7 Level Vol 1

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1. All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

Explanation

Permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and equipped with emergency lights and sirens to ensure their visibility and ability to respond to emergencies. Additionally, having a public address system allows the security forces to communicate with the public and provide instructions or warnings when necessary. This helps maintain public safety and allows for effective communication in various situations.

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About This Quiz
Professional Certification Quizzes & Trivia

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC's. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.

2. Which code is not an alarm response code?

Explanation

The given options are numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. From the options, codes 1, 2, and 3 can be alarm response codes. However, code 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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3. Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping

Explanation

Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high. When individuals are given the opportunity to rotate positions within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows them to experience different roles and responsibilities. This can lead to increased job satisfaction and motivation, ultimately contributing to a positive and high morale within the flight.

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4. Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene

Explanation

Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because tampering with the evidence can alter its integrity and make it unreliable for analysis. The investigator may mistakenly attribute certain actions or behaviors to the wrong individuals or misinterpret the sequence of events. Therefore, it is crucial to preserve the crime scene and prevent any contamination or destruction of evidence to ensure an accurate investigation and avoid false conclusions.

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5. The beneftit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows

Explanation

Having a crime scene adequately protected allows the investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that the investigator can observe and analyze the evidence, the positioning of objects, and any other important details without any tampering or contamination. By preserving the scene, the investigator can gather accurate information and make informed decisions during the investigation process.

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6. What is the time limit placed on suspect intervies?

Explanation

The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that when conducting suspect interviews, there is no specific duration or time constraint imposed. The length of the interview can vary depending on the circumstances, the nature of the case, and the progress of the investigation. The absence of a time limit allows investigators to thoroughly question and gather information from the suspect without being restricted by a set timeframe.

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7. An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a

Explanation

A habitual offender is an individual who repeatedly commits crimes without feeling any sense of wrongdoing. Unlike a first-time offender who may have made a mistake or acted impulsively, a habitual offender demonstrates a pattern of criminal behavior and shows no remorse or guilt for their actions. This term is often used to describe individuals who have a long history of criminal activity and have become desensitized to the consequences of their actions.

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8. Other than making the situation worse, if occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may hve time to

Explanation

If occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that they can hide or destroy any proof that could potentially incriminate them. By doing so, they aim to prevent law enforcement from finding evidence that could be used against them in a criminal investigation or trial. This behavior suggests that the occupants are involved in illegal activities and are attempting to cover their tracks before the authorities can gather any evidence.

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9. What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?

Explanation

The first impression you should set when you arrive on-scene should be calm, positive, and helpful. This means maintaining a composed and collected demeanor, exhibiting a positive attitude, and being ready to provide assistance or support. This approach helps to create a sense of trust and reassurance, making it easier to establish effective communication and address any concerns or needs of the individuals involved. It also helps to create a conducive environment for problem-solving and decision-making.

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10. Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

Explanation

The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Squadron First Sergeant, who is responsible for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. The Squadron First Sergeant is a senior enlisted member of the squadron and serves as the principal advisor to the commander on all matters concerning the enlisted force. They are responsible for ensuring the unit's personnel are properly trained, maintaining standards, and conducting evaluations to ensure the unit's readiness and effectiveness.

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11. What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to quickly assess and respond to potential threats within five minutes of receiving an alarm.

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12. What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

Explanation

Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and strategies. Feedback allows commanders to understand how their decisions and actions are perceived by others and whether they are achieving their objectives. It helps them make informed decisions, improve their performance, and adjust their strategies accordingly. By receiving feedback, commanders can identify areas of improvement, address weaknesses, and capitalize on strengths, ultimately leading to more successful outcomes.

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13. The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

Explanation

The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. This means that the program does not have the necessary tools or resources to identify and uncover confidential or secret information that may be hidden or protected. While the program may have other functions and capabilities, such as enforcing military laws and regulations, suppressing illegal drug use, and detecting explosives, it does not extend to detecting classified information.

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14. What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

Explanation

The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable schedule, the MWD teams are less likely to be targeted or ambushed by adversaries who may have studied their patterns. This helps to maintain the element of surprise and keeps the teams safer during their patrols.

