2A651 CDC Volume 1 UREs

1. (001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?

Debrief.

Training.

Specialist.

Deployment.

When assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your specialized skills and knowledge in engine maintenance and repair make you best suited for this particular flight within the squadron.

Explanation

When assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the Specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your specialized skills and knowledge in engine maintenance and repair make you best suited for this particular flight within the squadron.

2. (003) Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series

91.

66.

127.

161.

The number 91 is the answer because it is the next number in the sequence. The question does not provide any context or information to suggest any other logical explanation.

Explanation

The number 91 is the answer because it is the next number in the sequence. The question does not provide any context or information to suggest any other logical explanation.

3. (005) Fod is normally caused by

People.

Animals.

Weather.

Mechanical failure.

Fod is normally caused by people.

Explanation

Fod is normally caused by people.

4. (006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to

Acetone.

Toluene.

Carbon dioxide.

Carbon monoxide.

During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Among the options provided, carbon monoxide is the most likely gas that one may be exposed to. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by the combustion of carbon-based fuels. It can be present in the exhaust fumes of vehicles and machinery, including aircraft engines. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can be dangerous as it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its ability to carry oxygen. Therefore, it is important to take necessary precautions and ensure proper ventilation to avoid exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

Explanation

During flightline and test cell operations, exposure to various chemicals and gases is possible. Among the options provided, carbon monoxide is the most likely gas that one may be exposed to. Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless gas that is produced by the combustion of carbon-based fuels. It can be present in the exhaust fumes of vehicles and machinery, including aircraft engines. Inhalation of carbon monoxide can be dangerous as it binds to hemoglobin in the blood, reducing its ability to carry oxygen. Therefore, it is important to take necessary precautions and ensure proper ventilation to avoid exposure to carbon monoxide during flightline and test cell operations.

5. (007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

Safety.

Hospital.

Supervisor.

Environmental.

The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves in hazardous situations. The supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment and ensuring that all employees are aware of and follow proper safety protocols.

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained and equipped to protect themselves in hazardous situations. The supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment and ensuring that all employees are aware of and follow proper safety protocols.

6. (008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to nmerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?

Mission.

Contract.

Location.

Type of aircraft.

Each organization has a different mission, which determines their specific needs and priorities. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization's mission requires different parts and supplies to fulfill their specific objectives.

Explanation

Each organization has a different mission, which determines their specific needs and priorities. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization's mission requires different parts and supplies to fulfill their specific objectives.

7. (012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specificed peroid of time?

Supply.

Shelf-life.

Inspection.

Bench stock.

Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product can be stored and remain suitable for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time, indicating that it will not deteriorate or become unusable before that time period expires. This is particularly important for perishable items or items with specific storage requirements to maintain their quality and effectiveness. Supply, inspection, and bench stock do not specifically address the need for assigning a storage time period.

Explanation

Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product can be stored and remain suitable for use or consumption. Assigning a storage time period to an item ensures that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time, indicating that it will not deteriorate or become unusable before that time period expires. This is particularly important for perishable items or items with specific storage requirements to maintain their quality and effectiveness. Supply, inspection, and bench stock do not specifically address the need for assigning a storage time period.

8. (024) Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by

Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.

Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO.

Providing the most current TO updates to the field.

Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that the depot maintenance support helps the base-level technicians by offering them additional technical expertise and assistance in repairing equipment or systems that are beyond their own capabilities. This ensures that the base-level technicians are able to effectively maintain and repair the equipment, even if they do not have the necessary expertise or resources to do so on their own.

Explanation

Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that the depot maintenance support helps the base-level technicians by offering them additional technical expertise and assistance in repairing equipment or systems that are beyond their own capabilities. This ensures that the base-level technicians are able to effectively maintain and repair the equipment, even if they do not have the necessary expertise or resources to do so on their own.

9. What would you use to hold your toold when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

Ziplock bag.

Parts bag.

FOD bag.

Toolbag.

When you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach, the most practical solution would be to use a toolbag. A toolbag is specifically designed to hold and organize tools, making it convenient to carry them around. It typically has multiple compartments and pockets to keep tools secure and easily accessible. While a ziplock bag, parts bag, or FOD bag could temporarily hold some tools, they may not provide the same level of organization and protection as a dedicated toolbag.

Explanation

When you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach, the most practical solution would be to use a toolbag. A toolbag is specifically designed to hold and organize tools, making it convenient to carry them around. It typically has multiple compartments and pockets to keep tools secure and easily accessible. While a ziplock bag, parts bag, or FOD bag could temporarily hold some tools, they may not provide the same level of organization and protection as a dedicated toolbag.

10. (029) If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Use maximum torque.

Use a staggered sequence.

Torque from left to right.

Overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, using a staggered sequence is the correct approach. This means that instead of torquing all the bolts in a consecutive order, you should torque them in a pattern that alternates between different bolts. This helps distribute the torque evenly across all the bolts and prevents any one bolt from bearing too much load. Using a staggered sequence ensures that the bolts are tightened properly and reduces the risk of uneven tension or damage to the bolts or the object being fastened.

Explanation

When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, using a staggered sequence is the correct approach. This means that instead of torquing all the bolts in a consecutive order, you should torque them in a pattern that alternates between different bolts. This helps distribute the torque evenly across all the bolts and prevents any one bolt from bearing too much load. Using a staggered sequence ensures that the bolts are tightened properly and reduces the risk of uneven tension or damage to the bolts or the object being fastened.

11. (035) Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by

The fiber optics.

An optical illusion bundle.

A grounded extension cord.

A directly magnified light source.

The correct answer is the fiber optics. Fiber optics is a technology that uses thin strands of glass or plastic to transmit light signals. In the case of a borescope, fiber optics allows light to be transmitted from a light source to the tip of the borescope, illuminating the area being inspected. This enables the user to see inside narrow or hard-to-reach spaces without directly exposing the light source.

Explanation

The correct answer is the fiber optics. Fiber optics is a technology that uses thin strands of glass or plastic to transmit light signals. In the case of a borescope, fiber optics allows light to be transmitted from a light source to the tip of the borescope, illuminating the area being inspected. This enables the user to see inside narrow or hard-to-reach spaces without directly exposing the light source.

12. (045) Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplised?

Motor the engine to circulate the oil.

Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.

Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.

Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

Inactive engines that have been idle for more than 180 days need to undergo a preservation run and have their fuel systems preserved. This is necessary to prevent any damage or deterioration that may occur due to prolonged inactivity. The preservation run helps to circulate the oil and ensure that all components are properly lubricated. Additionally, preserving the fuel system helps to prevent any degradation or contamination of the fuel, which could cause issues when the engine is eventually started again.

Explanation

Inactive engines that have been idle for more than 180 days need to undergo a preservation run and have their fuel systems preserved. This is necessary to prevent any damage or deterioration that may occur due to prolonged inactivity. The preservation run helps to circulate the oil and ensure that all components are properly lubricated. Additionally, preserving the fuel system helps to prevent any degradation or contamination of the fuel, which could cause issues when the engine is eventually started again.

13. (003) Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?

ORM.

MSDS.

AFOSH.

Flightline safety.

AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. The purpose of AFOSH is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. This program is responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and practices to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. AFOSH covers a wide range of safety and health topics, including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and compliance with federal regulations. By implementing AFOSH guidelines, the Air Force aims to protect its employees and promote a culture of safety and well-being.

Explanation

AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. The purpose of AFOSH is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. This program is responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and practices to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace. AFOSH covers a wide range of safety and health topics, including hazard identification, risk assessment, training, and compliance with federal regulations. By implementing AFOSH guidelines, the Air Force aims to protect its employees and promote a culture of safety and well-being.

14. (004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?

100.

200.

300.

400.

The minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200.

Explanation

The minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200.

15. (006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

Aerosols.

Liquids.

Solids.

Gases.

Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Gases have the ability to easily enter the respiratory system through inhalation, bypassing any barriers such as the skin or digestive system. Once inhaled, gases can quickly be absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body, leading to rapid toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or absorption through the skin, which can delay the toxic reaction.

Explanation

Toxic materials in the form of gases are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Gases have the ability to easily enter the respiratory system through inhalation, bypassing any barriers such as the skin or digestive system. Once inhaled, gases can quickly be absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body, leading to rapid toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps such as ingestion or absorption through the skin, which can delay the toxic reaction.

16. (013) Within how many hours must Category I DR be forwarded to the screening point

8.

12.

24.

