1c052 CDC Volume 1

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Aviation Resource Management Journeyman


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).

    • B.

      Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).

    • C.

      Standardization and Evaluation (StanEval) .

    • D.

      Current Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM). HARM is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). They ensure that the system is functioning properly and meeting the needs of the squadron. This includes managing resources, scheduling and tracking aircraft maintenance, and coordinating with other functional areas to ensure smooth operations.

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  • 2. 

    Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).

    • B.

      Current operations

    • C.

      Aircrew training

    • D.

      Aircrew scheduling

    Correct Answer
    B. Current operations
    Explanation
    The functional area responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations is Current Operations. This department oversees the day-to-day operations and ensures that all training and mission requirements are met efficiently and effectively. They coordinate with various units and personnel to ensure proper scheduling and execution of training sorties and real-world missions.

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  • 3. 

    Evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is one of the tasks of

    • A.

      A craftsman.

    • B.

      An apprentice

    • C.

      A journeyman

    • D.

      A superintendent

    Correct Answer
    D. A superintendent
    Explanation
    A superintendent is responsible for overseeing and managing the work methods and procedures within an organization or project. They are in charge of ensuring that resources, such as time, materials, and labor, are used in the most efficient and cost-effective manner. This involves evaluating current work methods and procedures, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to achieve the most economical use of resources. Therefore, evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is a task that falls under the responsibilities of a superintendent.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation?

    • A.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • B.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • C.

      Wing functional manager (WFM).

    • D.

      Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Wing functional manager (WFM).
    Explanation
    The Wing functional manager (WFM) is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation. The WFM is specifically assigned to oversee the personnel and career development within a specific wing of the Air Force. They work closely with the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM), who provides guidance and sets policies at a higher level, but the WFM is the one who directly implements and manages these policies within their assigned wing. The Major command functional manager (MFM) and Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) are not directly responsible for these tasks.

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  • 5. 

    Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?

    • A.

      Part I Section A.

    • B.

      Part I Section B.

    • C.

      Part II Section A.

    • D.

      Part II Section B.

    Correct Answer
    C. Part II Section A.
    Explanation
    In the career field education and training plan (CFETP), Part II Section A would contain the specialty training standard that lists the most common tasks, knowledge, and technical references for the 1C0X2 specialty. This section would provide detailed information about the specific requirements and expectations for individuals in this career field, helping to ensure that they receive the necessary training and education to perform their job effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Supervisors must make sure that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record is maintained for all Airmen in the grades of

    • A.

      Airman basic (AB) through senior Airman (SrA) ONLY.

    • B.

      AB through technical sergeant (TSgt) ONLY.

    • C.

      AB through chief master sergeant (CMSgt)

    • D.

      AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status

    Correct Answer
    D. AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status
    Explanation
    Supervisors are responsible for maintaining an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record, for all Airmen in the grades of Airman Basic (AB) through Technical Sergeant (TSgt), as well as senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status. This means that supervisors need to ensure that training records are kept for Airmen at various ranks, from AB to TSgt, and for SNCOs who are undergoing retraining. The answer choice "AB through TSgt, and senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status" accurately reflects the range of personnel for whom the training record must be maintained.

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  • 7. 

    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to

    • A.

      Conduct an occupational survey and make changes to the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level.

    • C.

      Establish training requirements for all personnel involved in course development.

    • D.

      Enhance the communication link between functional managers and course developers

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level. This means that the team is responsible for determining the optimal balance between classroom instruction and practical experience in order to best develop the skills needed for each level of proficiency. By doing so, the team ensures that the training provided is tailored to meet the specific needs of individuals at different skill levels, ultimately enhancing their overall competency and performance in their respective fields.

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  • 8. 

    Which forum is used to create or revise the specialty training standard (STS) and to set responsibilities for providing the necessary training?

    • A.

      Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG).

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management (ARM) office.

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).

    • D.

      Specialty training requirement team.

    Correct Answer
    D. Specialty training requirement team.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Specialty training requirement team. This team is responsible for creating or revising the specialty training standard (STS) and setting responsibilities for providing the necessary training. The other options, such as the Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG), Aviation Resource Management (ARM) office, and Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG), are not specifically mentioned as being involved in creating or revising the STS or setting training responsibilities.