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15. When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

Explanation

When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings may have different layouts, obstacles, or hiding places that can affect the search strategy. The size of the building can also determine the amount of time and effort required for the search. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial for ensuring an effective and efficient search operation.

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16. The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

Explanation

The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the financial plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, ensuring that each area receives the necessary funding to carry out its mission effectively. By ensuring an equitable distribution, the financial plan promotes fairness, efficiency, and effective resource allocation within the organization.

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17. All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

Explanation

The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked and have the required equipment for emergency situations. The portable emergency lights can be easily attached to the vehicle when needed, the magnetic signs can display important information, and the public address system allows for communication with the public or other personnel.

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18. Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

Explanation

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19. Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

Explanation

During the personnel inspection during guardmount, it is not necessary to check if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing. This means that the inspection does not focus on evaluating the individual's readiness or ability to give a post briefing. The inspection may cover other aspects such as checking if the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment.

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20. Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound

Explanation

The correct answer is OPSEC practices. OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which involves protecting sensitive information related to military operations from being exploited by adversaries. Posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound OPSEC practices, means ensuring that the roster is displayed in a visible location for easy access by authorized personnel, while also taking precautions to prevent unauthorized individuals or potential threats from gaining access to this information. This could involve measures such as limiting the visibility of the roster to only those who need to know, using secure communication channels, or implementing physical security measures.

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21. It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

Explanation

Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important in order to maintain proficiency. This practice allows individuals to gain experience and knowledge in different roles, enhancing their skills and capabilities. By regularly switching positions, employees can avoid becoming stagnant or complacent in their current role, ensuring they stay sharp and adaptable. This rotation also helps to identify any skill gaps or areas for improvement, allowing for targeted training and development. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency across different posts ensures that personnel are well-rounded and capable of handling various tasks and responsibilities effectively.

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22. Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?

Explanation

The HQ Air Force Security Forces Center is responsible for the overall security forces training program. This implies that they have the authority and control over the training program and are accountable for its effectiveness and success. The unit training section, chief of security forces, and senior security forces NCO's may have specific roles and responsibilities within the training program, but the overall responsibility lies with the HQ Air Force Security Forces Center.

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23. When questioning a juvenile, what action do yo take if you cannot find a parent r the parent cannot respond in a timely manner?

Explanation

If you cannot find a parent or the parent cannot respond in a timely manner when questioning a juvenile, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action to take. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on legal matters, including the proper procedures for questioning a juvenile in the absence of a parent. They can help ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning is conducted in a legally appropriate manner.

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24. What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect ready to provide information?

Explanation

If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and a suspect who is ready to provide information, the best course of action would be to let another investigator conduct the interview. This ensures that the conflict does not hinder the collection of information and allows for a more objective and unbiased interaction with the suspect. It also helps maintain a professional atmosphere and prevents any potential escalation of the conflict.

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25. What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

Explanation

The correct answer is internal SRT. The internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on maintaining security within the organization and ensuring a quick response to any potential threats or incidents.

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26. How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

Explanation

The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted in a timely manner and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and performance while the training is still fresh in their mind. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made based on the evaluation results.

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27. Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

Explanation

Before being assigned operational duties, a Military Working Dog (MWD) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL." The command "OUT" is used to instruct the dog to release or let go of an object or person, while "HEEL" is used to command the dog to walk or run close to the handler's side. These commands are crucial for the dog's training and overall obedience, ensuring that they can effectively perform their duties in various operational situations.

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28. Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

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29. Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

Explanation

Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that drivers should willingly and willingly comply with the rules and regulations without any external force or coercion. Selective enforcement refers to the prioritization of certain violations over others, focusing on those that pose a higher risk to public safety. By emphasizing voluntary compliance, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages drivers to willingly follow the rules, ultimately leading to a safer driving environment.

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30. Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

Explanation

Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any potential threats or further harm. Securing the area involves establishing control, restricting access, and implementing necessary measures to prevent unauthorized entry or tampering with evidence. It allows responders to assess the situation, gather information, and proceed with appropriate actions in a controlled and safe environment.