72.

Category I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any incident or accident that falls under Category I, which includes serious incidents and accidents, must be reported to the screening point within a maximum of 24 hours. This allows for prompt investigation and assessment of the situation to ensure appropriate action is taken.

Explanation

Category I DR must be forwarded to the screening point within 24 hours. This means that any incident or accident that falls under Category I, which includes serious incidents and accidents, must be reported to the screening point within a maximum of 24 hours. This allows for prompt investigation and assessment of the situation to ensure appropriate action is taken.

17. (016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?

Index.

Preliminary.

Methods and procedure.

Operational and maintenance.

The correct answer is Index. In an index, you can find a list of TOs (Technical Orders) for a specific category of equipment. The index serves as a reference guide that helps users locate the appropriate TO for the equipment they are working with. It provides a systematic arrangement of TOs based on their categories, making it easier for users to navigate and find the relevant information they need.

Explanation

The correct answer is Index. In an index, you can find a list of TOs (Technical Orders) for a specific category of equipment. The index serves as a reference guide that helps users locate the appropriate TO for the equipment they are working with. It provides a systematic arrangement of TOs based on their categories, making it easier for users to navigate and find the relevant information they need.

18. (023) When a CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?

Deployed unit.

CIRF personnel.

Supply squadron.

Transportation squadron.

CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a replacement asset is shipped to a deployed unit. This includes verifying that all necessary paperwork is filled out correctly and that any required signatures or approvals are obtained. They are responsible for ensuring that the replacement asset is properly documented and accounted for, which is crucial for tracking and maintaining accurate records. The deployed unit may also have some involvement in the process, but ultimately it is the responsibility of the CIRF personnel to ensure the completion of all necessary documentation.

Explanation

CIRF personnel are responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed when a replacement asset is shipped to a deployed unit. This includes verifying that all necessary paperwork is filled out correctly and that any required signatures or approvals are obtained. They are responsible for ensuring that the replacement asset is properly documented and accounted for, which is crucial for tracking and maintaining accurate records. The deployed unit may also have some involvement in the process, but ultimately it is the responsibility of the CIRF personnel to ensure the completion of all necessary documentation.

19. (001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?

Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.

Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.

Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance

Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

The correct answer is "Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance." This answer includes all the necessary squadrons that form a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance." This answer includes all the necessary squadrons that form a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.

20. (002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

NCO academy.

On-the-job training.

Career development course.

Task qualification training.

A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It provides employees with the necessary tools and resources to develop their abilities and excel in their current role. Unlike on-the-job training, which is more focused on practical skills, a career development course offers a more comprehensive and structured approach to learning. NCO academy and task qualification training may be relevant for specific roles or positions, but they do not specifically address the knowledge portion of the job.

Explanation

A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It provides employees with the necessary tools and resources to develop their abilities and excel in their current role. Unlike on-the-job training, which is more focused on practical skills, a career development course offers a more comprehensive and structured approach to learning. NCO academy and task qualification training may be relevant for specific roles or positions, but they do not specifically address the knowledge portion of the job.

21. (014) To become an equipment custodian. you must be appointed by the

Shop chief.

Supervisor.

Commander.

Supply chief.

To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role, indicating that they have the power to make decisions regarding the appointment of equipment custodians. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but it is the commander who ultimately has the authority to appoint equipment custodians.

Explanation

To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role, indicating that they have the power to make decisions regarding the appointment of equipment custodians. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but it is the commander who ultimately has the authority to appoint equipment custodians.

22. (017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

General equipment.

General system.

Fault isolation.

Job guide.

A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions on how to carry out specific maintenance actions on equipment or systems.

Explanation

A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks. This type of manual is useful for technicians and maintenance personnel who need detailed instructions on how to carry out specific maintenance actions on equipment or systems.

23. (028) Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

Injury to you.

Torn clothing.

Electrical shock.

Damage to the tool.

Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you. This is because the tool can easily shift or move in your pocket, leading to accidental cuts, punctures, or other injuries to your body. Additionally, the weight and sharp edges of the tool can cause discomfort or pain when carried in the pocket for an extended period of time. Therefore, it is important to properly store and secure hand tools to prevent any potential harm to oneself.

Explanation

Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you. This is because the tool can easily shift or move in your pocket, leading to accidental cuts, punctures, or other injuries to your body. Additionally, the weight and sharp edges of the tool can cause discomfort or pain when carried in the pocket for an extended period of time. Therefore, it is important to properly store and secure hand tools to prevent any potential harm to oneself.

24. (001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

Operations support center.

Logistics support squadron.

Operations support squadron.

Maintenance operations center.

The correct answer is Maintenance operations center. The maintenance operations center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft maintenance is carried out efficiently and effectively, and they coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations.

Explanation

The correct answer is Maintenance operations center. The maintenance operations center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They ensure that aircraft maintenance is carried out efficiently and effectively, and they coordinate with other units to ensure smooth operations.

25. (002) You may attend the ALS after having how many months in the Air Force?

24.

36.

48.

60.

After being in the Air Force for 48 months, you are eligible to attend the ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that you have gained enough experience and knowledge in the Air Force to take on a leadership role and attend the school.

Explanation

After being in the Air Force for 48 months, you are eligible to attend the ALS (Airman Leadership School). This indicates that you have gained enough experience and knowledge in the Air Force to take on a leadership role and attend the school.

26. (007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Explosions.

Unauthorized entry.

Overflow of materials.

Mixing of unlike materials.

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the area. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents and mishandling of hazardous materials, which can pose significant risks to both human health and the environment. By preventing unauthorized access, the storage area can maintain control over who enters the area, ensuring that only trained and authorized personnel are allowed in. This helps to minimize the chances of accidents, spills, or intentional misuse of hazardous materials.

Explanation

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of the area. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents and mishandling of hazardous materials, which can pose significant risks to both human health and the environment. By preventing unauthorized access, the storage area can maintain control over who enters the area, ensuring that only trained and authorized personnel are allowed in. This helps to minimize the chances of accidents, spills, or intentional misuse of hazardous materials.

27. (008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?

Depot Level Repair System.

Repair Cycle Support System.

Standard Base Supply System.

Precious Metals Recovery System.

The Repair Cycle Support System is the Base Supply function that manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and managing the repair process, including the identification of repair requirements, sourcing repair parts, and tracking the status of repairs. It ensures that equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner, minimizing downtime and maximizing operational readiness. The other options, Depot Level Repair System, Standard Base Supply System, and Precious Metals Recovery System, do not specifically focus on managing the repair cycle system.

Explanation

The Repair Cycle Support System is the Base Supply function that manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and managing the repair process, including the identification of repair requirements, sourcing repair parts, and tracking the status of repairs. It ensures that equipment is repaired and returned to service in a timely manner, minimizing downtime and maximizing operational readiness. The other options, Depot Level Repair System, Standard Base Supply System, and Precious Metals Recovery System, do not specifically focus on managing the repair cycle system.

28. (010) If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?

AF IMT 2005.

AFTO Form 349.

AFTO Form 350.

DD Form 1574.

If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. AF IMT 2005 is the form used for requesting and tracking parts and supplies in the Air Force. It allows personnel to document and authorize the procurement of necessary items, even in situations where the usual systems are not accessible.

Explanation

If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. AF IMT 2005 is the form used for requesting and tracking parts and supplies in the Air Force. It allows personnel to document and authorize the procurement of necessary items, even in situations where the usual systems are not accessible.

29. (019) How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?

The text or picture will me marked in color.

The text or picture will be highlighted in yellow.

The word "changed" will be marked on the text or picture.

A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.

The correct answer is a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This indicates that the text or picture has been changed.

Explanation

The correct answer is a bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture. This indicates that the text or picture has been changed.

30. (023) Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?

Production supervisor.

Depot item manager.

Engine technician.

Supply officer.

The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of CIRF (Critical Infrastructure Response Force) assets and reporting their status. This includes keeping track of the assets, ensuring they are in good condition, and providing reports on their availability and functionality. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in managing and overseeing the assets to ensure they are ready for deployment and can effectively respond to critical infrastructure incidents.

Explanation

The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of CIRF (Critical Infrastructure Response Force) assets and reporting their status. This includes keeping track of the assets, ensuring they are in good condition, and providing reports on their availability and functionality. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in managing and overseeing the assets to ensure they are ready for deployment and can effectively respond to critical infrastructure incidents.

31. (032) What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?

WD-40.

Trychlorethlene.

