7 Level Vol 1

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Kk07x
K
Kk07x
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 264
| Attempts: 130
Quiz Flashcard
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/86 Questions

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • The first duty day following completion
    • Within 30 days of completion
    • 72 hours after completion
    • 48 hours after completion
Please wait...
CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Security forces supervisor 7 level CDC's. All multiple choice and have to possess at least a 95% or better to pass.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibilityy of the flight

    • Commander

    • Supervisor

    • SNCO

    • Chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chief. The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. They oversee the overall management and coordination of flight operations, ensuring that all tasks are carried out efficiently and safely. As the highest-ranking officer in charge, the chief has the authority to make decisions and give instructions to the flight personnel. They play a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of the flight unit.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • SFS

    • SFM

    • SFO

    • SFT

    Correct Answer
    A. SFM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Squadron First Sergeant, who is responsible for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. The Squadron First Sergeant is a senior enlisted member of the squadron and serves as the principal advisor to the commander on all matters concerning the enlisted force. They are responsible for ensuring the unit's personnel are properly trained, maintaining standards, and conducting evaluations to ensure the unit's readiness and effectiveness.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

    • Security patrol

    • Security force members

    • SRT member

    • ART member

    Correct Answer
    A. Security force members
    Explanation
    The area supervisor is responsible for overseeing the security operations in a specific area. In this case, the duties of the area supervisor are performed by the security force members. This implies that the security force members have been assigned the task of supervising and managing the security patrol, SRT, and ART activities in the area. They are likely experienced and knowledgeable individuals who have been entrusted with the responsibility of ensuring the safety and security of the designated area.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources ad provides  timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundry sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is internal SRT. The internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and providing a timely response within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. They are an internal team that focuses on maintaining security within the organization and ensuring a quick response to any potential threats or incidents.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • Internal SRT

    • Immediate visual assessment sentries

    • Close boundary sentry

    • External SRT

    Correct Answer
    A. External SRT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is external SRT. An external SRT (Security Response Team) operates outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. They are trained to quickly assess and respond to potential threats within five minutes of receiving an alarm.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    When  two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

    • Fire teams

    • Internal SRTs

    • Security patrols

    • Close boundary sentries

    Correct Answer
    A. Security patrols
    Explanation
    When two-person internal SRT (Special Response Team) working within its assigned restricted area separates, it creates the need for individual personnel to cover the area. These individual personnel can be organized into security patrols to ensure the continued security and surveillance of the area. Security patrols allow for efficient coverage and monitoring of the restricted area, ensuring that no breaches occur and maintaining a high level of security.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

    • Assess exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV

    • Act as a subordinate C3 centerfor security forces posted during normal operations.

    • Control entry into strctures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area

    • Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas." This is not a function performed by MSCFOs because their role is primarily focused on assessing exterior IDS by line of sight or CCTV, acting as a subordinate C3 center for security forces, and controlling entry into structures and alerting shelters and individual resources protected with IDS. They do not have the responsibility to ensure that all IDS and C3 centers meet higher headquarters requirements.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resouce boundary is the responsibility of the

    • MSCFO

    • IVA

    • CCTV

    • CBS

    Correct Answer
    A. CBS
    Explanation
    CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system used for security surveillance. It involves using cameras to monitor a specific area, typically a restricted or individual resource boundary. Therefore, providing security surveillance for such a boundary is the responsibility of CBS.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • Security entry identifier

    • Security experience index

    • Special delivery identifier

    • Special experience identifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Special experience identifier
    Explanation
    SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This acronym is used to refer to a unique identifier that signifies a particular experience or skillset. It is likely used in contexts where individuals are categorized or classified based on their specialized experiences or qualifications. The other options, such as security entry identifier and security experience index, do not accurately represent the meaning of SEI in this context.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

    • Existing resources capable of deploying, avboiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD

    • Manpower critical resouces that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs

    • Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs

    • How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs
    Explanation
    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that the SEI is given to individuals or teams who possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and capabilities to handle specific situations or fulfill specific requirements. It helps in ensuring that there are resources available that can effectively respond to unique circumstances, meet contingency requirements, and address management needs. This allows for better planning and allocation of resources in various situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • Investigations

    • Crime prevention

    • Resource protection

    • Reports and analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Reports and analysis
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed falls under the office of "reports and analysis." This office is accountable for collecting and organizing data related to criminal incidents, analyzing the information, and preparing reports and statistical analysis based on the findings. They play a crucial role in providing accurate and up-to-date information for decision-making, resource allocation, and identifying trends or patterns in criminal activities.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which regulation governs the security foces stan-eval program?