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31. What is the unit flight schedule based on?

Explanation

The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by what the unit requires in terms of flights, such as training exercises, deployments, or other operational needs. The schedule is designed to meet the specific requirements and goals of the unit, ensuring that flights are scheduled in a way that supports the overall mission and objectives.

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32. Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a specific duty position?

Explanation

Individual skills training refers to the type of training conducted to teach tasks required for a specific duty position. This type of training focuses on developing the necessary skills and knowledge that an individual needs to perform their job effectively. It is tailored to the specific requirements and responsibilities of the position, ensuring that the individual is equipped with the necessary abilities to carry out their duties independently. This training may include technical skills, job-specific knowledge, and proficiency in specific tasks or procedures.

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33. Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in the preliminary investigation

Explanation

Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This is important because it allows for an unbiased perspective and increases the chances of discovering new evidence or clues that may have been overlooked. It also helps to ensure a fair and objective investigation process.

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34. When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be

Explanation

When interviewing residents, it is important to be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This could indicate that there is a potentially dangerous situation or someone in need of help. It is crucial to remain vigilant and ensure the safety of everyone involved during the interview process.

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35. Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

Explanation

The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed falls under the office of "reports and analysis." This office is accountable for collecting and organizing data related to criminal incidents, analyzing the information, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the findings. They play a crucial role in providing accurate and up-to-date information for decision-making, resource allocation, and identifying trends or patterns in criminal activities.

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36. When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to get maximum usage?

Explanation

Placing the dogs at key vantage points and avenues of approach allows them to effectively prevent unauthorized persons from entering. This positioning ensures that the dogs can detect and alert their handlers to any potential threats or intruders, thus enhancing security measures.

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37. What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

Explanation

Leaders must consider the location and size of the area before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams. This is important because the location determines the specific needs and challenges that the teams may face, such as urban or rural environments, different types of terrain, or potential hazards. The size of the area also affects the number of teams required and the resources needed for effective coverage. By considering these factors, leaders can make informed decisions about deploying MWD teams in a way that maximizes their effectiveness and ensures the safety of both the teams and the mission.

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38. When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

Explanation

A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can instill fear and apprehension in potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog team can discourage individuals from committing crimes, as they may perceive the risk of being caught or harmed as higher. The mere presence of a patrol dog can create a sense of authority and control, influencing the behavior of both suspects and the general public.

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39. When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

Explanation

During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell becomes its primary tool for detecting threats or targets. With limited distractions, the dog can focus solely on using its olfactory senses to locate and identify potential dangers. Additionally, darkness or limited visibility can provide an advantage to the dog as it may be able to move undetected, giving it a tactical advantage in certain situations.

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40. When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

Explanation

Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Regular cleaning helps to remove dirt, debris, and moisture that may accumulate during use or in adverse weather conditions. It also helps to prevent malfunctions and maintain the longevity of the weapons. Cleaning after firing is important to remove residue and prevent corrosion. Overall, regular and timely cleaning of weapons is essential for their effective and safe operation.

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41. What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?

Explanation

After the command "open ranks MARCH", the last element in the flight will remain in place and perform a dress right at a normal interval. Each element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces forward, halt, and then automatically perform a dress right. This means that the flight will adjust their positions by taking the specified number of paces forward and align themselves properly before executing the dress right movement.

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42. During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?

Explanation

During an open ranks inspection, the command "close ranks, march" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that once the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks and is ready to leave, the command is given to close ranks and march. This allows the formation to return to its normal formation and continue with their duties.

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43. As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that could be open for

Explanation

As a leader and supervisor, it is important to avoid asking questions that could lead to arguments. This is because arguments can create a negative and hostile work environment, hindering productivity and collaboration among team members. Instead, leaders should focus on asking questions that promote discussion, interpretation, and debate in a constructive manner, encouraging different perspectives and fostering a healthy exchange of ideas. By avoiding questions that may spark arguments, leaders can maintain a positive and harmonious workplace atmosphere.

