and experience in project management

    • Making a plan, tracking progress and reporting to stakeholders

    • Interpersonal skills, such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating

    • Participate in risk analysis and ability to analyze a specification

    • Design test cases, and diligence for running tests and recording the results

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Having knowledge, skills and experience in project management
    A. Making a plan, tracking progress and reporting to stakeholders
    A. Interpersonal skills, such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating
    Explanation
    The three skills that are particularly important for Test Managers are having knowledge, skills, and experience in project management, making a plan, tracking progress, and reporting to stakeholders, and interpersonal skills such as giving and receiving constructive criticism, influencing, and negotiating. These skills are crucial for Test Managers as they need to effectively manage projects, ensure progress is being made and reported to stakeholders, and have strong interpersonal skills to effectively communicate and collaborate with team members and stakeholders.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 11, 2024 +

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  • Mar 11, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Devilbrand
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