3e151 B Set Vol 1

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UREs for B set of 3E151 cdcs Vol 1.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is a fuel that is refined from lighter hydrocarbons?

    • A.

      Lubrication oil

    • B.

      Liguefied petroleum gases (LPG)

    • C.

      Petroleum coke

    • D.

      Asphalt

    Correct Answer
    B. Liguefied petroleum gases (LPG)
    Explanation
    Liquefied petroleum gases (LPG) is a fuel that is refined from lighter hydrocarbons. LPG is a mixture of propane and butane, which are both lighter hydrocarbons. It is commonly used as a fuel for heating, cooking, and vehicles. LPG is obtained during the refining process of crude oil and natural gas. It is a highly flammable and easily transportable fuel that is stored in pressurized containers.

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  • 2. 

    What characteristic of fuel oil indicates the minimum temperature at which the oil can be pumped and is useful in the handling of heavy oils?

    • A.

      Flash point

    • B.

      Pour point

    • C.

      Viscosity

    • D.

      Specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    B. Pour point
    Explanation
    The pour point of fuel oil indicates the minimum temperature at which the oil can be pumped. It is useful in the handling of heavy oils because it determines the lowest temperature at which the oil can flow freely without becoming too viscous or solidifying. The pour point is crucial in ensuring that the oil can be easily transported and utilized in various applications without any issues caused by its high viscosity or solidification at low temperatures.

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  • 3. 

    What characteristic of fuel oil can cause plug burners and screens and erratic combustion such as sparkling and flashback?

    • A.

      Low viscosity

    • B.

      High viscosity

    • C.

      Sulfur content

    • D.

      Water and sediment

    Correct Answer
    D. Water and sediment
    Explanation
    Water and sediment in fuel oil can cause plug burners and screens, as well as erratic combustion such as sparkling and flashback. When fuel oil contains water, it can lead to the formation of steam bubbles during combustion, which can disrupt the flow of fuel and air mixture. This can result in poor combustion and cause the burners and screens to become clogged. Sediment in fuel oil can also clog the burners and screens, leading to inefficient combustion and potential issues such as sparking and flashback.

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  • 4. 

    What item is installed on a single-stage pump when used on a two-pipe fuel line system?

    • A.

      Bleed slot

    • B.

      Bypass port

    • C.

      Needle valve

    • D.

      Prime port

    Correct Answer
    B. Bypass port
    Explanation
    A single-stage pump is typically used on a two-pipe fuel line system to regulate the flow of fuel. The bypass port is installed on the pump to redirect excess fuel back to the fuel tank, ensuring that the pressure in the system remains constant. This prevents any damage to the pump or the fuel line system due to excessive pressure. Therefore, the bypass port is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 5. 

    How far from the bottom of the fuel tanks should the suction line end?

    • A.

      2 to 3 inches

    • B.

      3 to 4 inches

    • C.

      4 to 5 inches

    • D.

      5 to 6 inches

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 to 4 inches
    Explanation
    The suction line should end 3 to 4 inches from the bottom of the fuel tanks. This distance is important to ensure that any sediment or impurities that may have settled at the bottom of the tanks are not drawn into the system. By keeping the suction line slightly above the bottom, the fuel being drawn into the system will be cleaner and less likely to cause damage or clog the fuel filters or injectors.

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  • 6. 

    When there is a long underground run of the suction line, where would a check valve be installed into the line?

    • A.

      Next to the burner

    • B.

      Next to the pump

    • C.

      Where it enter the building

    • D.

      Where it leaves the tank

    Correct Answer
    C. Where it enter the building
    Explanation
    A check valve would be installed where the suction line enters the building. This is because a long underground run of the suction line can cause issues such as loss of prime or airlocks. By installing a check valve at the entry point of the building, it ensures that the flow of fluid is only going in one direction, preventing any backflow or loss of prime.

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  • 7. 

    When a return line rises from the burner, it is well advise to provide a check valve

    • A.

      On the return line as it leaves the building

    • B.