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44. In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

Explanation

The communications need to meet the tests of simplicity and directness. This means that the messages should be easy to understand and straight to the point. By ensuring simplicity, the information can be easily comprehended by the recipients, avoiding any confusion or misinterpretation. Directness ensures that the messages are concise and do not contain unnecessary or irrelevant information, making the communication more effective and efficient.

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45. Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search and by the

Explanation

The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. This means that the size of the search area will determine the most effective search method to use. For larger areas, more personnel may be needed to cover the area efficiently. On the other hand, smaller areas may require fewer personnel. The size of the search area is an important factor in determining the appropriate search method to ensure that the entire area is thoroughly searched within the available time and resources.

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46. What is a confession?

Explanation

A confession is a complete acknowledgement of guilt of all elements of an offense. It is a statement made by the accused admitting their involvement in a crime and accepting responsibility for all the necessary elements of that offense. This implies that the individual confessing acknowledges their guilt for all aspects of the crime, including their actions, intent, and any other necessary elements required to establish their culpability.

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47. Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?

Explanation

The controller must keep the flight chief and flight commander informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each. These individuals are higher-ranking officials within the flight and are responsible for overseeing and managing operations. By keeping them informed, the controller ensures that they have the necessary information to make informed decisions and effectively lead the flight.

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48. Who is reponsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?

Explanation

The command post is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident. This is because the command post is typically the central location where coordination and communication take place during emergencies or major incidents. It serves as a hub for gathering information, making decisions, and disseminating instructions to relevant parties, including the disaster control group. Therefore, the command post is the most appropriate entity to handle the notification process in such situations.

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49. From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when

Explanation

During the first 15 to 45 minutes after a hostage situation, the hostage takers are likely to be experiencing a panic reaction. This means that they may be more impulsive, erratic, and potentially more dangerous. Their initial panic may lead to unpredictable behavior, increasing the risk for the hostages. It is crucial for the hostage negotiation team to establish contact and begin the negotiation process during this time to try and de-escalate the situation and ensure the safety of the hostages.

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50. When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

Explanation

You must notify the training section that qualification training is complete on the first duty day following completion. This means that as soon as you have finished the training, you should inform the training section on your next scheduled duty day. It is important to promptly notify them to ensure that your completion of the training is properly documented and recorded.

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51. What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

Explanation

The correct answer is "assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas." This is not a function performed by MSCFOs because their role is primarily focused on assessing exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV, acting as a subordinate C3 center for security forces, and controlling entry into structures and alerting shelters and individual resources protected with IDS. They do not have the responsibility to ensure that all IDS and C3 centers meet higher headquarters requirements.

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52. After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?

Explanation

After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the individual to receive additional training and preparation before being reevaluated. A shorter timeframe may not provide enough time for the individual to make necessary improvements, while a longer timeframe may delay the reevaluation process unnecessarily. Therefore, 15 days strikes a balance between allowing for adequate preparation and ensuring timely reevaluation.

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53. If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

Explanation

The correct answer is "guard." When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a guarding position. This position allows the dog to protect and defend the handler, while maintaining control and readiness for any potential threats. The guard position is often used in situations where there is a need for heightened security or when there is a potential threat to the handler's safety.

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54. Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools?

Explanation

Senior security forces NCOs are responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are technically trained, qualified, and afforded the opportunity to attend appropriate professional military education schools. They have the knowledge and experience to assess the training needs of their subordinates and provide guidance and resources to help them develop their skills. They work closely with unit training sections and individual supervisors to ensure that the training requirements are met and that personnel are prepared for their roles within the security forces.

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55. The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "dull sword" identifies a nuclear weapons

Explanation

The correct answer is "deficiency" because the term "dull sword" is used as a flag word to identify a nuclear weapons deficiency. This suggests that there is a lack or inadequacy in the nuclear weapons system, rather than an accident, incident, or occurrence. The word "deficiency" implies a specific problem or flaw that needs to be addressed or rectified.

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56. In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?