    • AFI 36-2225

    • AFI 36-2226

    • AFI 36-2227

    • AFI 36-2525

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36-2225
    Explanation
    AFI 36-2225 is the correct answer because it specifically governs the security forces stan-eval program. This regulation provides guidelines and procedures for evaluating and ensuring the proficiency and effectiveness of security forces personnel. It outlines the standards, responsibilities, and requirements for conducting stan-eval activities within the security forces community.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • Analysis

    • Feedback

    • Evaluation

    • Cross-feed

    Correct Answer
    A. Feedback
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides valuable information about the effectiveness of their actions and strategies. Feedback allows commanders to understand how their decisions and actions are perceived by others and whether they are achieving their objectives. It helps them make informed decisions, improve their performance, and adjust their strategies accordingly. By receiving feedback, commanders can identify areas of improvement, address weaknesses, and capitalize on strengths, ultimately leading to more successful outcomes.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    How many days does the security forces stan-eval program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual compets qualification training?

    • 120

    • 90

    • 60

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The security forces stan-eval program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted in a timely manner and allows for the assessment of the individual's skills and performance while the training is still fresh in their mind. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made based on the evaluation results.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the sectin have to conduct a reevaluation?

    • 30

    • 21

    • 15

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    After an individual fails their stan-eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This allows for a reasonable amount of time for the individual to receive additional training and preparation before being reevaluated. A shorter timeframe may not provide enough time for the individual to make necessary improvements, while a longer timeframe may delay the reevaluation process unnecessarily. Therefore, 15 days strikes a balance between allowing for adequate preparation and ensuring timely reevaluation.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units wth the capability to

    • Enforce military laws and regulations

    • Detect classified information

    • Suppress illegal drug use

    • Detect explosives

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect classified information
    Explanation
    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. This means that the program does not have the necessary tools or resources to identify and uncover confidential or secret information that may be hidden or protected. While the program may have other functions and capabilities, such as enforcing military laws and regulations, suppressing illegal drug use, and detecting explosives, it does not extend to detecting classified information.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Before being assigne operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • OUT and IN

    • SIT and STAY

    • OUT and HEEL

    • STAY and HEEL

    Correct Answer
    A. OUT and HEEL
    Explanation
    Before being assigned operational duties, a Military Working Dog (MWD) must obey the commands "OUT" and "HEEL." The command "OUT" is used to instruct the dog to release or let go of an object or person, while "HEEL" is used to command the dog to walk or run close to the handler's side. These commands are crucial for the dog's training and overall obedience, ensuring that they can effectively perform their duties in various operational situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    When used in securty operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

    • Deterrence

    • Detention

    • Decoying

    • Detection

    Correct Answer
    A. Detection
    Explanation
    In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These specially trained dogs are used to detect various threats such as explosives, drugs, or intruders. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items or individuals with high accuracy. By focusing on detection, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing security measures and ensuring the safety of personnel and facilities.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    When using dogs on detecton screen posts, where do you position the to get maximum usage?

    • In low contact areas, so they don't give away your position to the enemy by barking

    • Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability

    • At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons

    • Downwind of ll personnel, so that there is no scen confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    A. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons
    Explanation
    Placing the dogs at key vantage points and avenues of approach allows them to effectively prevent unauthorized persons from entering. This positioning ensures that the dogs can detect and alert their handlers to any potential threats or intruders, thus enhancing security measures.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

    • Location and size of area

    • Time and terrain features

    • Wind speed and direction

    • Experiece of canine and handler

    Correct Answer
    A. Location and size of area
    Explanation
    Leaders must consider the location and size of the area before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams. This is important because the location determines the specific needs and challenges that the teams may face, such as urban or rural environments, different types of terrain, or potential hazards. The size of the area also affects the number of teams required and the resources needed for effective coverage. By considering these factors, leaders can make informed decisions about deploying MWD teams in a way that maximizes their effectiveness and ensures the safety of both the teams and the mission.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern

    • Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift

    • Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks

    • Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable schedule, the MWD teams are less likely to be targeted or ambushed by adversaries who may have studied their patterns. This helps to maintain the element of surprise and keeps the teams safer during their patrols.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

    • Upwind

    • Crosswind

    • Downwind

    • Wind direction doesn't matter

    Correct Answer
    A. Downwind
    Explanation
    When a dog team is about to check a building, it is best for them to approach from the downwind direction. This means that the wind is blowing from the building towards the team. Approaching downwind allows the dogs to pick up any scents or odors that may be coming from inside the building more easily. It also reduces the risk of alerting any potential occupants or intruders inside the building, as the wind will carry the team's scent away from the building.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?

