7 Level Vol 1

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  • 1/86 Questions

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • SFS
    • SFM
    • SFO
    • SFT
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About This Quiz

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC's. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.

Professional Certification Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. External SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to quickly assess and respond to potential threats within five minutes of receiving an alarm.

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  • 3. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis

    • Feedback

    • Evaluation

    • Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and strategies. Feedback allows commanders to understand how their decisions and actions are perceived by others and whether they are achieving their objectives. It helps them make informed decisions, improve their performance, and adjust their strategies accordingly. By receiving feedback, commanders can identify areas of improvement, address weaknesses, and capitalize on strengths, ultimately leading to more successful outcomes.

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  • 4. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

    • Enforce military laws and regulations

    • Detect classified information

    • Suppress illegal drug use

    • Detect explosives

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect classified information
    Explanation
    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. This means that the program does not have the necessary tools or resources to identify and uncover confidential or secret information that may be hidden or protected. While the program may have other functions and capabilities, such as enforcing military laws and regulations, suppressing illegal drug use, and detecting explosives, it does not extend to detecting classified information.

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  • 5. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable schedule, the MWD teams are less likely to be targeted or ambushed by adversaries who may have studied their patterns. This helps to maintain the element of surprise and keeps the teams safer during their patrols.

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  • 6. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

    • Danger to the canine

    • Time left in patrol shift

    • Type and size of building

    • Weather conditions just prior to the search

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and size of building
    Explanation
    When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings may have different layouts, obstacles, or hiding places that can affect the search strategy. The size of the building can also determine the amount of time and effort required for the search. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial for ensuring an effective and efficient search operation.

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  • 7. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

    • Spare tire

    • Public address system

    • Set of keys hidden in the dash

    • NCIC computer

    Correct Answer
    A. Public address system
    Explanation
    Permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and equipped with emergency lights and sirens to ensure their visibility and ability to respond to emergencies. Additionally, having a public address system allows the security forces to communicate with the public and provide instructions or warnings when necessary. This helps maintain public safety and allows for effective communication in various situations.

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  • 8. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The given options are numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. From the options, codes 1, 2, and 3 can be alarm response codes. However, code 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 9. 

    Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping

    • Flight morale high

    • Duty position assignments limited

    • The same higly skilled person at the same post

    • A new flight member focused on a particular duty position

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight morale high
    Explanation
    Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high. When individuals are given the opportunity to rotate positions within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows them to experience different roles and responsibilities. This can lead to increased job satisfaction and motivation, ultimately contributing to a positive and high morale within the flight.

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  • 10. 

    The beneftit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

    • Photographs to be taken

    • Responding patrols to better piece together events

    • The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery

    • The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene

    Correct Answer
    A. The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery
    Explanation
    Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that the investigator can observe and analyze the evidence, the positioning of objects, and any other important details without any tampering or contamination. By preserving the scene, the investigator can gather accurate information and make informed decisions during the investigation process.

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  • 11. 

    What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?

    • The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession

    • There is no time limit set on an interview

    • No more than 30 mins

    • No more than 60 mins

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no time limit set on an interview
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that when conducting suspect interviews, there is no specific duration or time constraint imposed. The length of the interview can vary depending on the circumstances, the nature of the case, and the progress of the investigation. The absence of a time limit allows investigators to thoroughly question and gather information from the suspect without being restricted by a set timeframe.

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  • 12. 

    An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

    • Habitual offender

    • First time offender

    • Psychotic offender

    • Professional offender

    Correct Answer
    A. Habitual offender
    Explanation
    A habitual offender is an individual who repeatedly commits crimes without feeling any sense of wrongdoing. Unlike a first-time offender who may have made a mistake or acted impulsively, a habitual offender demonstrates a pattern of criminal behavior and shows no remorse or guilt for their actions. This term is often used to describe individuals who have a long history of criminal activity and have become desensitized to the consequences of their actions.

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  • 13. 

    Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may hve time to

    • Leave

    • Call a lawyer

    • Get their story straight

    • Conceal evidence of a crime

    Correct Answer
    A. Conceal evidence of a crime
    Explanation
    If occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that they can hide or destroy any proof that could potentially incriminate them. By doing so, they aim to prevent law enforcement from finding evidence that could be used against them in a criminal investigation or trial. This behavior suggests that the occupants are involved in illegal activities and are attempting to cover their tracks before the authorities can gather any evidence.

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  • 14. 