Explanation

Personnel should withdraw from an accident site in the upwind or crosswind direction. This is because moving upwind (opposite to the direction of the wind) helps to minimize exposure to hazardous fumes, smoke, or chemical releases that could be carried by the wind towards the personnel. Moving crosswind (perpendicular to the direction of the wind) also helps to avoid being directly in the path of any potential hazards. Therefore, withdrawing in the upwind or crosswind direction ensures the safety of personnel during an accident.

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57. Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?

Explanation

Key personnel are allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident because they are individuals who have specific roles and responsibilities related to managing and resolving the incident. These individuals possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and authority to effectively handle the situation and make critical decisions. Their presence within the inner perimeter ensures that the incident is managed efficiently and effectively, minimizing risks and ensuring the safety of all involved.

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58. What does SEI stand for?

Explanation

SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This acronym is used to refer to a unique identifier that signifies a particular experience or skillset. It is likely used in contexts where individuals are categorized or classified based on their specialized experiences or qualifications. The other options, such as security entry identifier and security experience index, do not accurately represent the meaning of SEI in this context.

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59. The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

Explanation

The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that the SEI is given to individuals or teams who possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and capabilities to handle specific situations or fulfill specific requirements. It helps in ensuring that there are resources available that can effectively respond to unique circumstances, meet contingency requirements, and address management needs. This allows for better planning and allocation of resources in various situations.

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60. While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?

Explanation

The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is because having the MWD off leash allows it to move freely and respond quickly if needed. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and can easily observe its surroundings. Having the MWD on the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving can be dangerous for the dog and distracting for the driver. Placing the MWD in a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck may expose it to external hazards and is not as secure as having it inside the vehicle.

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61. At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?

Explanation

During the preliminary visual examination, search and rescue teams assess the situation and gather information about the area they are about to search. This includes identifying potential hazards, determining the scope of the search, and evaluating available resources. Based on this assessment, they establish their game plan, which outlines the strategies and tactics they will employ during the search. Therefore, the game plan is established during the preliminary visual examination.

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62. How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?

Explanation

The correct answer is that an interview is limited to two investigators. This means that during a suspect interview, there should be a maximum of two investigators present. Having more than two investigators could potentially overwhelm or intimidate the suspect, affecting the accuracy and reliability of the information obtained during the interview.

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63. Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,

Explanation

The personal attributes that are essential when testifying are tact, poise, and self-confidence. Tact is important because it involves being sensitive and careful in one's words and actions, especially when dealing with sensitive or difficult topics. Poise refers to maintaining composure and grace under pressure, which is crucial when facing questioning and cross-examination. Self-confidence is necessary to project credibility and assertiveness while testifying, as it helps the witness appear reliable and convincing. These attributes collectively contribute to an effective and persuasive testimony.

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64. The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight

Explanation

The correct answer is chief. The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. They oversee the overall management and coordination of flight operations, ensuring that all tasks are carried out efficiently and safely. As the highest-ranking officer in charge, the chief has the authority to make decisions and give instructions to the flight personnel. They play a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of the flight unit.

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65. The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

Explanation

The area supervisor is responsible for overseeing the security operations in a specific area. In this case, the duties of the area supervisor are performed by the security force members. This implies that the security force members have been assigned the task of supervising and managing the security patrol, SRT, and ART activities in the area. They are likely experienced and knowledgeable individuals who have been entrusted with the responsibility of ensuring the safety and security of the designated area.

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66. When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

Explanation

In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These specially trained dogs are used to detect various threats such as explosives, drugs, or intruders. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items or individuals with high accuracy. By focusing on detection, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing security measures and ensuring the safety of personnel and facilities.

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67. Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information?

Explanation

The direct approach to questioning is used in interviews when a subject is not willing or ready to provide information. This approach involves asking straightforward and specific questions to the subject, leaving no room for ambiguity or evasion. By directly addressing the issue at hand, the interviewer aims to elicit the desired information from the subject, even if they are initially hesitant or resistant to sharing it. This approach can help uncover important insights or facts that may otherwise remain hidden.

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68. Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required training by all local agencies?