Turbo-super-carb.

Dry-cleaning solvent.

Dry-cleaning solvent should be used for cleaning measuring tools. This is because dry-cleaning solvent is a type of cleaning agent that is specifically designed to remove dirt, grease, and other contaminants from delicate fabrics without causing damage. Measuring tools are often made of sensitive materials such as plastic or metal, and using a harsh or abrasive cleaner could potentially damage or corrode the surface of the tools. Dry-cleaning solvent is a gentle yet effective option for cleaning measuring tools, ensuring that they remain in good condition and accurate for precise measurements.

Explanation

Dry-cleaning solvent should be used for cleaning measuring tools. This is because dry-cleaning solvent is a type of cleaning agent that is specifically designed to remove dirt, grease, and other contaminants from delicate fabrics without causing damage. Measuring tools are often made of sensitive materials such as plastic or metal, and using a harsh or abrasive cleaner could potentially damage or corrode the surface of the tools. Dry-cleaning solvent is a gentle yet effective option for cleaning measuring tools, ensuring that they remain in good condition and accurate for precise measurements.

32. (035) What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?

Direct.

Axisymetrical.

Direct and lateral.

60 degrees up and 180 degrees down.

The correct answer is direct and lateral. This means that the rigid borescope allows for both direct viewing and lateral viewing. Direct viewing refers to looking straight ahead, while lateral viewing refers to looking at an angle. Therefore, the rigid borescope provides the option to view objects from different perspectives.

Explanation

The correct answer is direct and lateral. This means that the rigid borescope allows for both direct viewing and lateral viewing. Direct viewing refers to looking straight ahead, while lateral viewing refers to looking at an angle. Therefore, the rigid borescope provides the option to view objects from different perspectives.

33. (035) Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?

Experience.

Maturity.

Age.

Rank.

Age is not considered for borescope operator certification. The certification process for borescope operators focuses on factors such as experience, maturity, and rank. Age, however, is not a determining factor in assessing the skills and qualifications of a borescope operator.

Explanation

Age is not considered for borescope operator certification. The certification process for borescope operators focuses on factors such as experience, maturity, and rank. Age, however, is not a determining factor in assessing the skills and qualifications of a borescope operator.

34. (044) Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?

Ensure humidity indicator is blue.

Release all pressure before removing lid.

Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warpage.

Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of those handling the container and to prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the risk of sudden release of built-up pressure is minimized, making it safer to remove the lid.

Explanation

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of those handling the container and to prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the risk of sudden release of built-up pressure is minimized, making it safer to remove the lid.

35. (046) When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start

Deep within the metal.

On the surface of the metal.

Throughout the metal all at once.

Just under the surface of the metal.

Metal is attacked by chemical corrosion on the surface because the corrosion process typically starts with the metal reacting with the surrounding environment, such as oxygen or moisture, at the surface. This reaction forms a layer of corrosion products that can further react with the environment, leading to the degradation of the metal. The corrosion process then continues to progress from the surface inward, gradually deteriorating the metal. Therefore, the correct answer is "on the surface of the metal."

Explanation

Metal is attacked by chemical corrosion on the surface because the corrosion process typically starts with the metal reacting with the surrounding environment, such as oxygen or moisture, at the surface. This reaction forms a layer of corrosion products that can further react with the environment, leading to the degradation of the metal. The corrosion process then continues to progress from the surface inward, gradually deteriorating the metal. Therefore, the correct answer is "on the surface of the metal."

36. (048) What information is found in Part I of an AFTO Form 244?

Supervisory review.

Item identification.

Employee number blocks.

Nonscheduled inspection blocks.

Part I of an AFTO Form 244 contains the information related to item identification. This means that this section of the form includes details about the specific item or equipment that is being inspected or maintained. It may include information such as the item's name, serial number, and any other identifying information that is necessary for tracking and referencing the item. This section is important for ensuring that the correct item is being worked on and that the necessary maintenance or inspection procedures are being followed.

Explanation

Part I of an AFTO Form 244 contains the information related to item identification. This means that this section of the form includes details about the specific item or equipment that is being inspected or maintained. It may include information such as the item's name, serial number, and any other identifying information that is necessary for tracking and referencing the item. This section is important for ensuring that the correct item is being worked on and that the necessary maintenance or inspection procedures are being followed.

37. (007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is

Dilution.

Incineration.

Land disposal.

Biodegradation.

Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Incineration involves burning the waste at high temperatures, land disposal involves burying the waste in designated areas, and biodegradation involves breaking down the waste through natural processes. However, in this case, dilution is considered the correct answer as it is commonly used for hazardous waste disposal.

Explanation

Dilution is a common method for disposing of hazardous waste because it involves mixing the waste with a large amount of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. This process helps to decrease the toxicity of the waste and make it safer for disposal. Incineration involves burning the waste at high temperatures, land disposal involves burying the waste in designated areas, and biodegradation involves breaking down the waste through natural processes. However, in this case, dilution is considered the correct answer as it is commonly used for hazardous waste disposal.

38. (008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?

Base system.

Weapons system.

Inventory system.

Geographical system.

The RSS manages supply from a weapons system perspective, which means that it focuses on the specific needs and requirements related to the supply of weapons and related equipment. This perspective ensures that the RSS can effectively track, maintain, and distribute weapons and associated resources to support military operations and readiness. By managing supply from a weapons system perspective, the RSS can optimize the availability and functionality of weapons, ensuring that they are ready for use when needed.

Explanation

The RSS manages supply from a weapons system perspective, which means that it focuses on the specific needs and requirements related to the supply of weapons and related equipment. This perspective ensures that the RSS can effectively track, maintain, and distribute weapons and associated resources to support military operations and readiness. By managing supply from a weapons system perspective, the RSS can optimize the availability and functionality of weapons, ensuring that they are ready for use when needed.

39. (020) Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?

Initiator.

Commander.

Supervisor of initiator.

Product improvement office.

The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor is in charge of verifying the accuracy and completeness of the form before it is submitted. They are also responsible for reviewing the information provided by the initiator and ensuring that it meets the necessary requirements.

Explanation

The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor is in charge of verifying the accuracy and completeness of the form before it is submitted. They are also responsible for reviewing the information provided by the initiator and ensuring that it meets the necessary requirements.

40. (022) The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by

Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.

Tracking serially controlled components and modules.

Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any signs of performance degradation or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to be taken, thereby preventing or limiting damage to the engines. Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports may provide valuable information, but it is not the primary goal of the program. Tracking serially controlled components and modules and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions are important activities, but they are not the primary goal of the program.

Explanation

The primary goal of the ET&D program is to detect any signs of performance degradation or failures in turbine engines at an early stage. This allows for timely intervention and preventive measures to be taken, thereby preventing or limiting damage to the engines. Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports may provide valuable information, but it is not the primary goal of the program. Tracking serially controlled components and modules and documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions are important activities, but they are not the primary goal of the program.

41. (035) The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a

Videoimagescope.

Rigid borescope.

Flexible scope.

Fibrescope.

A videoimagescope is a type of borescope that utilizes miniature TV camera images. It is different from a rigid borescope, flexible scope, and fibrescope because it specifically relies on video imaging technology to capture and display images.

Explanation

A videoimagescope is a type of borescope that utilizes miniature TV camera images. It is different from a rigid borescope, flexible scope, and fibrescope because it specifically relies on video imaging technology to capture and display images.

42. (036) To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?

Plain washer underneath the lock washer.

Soft lock washer.

Special washer.

Crush washer.

Using a plain washer underneath the lock washer helps to prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces. The plain washer provides a flat surface and helps distribute the pressure evenly, reducing the risk of the soft metal surfaces getting damaged. The lock washer, on top of the plain washer, then helps to secure the fastener in place and prevent it from loosening.

Explanation

Using a plain washer underneath the lock washer helps to prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces. The plain washer provides a flat surface and helps distribute the pressure evenly, reducing the risk of the soft metal surfaces getting damaged. The lock washer, on top of the plain washer, then helps to secure the fastener in place and prevent it from loosening.

43. (038) When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?

6 to 8.

8 to 10.

10 to 12.

12 to 14.

When lockwiring, the proper stiffness is achieved by twisting the wire a certain number of times per inch. In this case, the correct answer is 8 to 10 twists per inch. This range ensures that the wire is secure and prevents it from loosening or coming undone.