    • Danger to the canine

    • Time left in patrol shift

    • Type and size of building

    • Weather conditions just prior to the search

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and size of building
    Explanation
    When conducting a building search, the handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD. This is important because different types of buildings may have different layouts, obstacles, or hiding places that can affect the search strategy. The size of the building can also determine the amount of time and effort required for the search. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial for ensuring an effective and efficient search operation.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous

    • Physical deterrent

    • Physicians deterrent

    • Physiological deterrent

    • Psychological deterrent

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychological deterrent
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and intimidating dog can instill fear and apprehension in potential criminals, making them think twice before engaging in illegal activities. The psychological impact of a patrol dog team can discourage individuals from committing crimes, as they may perceive the risk of being caught or harmed as higher. The mere presence of a patrol dog can create a sense of authority and control, influencing the behavior of both suspects and the general public.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

    • They should be tolerant of people

    • They should not be used often in daylight hours

    • The presence of a large number of people should not significanly reduce the dog's usefulness

    • Patrol dogs should be able tow alk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.

    Correct Answer
    A. They should not be used often in daylight hours
    Explanation
    This statement is not true because military working dogs are trained to work at any time of the day, including daylight hours. They are trained to be adaptable and perform their duties regardless of the time of day. Therefore, the statement that they should not be used often in daylight hours is incorrect.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    When is the military working dog's detection abililty more effective?

    • During daylight hours- they can use sight and sound

    • During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions

    • High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions

    • During periods of dense fog ad darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    A. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions
    Explanation
    During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions, the military working dog's detection ability is more effective. This is because in such conditions, the dog's heightened sense of smell becomes its primary tool for detecting threats or targets. With limited distractions, the dog can focus solely on using its olfactory senses to locate and identify potential dangers. Additionally, darkness or limited visibility can provide an advantage to the dog as it may be able to move undetected, giving it a tactical advantage in certain situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    While on a mobile patrol, wher should the MWD be in the vehicle?

    • On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving

    • In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup trucks

    • Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle

    • On leash, laying down on he back seat

    Correct Answer
    A. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is because having the MWD off leash allows it to move freely and respond quickly if needed. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and can easily observe its surroundings. Having the MWD on the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving can be dangerous for the dog and distracting for the driver. Placing the MWD in a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck may expose it to external hazards and is not as secure as having it inside the vehicle.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • AF Forms 629 and 1297

    • AF Forms 629 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1297 and 1473

    • AF Forms 1473 and 1279

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Forms 629 and 1297. These two forms are normally used for the receipt of weapons.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs

    • After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed

    • Before firing, after a three day break, andwhe directed by the armory

    • Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Regular cleaning helps to remove dirt, debris, and moisture that may accumulate during use or in adverse weather conditions. It also helps to prevent malfunctions and maintain the longevity of the weapons. Cleaning after firing is important to remove residue and prevent corrosion. Overall, regular and timely cleaning of weapons is essential for their effective and safe operation.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what positon will the handler place the dog?

    • Sit/stay

    • Guard

    • Heel

    • Out

    Correct Answer
    A. Guard
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "guard." When an apprehension is made, the handler will place the dog in a guarding position. This position allows the dog to protect and defend the handler, while maintaining control and readiness for any potential threats. The guard position is often used in situations where there is a need for heightened security or when there is a potential threat to the handler's safety.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission

    • Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year

    • Determine what type of budge congress is up against wen their session starts

    • Ensure the air force is llowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year
    Explanation
    The basic purpose of a financial plan submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the financial plan aims to allocate funds fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, ensuring that each area receives the necessary funding to carry out its mission effectively. By ensuring an equitable distribution, the financial plan promotes fairness, efficiency, and effective resource allocation within the organization.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked , have emergency lights, sirens and a

    • Spare tire

    • Public address system

    • Set of keys hidden in the dash

    • NCIC computer

    Correct Answer
    A. Public address system
    Explanation
    Permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and equipped with emergency lights and sirens to ensure their visibility and ability to respond to emergencies. Additionally, having a public address system allows the security forces to communicate with the public and provide instructions or warnings when necessary. This helps maintain public safety and allows for effective communication in various situations.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must beproperly marke and have