      On the supply line next to the burner

    • C.

      Close to the tank inlet

    • D.

      Close to the pump discharge

    Correct Answer
    D. Close to the pump discharge
    Explanation
    It is advisable to provide a check valve close to the pump discharge because this prevents the backflow of fuel or other substances from the burner into the pump. By placing the check valve in this location, it ensures that any flow of fuel or substances is directed away from the pump and towards the burner, enhancing the safety and efficiency of the system.

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  • 8. 

    Oil strainers should be cleaned at regular intervals with steam, hot water, solvent, or

    • A.

      Gasoline

    • B.

      Compressed air

    • C.

      Gasoline and hot water

    • D.

      Water and soap solution

    Correct Answer
    B. Compressed air
    Explanation
    Oil strainers should be cleaned at regular intervals to remove any debris or contaminants that may have accumulated. Compressed air is an effective method for cleaning oil strainers as it can dislodge and remove particles without the need for any additional solvents or cleaning agents. Using compressed air ensures that the strainers are thoroughly cleaned and ready to effectively filter oil.

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  • 9. 

    What is the average heating value of natural gas per cubic feet?

    • A.

      500 btus

    • B.

      1000 btus

    • C.

      1500 btus

    • D.

      2000 btus

    Correct Answer
    B. 1000 btus
    Explanation
    The average heating value of natural gas per cubic feet is 1000 btus. This means that for every cubic foot of natural gas burned, it releases 1000 British Thermal Units (btus) of heat energy.

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  • 10. 

    At ordinary atmospheric pressure, with the necessary heat of vaporization added, butane boils or changes from a liquid to a gaseous state at

    • A.

      -42*F

    • B.

      -32*F

    • C.

      0*F

    • D.

      32*F

    Correct Answer
    D. 32*F
    Explanation
    At ordinary atmospheric pressure, butane boils or changes from a liquid to a gaseous state at 32°F. This is the boiling point of butane, which means that at this temperature, the vapor pressure of butane equals the atmospheric pressure, causing it to boil and convert into a gas.

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  • 11. 

    In low pressure systems, gas is usually distributed at pressures from

    • A.

      0 to 5 ounces psi

    • B.

      3 to 8 ounces psi

    • C.

      1 1/2 psi to 25 psi

    • D.

      25 to 50 psi

    Correct Answer
    B. 3 to 8 ounces psi
    Explanation
    Gas is usually distributed at pressures ranging from 3 to 8 ounces psi in low pressure systems. This range of pressure is suitable for safely distributing gas without causing any damage or leaks in the system. Higher pressures could potentially cause problems or accidents, while lower pressures may not be sufficient to effectively distribute the gas. Therefore, the range of 3 to 8 ounces psi is the appropriate pressure range for gas distribution in low pressure systems.

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  • 12. 

    A gas service line should be installed at least how many inches below the ground surface?

    • A.

      10 inches

    • B.

      14 inches

    • C.

      18 inches

    • D.

      24 inches

    Correct Answer
    C. 18 inches
    Explanation
    A gas service line should be installed at least 18 inches below the ground surface. This is to ensure that the line is protected from potential damage caused by external factors such as excavation or construction work. By burying the line at this depth, it reduces the risk of accidental damage and helps to maintain the integrity and safety of the gas service line.

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  • 13. 

    To measure the amount of fuel oil in a storage tank by hand, you must first know the

    • A.

      Diameter of the tank

    • B.

      Length of the tank

    • C.

      Height of the tank

    • D.

      Capacity of the tank

    Correct Answer
    D. Capacity of the tank
    Explanation
    To measure the amount of fuel oil in a storage tank by hand, knowing the capacity of the tank is crucial. The capacity of the tank refers to its maximum volume or how much it can hold when completely filled. This information is necessary to calculate the amount of fuel oil present in the tank by using appropriate conversion factors or formulas. Without knowing the tank's capacity, it would be impossible to accurately determine the amount of fuel oil in the tank.