Explanation

The LRO, or Local Records Officer, is responsible for ensuring that all local agencies accomplish the required training. The LRO is in charge of maintaining and organizing records for their specific locality, including training records. They are responsible for ensuring that all employees within the local agencies receive the necessary training and that records of their completion are properly maintained.

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69. On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onsceen commander deems it appropriate?

Explanation

The United States retains the option for immediate use of lethal weapons when the onscreen commander deems it appropriate. This means that in a battlefield situation, the United States has the authority to make decisions regarding the use of lethal force without seeking permission from higher authorities. This is in line with the concept of command and control in military operations, where commanders have the discretion to make decisions based on the immediate circumstances they face.

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70. The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting additional inestigative steps of an incident when the member is

Explanation

The correct answer is "reviewing and analyzing all previous reports prepared". This is because by reviewing and analyzing all previous reports, the member can gain a comprehensive understanding of the incident, including any information that may have been missed or overlooked. This will help in identifying any gaps in the investigation and determining the next steps to be taken. It will also provide valuable insights into the progress of the investigation so far and help in formulating an effective investigative strategy for conducting additional steps.

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71. What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "title 18, united states code, and the us constitution". This answer is correct because Title 18 of the United States Code outlines the federal laws and regulations regarding criminal offenses, including those committed on military installations. The US Constitution also provides the legal framework for the detention of civilians, ensuring that their rights are protected.

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72. Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the united states code that occur on DOD installations or within DOD facilities?

Explanation

The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged violations of the United States Code that occur on Department of Defense (DOD) installations or within DOD facilities. The FBI has jurisdiction over federal crimes and is responsible for enforcing federal laws, including those that pertain to DOD installations. They work closely with other agencies, such as the Department of Defense Office of Inspector General, to ensure the safety and security of DOD facilities and personnel.

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73. When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

Explanation

When two-person internal SRT (Special Response Team) working within its assigned restricted area separates, it creates the need for individual personnel to cover the area. These individual personnel can be organized into security patrols to ensure the continued security and surveillance of the area. Security patrols allow for efficient coverage and monitoring of the restricted area, ensuring that no breaches occur and maintaining a high level of security.

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74. If any individual appreas to be emotional, distraught, or stunned folloing any interview, to which person can the individual be released?

Explanation

If an individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following an interview, they can be released to their supervisor. The supervisor is responsible for the individual's well-being and can provide support or assistance if needed. They have a professional relationship and are likely to have knowledge of the individual's emotional state and any necessary steps to take.

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75. Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce boundary is the responsibility of the

Explanation

CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system used for security surveillance. It involves using cameras to monitor a specific area, typically a restricted or individual resource boundary. Therefore, providing security surveillance for such a boundary is the responsibility of CBS.

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76. Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?

Explanation

AFI 36-2225 is the correct answer because it specifically governs the security forces stan-eval program. This regulation provides guidelines and procedures for evaluating and ensuring the proficiency and effectiveness of security forces personnel. It outlines the standards, responsibilities, and requirements for conducting stan-eval activities within the security forces community.

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77. A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of

Explanation

A post priority chart is a listing of posts and patrols in order of precedence, from least important to most important. This order of precedence is outlined in the ISI (Intelligence Support Activity) guidelines. The chart helps in determining the importance and priority of different posts and patrols based on their assigned precedence level.

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78. What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFH 33-337. This publication reference is likely the correct answer because it matches the format of the other options (AFH/AFI followed by numbers) and is the only option that includes the numbers 33-337, which suggests that it is the most relevant publication for the topic of the tongue and quill.

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79. What is not of of the three sources you can use when testifying in court?

Explanation

Tape recordings are not one of the three sources that can be used when testifying in court. The three sources that can be used are personal knowledge, memoranda, and notes. Tape recordings are not considered a reliable or admissible form of evidence in court as they can be easily manipulated or misinterpreted. Therefore, when testifying, individuals are expected to rely on their personal knowledge, as well as any written records they have made in the form of memoranda or notes.

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80. What is not an indication of child neglect?