    What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

    • Calm, positive, and helpful

    • Agitated, positive, and helpful

    • Uncaring, bothered, and hurried

    • Aggressive, hostile, and immediate

    Correct Answer
    A. Calm, positive, and helpful
    Explanation
    The first impression you should set when you arrive on-scene should be calm, positive, and helpful. This means maintaining a composed and collected demeanor, exhibiting a positive attitude, and being ready to provide assistance or support. This approach helps to create a sense of trust and reassurance, making it easier to establish effective communication and address any concerns or needs of the individuals involved. It also helps to create a conducive environment for problem-solving and decision-making.

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  • 15. 

    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

    • Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.

    • Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime

    • Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location

    • Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster

    Correct Answer
    A. Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime
    Explanation
    Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because tampering with the evidence can alter its integrity and make it unreliable for analysis. The investigator may mistakenly attribute certain actions or behaviors to the wrong individuals or misinterpret the sequence of events. Therefore, it is crucial to preserve the crime scene and prevent any contamination or destruction of evidence to ensure an accurate investigation and avoid false conclusions.

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  • 16. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundry sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal SRT. The internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on maintaining security within the organization and ensuring a quick response to any potential threats or incidents.

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  • 17. 

    How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

    • 120

    • 90

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted in a timely manner and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and performance while the training is still fresh in their mind. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made based on the evaluation results.

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  • 18. 

    Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • OUT and IN

    • SIT and STAY

    • OUT and HEEL

    • STAY and HEEL

    Correct Answer
    A. OUT and HEEL
    Explanation
    Before being assigned operational duties, a Military Working Dog (MWD) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL." The command "OUT" is used to instruct the dog to release or let go of an object or person, while "HEEL" is used to command the dog to walk or run close to the handler's side. These commands are crucial for the dog's training and overall obedience, ensuring that they can effectively perform their duties in various operational situations.

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  • 19. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1473 and 1279

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

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  • 20. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

    • Determine what type of budge congress is up against wen their session starts

    • Ensure the air force is llowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the financial plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, ensuring that each area receives the necessary funding to carry out its mission effectively. By ensuring an equitable distribution, the financial plan promotes fairness, efficiency, and effective resource allocation within the organization.

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  • 21. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

    • SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios

    • Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

    • A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked and have the required equipment for emergency situations. The portable emergency lights can be easily attached to the vehicle when needed, the magnetic signs can display important information, and the public address system allows for communication with the public or other personnel.

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  • 22. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

    • PL 1

    • PL 2

    • PL 3

    • PL 4

    Correct Answer
    A. PL 4
  • 23. 

    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

    • Fit for duty

    • Prepared to prsent a post briefing

    • Complying with appearance directives

    • In possession of all required equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepared to prsent a post briefing
    Explanation
    During the personnel inspection during guardmount, it is not necessary to check if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing. This means that the inspection does not focus on evaluating the individual's readiness or ability to give a post briefing. The inspection may cover other aspects such as checking if the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment.

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  • 24. 

    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound

    • COMSEC practices

    • INFOSEC practices

    • HUMINT practices

    • OPSEC practices

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC practices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OPSEC practices. OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which involves protecting sensitive information related to military operations from being exploited by adversaries. Posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound OPSEC practices, means ensuring that the roster is displayed in a visible location for easy access by authorized personnel, while also taking precautions to prevent unauthorized individuals or potential threats from gaining access to this information. This could involve measures such as limiting the visibility of the roster to only those who need to know, using secure communication channels, or implementing physical security measures.

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  • 25. 

    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

    • Proficiency

    • Discipline

    • Fairness

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important in order to maintain proficiency. This practice allows individuals to gain experience and knowledge in different roles, enhancing their skills and capabilities. By regularly switching positions, employees can avoid becoming stagnant or complacent in their current role, ensuring they stay sharp and adaptable. This rotation also helps to identify any skill gaps or areas for improvement, allowing for targeted training and development. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency across different posts ensures that personnel are well-rounded and capable of handling various tasks and responsibilities effectively.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

    • Unit training section

    • Chief of security forces

    • Senior security forces NCO's

    • HQ Air Force Security Forces Center

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ Air Force Security Forces Center
    Explanation
    The HQ Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This implies that they have the authority and control over the training program and are accountable for its effectiveness and success. The unit training section, chief of security forces, and senior security forces NCO's may have specific roles and responsibilities within the training program, but the overall responsibility lies with the HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

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  • 27. 

    When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find a parent r the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

    • Seek CSP advice

    • Seek ADC advice

    • Seek SJA advice

    • Question them with a witness

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek SJA advice
    Explanation
    If you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on legal matters, including the proper procedures for questioning a juvenile in the absence of a parent. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning is conducted in a legally appropriate manner.

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  • 28. 

    What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect ready to provide information?