Explanation

When lockwiring, the proper stiffness is achieved by twisting the wire a certain number of times per inch. In this case, the correct answer is 8 to 10 twists per inch. This range ensures that the wire is secure and prevents it from loosening or coming undone.

44. (045) To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with

Oil.

Fuel.

PD-680.

Calibration fluid.

To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, it is necessary to flush the system with fuel. This is because fuel is the appropriate substance to clean and remove any contaminants or residue that may have accumulated during the depreservation process. Flushing the system with fuel ensures that the engine fuel system is clean and ready for use.

Explanation

To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, it is necessary to flush the system with fuel. This is because fuel is the appropriate substance to clean and remove any contaminants or residue that may have accumulated during the depreservation process. Flushing the system with fuel ensures that the engine fuel system is clean and ready for use.

45. (047) On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

Prevent the wheels from swiveling wile it is in use.

The platform safety lockpins on personnel maintenance platforms are designed to prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. These lockpins secure the platform in place, ensuring that it remains at the desired height and does not accidentally lower, which could potentially cause injury to the personnel using the platform.

Explanation

The platform safety lockpins on personnel maintenance platforms are designed to prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. These lockpins secure the platform in place, ensuring that it remains at the desired height and does not accidentally lower, which could potentially cause injury to the personnel using the platform.

46. (004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

Lock and pin the work stands.

Check the AFTO Form 781K.

Check the intake for FOD.

Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.

Before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft to ensure that it is safe to proceed. This is because there may be ongoing maintenance or tasks being carried out by other personnel that could pose a safety risk if not taken into consideration. By communicating with others, you can ensure that all necessary precautions have been taken and that it is safe to proceed with the maintenance.

Explanation

Before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft to ensure that it is safe to proceed. This is because there may be ongoing maintenance or tasks being carried out by other personnel that could pose a safety risk if not taken into consideration. By communicating with others, you can ensure that all necessary precautions have been taken and that it is safe to proceed with the maintenance.

47. (024) What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibillity/capability?

Field maintenance.

Depot maintenance.

Engine trending and diagnostics.

Engine life-cycle management planning.

Depot maintenance supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility or capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or challenging repairs, they can rely on depot maintenance to assist them and ensure that the necessary repairs are completed effectively.

Explanation

Depot maintenance supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility or capability. This means that when base-level technicians encounter complex or challenging repairs, they can rely on depot maintenance to assist them and ensure that the necessary repairs are completed effectively.

48. (025) The key to making the CEMS work is

Availability of engines and their parts.

Accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

Accurate and timely data at the highest level.

Availability of a storage and analysis computer.

The correct answer is accurate and timely data at the lowest level. This means that for the CEMS (Continuous Emission Monitoring System) to be effective, it is crucial to have precise and up-to-date information at the lowest level, which refers to the individual engines and their parts. This ensures that the emissions data collected is accurate and reliable, allowing for proper monitoring and control of emissions.

Explanation

The correct answer is accurate and timely data at the lowest level. This means that for the CEMS (Continuous Emission Monitoring System) to be effective, it is crucial to have precise and up-to-date information at the lowest level, which refers to the individual engines and their parts. This ensures that the emissions data collected is accurate and reliable, allowing for proper monitoring and control of emissions.

49. (27) How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?

1.

2.

3.

4.

The question is asking how many years ahead participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories. The correct answer is 2. This means that participating units should accelerate these components two years ahead of their normal schedule. This could be done to meet a deadline or to speed up production.

Explanation

The question is asking how many years ahead participating units should accelerate engines, modules, and accessories. The correct answer is 2. This means that participating units should accelerate these components two years ahead of their normal schedule. This could be done to meet a deadline or to speed up production.

50. (034) Whcih nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?

Plain nuts.

Wing nuts.

Metallic self-locking nuts.

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F because they are made of materials that cannot withstand high temperatures. The heat can cause the nonmetallic material to melt, deform, or lose its locking ability, compromising the integrity of the fastening. Therefore, it is important to use nuts made of materials that can withstand high temperatures, such as metallic self-locking nuts, in such areas.

Explanation

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F because they are made of materials that cannot withstand high temperatures. The heat can cause the nonmetallic material to melt, deform, or lose its locking ability, compromising the integrity of the fastening. Therefore, it is important to use nuts made of materials that can withstand high temperatures, such as metallic self-locking nuts, in such areas.

51. (036) When installing a a self-taping screw, the hole must be

Slightly smaller than the screw.

The same size as the screw shank.

Slightly deeper than the length of the shank.

Slightly shallower than the length of the screw.

When installing a self-tapping screw, the hole must be slightly smaller than the screw. This is because a self-tapping screw is designed to create its own threads as it is being screwed into the material. If the hole is the same size as the screw shank or slightly larger, the screw will not be able to create enough friction to properly tap the threads. On the other hand, if the hole is too small, it may cause the material to crack or split when the screw is inserted. Therefore, the hole should be slightly smaller than the screw to ensure a secure and proper fit.

Explanation

When installing a self-tapping screw, the hole must be slightly smaller than the screw. This is because a self-tapping screw is designed to create its own threads as it is being screwed into the material. If the hole is the same size as the screw shank or slightly larger, the screw will not be able to create enough friction to properly tap the threads. On the other hand, if the hole is too small, it may cause the material to crack or split when the screw is inserted. Therefore, the hole should be slightly smaller than the screw to ensure a secure and proper fit.

52. (039) Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it

Is expensive.

Is too flexible.

Has a high-fatigue factor.

Has extremely high tensile strenght.

Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it has a high-fatigue factor. This means that it is prone to developing cracks and failures over time due to the repeated stress and vibrations experienced in the harsh operating conditions of a jet engine. As a result, materials with better fatigue resistance, such as titanium or nickel alloys, are preferred for use in jet engines.

Explanation

Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it has a high-fatigue factor. This means that it is prone to developing cracks and failures over time due to the repeated stress and vibrations experienced in the harsh operating conditions of a jet engine. As a result, materials with better fatigue resistance, such as titanium or nickel alloys, are preferred for use in jet engines.

53. (001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?

Supervisors.

Flight Commanders.

Group Commanders.

Squadron commanders.

The correct answer is Supervisors. QA (Quality Assurance) recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their team and ensuring that processes are followed correctly. QA identifies any deviations or issues and provides recommendations to supervisors on how to address them and implement corrective actions. Supervisors then have the authority to implement these actions and ensure that the necessary changes are made to improve quality and compliance.

Explanation

The correct answer is Supervisors. QA (Quality Assurance) recommends possible corrective actions to supervisors. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their team and ensuring that processes are followed correctly. QA identifies any deviations or issues and provides recommendations to supervisors on how to address them and implement corrective actions. Supervisors then have the authority to implement these actions and ensure that the necessary changes are made to improve quality and compliance.

54. (004) How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.

15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.

10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.

The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

Explanation

The propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.

55. (005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?

Quality assurance.

Squadron commander.

Production supervisor.

Maintenance group commander.

The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign object debris from causing damage to aircraft or equipment. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting regular inspections, and addressing any issues or concerns related to FOD. The squadron commander, production supervisor, and quality assurance may have specific roles and responsibilities within the FOD program, but the maintenance group commander is ultimately responsible for its overall management.

Explanation

The maintenance group commander has overall responsibility for the FOD (Foreign Object Debris) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign object debris from causing damage to aircraft or equipment. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting regular inspections, and addressing any issues or concerns related to FOD. The squadron commander, production supervisor, and quality assurance may have specific roles and responsibilities within the FOD program, but the maintenance group commander is ultimately responsible for its overall management.

56. (007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify

Incineration.

Land disposal.

Biodegradation.

Chemico-physical treatment.

The Air Force is unlikely to justify incineration as a method for hazardous waste disposal. This suggests that there are reasons or factors that make incineration an unsuitable option. It could be due to environmental concerns, cost-effectiveness, or potential health risks associated with incineration. Without further context, it is difficult to determine the exact reasoning behind this statement.

Explanation

The Air Force is unlikely to justify incineration as a method for hazardous waste disposal. This suggests that there are reasons or factors that make incineration an unsuitable option. It could be due to environmental concerns, cost-effectiveness, or potential health risks associated with incineration. Without further context, it is difficult to determine the exact reasoning behind this statement.

57. (008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

Overhaul.

Retest OK.

Time change.

Repair cycle support.

Selected equipment items that are returned to the depot because of their design characteristics, function, or application are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific items need to undergo a thorough inspection, repair, and maintenance process to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet the required standards.

