Ure 2f051 Volume II(Aircraft)

72 Questions | Total Attempts: 913

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2f051 Quizzes & Trivia

Unit Review Exercise2F051Volume 2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which agency acts as the United States Air Force's service control point?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency

    • C. 

      Defense Energy Support Center

    • D. 

      Defense energy support center regions

  • 2. 
    Who ensures complete accountability and responsibility for the handling of bulk petroleum fuels at each Air Force base?
    • A. 

      Defense Energy Support Center

    • B. 

      Air Force Petroleum Angency

    • C. 

      Fuels management teams

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 3. 
    Who acts as the first line of defense in fuel quality assurance?
    • A. 

      Air Force Petroleum Agency

    • B. 

      Fuels management teams

    • C. 

      Fuels laboratory

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 4. 
    Waiting or current defuels are displayed on the BSM-E logsheet in what color text?
    • A. 

      Red

    • B. 

      Blue

    • C. 

      Gray

    • D. 

      Black

  • 5. 
    Which BSM-E status board links hydrant spots to outlets and outlets to tanks?
    • A. 

      Move

    • B. 

      Hydrants

    • C. 

      Locations

    • D. 

      General purpose

  • 6. 
    When dispatching an operator to refuel an aircraft, a fuels controller must provide all the following information to an operator except the
    • A. 

      Authorized delivery point

    • B. 

      Grade of fuel to be serviced

    • C. 

      Estimated quantity of the refuel

    • D. 

      Refueling vehicle registration number

  • 7. 
    Which function key should be used to enter a home station aircraft request in the BSM-E logsheet?
    • A. 

      F2

    • B. 

      F3

    • C. 

      F4

    • D. 

      F6

  • 8. 
    What method is used t extract data from BSM-E databases?
    • A. 

      Queries

    • B. 

      Responses

    • C. 

      Executions

    • D. 

      Resolutions

  • 9. 
    Which Fuels Manager window allows operators to modify tank parameters?
    • A. 

      Graphics

    • B. 

      Tank Detail

    • C. 

      Tank Group

    • D. 

      Real-Time Reports

  • 10. 
    What does a non flashing color in the Fuels Manager alarm toolbar indicate?
    • A. 

      No alarm

    • B. 

      An acknowledged alarm

    • C. 

      An active unacknowledged alarm

    • D. 

      An unacknowledged alarm condition has returned to normal

  • 11. 
    What type of determinable variance should a product loss caused by a pipeline rupture be categorized as?
    • A. 

      Peacetime loss

    • B. 

      Major disaster

    • C. 

      Wartime loss

    • D. 

      Combat loss

  • 12. 
    Who within the fuels management flight os responsible for reviewing aircraft flying schedules and organizing work shifts to meet fuel support requirments?
    • A. 

      Fuels management team

    • B. 

      Mobile refueling supervisor

    • C. 

      Fuels operation superintendent

    • D. 

      Fuels distribution non-commissioned officer in charge

  • 13. 
    In order to verify billing data, all VIL key requests should be coordinated through the
    • A. 

      Responsible officer

    • B. 

      Property administrator

    • C. 

      Defense fuel support point

    • D. 

      Unit financial resource manager

  • 14. 
    All of the following items must be contained in each servicing clipboard except
    • A. 

      SF 91

    • B. 

      AF Form 1232

    • C. 

      DD Form 1898

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 422

  • 15. 
    What are the color coding requirements for JP-8 + 100 vehicle clipboards?
    • A. 

      Yellow clipboard with green stripes

    • B. 

      Brown clipboard with green stripes

    • C. 

      Yellow clipboard with blue stripes

    • D. 

      Brown clipboard with blue stripes

  • 16. 
    Responsibility for maintaining radio transmission discipline over the radio net rests on the fuels
    • A. 

      Controllers

    • B. 

      Management team

    • C. 

      Information service center superintendent

    • D. 

      Service center non-commissioned officer in charge

  • 17. 
    A fuels controller must notify all of the following of disaster or other emergency incidents except the
    • A. 