    • SF badges applied to both the front doors

    • Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios

    • Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system

    • A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD

    Correct Answer
    A. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked and have the required equipment for emergency situations. The portable emergency lights can be easily attached to the vehicle when needed, the magnetic signs can display important information, and the public address system allows for communication with the public or other personnel.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Effective enforement should emphasize selective enforement and drivers complying

    • Voluntarily

    • Unwillingly

    • Mandatorily

    • Involuntarily

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily
    Explanation
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying voluntarily. This means that drivers should willingly and willingly comply with the rules and regulations without any external force or coercion. Selective enforcement refers to the prioritization of certain violations over others, focusing on those that pose a higher risk to public safety. By emphasizing voluntary compliance, it promotes a sense of responsibility and encourages drivers to willingly follow the rules, ultimately leading to a safer driving environment.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The given options are numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. The question asks for the code that is not an alarm response code. From the options, codes 1, 2, and 3 can be alarm response codes. However, code 4 is not an alarm response code. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

    • Terminate response

    • Immediately secure the area

    • Search for suspicious individuals

    • Search the exterior for open doors or windows

    Correct Answer
    A. Immediately secure the area
    Explanation
    Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone involved and prevent any potential threats or further harm. Securing the area involves establishing control, restricting access, and implementing necessary measures to prevent unauthorized entry or tampering with evidence. It allows responders to assess the situation, gather information, and proceed with appropriate actions in a controlled and safe environment.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas whih owner/users being primarily responsible for security?

    • PL 1

    • PL 2

    • PL 3

    • PL 4

    Correct Answer
    A. PL 4
  • 39. 

    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the cmmand " open ranks MARCH"?

    • The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval ( arm's length). each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length). each succedding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.

    • The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm's length) . each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts and automatically executes a dress right

    Correct Answer
    A. The last element stands fast and automaticallyexecues a dress right at a normalinterval (arm's length). each succeeding element in from of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automaticallyexecutes a dress right.
    Explanation
    After the command "open ranks MARCH", the last element in the flight will remain in place and perform a dress right at a normal interval. Each element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces forward, halt, and then automatically perform a dress right. This means that the flight will adjust their positions by taking the specified number of paces forward and align themselves properly before executing the dress right movement.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, "close ranks, march"?

    • When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed

    • Immediately after the forth rank has ben inspected

    • At the completion of the guardmount briefing

    • Upon departure of the inspecting official

    Correct Answer
    A. Upon departure of the inspecting official
    Explanation
    During an open ranks inspection, the command "close ranks, march" is given upon departure of the inspecting official. This means that once the inspecting official has finished inspecting the ranks and is ready to leave, the command is given to close ranks and march. This allows the formation to return to its normal formation and continue with their duties.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

    • Fit for duty

    • Prepared to prsent a post briefing

    • Complying with appearance directives

    • In possession of all required equipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepared to prsent a post briefing
    Explanation
    During the personnel inspection during guardmount, it is not necessary to check if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing. This means that the inspection does not focus on evaluating the individual's readiness or ability to give a post briefing. The inspection may cover other aspects such as checking if the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    As a leader and supervisor, you should avid asking questions that could be open for

    • Interpretaion

    • Discussion

    • Argument

    • Debate

    Correct Answer
    A. Argument
    Explanation
    As a leader and supervisor, it is important to avoid asking questions that could lead to arguments. This is because arguments can create a negative and hostile work environment, hindering productivity and collaboration among team members. Instead, leaders should focus on asking questions that promote discussion, interpretation, and debate in a constructive manner, encouraging different perspectives and fostering a healthy exchange of ideas. By avoiding questions that may spark arguments, leaders can maintain a positive and harmonious workplace atmosphere.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    What is the unit flight schedule based on?

