2A651 CDC Volume 1 UREs

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2A651 CDC Volume 1 UREs - Quiz


Quiz will randomly choose 100 questions from all 5 volumes of CDCs.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

    • A.

      Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

    • B.

      Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

    • C.

      Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance

    • D.

      Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance." This answer includes all the necessary squadrons that form a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

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  • 2. 

    (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?

    • A.

      Supervisors.

    • B.

      Flight Commanders.

    • C.

      Group Commanders.

    • D.

      Squadron commanders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisors.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Supervisors. QA (Quality Assurance) recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their team and ensuring that processes are followed correctly. QA identifies any deviations or issues and provides recommendations to supervisors on how to address them and implement corrective actions. Supervisors then have the authority to implement these actions and ensure that the necessary changes are made to improve quality and compliance.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

    • A.

      Operations support center.

    • B.

      Logistics support squadron.

    • C.

      Operations support squadron.

    • D.

      Maintenance operations center.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance operations center.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Maintenance operations center. The maintenance operations center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft maintenance is carried out efficiently and effectively, and they coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations.

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  • 4. 

    (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

    • A.

      Debrief.

    • B.

      Training.

    • C.

      Specialist.

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Specialist.
    Explanation
    When assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your specialized skills and knowledge in engine maintenance and repair make you best suited for this particular flight within the squadron.

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  • 5. 

    (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

    • A.

      NCO academy.

    • B.

      On-the-job training.

    • C.

      Career development course.

    • D.

      Task qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career development course.
    Explanation
    A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It provides employees with the necessary tools and resources to develop their abilities and excel in their current role. Unlike on-the-job training, which is more focused on practical skills, a career development course offers a more comprehensive and structured approach to learning. NCO academy and task qualification training may be relevant for specific roles or positions, but they do not specifically address the knowledge portion of the job.

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  • 6. 

    (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

    • A.

      24.

    • B.

      36.

    • C.

      48.

    • D.

      60.

    Correct Answer
    C. 48.
    Explanation
    After being in the Air Force for 48 months, you are eligible to attend the ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that you have gained enough experience and knowledge in the Air Force to take on a leadership role and attend the school.

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  • 7. 

    (003) Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?

    • A.

      ORM.

    • B.

      MSDS.

    • C.

      AFOSH.

    • D.

      Flightline safety.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH.
    Explanation
    AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. The purpose of AFOSH is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. This program is responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and practices to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. AFOSH covers a wide range of safety and health topics, including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and compliance with federal regulations. By implementing AFOSH guidelines, the Air Force aims to protect its employees and promote a culture of safety and well-being.

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  • 8. 

    (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

    • A.

      91.

    • B.

      66.

    • C.

      127.

    • D.

      161.

    Correct Answer
    A. 91.
    Explanation
    The number 91 is the answer because it is the next number in the sequence. The question does not provide any context or information to suggest any other logical explanation.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

    • A.

      00-5-1.

    • B.

      00-20-1.

    • C.

      21-101.

    • D.

      36-2108.

    Correct Answer
    C. 21-101.
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

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  • 10. 

    (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

    • A.

      Lock and pin the work stands.

    • B.

      Check the AFTO Form 781K.

    • C.

      Check the intake for FOD.

    • D.

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
    Explanation
    Before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft to ensure that it is safe to proceed. This is because there may be ongoing maintenance or tasks being carried out by other personnel that could pose a safety risk if not taken into consideration. By communicating with others, you can ensure that all necessary precautions have been taken and that it is safe to proceed with the maintenance.

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  • 11. 

    (004) How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

    • A.

      20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

    • B.

      15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

    • C.

      10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

    • D.

      5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
    Explanation
    The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

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  • 12. 

    (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

    • A.

      100.

    • B.

      200.

    • C.

      300.

    • D.

      400.

    Correct Answer
    B. 200.
    Explanation
    The minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200.

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  • 13. 

    (005) Fod is normally caused by

    • A.

      People.

    • B.

      Animals.

    • C.

      Weather.

    • D.

      Mechanical failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. People.
    Explanation
    Fod is normally caused by people.

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  • 14. 

    (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

    • A.

      Quality assurance.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Production supervisor.

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign object debris from causing damage to aircraft or equipment. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting regular inspections, and addressing any issues or concerns related to FOD. The squadron commander, production supervisor, and quality assurance may have specific roles and responsibilities within the FOD program, but the maintenance group commander is ultimately responsible for its overall management.