      Wing command post

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Fuels management flight

    • D. 

      Wing safety office

  • 18. 
    What type of sampling device is primarily used to obtain samples frombarrels for visual examination?
    • A. 

      Becon bomb sampler

    • B. 

      In-line sampler

    • C. 

      Tube thief

    • D. 

      Drum thief

  • 19. 
    Which of the following sampling devices is used for sampling pressurized systems under flow conditions?
    • A. 

      Drum thief

    • B. 

      In-line sampler

    • C. 

      Becon bomb sampler

    • D. 

      Weighted bottle sampler

  • 20. 
    After obtaining a sample with an in-line sampler, how much time should be allowed to elapse before dissembling the sampler?
    • A. 

      30 seconds

    • B. 

      60 seconds

    • C. 

      90 seconds

    • D. 

      120 seconds

  • 21. 
    What is the major cause of chemical contamination of fuel?
    • A. 

      Misuse

    • B. 

      Carelessness

    • C. 

      Lack of information

    • D. 

      Lack of coordination

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is not a light hydrovarbon contaminant that may be found in LOX?
    • A. 

      Methane

    • B. 

      Acetylene

    • C. 

      Propane

    • D. 

      Solvents

  • 23. 
    Samples are taken from a LOX storage tank and sent to the area lab to be analyzed for purity, order, and minor constituents every
    • A. 

      60 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      120 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 24. 
    Unless otherwise specified, all samples of aviation fuels submitted of off-base laboratories will be a minimum of
    • A. 

      1 gal.

    • B. 

      2 gals.

    • C. 

      3 gals.

    • D. 

      5 gals.

  • 25. 
    What type of overpacking should not be used for samples of aviation fuesl because of the potential for sample contamination?
    • A. 

      Foam rubber

    • B. 

      Vermiculite

    • C. 

      Fiberglass

    • D. 

      Perlite

  • 26. 
    What kind of dye, if any, is used to aid in distingushing water from fuel during a visual sample?
    • A. 

      Acid dye

    • B. 

      Reactive dye

    • C. 

      Food coloring

    • D. 

      None

  • 27. 
    A 100 mesh strainer can remove particles that are
    • A. 

      75 microns or smaller

    • B. 

      75 microns or larger

    • C. 

      150 microns or smaller

    • D. 

      150 microns or larger

  • 28. 
    Which recoverable and waste petroleum product category includes turbine engine oil?
    • A. 

      Category 1

    • B. 

      Category 2

    • C. 

      Category 4

    • D. 

      Category 5

  • 29. 
    At a minimum, reclaimed product that has been returned to storage should be filtered how many times prior to re-issue to aircraft?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 30. 
    The API gravity test is most accurate when the fuel temperature is near
    • A. 

      30° F

    • B. 

      50° F

    • C. 

      60° F

    • D. 

      90° F

  • 31. 
    What type of cylinder is used to preform the API gravity test?
    • A. 

      Graduated

    • B. 

      Measuring

    • C. 

      Wide-mouth

    • D. 

      Pharmaceutical

  • 32. 
    The correct place to take a reading for the API gravity test is at the
    • A. 

      Top of the hydrometer

    • B. 

      Bottom of the cylinder

    • C. 

      Bottom of the hydrometer

    • D. 

      Point at which the principle surface of the liquid cuts the hydrometer scale

  • 33. 
    Which testing method is the most accurate way to determine total solid content in a fuels sample?
    • A. 

      Bottle method

    • B. 

      Correlation sample

    • C. 

      Single weight monitor

    • D. 

      Matched weight monitor

  • 34. 
    Which of the following products is used to rinse new sample containers prior to use?
    • A. 

      Petroleum ether

    • B. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • C. 

      Filtered turbine fuel

    • D. 

      Demineralized water

  • 35. 
    How offten must electrical continuity tests be performed on lab filtration equipment?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Semiannually

  • 36. 
    At what temperature are membrane filters dried prior to use for a bottle method test?
    • A. 

      97° C

    • B. 

      97° F

    • C. 