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  • 14. 

    If you are repairing an 80ft long gas line on the ceiling in a mechanical room, you should use at least

    • A.

      5 to 7 hangers

    • B.

      8 to 10 hangers

    • C.

      12 to 15 hangers

    • D.

      16 to 18 hangers

    Correct Answer
    B. 8 to 10 hangers
    Explanation
    To properly repair an 80ft long gas line on the ceiling in a mechanical room, it is recommended to use 8 to 10 hangers. These hangers will provide sufficient support and ensure that the gas line is securely fixed in place. Using fewer hangers may result in inadequate support, while using more hangers may be unnecessary and wasteful. Therefore, the optimal range for the number of hangers to use in this scenario is 8 to 10.

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  • 15. 

    Which measures is being used to control static electricity, hwere the static charges which builds up within a object will be carried off harmlessly, neutralizing the difference in electrical potential?

    • A.

      Bonding

    • B.

      Grounding

    • C.

      Humidification

    • D.

      Vaporization

    Correct Answer
    B. Grounding
    Explanation
    Grounding is the measure being used to control static electricity. Grounding involves connecting an object to the ground or a conductive material, allowing the static charges to be carried off harmlessly. This helps neutralize the difference in electrical potential and prevents the buildup of static electricity.

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  • 16. 

    Conductive greases and V-belts on a shaft pulleys are examples of effective

    • A.

      Bonding

    • B.

      Grounding

    • C.

      Testing for static electrical potentials

    • D.

      Eliminating all electrical hazards

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding
    Explanation
    Conductive greases and V-belts on a shaft pulleys are examples of bonding. Bonding is the process of connecting two or more conductive objects together to ensure they have the same electrical potential. In this case, the conductive greases and V-belts are used to create a continuous conductive path, allowing any static electrical potentials to be safely discharged and preventing the buildup of static electricity. This helps to prevent electrical hazards and ensures the safety of the system.

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  • 17. 

    How soon must a reportable spill be reported?

    • A.

      Within 12 hours

    • B.

      Within 24 hours

    • C.

      Within 36 hours

    • D.

      Within 48 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. Within 24 hours
    Explanation
    A reportable spill must be reported within 24 hours to ensure that proper measures can be taken promptly to contain and mitigate the spill. This ensures that potential harm to the environment, human health, and property can be minimized. Reporting the spill within this timeframe allows authorities to assess the situation and take appropriate actions to prevent further damage or contamination. Waiting longer than 24 hours may result in delays in response and potentially worsen the consequences of the spill.

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  • 18. 

    What limits the maximum firing rate on a gas burner?

    • A.

      Flashback

    • B.

      Primary air

    • C.

      Secondary air

    • D.

      Flame blow-off

    Correct Answer
    D. Flame blow-off
    Explanation
    Flame blow-off limits the maximum firing rate on a gas burner. This occurs when the flame is extinguished due to excessive air or fuel flow, causing the flame to detach from the burner and blow off. When this happens, the burner cannot maintain a stable flame, resulting in a lower firing rate. Therefore, flame blow-off acts as a limiting factor for the maximum firing rate on a gas burner.

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  • 19. 

    What is dependent upon burner and combustion chamber design?

    • A.

      Amount of main air

    • B.

      Amount of firing air

    • C.

      Flame shape

    • D.

      Turndown adjustment

    Correct Answer
    C. Flame shape
    Explanation
    The flame shape is dependent upon the burner and combustion chamber design. The design of the burner and combustion chamber determines how the fuel and air mix, how it is distributed, and how it ignites. These factors ultimately affect the shape of the flame produced during combustion.

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  • 20. 

    What type of gas burner delivers the gas into the combustion chamber from the side(s) resulting in a horizontal flame?

    • A.

      Inshot burner

    • B.

      Upshot burner

    • C.

      Downshot burner

    • D.