    • Let aother investigator conduct the interview

    • Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you

    • Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down

    • Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue

    Correct Answer
    A. Let aother investigator conduct the interview
    Explanation
    If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and a suspect who is ready to provide information, the best course of action would be to let another investigator conduct the interview. This ensures that the conflict does not hinder the collection of information and allows for a more objective and unbiased interaction with the suspect. It also helps maintain a professional atmosphere and prevents any potential escalation of the conflict.

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  • 29. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • Investigations

    • Crime prevention

    • Resource protection

    • Reports and analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports and analysis
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed falls under the office of "reports and analysis." This office is accountable for collecting and organizing data related to criminal incidents, analyzing the information, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the findings. They play a crucial role in providing accurate and up-to-date information for decision-making, resource allocation, and identifying trends or patterns in criminal activities.

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  • 30. 

    When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to get maximum usage?

    • In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability

    • At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • Downwind of ll personnel, so that there is no scen confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    A. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
    Explanation
    Placing the dogs at key vantage points and avenues of approach allows them to effectively prevent unauthorized persons from entering. This positioning ensures that the dogs can detect and alert their handlers to any potential threats or intruders, thus enhancing security measures.

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  • 31. 

    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

    • Location and size of area

    • Time and terrain features

    • Wind speed and direction

    • Experiece of canine and handler

    Correct Answer
    A. Location and size of area
    Explanation
    Leaders must consider the location and size of the area before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams. This is important because the location determines the specific needs and challenges that the teams may face, such as urban or rural environments, different types of terrain, or potential hazards. The size of the area also affects the number of teams required and the resources needed for effective coverage. By considering these factors, leaders can make informed decisions about deploying MWD teams in a way that maximizes their effectiveness and ensures the safety of both the teams and the mission.

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  • 32. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • Physical deterrent

    • Physicians deterrent

    • Physiological deterrent

    • Psychological deterrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can instill fear and apprehension in potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog team can discourage individuals from committing crimes, as they may perceive the risk of being caught or harmed as higher. The mere presence of a patrol dog can create a sense of authority and control, influencing the behavior of both suspects and the general public.

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  • 33. 

    When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

    • During daylight hours- they can use sight and sound

    • During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • During periods of dense fog ad darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
    Explanation
    During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell becomes its primary tool for detecting threats or targets. With limited distractions, the dog can focus solely on using its olfactory senses to locate and identify potential dangers. Additionally, darkness or limited visibility can provide an advantage to the dog as it may be able to move undetected, giving it a tactical advantage in certain situations.

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  • 34. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • Before firing, after a three day break, andwhe directed by the armory

    • Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Regular cleaning helps to remove dirt, debris, and moisture that may accumulate during use or in adverse weather conditions. It also helps to prevent malfunctions and maintain the longevity of the weapons. Cleaning after firing is important to remove residue and prevent corrosion. Overall, regular and timely cleaning of weapons is essential for their effective and safe operation.

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  • 35. 

    Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

    • Voluntarily

    • Unwillingly

    • Mandatorily

    • Involuntarily

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily
    Explanation
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that drivers should willingly and willingly comply with the rules and regulations without any external force or coercion. Selective enforcement refers to the prioritization of certain violations over others, focusing on those that pose a higher risk to public safety. By emphasizing voluntary compliance, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages drivers to willingly follow the rules, ultimately leading to a safer driving environment.

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  • 36. 

    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

    • Terminate response

    • Immediately secure the area

    • Search for suspicious individuals

    • Search the exterior for open doors or windows

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately secure the area
    Explanation
    Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any potential threats or further harm. Securing the area involves establishing control, restricting access, and implementing necessary measures to prevent unauthorized entry or tampering with evidence. It allows responders to assess the situation, gather information, and proceed with appropriate actions in a controlled and safe environment.

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  • 37. 

    What is the unit flight schedule based on?

    • Deployment/operations tempo

    • Flight TDY/leave schedule

    • Individual needs

    • Unit needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit needs
    Explanation
    The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by what the unit requires in terms of flights, such as training exercises, deployments, or other operational needs. The schedule is designed to meet the specific requirements and goals of the unit, ensuring that flights are scheduled in a way that supports the overall mission and objectives.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

    • Individual skills

    • Collective skills

    • Contigency skills

    • Ground combat skills

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual skills
    Explanation
    Individual skills training refers to the type of training conducted to teach tasks required for a specific duty position. This type of training focuses on developing the necessary skills and knowledge that an individual needs to perform their job effectively. It is tailored to the specific requirements and responsibilities of the position, ensuring that the individual is equipped with the necessary abilities to carry out their duties independently. This training may include technical skills, job-specific knowledge, and proficiency in specific tasks or procedures.

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  • 39. 