Explanation

Signs of impoverishment are not an indication of child neglect. Child neglect refers to the failure of providing basic needs and care for a child's well-being. Lack of medical care, inadequate nourishment, insufficient clothing, and lack of supervision are all examples of neglectful behaviors. However, signs of impoverishment, such as living in poverty or having limited financial resources, may not necessarily indicate neglect. It is important to consider various factors and gather more information before making conclusions about child neglect.

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81. It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who has experienced

Explanation

When a person has experienced a serious violent crime, it is crucial to pay special attention to them because they have likely endured significant physical and emotional trauma. This type of crime can have long-lasting effects on the victim's well-being and may require specific support and resources to aid in their recovery. It is important to address their immediate needs and provide them with the necessary assistance to navigate the legal and emotional aspects of their situation.

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82. The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and responsibilities to the

Explanation

The installation commander has the authority to delegate the duties and responsibilities of the LRO (Legal Review Officer) to the SJA (Staff Judge Advocate). The SJA is a legal advisor who provides guidance and support to the installation commander on legal matters. By delegating the LRO duties to the SJA, the installation commander ensures that legal reviews and assessments are conducted effectively and in accordance with the law.

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83. Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

Explanation

This statement is not true because military working dogs are trained to work at any time of the day, including daylight hours. They are trained to be adaptable and perform their duties regardless of the time of day. Therefore, the statement that they should not be used often in daylight hours is incorrect.

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84. From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

Explanation

When a dog team is about to check a building, it is best for them to approach from the downwind direction. This means that the wind is blowing from the building towards the team. Approaching downwind allows the dogs to pick up any scents or odors that may be coming from inside the building more easily. It also reduces the risk of alerting any potential occupants or intruders inside the building, as the wind will carry the team's scent away from the building.

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85. Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting  child are indicators of

Explanation

Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting a child are all forms of emotional maltreatment. Emotional maltreatment refers to any behavior that harms a child's emotional well-being and development. This can include constant criticism, humiliation, belittling, or ignoring a child's needs and feelings. These actions can have long-lasting negative effects on a child's self-esteem, emotional stability, and overall mental health. Therefore, emotional maltreatment is the correct answer in this case.

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86. Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an investigation is called

Explanation

A follow-up investigation is the process of tying up loose ends and ensuring that nothing was missed during an initial investigation. It involves conducting additional interviews and reviewing the case to gather any additional evidence or information that may be relevant. This helps to ensure that all aspects of the case have been thoroughly examined and any remaining questions or uncertainties are addressed.

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When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into...
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
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It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post...
Who is responsible for the overall security forces training program?
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How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to...
Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD...
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers...
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
What is the unit flight schedule based on?
Which type of training do you conduct to teach tasks required for a...
Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not veen involved in...
When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden moveents...
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required...
When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to...
What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an...
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a...
When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
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During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close...
As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that...
In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to...
Your choice of search method is determine by the intent of the search...
What is a confession?
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Who is reponsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major...
From a hostage's standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most...
When must you notify the training section that qualification training...
What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?
After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many...
If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the...
Who is responsible for ensuring that enlisted personnel are...
The nuclear weapons mishap flag word "dull sword" identifies a nuclear...
In what direction should personnel withdraw from an accident site?
Who is allowed within the inner perimeter at a high-risk incident?
What does SEI stand for?
The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify
While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?
At what point during a search do you establish your game plan?
How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
Ther personal attributes that are essential when testifying are skill,
The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency...
The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior
When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of...
Which approach to questioning do you use for interviews when a subject...
Who is responsible for ensuring the accomplishment of required...
On the battlefield, who retains the option for immediate use of lethal...
The member needs to develop an investigative strategy for conducting...
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a...
Who is the lead agency for investigating and prosecuting alleged...
When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned...
If any individual appreas to be emotional, distraught, or stunned...
Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce...
Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?
A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order...
What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?
What is not of of the three sources you can use when testifying in...
What is not an indication of child neglect?
It is important that you pay special attention to a crime victim who...
The installation commander can delegate the LRO duties and...
Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?
From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are...
Ignoring, threatening, terrorizing, or blatantly rejecting  child...
Tying up loose ends and ensuring nothing was missed during an...
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