      Overshot burner

    Correct Answer
    A. Inshot burner
    Explanation
    An inshot burner delivers gas into the combustion chamber from the side(s), resulting in a horizontal flame. This type of burner is commonly used in appliances such as gas stoves and ovens. The gas is injected into the combustion chamber through small holes or nozzles located on the sides of the burner. The horizontal flame produced by an inshot burner provides even heat distribution and is suitable for cooking purposes.

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  • 21. 

    What type of pilot is automatically turned on each time there is a call for heat and automatically cuts off at the end of the main burner flame-establishing period?

    • A.

      Continuous pilot

    • B.

      Standing pilot

    • C.

      Interrupted pilot

    • D.

      Intermittent pilot

    Correct Answer
    C. Interrupted pilot
    Explanation
    An interrupted pilot is a type of pilot that is automatically turned on each time there is a call for heat and automatically cuts off at the end of the main burner flame-establishing period. This means that the pilot flame is only present during the time when the main burner is igniting, and it is not continuously burning. This type of pilot is commonly used in heating systems to conserve energy and improve safety by only using fuel when necessary.

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  • 22. 

    Port type burners are classified as

    • A.

      Small port, large port, or tile port burners

    • B.

      Premixing port, small port, or large port burners

    • C.

      Single prot, double port, or tile port burners

    • D.

      Premixing port, single port, or double port burners

    Correct Answer
    A. Small port, large port, or tile port burners
    Explanation
    Port type burners are classified based on the size and design of the ports. They can be categorized as small port, large port, or tile port burners. This classification is determined by the size and shape of the ports through which the fuel and air mixture is injected into the burner. Small port burners have smaller ports, while large port burners have larger ports. Tile port burners have a design where the ports are arranged in a tiled pattern. This classification helps in selecting the appropriate burner type for different applications and requirements.

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  • 23. 

    What type of port as burner is limited to low temperature applications due to physical structure?

    • A.

      Single port

    • B.

      Small port

    • C.

      Large port

    • D.

      Tile port

    Correct Answer
    B. Small port
    Explanation
    A small port burner is limited to low temperature applications due to its physical structure. The smaller size of the port restricts the amount of fuel and air that can be introduced into the burner, resulting in a lower heat output. This makes it unsuitable for high temperature applications where a larger amount of fuel and air is required to generate the desired heat.

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  • 24. 

    For proportional air inspiration at high mixture pressures, what limits the range of worktable spud orifice diameters?

    • A.

      Amount of primary air

    • B.

      Amount of secondary air

    • C.

      Size of the venturi throat

    • D.

      Length of the venturi throat

    Correct Answer
    C. Size of the venturi throat
    Explanation
    The size of the venturi throat limits the range of worktable spud orifice diameters for proportional air inspiration at high mixture pressures. The venturi throat acts as a constriction point in the airflow, creating a pressure difference that allows for the proper mixing of primary and secondary air. If the venturi throat is too small, it will restrict the airflow and limit the range of orifice diameters that can be used effectively. Conversely, if the venturi throat is too large, it may not create enough pressure difference for proper air inspiration. Therefore, the size of the venturi throat is crucial in maintaining proportional air inspiration.

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  • 25. 

    What valve is used in a gas valve train to shut off the gas when you are repairing or replaceing other components?

    • A.

      Safety shutoff

    • B.

      Pressure regulator

    • C.

      Fire control

    • D.

      Manual shutoff

    Correct Answer
    D. Manual shutoff
    Explanation
    A manual shutoff valve is used in a gas valve train to shut off the gas when repairing or replacing other components. This valve can be manually operated to stop the flow of gas, ensuring safety during maintenance or repair work. It allows the technician to isolate the gas supply, preventing any potential accidents or leaks while working on other components of the gas valve train.

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  • 26. 

    What is used to sample the gas pressure and open an electrical circuit if the pressure rises past some preset level?

    • A.

      Pressure regulating control

    • B.

      High pressure switch

    • C.

      Low pressure switch

    • D.