      194° C

    • D. 

      194° F

  • 37. 
    When performing a bottle method analysis, on what type of fuel is a flow reducer ring not used?
    • A. 

      JP-7

    • B. 

      JP-8

    • C. 

      JP-4

    • D. 

      JP-5

  • 38. 
    When conducting field analysis for solids using color and particle assessment method, what device is used to remove residual fuel from a single filter monitor?
    • A. 

      Metal syringe

    • B. 

      Vacuum flask

    • C. 

      Roto-Vap flask

    • D. 

      Industrial syringe

  • 39. 
    What type of dye is used for the AEL detector pad?
    • A. 

      Zinc chloride

    • B. 

      Phthalic anhydride

    • C. 

      Sodium fluorescein

    • D. 

      Methanesulfonic acid

  • 40. 
    How often should printed standards for the AEL test be replaced?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 41. 
    When should the Gammon Aqua Glo water detector be calibrated?
    • A. 

      Daily prior to the first use

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

  • 42. 
    How much fuel should be allowed to pass through a filter separator vessel when obtaining a sample for fiber analysis?
    • A. 

      500 gals.

    • B. 

      1,000 gals.

    • C. 

      2,000 gals.

    • D. 

      4,000 gals.

  • 43. 
    When cleaning sample bottles for use in fiber analysis, how many times should the bottles be rinsed?
    • A. 

      Once

    • B. 

      Twice

    • C. 

      Three times

    • D. 

      Four times

  • 44. 
    Cleaning of the probe before conductivity testing is not required
    • A. 

      For new probes

    • B. 

      If the probe has been cleaned in the past 48 hours

    • C. 

      When the probe has been stored in a sealed package

    • D. 

      When the conductivity meter can be zeroed with the probe attached

  • 45. 
    What type of container should not be used when obtaining conductivity samples?
    • A. 

      Glass

    • B. 

      Metal

    • C. 

      Plastic

    • D. 

      Insulated

  • 46. 
    Within how many minutes after sampling is it preferable to obtain a fuel conductivity reading?
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      2 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      10 minutes

  • 47. 
    What is the maximum amount of time that can elapse between obtaining a conductivity sample and taking the conductivity reading?
    • A. 

      24 hours

    • B. 

      12 hours

    • C. 

      6 hours

    • D. 

      3 hours

  • 48. 
    When quipped with the proper batteries, the model 1152 conductivity meter is approved for use in
    • A. 

      Indoor locations

    • B. 

      Outdoor locations

    • C. 

      Vapor-free locations

    • D. 

      Hazardous locations

  • 49. 
    What cleaning agent should be used to clean conductivity probes?
    • A. 

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • B. 

      Pettroleum ether

    • C. 

      Turbine fuel

    • D. 

      Acetone

  • 50. 
    When performing a FSII analysis, how long should the fuel/water mixture in the separatory funnel be shaken?
    • A. 

      1 minute

    • B. 

      3 minutes

    • C. 

      5 minutes

    • D. 

      6 minutes

  • 51. 
    During a flash point analysis, what action must be taken if the sample flashes upon first application of the flame?
    • A. 

      Perform a new flash point test

    • B. 

      Raise the room temperature

    • C. 

      Increase fuel temperature

    • D. 

      Record the temperature

  • 52. 
    What percentage of wax does DF-2 contain?
    • A. 

      3 to 4 percent

    • B. 

      6 to 8 percent

    • C. 

      9 to 11 percent

    • D. 

      12 to 16 percent

  • 53. 
    To whom should a request for winter grade diesel fuel be submitted?
    • A. 

      DESC

    • B. 

      AFPET

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      DESC region

  • 54. 
    Bases that experience cold weather problems should conduct cloud point analysis on all DF-2 received between what months?
    • A. 

      December through February

    • B. 

      December through March

    • C. 

      October through February

    • D. 

      October through March

  • 55. 
    What form is used as a temporary means of identifying conditions that could result in death, disability or a lost workday?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979

    • B. 