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  • 9. 

    The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into four columns.

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  • 10. 

    All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to

    • A.

      Easily identify open and closed items.

    • B.

      Make it a binding contract

    • C.

      Make it a living document.

    • D.

      Easily erase mistakes

    Correct Answer
    C. Make it a living document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "make it a living document." This means that all entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 should be done in pencil to allow for easy updates and revisions. By using pencil, it becomes easier to make changes and keep the document up-to-date, reflecting any modifications or developments in the training process. This ensures that the document remains dynamic and adaptable, rather than being fixed and unchangeable like a binding contract.

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  • 11. 

    Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all

    • A.

      Tasks to include mobility and additional duty.

    • B.

      Duty positions and core tasks

    • C.

      Duty position tasks only.

    • D.

      Core tasks only

    Correct Answer
    B. Duty positions and core tasks
    Explanation
    Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, they must be fully trained on all duty positions and core tasks. This means that the trainee should have a comprehensive understanding and proficiency in performing all the required duties and tasks associated with their assigned duty positions, as well as the essential core tasks that are relevant to their training. By ensuring that the trainee is fully trained on both duty positions and core tasks, they can demonstrate their competence and readiness to progress to the next skill level.

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  • 12. 

    The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document each of the following except

    • A.

      Course and task progression

    • B.

      Training start and completion dates.

    • C.

      Task certification and recertification

    • D.

      Trainee’s strengths, weaknesses, and attitude

    Correct Answer
    B. Training start and completion dates.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document course and task progression, task certification and recertification, and the trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude. However, it is not used to document training start and completion dates.

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  • 13. 

    Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee’s qualifications?

    • A.

      30 (active duty)/90 (Air Reserve Component [ARC] members).

    • B.

      60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).

    • C.

      45 (active duty)/90 (ARC members).

    • D.

      90 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).
    Explanation
    Supervisors must conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications within 60 days for active duty members and within 120 days for Air Reserve Component (ARC) members. This evaluation is important to assess the trainee's skills and abilities and ensure they are qualified for the assigned task. It allows supervisors to identify any gaps in knowledge or training that need to be addressed. By conducting the evaluation within the specified time frame, supervisors can provide timely feedback and support to help the trainee succeed in their role.

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  • 14. 

    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to

    • A.

      Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates.

    • B.

      Determine the quality of recent basic military training graduates.

    • C.

      Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level

    • D.

      Provide information to supervisors on the quality of training provided by the career development course

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates. This survey aims to collect information and opinions from the graduates regarding their training experience, the effectiveness of the training program, and any suggestions or improvements they may have. This feedback can then be used to evaluate the quality of the training provided, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments to enhance the training program for future graduates.

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  • 15. 

    One way to validate and assess a trainee’s knowledge of the task is by conducting a

    • A.

      Task evaluation.

    • B.

      Task review exercise.

    • C.

      Staff assistance visit

    • D.

      Graduate assessment survey.

    Correct Answer
    A. Task evaluation.
    Explanation
    A task evaluation is a method used to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of a specific task. It involves reviewing and analyzing the trainee's performance in order to determine their level of understanding and competency in completing the task. This evaluation helps identify any areas where additional training or support may be needed. A task review exercise may also involve evaluating a trainee's performance, but it is not as specific or focused as a task evaluation. A staff assistance visit and graduate assessment survey are not directly related to assessing a trainee's knowledge of a task.

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  • 16. 

    When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may

    • A.

      Establish a new maximum training date and annotate it on the AF IMT 623a.

    • B.

      Decertify the trainee on all tasks and begin remedial training.

    • C.

      Request cross training into another career field.

    • D.

      Submit a waiver request

    Correct Answer
    D. Submit a waiver request
    Explanation
    If a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may choose to submit a waiver request. This means that the supervisor can request an exception to the established rules or requirements, allowing the trainee more time to complete the training. By submitting a waiver request, the supervisor is seeking permission to deviate from the standard procedure in order to accommodate the trainee's situation.

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  • 17. 

    A request for training waiver is approved by the

    • A.