      Flow rate control

    Correct Answer
    B. High pressure switch
    Explanation
    A high pressure switch is used to sample the gas pressure and open an electrical circuit if the pressure rises past some preset level. This switch acts as a safety mechanism to prevent the pressure from reaching dangerous levels, ensuring the system operates within safe limits. When the pressure exceeds the predetermined threshold, the high pressure switch interrupts the electrical circuit, triggering an alarm or shutting down the system to prevent any potential damage or hazards.

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  • 27. 

    What valve is used to provide a convenient method of controlling the flow of fuel?

    • A.

      Pressure regulating control (PRV)

    • B.

      Safety shutoff valve (SSOV)

    • C.

      Manual shutoff valve (MSOV)

    • D.

      Firing rate valve

    Correct Answer
    D. Firing rate valve
    Explanation
    The firing rate valve is used to control the flow of fuel in a convenient manner. It allows for adjusting the rate at which fuel is supplied to a burner or combustion system, thus regulating the intensity of the flame. This valve is commonly used in industrial processes and heating systems where precise control of fuel flow is necessary to maintain optimal performance and efficiency.

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  • 28. 

    Three types of automatic gas valves are

    • A.

      Solenoid, safety, and diaphragm

    • B.

      Safety, diaphragm, and motorized

    • C.

      Diaphragm, motorized and soleniod

    • D.

      Motorized, solenoid, and safety

    Correct Answer
    C. Diaphragm, motorized and soleniod
    Explanation
    The correct answer is diaphragm, motorized, and solenoid. This answer is correct because it lists the three types of automatic gas valves in the correct order. The diaphragm valve is a type of valve that uses a flexible diaphragm to control the flow of gas. The motorized valve is a type of valve that is controlled by an electric motor. The solenoid valve is a type of valve that is controlled by an electromagnet. Therefore, the correct answer includes all three types of valves in the correct order.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following valves controls the amount of fuel entering the burner, which determines the rate of combustion, or firing rate?

    • A.

      Firing rate butterfly valves

    • B.

      Firing rate gate valves

    • C.

      Quick opening butterfly valve

    • D.

      Quick opening gate valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing rate butterfly valves
    Explanation
    Firing rate butterfly valves control the amount of fuel entering the burner, which directly affects the rate of combustion or firing rate. These valves are specifically designed to regulate the flow of fuel and ensure that the burner receives the required amount of fuel for efficient combustion. By adjusting the position of the butterfly valve, the flow rate of fuel can be controlled, thereby controlling the firing rate of the burner.

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  • 30. 

    In a combinantion gas valve, where does the regulator senses variation in outlet pressure?

    • A.

      Working gas channel

    • B.

      Evacuation gas channel

    • C.

      Regulator pressure chamber

    • D.

      Main valve pressure chamber

    Correct Answer
    B. Evacuation gas channel
    Explanation
    The regulator in a combination gas valve senses variation in outlet pressure in the evacuation gas channel. This channel is responsible for removing excess gas from the system, and the regulator monitors the pressure within this channel to ensure it remains within the desired range. By sensing the variation in outlet pressure in the evacuation gas channel, the regulator can make necessary adjustments to maintain a consistent and safe gas flow.

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  • 31. 

    The spark outlet of the solid-state spark reignition system is approximately

    • A.

      24 volts

    • B.

      240 volts

    • C.

      10,000 volts

    • D.

      24,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    D. 24,000 volts
    Explanation
    The spark outlet of the solid-state spark reignition system is approximately 24,000 volts. This high voltage is necessary to create a spark that can ignite the fuel-air mixture in the engine's combustion chamber. The solid-state spark reignition system uses electronic components to control the timing and intensity of the spark, resulting in improved efficiency and performance compared to traditional ignition systems. The high voltage generated by the system allows for a more reliable and powerful spark, ensuring proper combustion and smooth engine operation.

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  • 32. 

    What are the two types of pilostats used for domestic gas burners?

    • A.

      Thermoelectric and switch

    • B.

      Valve and thermoelectric

    • C.

      Solenoid and switch

    • D.