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  • 15. 

    (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

    • A.

      Acetone.

    • B.

      Toluene.

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Carbon monoxide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon monoxide.
    Explanation
    During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Among the options provided, carbon monoxide is the most likely gas that one may be exposed to. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by the combustion of carbon-based fuels. It can be present in the exhaust fumes of vehicles and machinery, including aircraft engines. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can be dangerous as it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its ability to carry oxygen. Therefore, it is important to take necessary precautions and ensure proper ventilation to avoid exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

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  • 16. 

    (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

    • A.

      Aerosols.

    • B.

      Liquids.

    • C.

      Solids.

    • D.

      Gases.

    Correct Answer
    D. Gases.
    Explanation
    Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Gases have the ability to easily enter the respiratory system through inhalation, bypassing any barriers such as the skin or digestive system. Once inhaled, gases can quickly be absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body, leading to rapid toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or absorption through the skin, which can delay the toxic reaction.

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  • 17. 

    (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

    • A.

      Safety.

    • B.

      Hospital.

    • C.

      Supervisor.

    • D.

      Environmental.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves in hazardous situations. The supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment and ensuring that all employees are aware of and follow proper safety protocols.

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  • 18. 

    (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

    • A.

      Explosions.

    • B.

      Unauthorized entry.

    • C.

      Overflow of materials.

    • D.

      Mixing of unlike materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unauthorized entry.
    Explanation
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the area. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents and mishandling of hazardous materials, which can pose significant risks to both human health and the environment. By preventing unauthorized access, the storage area can maintain control over who enters the area, ensuring that only trained and authorized personnel are allowed in. This helps to minimize the chances of accidents, spills, or intentional misuse of hazardous materials.

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  • 19. 

    (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

    • A.

      Dilution.

    • B.

      Incineration.

    • C.

      Land disposal.

    • D.

      Biodegradation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilution.
    Explanation
    Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Incineration involves burning the waste at high temperatures, land disposal involves burying the waste in designated areas, and biodegradation involves breaking down the waste through natural processes. However, in this case, dilution is considered the correct answer as it is commonly used for hazardous waste disposal.

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  • 20. 

    (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

    • A.

      Incineration.

    • B.

      Land disposal.

    • C.

      Biodegradation.

    • D.

      Chemico-physical treatment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incineration.
    Explanation
    The Air Force is unlikely to justify incineration as a method for hazardous waste disposal. This suggests that there are reasons or factors that make incineration an unsuitable option. It could be due to environmental concerns, cost-effectiveness, or potential health risks associated with incineration. Without further context, it is difficult to determine the exact reasoning behind this statement.

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  • 21. 

    (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is

    • A.

      Repair.

    • B.

      Service.

    • C.

      Disposal.

    • D.

      Retrieval.

    Correct Answer
    C. Disposal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is disposal. In a supply mission, one of the specialized functions is to dispose of any waste or unused materials. This ensures that the mission is efficient and that any unnecessary items are properly handled and removed from the mission area. Disposal is an important aspect of supply missions to maintain cleanliness and organization.

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  • 22. 

    (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

    • A.

      Base system.

    • B.

      Weapons system.

    • C.

      Inventory system.

    • D.

      Geographical system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Weapons system.
    Explanation
    The RSS manages supply from a weapons system perspective, which means that it focuses on the specific needs and requirements related to the supply of weapons and related equipment. This perspective ensures that the RSS can effectively track, maintain, and distribute weapons and associated resources to support military operations and readiness. By managing supply from a weapons system perspective, the RSS can optimize the availability and functionality of weapons, ensuring that they are ready for use when needed.

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  • 23. 

    (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

    • A.

      Depot Level Repair System.

    • B.

      Repair Cycle Support System.

    • C.

      Standard Base Supply System.

    • D.

      Precious Metals Recovery System.

    Correct Answer
    B. Repair Cycle Support System.
    Explanation
    The Repair Cycle Support System is the Base Supply function that manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and managing the repair process, including the identification of repair requirements, sourcing repair parts, and tracking the status of repairs. It ensures that equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner, minimizing downtime and maximizing operational readiness. The other options, Depot Level Repair System, Standard Base Supply System, and Precious Metals Recovery System, do not specifically focus on managing the repair cycle system.

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  • 24. 

    (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

    • A.

      Overhaul.

    • B.

      Retest OK.

    • C.

      Time change.

    • D.

      Repair cycle support.