      AF Form 980

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 979

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 980

  • 56. 
    Who is responsible for coordinating the placement of danger tags with the appropriate agency?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge fuels laboratory

    • B. 

      Fuels information service center superintendent

    • C. 

      Fuel management team members

    • D. 

      Danger tag program monitor

  • 57. 
    Verification of a RAC should be accomplished as soon as possible and should not exceed
    • A. 

      5 days

    • B. 

      7 days

    • C. 

      10 days

    • D. 

      14 days

  • 58. 
    What form is used as a temporary means of warning personnel against potential hazards or to caution against unsafe practieces?
    • A. 

      AF Form 979

    • B. 

      AF Form 980

    • C. 

      DD Form 979

    • D. 

      DD Form 980

  • 59. 
    All of the following situations would warrant quality control hold except
    • A. 

      A hose cart that is due sample for solids

    • B. 

      A mobile refueling unit that goes overdue sample

    • C. 

      A mobile refueling unit services an aircraft that later crashes

    • D. 

      A hose cart returns to service after have filter elements replaced

  • 60. 
    Who within the fuels management flight is responsible for maintaining the keys to the QC hold box?
    • A. 

      Fuels information sevice center superintendent

    • B. 

      Fuels service center personnel

    • C. 

      Fuel management team

    • D. 

      Fuels laboratory personnel

  • 61. 
    Equipment on QC hold will not be used for servicing
    • A. 

      Unless approved by the fuel management team

    • B. 

      Except under emergency conditions as approved by the parent MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Until laboratory personnel have completed required samples with satisfactory results

    • D. 

      Without first consulting the Air Force Petroleum Agency Operations Support Directorate

  • 62. 
    Who is responsible for reviewing laboratory reports and BSM-E data to identify significant trend patterns in fuels quality?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge fuels laboratory

    • B. 

      Feuls information service center superintendent

    • C. 

      Compliance and Environmental superintendant

    • D. 

      Fuel management team

  • 63. 
    Supply and equipment budget forecasts are coordinated through the fuel management team to the
    • A. 

      Squadron resource manager

    • B. 

      Base contracting squadron

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Group commander

  • 64. 
    Who within a fuels management flight is responsible for managing the GPC program?
    • A. 

      Fuels material control supervisor

    • B. 

      Fuels mobility supervisor

    • C. 

      Fuels training supervisor

    • D. 

      Fuel management team

  • 65. 
    How long should documents recieved and/or generated by a GPC cardholder to support transactions be retained?
    • A. 

      12 months

    • B. 

      24 months

    • C. 

      36 months

    • D. 

      48 months

  • 66. 
    How often should GPC cardholders reconcile the statement of accoutn via the bank's electronic access system?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Daily

    • C. 

      Weekly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 67. 
    When making a telephone purchase, GPC cardholders should inform vendors to include all of the following information on a shipping document except
    • A. 

      Cardholder's name

    • B. 

      GPC account number

    • C. 

      Cardholder's telephone number

    • D. 

      The term "Government-wide Purchase Card"

  • 68. 
    The fuels mobility supervisor works in conjuction with whom to ensure the appropriate special experience identifier is awarded to personnel completing specialized training?
    • A. 

      Fuels training supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron training manager

    • C. 

      Base formal training office

    • D. 

      Major command

  • 69. 
    Retrainees must meet all of the following requirements for award of the 5-skill level except
    • A. 

      Recommendation from thier supervisor

    • B. 

      Completion of 5-level career development courses

    • C. 

      Completion of a minimum of 15 months on-the-job training

    • D. 

      Completion of all 5-skill level core tasks outlined in the specialty training standard

  • 70. 
    What form is completed for skill level awards when all up-grade-training requirements have been met?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623

    • B. 

      AF Form 797

    • C. 

      AF Form 1098

    • D. 

      AF Form 2096

  • 71. 
    Core task waiver letters for active duty personnel should be approved by
    • A. 

      HQ United States Air Force

    • B. 

      Squadron training manager

    • C. 

      Base formal training

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 72. 
    How often should all training records be reviewed? 
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Semianually