      Diaphragm and solenoid

    Correct Answer
    B. Valve and thermoelectric
    Explanation
    Valve and thermoelectric are the two types of pilostats used for domestic gas burners. The valve pilostat is responsible for controlling the flow of gas to the burner, while the thermoelectric pilostat is used to generate an electric current based on the temperature of the pilot flame. This current is then used to keep the gas valve open, ensuring that the burner remains lit.

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  • 33. 

    Your first step in performing a pre-operational inspection on a gas fired system is to

    • A.

      Check for gas leaks with a soap solution

    • B.

      Turn off all power to the system

    • C.

      Look inside the combustion chamber

    • D.

      Do a visual inspection of the area

    Correct Answer
    D. Do a visual inspection of the area
    Explanation
    The first step in performing a pre-operational inspection on a gas fired system is to do a visual inspection of the area. This is important to ensure that there are no visible signs of damage, leaks, or any other potential hazards in the vicinity of the system. By visually inspecting the area, any issues can be identified and addressed before proceeding with further inspection or operation of the system. Checking for gas leaks with a soap solution may be a subsequent step in the inspection process, but it is not the first step as stated in the correct answer.

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  • 34. 

    When starting up a gas burner, what action is taken once you light and adjust the pilot?

    • A.

      Close the manual gas valve and adjust the operating control to call for heat

    • B.

      Open the manual gas valve and adjust the operating the control to call for heay

    • C.

      Check the combination fan and limit control for proper settings

    • D.

      Check the air shutter and draft regulator for proper settings

    Correct Answer
    B. Open the manual gas valve and adjust the operating the control to call for heay
    Explanation
    Once the pilot is lit and adjusted, the next action is to open the manual gas valve and adjust the operating control to call for heat. This allows the gas to flow into the burner and the operating control to signal the burner to ignite and produce heat.

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  • 35. 

    On gas fired equipment a gas-air flow ratio should be adjusted to obtain the maximum excess air with an

    • A.

      6% carbon dioxide (CO2) in the flue gas

    • B.

      8% CO2 in the flue gas

    • C.

      10% CO2 in the flue gas

    • D.

      12% CO2 in the flue gas

    Correct Answer
    B. 8% CO2 in the flue gas
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8% CO2 in the flue gas. The gas-air flow ratio should be adjusted to obtain this level of CO2 in the flue gas because it indicates the optimal combustion efficiency. A higher CO2 level indicates that the combustion process is more complete, resulting in less wasted fuel and lower emissions. However, if the CO2 level is too high, it may indicate insufficient air supply, which can lead to incomplete combustion and the production of harmful pollutants. Therefore, 8% CO2 is the ideal balance to achieve maximum efficiency and minimize emissions.

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  • 36. 

    The most commonly used gas pressure measuring devices are the

    • A.

      Fluid and diaphragm devices

    • B.

      Solenoid and manometer devices

    • C.

      Bourdon and manometer devices

    • D.

      Manometer and fluid devices

    Correct Answer
    C. Bourdon and manometer devices
    Explanation
    Bourdon and manometer devices are the most commonly used gas pressure measuring devices. Bourdon devices are mechanical instruments that use a curved tube to measure pressure, while manometer devices use a column of liquid to measure pressure. These devices are widely used in various industries and applications to accurately measure gas pressure.

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  • 37. 

    How is the gas pressure regulator adjusted to decrease the gas pressure to a burner?

    • A.

      Push the pressure adjusting disc in

    • B.

      Push the pressure adjusting disc out

    • C.

      Screw the pressure adjusting disk clockwise

    • D.

      Screw the pressure adjusting disk counterclockwise

    Correct Answer
    D. Screw the pressure adjusting disk counterclockwise
    Explanation
    To decrease the gas pressure to a burner, the gas pressure regulator is adjusted by screwing the pressure adjusting disk counterclockwise. This action reduces the tension on the regulator spring, allowing the valve to open less and restrict the flow of gas, resulting in a decrease in pressure.