    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in the preliminary investigation

    • Interferes with the ongoing investigation

    • Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight

    • Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer

    • Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects

    Correct Answer
    A. Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects
    Explanation
    Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This is important because it allows for an unbiased perspective and increases the chances of discovering new evidence or clues that may have been overlooked. It also helps to ensure a fair and objective investigation process.

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  • 40. 

    When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

    • Hiding drugs

    • Looking for n escape

    • Cold and wants a jacket

    • Hiding an injured family member or a weapon

    Correct Answer
    A. Hiding an injured family member or a weapon
    Explanation
    When interviewing residents, it is important to be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This could indicate that there is a potentially dangerous situation or someone in need of help. It is crucial to remain vigilant and ensure the safety of everyone involved during the interview process.

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  • 41. 

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • The first duty day following completion

    • Within 30 days of completion

    • 72 hours after completion

    • 48 hours after completion

    Correct Answer
    A. The first duty day following completion
    Explanation
    You must notify the training section that qualification training is complete on the first duty day following completion. This means that as soon as you have finished the training, you should inform the training section on your next scheduled duty day. It is important to promptly notify them to ensure that your completion of the training is properly documented and recorded.

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  • 42. 

    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

    • Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • Act as a subordinate C3 centerfor security forces posted during normal operations.

    • Control entry into strctures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas." This is not a function performed by MSCFOs because their role is primarily focused on assessing exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV, acting as a subordinate C3 center for security forces, and controlling entry into structures and alerting shelters and individual resources protected with IDS. They do not have the responsibility to ensure that all IDS and C3 centers meet higher headquarters requirements.

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  • 43. 

    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?

    • 30

    • 21

    • 15

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the individual to receive additional training and preparation before being reevaluated. A shorter timeframe may not provide enough time for the individual to make necessary improvements, while a longer timeframe may delay the reevaluation process unnecessarily. Therefore, 15 days strikes a balance between allowing for adequate preparation and ensuring timely reevaluation.

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  • 44. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

    • Sit/stay

    • Guard

    • Heel

    • Out

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "guard." When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a guarding position. This position allows the dog to protect and defend the handler, while maintaining control and readiness for any potential threats. The guard position is often used in situations where there is a need for heightened security or when there is a potential threat to the handler's safety.

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  • 45. 

    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?

    • The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval ( arm's length). each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). each succedding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.

    • The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length) . each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts and automatically executes a dress right

    Correct Answer
    A. The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.
    Explanation
    After the command "open ranks MARCH", the last element in the flight will remain in place and perform a dress right at a normal interval. Each element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces forward, halt, and then automatically perform a dress right. This means that the flight will adjust their positions by taking the specified number of paces forward and align themselves properly before executing the dress right movement.

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  • 46. 

    During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?

    • When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed

    • Immediately after the forth rank has ben inspected

    • At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • Upon departure of the inspecting official

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting official
    Explanation
    During an open ranks inspection, the command "close ranks, march" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that once the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks and is ready to leave, the command is given to close ranks and march. This allows the formation to return to its normal formation and continue with their duties.

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  • 47. 

    As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that could be open for

    • Interpretaion

    • Discussion

    • Argument

    • Debate

    Correct Answer
    A. Argument
    Explanation
    As a leader and supervisor, it is important to avoid asking questions that could lead to arguments. This is because arguments can create a negative and hostile work environment, hindering productivity and collaboration among team members. Instead, leaders should focus on asking questions that promote discussion, interpretation, and debate in a constructive manner, encouraging different perspectives and fostering a healthy exchange of ideas. By avoiding questions that may spark arguments, leaders can maintain a positive and harmonious workplace atmosphere.

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  • 48. 

    In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

    • Length and neatness

    • Simplicity and directness

    • Correct details and factual statements

    • Clear statements and prooper grammar

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplicity and directness
    Explanation
    The communications need to meet the tests of simplicity and directness. This means that the messages should be easy to understand and straight to the point. By ensuring simplicity, the information can be easily comprehended by the recipients, avoiding any confusion or misinterpretation. Directness ensures that the messages are concise and do not contain unnecessary or irrelevant information, making the communication more effective and efficient.

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  • 49. 

    Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search and by the

    • Number of personnel available

    • Size of the item to be found

    • Amount of time available

    • Area to be covered

    Correct Answer
    A. Area to be covered
    Explanation
    The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. This means that the size of the search area will determine the most effective search method to use. For larger areas, more personnel may be needed to cover the area efficiently. On the other hand, smaller areas may require fewer personnel. The size of the search area is an important factor in determining the appropriate search method to ensure that the entire area is thoroughly searched within the available time and resources.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Kk07x
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