Explanation

Selected equipment items that are returned to the depot because of their design characteristics, function, or application are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific items need to undergo a thorough inspection, repair, and maintenance process to ensure they are in proper working condition and meet the required standards.

58. (009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?

Origin of an item.

Why the item broke.

How long the item will take to repair.

The responsible reparable processing center.

A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and aircraft. By filling out this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information for maintenance and accountability purposes.

Explanation

A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and aircraft. By filling out this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information for maintenance and accountability purposes.

59. (011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?

DD Form 1574.

DD Form 1575.

DD Form 1577-2.

DD Form 1577-3.

DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used to document items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is used to keep track of the status of the item and to ensure that it is properly maintained and repaired. It is important to attach this form to the item so that it can be easily identified and tracked while it is awaiting parts or maintenance.

Explanation

DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used to document items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is used to keep track of the status of the item and to ensure that it is properly maintained and repaired. It is important to attach this form to the item so that it can be easily identified and tracked while it is awaiting parts or maintenance.

60. (015) The second part of a TO number gives the

TO classification.

Type of equipment in the TO.

Type of instructions found in the TO.

Model and series for equipment type in the TO.

The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that the TO number can give specific details about the particular model and series of equipment that the instructions are meant for. This information is important for identifying and selecting the correct TO for a specific type of equipment.

Explanation

The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the equipment type in the TO. This means that the TO number can give specific details about the particular model and series of equipment that the instructions are meant for. This information is important for identifying and selecting the correct TO for a specific type of equipment.

61. (026) You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?

25.

44.

95.

349.

The correct answer is 95. The AFTO Form 95 is used to record the removal and replacement of engine accessories. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a systematic way to document the maintenance actions taken on engine accessories. The other AFTO Forms listed (25, 44, and 349) are not specifically designed for recording the removal and replacement of engine accessories.

Explanation

The correct answer is 95. The AFTO Form 95 is used to record the removal and replacement of engine accessories. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a systematic way to document the maintenance actions taken on engine accessories. The other AFTO Forms listed (25, 44, and 349) are not specifically designed for recording the removal and replacement of engine accessories.

62. (030) The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

1 inch.

2 inches.

3 inches.

4 inches.

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or diameter of 1 inch.

Explanation

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects with a maximum thickness or diameter of 1 inch.

63. (031) What feature is common to all dial indicators?

Construction of indicator.

Construction of indicating hand.

Ability to amplify movement greatly.

Ability to amplify movement slightly.

All dial indicators have the common feature of being able to amplify movement greatly. This means that even a small movement or displacement can be easily detected and measured using a dial indicator. The ability to amplify movement greatly is essential for accurate and precise measurements in various applications such as machining, manufacturing, and quality control. This feature allows users to make fine adjustments and measurements with high sensitivity and precision.

Explanation

All dial indicators have the common feature of being able to amplify movement greatly. This means that even a small movement or displacement can be easily detected and measured using a dial indicator. The ability to amplify movement greatly is essential for accurate and precise measurements in various applications such as machining, manufacturing, and quality control. This feature allows users to make fine adjustments and measurements with high sensitivity and precision.

64. (034) What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?

28.

30.

32.

34.

The maximum voltage that can be measured when the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is 32.

Explanation

The maximum voltage that can be measured when the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is 32.

65. (044) How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

2.

4.

6.

8.

The correct answer is 4. This suggests that there are four pins used to secure the adapters to the shipping container support.

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. This suggests that there are four pins used to secure the adapters to the shipping container support.

66. (013) A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency

That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.

Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).

That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.

That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).

A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency is significant enough to pose a serious risk to the functionality or safety of the equipment or system. It is important to address and correct these types of deficiencies promptly to prevent any potential harm or loss.

Explanation

A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency is significant enough to pose a serious risk to the functionality or safety of the equipment or system. It is important to address and correct these types of deficiencies promptly to prevent any potential harm or loss.

67. (015) The first part of a TO number identifies the

Sectionalization of the TO.

Type of instructions found in the TO.

Category and type of equipment covered by the TO.

Model and series of the equipment type in the TO.

The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment covered by the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific equipment that the technical order is referring to. It helps to categorize and identify the equipment for which the instructions are provided in the TO.

Explanation

The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment covered by the TO. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific equipment that the technical order is referring to. It helps to categorize and identify the equipment for which the instructions are provided in the TO.

68. (020) Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?

Urgent.

Special.

Routine.

Emergency.

Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation under the "Urgent" category is necessary when there is a potential risk of personnel injury or damage to equipment or property if the issue is not corrected. This indicates that immediate action is required to prevent any harm or further damage.

Explanation

Submitting an AFTO IMT 22 recommendation under the "Urgent" category is necessary when there is a potential risk of personnel injury or damage to equipment or property if the issue is not corrected. This indicates that immediate action is required to prevent any harm or further damage.

69. (027) Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.

Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.

Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might require special scheduled inspections. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as one of the program objectives.

Explanation

The objective of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program is to accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluate engine controls and accessories, and detect any unique durability problems that might require special scheduled inspections. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not mentioned as one of the program objectives.

70. (029) What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

Hook.

Narrow.

6-inch steel.

Slide caliper.

When measuring an inside diameter, a slide caliper is the most appropriate tool to use. A slide caliper is designed to measure the distance between two opposite sides of an object, making it ideal for measuring the inside diameter of a circular object. The other options mentioned, such as a hook, narrow, or 6-inch steel, are not specifically designed for measuring inside diameters and may not provide accurate measurements.

Explanation

When measuring an inside diameter, a slide caliper is the most appropriate tool to use. A slide caliper is designed to measure the distance between two opposite sides of an object, making it ideal for measuring the inside diameter of a circular object. The other options mentioned, such as a hook, narrow, or 6-inch steel, are not specifically designed for measuring inside diameters and may not provide accurate measurements.

71. (033) The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the

Function selector.

Range-mode pushbutton switch.

Touch-hold pushbutton switch.

Volts, ohms, diode test input jack.

The function selector on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC. This control allows the user to choose the desired function, such as voltage or resistance measurement, and switch between AC and DC modes. It is the control that determines the type of measurement the multimeter will perform. The other options listed, such as the range-mode pushbutton switch, touch-hold pushbutton switch, and volts, ohms, diode test input jack, do not specifically control the AC and DC settings of the meter.

Explanation

The function selector on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC. This control allows the user to choose the desired function, such as voltage or resistance measurement, and switch between AC and DC modes. It is the control that determines the type of measurement the multimeter will perform. The other options listed, such as the range-mode pushbutton switch, touch-hold pushbutton switch, and volts, ohms, diode test input jack, do not specifically control the AC and DC settings of the meter.

72. (035) What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?

Replace a teardown inspection.

Visually inspect internal cavities.

Detect major damage inside the engine.

Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection.

A borescope inspection is used to visually inspect internal cavities of an engine. This allows technicians to assess the condition of the engine without having to perform a teardown inspection. By using a borescope, they can examine hard-to-reach areas and identify any potential issues or damage inside the engine. This helps in detecting any problems early on and determining the necessary maintenance or repairs needed during a periodic inspection.

Explanation

A borescope inspection is used to visually inspect internal cavities of an engine. This allows technicians to assess the condition of the engine without having to perform a teardown inspection. By using a borescope, they can examine hard-to-reach areas and identify any potential issues or damage inside the engine. This helps in detecting any problems early on and determining the necessary maintenance or repairs needed during a periodic inspection.

73. (035) When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?

Light guide tube.

Control unit.

Distal tip light guides.

Bending section lever.

The correct answer is distal tip light guides. The distal tip light guides are the part of the borescope that illuminates the interior of the area being inspected. They transmit light from the control unit to the end of the borescope, allowing for clear visibility during inspections. The light guides are located at the distal tip of the borescope, providing direct illumination to the inspection area.

Explanation

The correct answer is distal tip light guides. The distal tip light guides are the part of the borescope that illuminates the interior of the area being inspected. They transmit light from the control unit to the end of the borescope, allowing for clear visibility during inspections. The light guides are located at the distal tip of the borescope, providing direct illumination to the inspection area.

74. (036) Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?

1.

2.

3.

4.

A proper bolt length allows a minimum of two threads protruding the nut. This is important because having at least two threads engaged with the nut ensures a secure and strong connection. If there are fewer than two threads, the bolt may not be properly secured and could potentially come loose over time. Therefore, it is necessary to have a bolt length that allows for at least two threads to protrude the nut.