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  • 38. 

    When checking a thermocouple with a direct current (DC) millivolt meter the positive terminal lead is clamped on the

    • A.

      Very end of the thermocouple

    • B.

      Side of the gas valve

    • C.

      Pilot bracket

    • D.

      Capillary

    Correct Answer
    D. Capillary
    Explanation
    The capillary is the correct answer because when checking a thermocouple with a DC millivolt meter, the positive terminal lead is clamped on the capillary. The capillary is a small tube that connects the gas valve to the thermocouple. By clamping the positive terminal lead on the capillary, the millivolt meter can measure the voltage generated by the thermocouple, which is used to determine if the thermocouple is functioning properly.

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  • 39. 

    What would cause a gas pressure regulator vent to leak gas?

    • A.

      Obstruction on the valve seat

    • B.

      Hole in the diaphragm

    • C.

      Spring tention set to high

    • D.

      Spring tention set to low

    Correct Answer
    B. Hole in the diaphragm
    Explanation
    A hole in the diaphragm of a gas pressure regulator would cause the vent to leak gas. The diaphragm is a flexible membrane that helps regulate the flow of gas. If there is a hole in the diaphragm, it would no longer be able to effectively control the gas flow, resulting in a leak.

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  • 40. 

    The conversion of fuel oil to a gaseous fuel is called

    • A.

      Atomization

    • B.

      Vaporization

    • C.

      Gaseousization

    • D.

      Combustion

    Correct Answer
    B. Vaporization
    Explanation
    Vaporization refers to the process of converting a liquid fuel, such as fuel oil, into a gaseous state. This process involves the application of heat, which causes the fuel molecules to gain enough energy to break their intermolecular bonds and transition from a liquid to a gas. Vaporization is an essential step in the combustion process, as it allows the fuel to mix with air more efficiently, leading to a more complete and efficient combustion reaction. Atomization, on the other hand, refers to the process of breaking up a liquid fuel into small droplets, while gaseousization is not a recognized term in the context of fuel conversion.

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  • 41. 

    What are used on oil burners to give air a swirling motion to provide more intimate mixture of the air and oil and aids in flame shape?

    • A.

      Shutters

    • B.

      Dampers

    • C.

      Registers

    • D.

      Turbulators

    Correct Answer
    D. Turbulators
    Explanation
    Turbulators are used on oil burners to give air a swirling motion, which helps in achieving a more intimate mixture of air and oil. This swirling motion aids in shaping the flame and improving combustion efficiency. Shutters, dampers, and registers are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not provide the same level of air and oil mixing as turbulators.

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  • 42. 

    What grades of fuel oil are used for vaporizing oil burners?

    • A.

      No 1 or No 2

    • B.

      No 2 or No 4

    • C.

      No 4 or No 5

    • D.

      No 5 or No 6

    Correct Answer
    A. No 1 or No 2
    Explanation
    The grades of fuel oil used for vaporizing oil burners are No 1 or No 2. This means that either No 1 or No 2 fuel oil can be used for vaporizing oil burners.

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  • 43. 

    Air is brought in for combustion for a wick type vaporizing burner by

    • A.

      A forced blower

    • B.

      A induced blower

    • C.

      Opening the air shutters

    • D.

      A draft created by the rising combustion gases

    Correct Answer
    D. A draft created by the rising combustion gases
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a draft created by the rising combustion gases. In a wick type vaporizing burner, air is not brought in by a forced blower or an induced blower. Instead, the rising combustion gases create a draft that draws in the air needed for combustion. Opening the air shutters may help regulate the amount of air, but it is not the primary method of bringing in air for combustion in this type of burner.

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  • 44. 

    High-pressure gun-type nozzles are rated in gallons per

    • A.

      Second

    • B.

      Minute

    • C.

      Hour

    • D.