    • Deployment/operations tempo

    • Flight TDY/leave schedule

    • Individual needs

    • Unit needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit needs
    Explanation
    The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by what the unit requires in terms of flights, such as training exercises, deployments, or other operational needs. The schedule is designed to meet the specific requirements and goals of the unit, ensuring that flights are scheduled in a way that supports the overall mission and objectives.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consisten with sound

    • COMSEC practices

    • INFOSEC practices

    • HUMINT practices

    • OPSEC practices

    Correct Answer
    A. OPSEC practices
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OPSEC practices. OPSEC stands for Operations Security, which involves protecting sensitive information related to military operations from being exploited by adversaries. Posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound OPSEC practices, means ensuring that the roster is displayed in a visible location for easy access by authorized personnel, while also taking precautions to prevent unauthorized individuals or potential threats from gaining access to this information. This could involve measures such as limiting the visibility of the roster to only those who need to know, using secure communication channels, or implementing physical security measures.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain

    • Proficiency

    • Discipline

    • Fairness

    • Control

    Correct Answer
    A. Proficiency
    Explanation
    Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important in order to maintain proficiency. This practice allows individuals to gain experience and knowledge in different roles, enhancing their skills and capabilities. By regularly switching positions, employees can avoid becoming stagnant or complacent in their current role, ensuring they stay sharp and adaptable. This rotation also helps to identify any skill gaps or areas for improvement, allowing for targeted training and development. Ultimately, maintaining proficiency across different posts ensures that personnel are well-rounded and capable of handling various tasks and responsibilities effectively.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    Adequate and fair post rtations can assist you in keeping

    • Flight morale high

    • Duty position assignments limited

    • The same higly skilled person at the same post

    • A new flight member focused on a particular duty position

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight morale high
    Explanation
    Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high. When individuals are given the opportunity to rotate positions within the flight, it prevents monotony and allows them to experience different roles and responsibilities. This can lead to increased job satisfaction and motivation, ultimately contributing to a positive and high morale within the flight.

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    A post priority chart is a listing of your posts and patrols in order of

    • Precedence , from least important to most important, as outlined n the ISI

    • Precedence as outlined in ISP

    • Rank precedence as outlined in the ISP

    • Precedence as outlined in the ISI

    Correct Answer
    A. Precedence as outlined in the ISI
    Explanation
    A post priority chart is a listing of posts and patrols in order of precedence, from least important to most important. This order of precedence is outlined in the ISI (Intelligence Support Activity) guidelines. The chart helps in determining the importance and priority of different posts and patrols based on their assigned precedence level.

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    What is the publication reference for the tounge and quill?

    • AFH 32-336

    • AFI 32-336

    • AFH 33-337

    • AFI 33-337

    Correct Answer
    A. AFH 33-337
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFH 33-337. This publication reference is likely the correct answer because it matches the format of the other options (AFH/AFI followed by numbers) and is the only option that includes the numbers 33-337, which suggests that it is the most relevant publication for the topic of the tongue and quill.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    In terms of readability, what two tests do your communications need to meet?

    • Length and neatness

    • Simplicity and directness

    • Correct details and factual statements

    • Clear statements and prooper grammar

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplicity and directness
    Explanation
    The communications need to meet the tests of simplicity and directness. This means that the messages should be easy to understand and straight to the point. By ensuring simplicity, the information can be easily comprehended by the recipients, avoiding any confusion or misinterpretation. Directness ensures that the messages are concise and do not contain unnecessary or irrelevant information, making the communication more effective and efficient.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Kk07x

Related Topics

Recent Quizzes

2T271 CDC Quiz Practice Questions! 2T271 CDC Quiz Practice Questions!
Take The 3D1X1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions! Take The 3D1X1 CDC Set 1 Practice Paper Questions!
CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs Quiz: Vol.1 Questions CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs Quiz: Vol.1 Questions
3F351 CDC URE 5 Practice Test! 3F351 CDC URE 5 Practice Test!
3F351 CDC's URE 4 Quiz Questions! Trivia 3F351 CDC's URE 4 Quiz Questions! Trivia
3F351 CDC URE 3 Practice Questions! Trivia 3F351 CDC URE 3 Practice Questions! Trivia
Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 URE's! Quiz Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 URE's! Quiz
3F351 CDCs URE 2 Practice Questions! 3F351 CDCs URE 2 Practice Questions!
CDC 2T251 Volume 3 CDC 2T251 Volume 3

Featured Quizzes

Are You Ready For IQ Quiz: Test Your Intelligence Now Are You Ready For IQ Quiz: Test Your Intelligence Now
Introduction to Computer: MCQ Questions With Answers Introduction to Computer: MCQ Questions With Answers
Do I Have a Crush on Him? Quiz Do I Have a Crush on Him? Quiz
What Is My Ethnicity? Let's Take Ethnicity Quiz What Is My Ethnicity? Let's Take Ethnicity Quiz
What Ethnicity Do I Look Like? What Ethnicity Do I Look Like?
Which Sonic Character Are You? Which Sonic Character Are You?
Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.