Explanation

A proper bolt length allows a minimum of two threads protruding the nut. This is important because having at least two threads engaged with the nut ensures a secure and strong connection. If there are fewer than two threads, the bolt may not be properly secured and could potentially come loose over time. Therefore, it is necessary to have a bolt length that allows for at least two threads to protrude the nut.

75. (036) What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?

Plain.

Lock.

Star.

Tab.

Plain washers are used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals because they provide a flat surface between the two metals, reducing the risk of galvanic corrosion. This type of washer is typically made of a non-reactive material, such as stainless steel or nylon, which helps to isolate the metals and prevent the transfer of electrons that can cause corrosion. Plain washers are commonly used in applications where two different metals are in contact, such as plumbing, electrical connections, and automotive parts.

Explanation

Plain washers are used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals because they provide a flat surface between the two metals, reducing the risk of galvanic corrosion. This type of washer is typically made of a non-reactive material, such as stainless steel or nylon, which helps to isolate the metals and prevent the transfer of electrons that can cause corrosion. Plain washers are commonly used in applications where two different metals are in contact, such as plumbing, electrical connections, and automotive parts.

76. (039) Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?

Provides a tighter fit.

Prevents nicking of inner tube surface.

Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.

Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants.

Installing dust caps over tube ends instead of inside them avoids the possibility of leaving the caps installed. If the caps are installed inside the tube, there is a chance that they might get stuck or forgotten, causing potential issues when the tube is in use. By installing the caps over the tube ends, it is easier to remove them before using the tube, ensuring that they are not accidentally left inside.

Explanation

Installing dust caps over tube ends instead of inside them avoids the possibility of leaving the caps installed. If the caps are installed inside the tube, there is a chance that they might get stuck or forgotten, causing potential issues when the tube is in use. By installing the caps over the tube ends, it is easier to remove them before using the tube, ensuring that they are not accidentally left inside.

77. (043) To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the

Side of the container.

Data plate on both halves of the container.

Top half on the right panel of the container.

Bottom half on the left panel of the container

The correct answer is "top half on the right panel of the container." This means that to determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look at the data plate located on the top half of the right panel of the container.

Explanation

The correct answer is "top half on the right panel of the container." This means that to determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look at the data plate located on the top half of the right panel of the container.

78. (003) Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

00-5-1.

00-20-1.

21-101.

36-2108.

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

Explanation

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance.

79. (008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?

Priority Monitor Report (D18).

Daily Document Register (D04).

Due-out Validation Listing (M30).

Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This document allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that no document is missed or overlooked. It provides a comprehensive overview of the documents processed and helps in maintaining accurate records and tracking the progress of various transactions. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically serve the purpose of reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) is the correct answer because it provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS. This document allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that no document is missed or overlooked. It provides a comprehensive overview of the documents processed and helps in maintaining accurate records and tracking the progress of various transactions. The other options, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically serve the purpose of reviewing all document numbers processed during the day.

80. (012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item

Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.

Should be returned to supply after expiration date.

Has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life.

Should be inspected or tested.

A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. It is important to adhere to the shelf-life guidelines to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the item.

Explanation

A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. It is important to adhere to the shelf-life guidelines to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the item.

81. (014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?

Shelf-life

Bench stock.

Hazardous materials.

Equipment Authorization Inventory Data.

The correct answer is Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This is because the CA/CRL (Central Authority/Controlled Resource List) is a list that contains information about all the equipment that is authorized for use in a particular organization. Therefore, it is necessary for the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data to be reflected on the CA/CRL.

Explanation

The correct answer is Equipment Authorization Inventory Data. This is because the CA/CRL (Central Authority/Controlled Resource List) is a list that contains information about all the equipment that is authorized for use in a particular organization. Therefore, it is necessary for the Equipment Authorization Inventory Data to be reflected on the CA/CRL.

82. (017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?

Introduction.

Numerical index.

Group assembly parts list.

Reference designation index.

The introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and background information about the IPB, including explanations of the various codes and symbols used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the IPB effectively.

Explanation

The introduction section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and background information about the IPB, including explanations of the various codes and symbols used throughout the document. It helps users understand how to interpret and navigate the IPB effectively.

83. (018) What category of TCTO is isuued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?

Record.

Urgent action.

Routine action.

Immediate action.

Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of personnel.

Explanation

Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of personnel.

84. (019) Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?

00-5-1.

00-5-2.

00-20-1.

00-20-2.

The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.

Explanation

The correct answer is 00-5-1. This TO (Technical Order) covers information concerning the Air Force TO system.

85. (023) What drives the creation of a CRP?

Equipment cost and repair time.

Number of available spare engines.

Number of assigned maintenance personnel.

Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

A CRP (Critical Resource Planning) is created based on the factors that affect customer wait time and transportation constraints. This means that the primary driving force behind the creation of a CRP is the need to minimize customer wait time and ensure efficient transportation. Factors such as equipment cost, repair time, number of spare engines, and maintenance personnel may play a role in the planning process, but they are not the main drivers.

Explanation

A CRP (Critical Resource Planning) is created based on the factors that affect customer wait time and transportation constraints. This means that the primary driving force behind the creation of a CRP is the need to minimize customer wait time and ensure efficient transportation. Factors such as equipment cost, repair time, number of spare engines, and maintenance personnel may play a role in the planning process, but they are not the main drivers.

86. (024) Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and

Jet engine intermediate maintenance crews.

ALC teams.

Engineer assistance.

Field teams.

Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair activities that are carried out at a central depot or facility. This support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and jet engine intermediate maintenance crews. However, the correct answer is "field teams" because field teams are responsible for providing maintenance and support services in the field or at remote locations. These teams are often deployed to perform repairs and maintenance on equipment that cannot be transported to a central depot.

Explanation

Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair activities that are carried out at a central depot or facility. This support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and jet engine intermediate maintenance crews. However, the correct answer is "field teams" because field teams are responsible for providing maintenance and support services in the field or at remote locations. These teams are often deployed to perform repairs and maintenance on equipment that cannot be transported to a central depot.

87. (030) The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in

Hundredths of an inch.

Thousandths of an inch.

Ten-thousandths of an inch.

Hundred-thousandths of an inch.

The vernier scale on a micrometer is a measuring tool used to read measurements with high precision. It consists of a main scale and a sliding vernier scale. The main scale typically measures in inches or millimeters, while the vernier scale allows for more precise readings. In this case, the correct answer indicates that the vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in ten-thousandths of an inch, providing a very accurate measurement.

Explanation

The vernier scale on a micrometer is a measuring tool used to read measurements with high precision. It consists of a main scale and a sliding vernier scale. The main scale typically measures in inches or millimeters, while the vernier scale allows for more precise readings. In this case, the correct answer indicates that the vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in ten-thousandths of an inch, providing a very accurate measurement.

88. (039) You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gasses on jet engines by

Their international orange color.

The different colors of the tubing or hoses.

The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses.

The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.

The correct answer is the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses. This is because the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines are often identified by coded bands of colored tape. This allows for easy identification and differentiation of the different lines and their respective functions.

Explanation

The correct answer is the coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses. This is because the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines are often identified by coded bands of colored tape. This allows for easy identification and differentiation of the different lines and their respective functions.

89. (036) The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to

Allow for the installation of a washer.

Keep the nut from backing loose.

Allow for expansion of the metal.

Avoid bottoming out the nut.

The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid bottoming out the nut. This means that the bolt should not be too long that it extends beyond the nut when tightened. If the bolt is too long, it can bottom out against the material, causing the nut to not be securely fastened. By having a shorter grip length, it ensures that the nut can be properly tightened without the risk of bottoming out.

Explanation

The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid bottoming out the nut. This means that the bolt should not be too long that it extends beyond the nut when tightened. If the bolt is too long, it can bottom out against the material, causing the nut to not be securely fastened. By having a shorter grip length, it ensures that the nut can be properly tightened without the risk of bottoming out.

90. (039) What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?

2.

4.

6.

8.

A fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch is given a numerical value of 6.

Explanation

A fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch is given a numerical value of 6.

91. (040) When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then

Look for leaks.

Change the oil filter.

Inspect for missing parts.

Check the compressor inlet.

When receiving an engine in the shop, it is important to check the applicable forms to ensure all necessary documentation is present. However, the correct answer is to check the compressor inlet. This is because checking the compressor inlet allows for an inspection of the engine's air intake system, which is crucial for proper engine functioning. By checking the compressor inlet, any potential issues or blockages can be identified and addressed before further inspection or maintenance is performed on the engine.