      Day

    Correct Answer
    C. Hour
    Explanation
    High-pressure gun-type nozzles are rated in gallons per hour because they are commonly used in applications where a continuous flow of water or liquid is required over an extended period of time. By measuring the output in gallons per hour, it allows users to determine the amount of liquid that can be delivered by the nozzle within a specific time frame. This rating is important for tasks such as cleaning, irrigation, or industrial processes that require a consistent and controlled flow rate.

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  • 45. 

    What determines the pattern of the oil spray that is used for a given system?

    • A.

      Design of the combustion chamber

    • B.

      Design of the nozzle

    • C.

      The amount of oil pressure

    • D.

      The grade of oil used

    Correct Answer
    A. Design of the combustion chamber
    Explanation
    The pattern of the oil spray used in a given system is determined by the design of the combustion chamber. The combustion chamber is responsible for mixing the fuel and air, as well as igniting the mixture. The design of the combustion chamber affects the flow and distribution of the oil spray, which in turn affects the combustion process. Therefore, the design of the combustion chamber plays a crucial role in determining the pattern of the oil spray.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following are the characteristic parts of a rotary oil burner?

    • A.

      Nozzle and high-speed motors

    • B.

      Low-speed motors and air nozzles

    • C.

      Cups and high-speed motors

    • D.

      Low-speed motors and cups

    Correct Answer
    C. Cups and high-speed motors
    Explanation
    The characteristic parts of a rotary oil burner are cups and high-speed motors. Cups are responsible for holding the oil and delivering it to the burner, while high-speed motors are used to rotate the cups and create a fine mist of oil for combustion. The other options mentioned, such as nozzles and low-speed motors, are not typically associated with rotary oil burners.

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  • 47. 

    The shape of the flame can be altered from short and bushy to long and narrow in a horizontal rotary burner by

    • A.

      Interchangable cups and changing fan speeds

    • B.

      Interchangable cups and air nozzles

    • C.

      Changing pump pressure and fan speed

    • D.

      Changing pump pressure and air nozzles

    Correct Answer
    B. Interchangable cups and air nozzles
    Explanation
    The shape of the flame in a horizontal rotary burner can be altered by using interchangeable cups and air nozzles. By changing the cups, which control the fuel flow, and the air nozzles, which control the air flow, the size and shape of the flame can be adjusted. This allows for flexibility in achieving different flame characteristics, from short and bushy to long and narrow. The combination of interchangeable cups and air nozzles provides the necessary control over both fuel and air supply to modify the flame shape as desired.

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  • 48. 

    The firing rate of small combination burners may be

    • A.

      Low and high firing

    • B.

      Variable firing

    • C.

      Straight on-off firing

    • D.

      Timed delay firing

    Correct Answer
    C. Straight on-off firing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "straight on-off firing". This means that the small combination burners have a firing rate that is either fully on or fully off, with no variability in between. This type of firing is often used in applications where a constant and consistent flame is required, such as in industrial processes or heating systems.

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  • 49. 

    What component on a gas valve train does the oil pump eliminate on an oil valve train?

    • A.

      Safety shutoff valve (SSOV)

    • B.

      Pressure regulator valve (PRV)

    • C.

      High pressure control

    • D.

      Low pressure control

    Correct Answer
    B. Pressure regulator valve (PRV)
    Explanation
    The oil pump eliminates the need for a pressure regulator valve (PRV) on an oil valve train. The oil pump is responsible for supplying oil to the system, and it controls the pressure of the oil flow. Therefore, there is no need for a separate PRV to regulate the pressure in the system.

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  • 50. 

    What positions are the oil valves when starting up an oil burner?

    • A.

      Open the supply valve and close the return valve

    • B.

      Close the supply valve and open the return valve

    • C.

      Open both valves

    • D.

      Close both valves

    Correct Answer
    C. Open both valves
    Explanation
    When starting up an oil burner, it is necessary to open both valves. This allows the supply valve to provide fuel to the burner, while the return valve allows any excess or unused fuel to be circulated back to the fuel tank. By opening both valves, the oil burner can receive the necessary fuel supply and operate efficiently.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Enorab
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