    Correct Answer
    A. Overhaul.
    Explanation
    Selected equipment items that are returned to the depot because of their design characteristics, function, or application are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific items need to undergo a thorough inspection, repair, and maintenance process to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet the required standards.

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?

    • A.

      Priority Monitor Report (D18).

    • B.

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C.

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

    • D.

      Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

    Correct Answer
    B. Daily Document Register (D04).
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This document allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that no document is missed or overlooked. It provides a comprehensive overview of the documents processed and helps in maintaining accurate records and tracking the progress of various transactions. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically serve the purpose of reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

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  • 26. 

    (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to nmerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?

    • A.

      Mission.

    • B.

      Contract.

    • C.

      Location.

    • D.

      Type of aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission.
    Explanation
    Each organization has a different mission, which determines their specific needs and priorities. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization's mission requires different parts and supplies to fulfill their specific objectives.

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  • 27. 

    (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

    • A.

      Origin of an item.

    • B.

      Why the item broke.

    • C.

      How long the item will take to repair.

    • D.

      The responsible reparable processing center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Origin of an item.
    Explanation
    A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and aircraft. By filling out this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information for maintenance and accountability purposes.

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  • 28. 

    (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

    • A.

      AFMAN 23-110.

    • B.

      TO 00-20-2.

    • C.

      AFI 91-301.

    • D.

      TO 00-5-1.

    Correct Answer
    B. TO 00-20-2.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-20-2. This technical order provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. It is a specific reference that provides detailed instructions on how to properly complete the form, ensuring accurate and consistent documentation.

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  • 29. 

    (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

    • A.

      AF IMT 2005.

    • B.

      AFTO Form 349.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 350.

    • D.

      DD Form 1574.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 2005.
    Explanation
    If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. AF IMT 2005 is the form used for requesting and tracking parts and supplies in the Air Force. It allows personnel to document and authorize the procurement of necessary items, even in situations where the usual systems are not accessible.

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  • 30. 

    (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

    • A.

      23-110.

    • B.

      23-254.

    • C.

      91-110.

    • D.

      91-254.

    Correct Answer
    A. 23-110.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23-110 because it is the only option that follows the format of AF IMT (Air Force Instructional Manual) codes. The other options do not follow this format and are therefore incorrect.

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  • 31. 

    (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

    • A.

      DD Form 1574.

    • B.

      DD Form 1575.

    • C.

      DD Form 1577-2.

    • D.

      DD Form 1577-3.

    Correct Answer
    B. DD Form 1575.
    Explanation
    DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used to document items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is used to keep track of the status of the item and to ensure that it is properly maintained and repaired. It is important to attach this form to the item so that it can be easily identified and tracked while it is awaiting parts or maintenance.

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  • 32. 

    (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specificed peroid of time?

    • A.

      Supply.

    • B.

      Shelf-life.

    • C.

      Inspection.

    • D.

      Bench stock.

    Correct Answer
    B. Shelf-life.
    Explanation
    Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product can be stored and remain suitable for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time, indicating that it will not deteriorate or become unusable before that time period expires. This is particularly important for perishable items or items with specific storage requirements to maintain their quality and effectiveness. Supply, inspection, and bench stock do not specifically address the need for assigning a storage time period.

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  • 33. 

    (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

    • A.

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

    • B.

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

    • C.

      Has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life.

    • D.

      Should be inspected or tested.

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life.
    Explanation
    A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. It is important to adhere to the shelf-life guidelines to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the item.

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  • 34. 

    (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency

    • A.

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

    • B.

      Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

    • C.

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

    • D.

      That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

    Correct Answer
    C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
    Explanation
    A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency is significant enough to pose a serious risk to the functionality or safety of the equipment or system. It is important to address and correct these types of deficiencies promptly to prevent any potential harm or loss.

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  • 35. 

    (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point

    • A.

      8.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      24.

    • D.

      72.

    Correct Answer
    C. 24.
    Explanation
    Category I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any incident or accident that falls under Category I, which includes serious incidents and accidents, must be reported to the screening point within a maximum of 24 hours. This allows for prompt investigation and assessment of the situation to ensure appropriate action is taken.

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  • 36. 

    (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

    • A.

      Shelf-life

    • B.

      Bench stock.

    • C.

      Hazardous materials.

    • D.

      Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This is because the CA/CRL (Central Authority/Controlled Resource List) is a list that contains information about all the equipment that is authorized for use in a particular organization. Therefore, it is necessary for the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data to be reflected on the CA/CRL.