Explanation

When receiving an engine in the shop, it is important to check the applicable forms to ensure all necessary documentation is present. However, the correct answer is to check the compressor inlet. This is because checking the compressor inlet allows for an inspection of the engine's air intake system, which is crucial for proper engine functioning. By checking the compressor inlet, any potential issues or blockages can be identified and addressed before further inspection or maintenance is performed on the engine.

92. (021) In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

Hard time.

Lubrication.

On condition.

Failure Finding.

On condition refers to a preventative maintenance task in RCM where scheduled inspections are conducted to detect potential failure conditions. This means that instead of performing maintenance tasks based on a fixed schedule, they are carried out only when there is evidence or indication of potential failure. This approach helps to optimize resources and minimize unnecessary maintenance, as tasks are performed only when they are needed based on the condition of the equipment.

Explanation

On condition refers to a preventative maintenance task in RCM where scheduled inspections are conducted to detect potential failure conditions. This means that instead of performing maintenance tasks based on a fixed schedule, they are carried out only when there is evidence or indication of potential failure. This approach helps to optimize resources and minimize unnecessary maintenance, as tasks are performed only when they are needed based on the condition of the equipment.

93. (022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?

Propulsion and depot.

Depot and nondestructive inspection.

Propulsion and nodestructive inspection.

Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

94. (026) To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form

25.

95.

98.

349.

To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form 95.

Explanation

To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form 95.

95. (021) What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?

Evident and hidden.

Potential and evident.

Hidden and functional.

Potential and functional.

The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system.

Explanation

The two classifications of failures in RCM are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or functionality of the system.

96. (029) The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the

Lock.

Grip.

Shaft index line.

Broached opening.

The correct answer is "broached opening." A torque extension is a tool used to apply torque to fasteners. The length of the torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. This distance affects the leverage and torque applied to the fastener. The broached opening is where the fastener is inserted and secured, so its center is a crucial factor in determining the length of the torque extension.

Explanation

The correct answer is "broached opening." A torque extension is a tool used to apply torque to fasteners. The length of the torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. This distance affects the leverage and torque applied to the fastener. The broached opening is where the fastener is inserted and secured, so its center is a crucial factor in determining the length of the torque extension.

97. (008) A specialized function of the supply mission is

Repair.

Service.

Disposal.

Retrieval.

The correct answer is disposal. In a supply mission, one of the specialized functions is to dispose of any waste or unused materials. This ensures that the mission is efficient and that any unnecessary items are properly handled and removed from the mission area. Disposal is an important aspect of supply missions to maintain cleanliness and organization.

Explanation

The correct answer is disposal. In a supply mission, one of the specialized functions is to dispose of any waste or unused materials. This ensures that the mission is efficient and that any unnecessary items are properly handled and removed from the mission area. Disposal is an important aspect of supply missions to maintain cleanliness and organization.

98. (037) What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?

Tapered.

Flathead.

Cotter.

Shear.

Tapered pins are used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential because they have a gradually decreasing diameter, allowing for a tight fit and preventing any movement or rotation of the joint. This ensures that the joint remains stable and can withstand the shear loads without any clearance or play. Flathead pins, cotter pins, and shear pins do not provide the same level of tight fit and clearance control as tapered pins.

Explanation

Tapered pins are used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential because they have a gradually decreasing diameter, allowing for a tight fit and preventing any movement or rotation of the joint. This ensures that the joint remains stable and can withstand the shear loads without any clearance or play. Flathead pins, cotter pins, and shear pins do not provide the same level of tight fit and clearance control as tapered pins.

99. (027) What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?

Prevent unscheduled removal of engines.

Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.

Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit's installed engines.

Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

The purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs is to determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. These programs are designed to monitor and analyze the performance and condition of engines during actual operation, allowing for the identification and diagnosis of any potential issues or failures. By understanding the distress modes, maintenance and repair can be conducted proactively, minimizing the risk of unscheduled removal of engines and ensuring optimal performance and reliability.

Explanation

The purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs is to determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field. These programs are designed to monitor and analyze the performance and condition of engines during actual operation, allowing for the identification and diagnosis of any potential issues or failures. By understanding the distress modes, maintenance and repair can be conducted proactively, minimizing the risk of unscheduled removal of engines and ensuring optimal performance and reliability.

100. (043) When removing the shipping container lid from the sipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?

1/4 turn.

1/2 turn.

1 turn.

2 turns.

When removing the shipping container lid from the sipping container, the turnlock fasteners are turned 1/4 of a turn.

Explanation

When removing the shipping container lid from the sipping container, the turnlock fasteners are turned 1/4 of a turn.

101. (017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?

Rapid action changes.

Operational supplements.

Urgent recommendations.

Time compliance technical order.

Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide additional data to support maintenance and operation of equipment. This can include rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders. However, urgent recommendations are not typically included in IETMs. These recommendations are usually communicated separately and require immediate attention due to the urgency of the situation.

Explanation

Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide additional data to support maintenance and operation of equipment. This can include rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders. However, urgent recommendations are not typically included in IETMs. These recommendations are usually communicated separately and require immediate attention due to the urgency of the situation.

102. (042) To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the

Parting surface nuts.

Parting surface bolts.

Filler valve on the side of the container.

Filler valve on the front of the container.

To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the filler valve on the front of the container. This is because the filler valve is the point where air can be added or released from the container. By removing the filler valve, the pressure inside the container can be equalized with the external environment, allowing for safe handling and opening of the container. Removing the parting surface nuts or bolts would not have the same effect as they are not directly related to the air pressure inside the container.

Explanation

To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the filler valve on the front of the container. This is because the filler valve is the point where air can be added or released from the container. By removing the filler valve, the pressure inside the container can be equalized with the external environment, allowing for safe handling and opening of the container. Removing the parting surface nuts or bolts would not have the same effect as they are not directly related to the air pressure inside the container.

103. (046) What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?

CPC.

CPM.

Cobalt chloride.

Desiccants.

Desiccants are used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored. Desiccants are substances that have a strong affinity for water molecules and are able to absorb and hold onto moisture. By placing desiccants in the area, they can effectively absorb the moisture in the air, preventing it from causing damage to the engines. This helps to keep the area dry and free from excessive moisture, which can lead to corrosion and other issues with the engines.

Explanation

Desiccants are used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored. Desiccants are substances that have a strong affinity for water molecules and are able to absorb and hold onto moisture. By placing desiccants in the area, they can effectively absorb the moisture in the air, preventing it from causing damage to the engines. This helps to keep the area dry and free from excessive moisture, which can lead to corrosion and other issues with the engines.

104. (022) Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?

Depot-level engine maintenance shops.

Base engine maintenance shop.

Product center engineers.

Flightline expediter.

Flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop within the ET&D program.

Explanation

Flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop within the ET&D program.

105. (025) A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to

Schedule engine replacement times.

Track parts replacement on jet engines.

Report all engine related discrepancies.

Maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

The primary objective of the engine reporting system is to maintain accurate and timely engine inventories. This means that the system is designed to keep track of the number of engines, their condition, and their availability. By maintaining accurate and timely inventories, the system can help ensure that engines are properly managed and maintained, and that any necessary replacements or repairs can be planned and executed efficiently.

Explanation

The primary objective of the engine reporting system is to maintain accurate and timely engine inventories. This means that the system is designed to keep track of the number of engines, their condition, and their availability. By maintaining accurate and timely inventories, the system can help ensure that engines are properly managed and maintained, and that any necessary replacements or repairs can be planned and executed efficiently.

106. (039) For a straight piece of tbuing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?

20.

25.

30.

35r.

A dent in a straight piece of tubing must be less than 20% of the tubing diameter in order for it to remain serviceable. This means that if the dent exceeds 20% of the tubing diameter, it may compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and make it unsuitable for use.

Explanation

A dent in a straight piece of tubing must be less than 20% of the tubing diameter in order for it to remain serviceable. This means that if the dent exceeds 20% of the tubing diameter, it may compromise the structural integrity of the tubing and make it unsuitable for use.

107. (041) Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?

15.

30.

45.

60.

When a component is being shipped and will be returned to the depot or stored for more than 30 days, preservation is required. This means that certain measures need to be taken to protect the component from damage or deterioration during the shipping and storage period. These measures may include packaging the component properly, using protective materials, and implementing storage conditions that prevent moisture, temperature changes, or other factors that could negatively affect the component.

Explanation

When a component is being shipped and will be returned to the depot or stored for more than 30 days, preservation is required. This means that certain measures need to be taken to protect the component from damage or deterioration during the shipping and storage period. These measures may include packaging the component properly, using protective materials, and implementing storage conditions that prevent moisture, temperature changes, or other factors that could negatively affect the component.

108. (042) Which container does not require warehouse facilities?

Shroud.

Prefabricated.

Fiberglass reinforced plastic.

Flexible environment control.

Fiberglass reinforced plastic does not require warehouse facilities because it is a durable material that can be used for storage and transportation of goods without the need for additional storage space. It is resistant to corrosion, moisture, and temperature changes, making it suitable for various environments. Unlike other options such as shroud, prefabricated, and flexible environment control, fiberglass reinforced plastic containers can be used outdoors or in open spaces without the need for a warehouse.

Explanation

Fiberglass reinforced plastic does not require warehouse facilities because it is a durable material that can be used for storage and transportation of goods without the need for additional storage space. It is resistant to corrosion, moisture, and temperature changes, making it suitable for various environments. Unlike other options such as shroud, prefabricated, and flexible environment control, fiberglass reinforced plastic containers can be used outdoors or in open spaces without the need for a warehouse.

109. (030) Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of

One sixteenth of an inch.

One one-hundredth of an inch.

One one-thousandth of an inch.

One ten-thousandth of an inch.

Micrometers are a type of precision measuring instrument commonly used in engineering and manufacturing. They are designed to measure small distances with high accuracy. The answer "one ten-thousandth of an inch" is correct because micrometers are capable of measuring to this level of precision. This means that they can accurately measure dimensions to a resolution of 0.0001 inches, making them suitable for precise measurements in various industries.

Explanation

Micrometers are a type of precision measuring instrument commonly used in engineering and manufacturing. They are designed to measure small distances with high accuracy. The answer "one ten-thousandth of an inch" is correct because micrometers are capable of measuring to this level of precision. This means that they can accurately measure dimensions to a resolution of 0.0001 inches, making them suitable for precise measurements in various industries.

110. (030) you adjust a micrometer by turning the

Barrel.

Frame.

Spindle.

Thimble.

In order to adjust a micrometer, you turn the thimble. The thimble is the part of the micrometer that is rotated to move the spindle forward or backward, allowing for precise measurements to be taken. The barrel, frame, and spindle are all other components of the micrometer, but they do not directly control the adjustment of the instrument.

Explanation

In order to adjust a micrometer, you turn the thimble. The thimble is the part of the micrometer that is rotated to move the spindle forward or backward, allowing for precise measurements to be taken. The barrel, frame, and spindle are all other components of the micrometer, but they do not directly control the adjustment of the instrument.

111. (039) What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?

Hydraulic.

Pneumatic.

Self-sealing.

High-pressure.

You should never use oil as an aid to installing self-sealing hoses. Self-sealing hoses have a built-in mechanism that allows them to seal themselves when disconnected, preventing the flow of fluid. Using oil during installation can interfere with this mechanism and compromise the sealing ability of the hose.

Explanation

You should never use oil as an aid to installing self-sealing hoses. Self-sealing hoses have a built-in mechanism that allows them to seal themselves when disconnected, preventing the flow of fluid. Using oil during installation can interfere with this mechanism and compromise the sealing ability of the hose.

112. (010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN

23-110.

23-254.

91-110.

91-254.

The correct answer is 23-110 because it is the only option that follows the format of AF IMT (Air Force Instructional Manual) codes. The other options do not follow this format and are therefore incorrect.

Explanation

The correct answer is 23-110 because it is the only option that follows the format of AF IMT (Air Force Instructional Manual) codes. The other options do not follow this format and are therefore incorrect.

113. (020) An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for

Job guides.

Work cards.

Preliminary TOs.

Methods and procedures TOs.

An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.

Explanation

An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.

114. (032) To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?

10.

20.

40.

50.

Measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds 50% to avoid rust. High humidity can cause moisture to accumulate on the tools, leading to rust formation. Rust can damage the measuring tools and affect their accuracy. Therefore, it is important to store them in a dry environment to prevent rust and ensure their longevity.

Explanation

Measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds 50% to avoid rust. High humidity can cause moisture to accumulate on the tools, leading to rust formation. Rust can damage the measuring tools and affect their accuracy. Therefore, it is important to store them in a dry environment to prevent rust and ensure their longevity.

115. (036) How is a screw length measured?

Thread length of the treads.

Base of the head to the bottom the threads.

Length of the shank plus the threaded portion.

Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

The correct answer is "Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads." This is because the measurement of a screw length includes the entire length of the screw, starting from the top of the head and ending at the bottom of the screw threads.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads." This is because the measurement of a screw length includes the entire length of the screw, starting from the top of the head and ending at the bottom of the screw threads.

116. (040) Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of

Notes.

Hints.

Warnings.

Cautions.

Maintenance manuals typically include operating procedures and practices that need to be followed to avoid damaging equipment. These procedures are often accompanied by cautions, which highlight potential risks or dangers associated with not strictly observing the instructions. Cautions serve as a reminder to the user that certain actions or omissions could lead to equipment damage and should be avoided. Therefore, the correct answer is "cautions."

Explanation

Maintenance manuals typically include operating procedures and practices that need to be followed to avoid damaging equipment. These procedures are often accompanied by cautions, which highlight potential risks or dangers associated with not strictly observing the instructions. Cautions serve as a reminder to the user that certain actions or omissions could lead to equipment damage and should be avoided. Therefore, the correct answer is "cautions."

117. (041) Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed form aircraft involved in mishaps?

00-20-4

2J-1-14

2J-1-19

33-1-37-1

The correct answer, 2J-1-19, covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps.

Explanation

The correct answer, 2J-1-19, covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps.

118. (047) Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?

B-1.

B-2.

B-4.

B-5.

Maintenance platform B-4 can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet.

Explanation

Maintenance platform B-4 can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet.

119. (025) For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?

2.

3.

4.

5.

The CEMS establishes and maintains records for two categories of reporting.

Explanation

The CEMS establishes and maintains records for two categories of reporting.

120. (036) What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?'

Clevis.

Hex head.

Special purpose.

Internal wrenching.

Internal wrenching bolts, also known as socket head bolts, are used primarily in high-tension applications. These bolts have a hexagonal recess on the head that allows for the use of an Allen wrench or hex key to tighten or loosen them. This design provides a stronger grip and better torque transmission compared to other types of bolts, making them suitable for high-tension applications where a secure and tight connection is crucial.

Explanation

Internal wrenching bolts, also known as socket head bolts, are used primarily in high-tension applications. These bolts have a hexagonal recess on the head that allows for the use of an Allen wrench or hex key to tighten or loosen them. This design provides a stronger grip and better torque transmission compared to other types of bolts, making them suitable for high-tension applications where a secure and tight connection is crucial.

121. (041) The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?

2.

3.

4.

5.

The correct answer is 3 because the question asks about the number of layers in the shroud-type cover. The answer of 3 indicates that the cover is made up of three layers of wrap.

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because the question asks about the number of layers in the shroud-type cover. The answer of 3 indicates that the cover is made up of three layers of wrap.

122. (031) Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?

On the dial face.

At the end of the anvil.

At the end of the thimble.

At the end of a pivoted lever.

The contact point on a dial indicator is located at the end of a pivoted lever. This lever moves in response to any displacement or movement being measured, and the contact point at its end makes contact with the surface being measured. This allows the dial indicator to accurately measure the displacement or movement.

Explanation

The contact point on a dial indicator is located at the end of a pivoted lever. This lever moves in response to any displacement or movement being measured, and the contact point at its end makes contact with the surface being measured. This allows the dial indicator to accurately measure the displacement or movement.

123. (009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?

AFMAN 23-110.

TO 00-20-2.

AFI 91-301.

TO 00-5-1.

The correct answer is TO 00-20-2. This technical order provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. It is a specific reference that provides detailed instructions on how to properly complete the form, ensuring accurate and consistent documentation.

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 00-20-2. This technical order provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag. It is a specific reference that provides detailed instructions on how to properly complete the form, ensuring accurate and consistent documentation.

124. (034) How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?

2.

3.

4.

5.

The Fluke 8025A multimeter has four range settings.

Explanation

The Fluke 8025A multimeter has four range settings.