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  • 37. 

    (014) To become an equipment custodian. you must be appointed by the

    • A.

      Shop chief.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Supply chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Commander.
    Explanation
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role, indicating that they have the power to make decisions regarding the appointment of equipment custodians. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but it is the commander who ultimately has the authority to appoint equipment custodians.

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  • 38. 

    (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the

    • A.

      Sectionalization of the TO.

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • C.

      Category and type of equipment covered by the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment type in the TO.

    Correct Answer
    C. Category and type of equipment covered by the TO.
    Explanation
    The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment covered by the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific equipment that the technical order is referring to. It helps to categorize and identify the equipment for which the instructions are provided in the TO.

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  • 39. 

    (015) The second part of a TO number gives the

    • A.

      TO classification.

    • B.

      Type of equipment in the TO.

    • C.

      Type of instructions found in the TO.

    • D.

      Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

    Correct Answer
    D. Model and series for equipment type in the TO.
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that the TO number can give specific details about the particular model and series of equipment that the instructions are meant for. This information is important for identifying and selecting the correct TO for a specific type of equipment.

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  • 40. 

    (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

    • A.

      Index.

    • B.

      Preliminary.

    • C.

      Methods and procedure.

    • D.

      Operational and maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Index.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Index. In an index, you can find a list of TOs (Technical Orders) for a specific category of equipment. The index serves as a reference guide that helps users locate the appropriate TO for the equipment they are working with. It provides a systematic arrangement of TOs based on their categories, making it easier for users to navigate and find the relevant information they need.

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  • 41. 

    (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

    • A.

      General equipment.

    • B.

      General system.

    • C.

      Fault isolation.

    • D.

      Job guide.

    Correct Answer
    D. Job guide.
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions on how to carry out specific maintenance actions on equipment or systems.

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  • 42. 

    (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?

    • A.

      Rapid action changes.

    • B.

      Operational supplements.

    • C.

      Urgent recommendations.

    • D.

      Time compliance technical order.

    Correct Answer
    C. Urgent recommendations.
    Explanation
    Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide additional data to support maintenance and operation of equipment. This can include rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders. However, urgent recommendations are not typically included in IETMs. These recommendations are usually communicated separately and require immediate attention due to the urgency of the situation.

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  • 43. 

    (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

    • A.

      Introduction.

    • B.

      Numerical index.

    • C.

      Group assembly parts list.

    • D.

      Reference designation index.

    Correct Answer
    A. Introduction.
    Explanation
    The introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and background information about the IPB, including explanations of the various codes and symbols used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the IPB effectively.

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  • 44. 

    (018) What category of TCTO is isuued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

    • A.

      Record.

    • B.

      Urgent action.

    • C.

      Routine action.

    • D.

      Immediate action.

    Correct Answer
    D. Immediate action.
    Explanation
    Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of personnel.

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  • 45. 

    (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

    • A.

      00-5-1.

    • B.

      00-5-2.

    • C.

      00-20-1.

    • D.

      00-20-2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.

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  • 46. 

    (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

    • A.

      The text or picture will me marked in color.

    • B.

      The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

    • C.

      The word "changed" will be marked on the text or picture.

    • D.

      A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

    Correct Answer
    D. A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This indicates that the text or picture has been changed.

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  • 47. 

    (020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

    • A.

      Job guides.

    • B.

      Work cards.

    • C.

      Preliminary TOs.

    • D.

      Methods and procedures TOs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Preliminary TOs.
    Explanation
    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.

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  • 48. 

    (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

    • A.

      Initiator.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Supervisor of initiator.

    • D.

      Product improvement office.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor of initiator.
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor is in charge of verifying the accuracy and completeness of the form before it is submitted. They are also responsible for reviewing the information provided by the initiator and ensuring that it meets the necessary requirements.

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  • 49. 

    (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

    • A.

      Urgent.

    • B.

      Special.

    • C.

      Routine.

    • D.

      Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    A. Urgent.
    Explanation
    Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation under the "Urgent" category is necessary when there is a potential risk of personnel injury or damage to equipment or property if the issue is not corrected. This indicates that immediate action is required to prevent any harm or further damage.

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  • 50. 

    (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?

    • A.

      Evident and hidden.

    • B.

      Potential and evident.

    • C.

      Hidden and functional.

    • D.

      Potential and functional.

    Correct Answer
    D. Potential and functional.
    Explanation
    The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system.

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