      Squadron commander

    • B.

      Base training manager

    • C.

      Air Force career field manager

    • D.

      Major command functional manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force career field manager
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager is the individual who approves a request for training waiver. They are responsible for overseeing and managing the career field within the Air Force, including making decisions regarding training and career progression. As such, they have the authority to approve or deny requests for training waivers based on their knowledge and understanding of the specific career field requirements and needs.

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  • 18. 

    Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 include all of the following except to

    • A.

      Amend or correct individual records on request

    • B.

      Ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant

    • C.

      Protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of their personal privacy.

    • D.

      Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted." This answer is not consistent with the Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974. The Privacy Act is designed to protect individuals' privacy and control the collection, use, and dissemination of personal information. It does not guarantee automatic access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens at all times.

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  • 19. 

    Within the Department of Defense (DOD) social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as

    • A.

      Privileged information

    • B.

      For Official Use Only (FOUO).

    • C.

      For your eyes only.

    • D.

      Secret information.

    Correct Answer
    B. For Official Use Only (FOUO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "For Official Use Only (FOUO)." Within the Department of Defense, social security numbers must be protected as privileged information that is only accessible for official use. This means that the information should not be shared or accessed by individuals who do not have the proper authorization or need-to-know.

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  • 20. 

    Records that are protected by the Privacy Act may be destroyed by all of the following methods except

    • A.

      Tearing.

    • B.

      Burning.

    • C.

      Crumpling.

    • D.

      Shredding.

    Correct Answer
    C. Crumpling.
    Explanation
    The Privacy Act protects records from unauthorized access and disclosure. Tearing, burning, and shredding are all effective methods of destroying records to ensure their confidentiality. However, crumpling is not a secure method as the information can still be accessed and reconstructed. Therefore, crumpling is not an acceptable method for destroying records protected by the Privacy Act.

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  • 21. 

    Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a

    • A.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $10,000.00.

    • B.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.

    • C.

      Felony and confined for five years

    • D.

      Felony and confined for two years

    Correct Answer
    B. Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.
    Explanation
    Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00. This means that if a member, such as an individual or organization, breaches the Privacy Act, they will be charged with a misdemeanor offense. Additionally, they may be subject to a fine of up to $5,000.00 as a penalty for their violation.

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  • 22. 

    The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are

    • A.

      Telephones, computer networks, and the physical environment

    • B.

      Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment.

    • C.

      Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence

    • D.

      The physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment. This answer accurately identifies the three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities. Telephones and radio communications are vulnerable to interception and eavesdropping, while the physical environment can be exploited through surveillance or unauthorized access. Computer networks and human intelligence are not mentioned in this answer.

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  • 23. 

    Before leaving the area, make sure all classified materials

    • A.

      Are in custody of another individual.

    • B.

      Are stored in proper storage container.

    • C.

      Have the proper cover sheet.

    • D.

      Are hidden from plain view.

    Correct Answer
    B. Are stored in proper storage container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are stored in proper storage container." This answer is the most appropriate because it ensures the security and protection of classified materials. Storing them in a proper storage container helps to prevent unauthorized access and potential damage to the materials. It also ensures that the materials are organized and easily retrievable when needed.

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  • 24. 

    What Air Force instruction (AFI) series number pertains to flying operations?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      11

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      36

    Correct Answer
    B. 11
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11 because the Air Force instruction (AFI) series number that pertains to flying operations is AFI 11. This series covers all the regulations and guidelines related to flying operations in the Air Force.

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  • 25. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) sets policy on crew rest and flight duty limitations?

    • A.

      AFI 11–401, Aviation Management

    • B.

      AFI 11–202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules.

    • C.

      AFI 48–123, Medical Examinations and Standards

    • D.

      AFI 65–503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 11–202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules.
  • 26. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) contains guidance on disqualification and requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?

    • A.

      AFI 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B.

      AFI 11–202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program

    • C.

      AFI 65–503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

    • D.

      AFI 11–401, Aviation Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
    Explanation
    AFI 11–402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges contains guidance on disqualification and requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation.

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  • 27. 

    What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member’s flight evaluation?

    • A.

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Evaluation.

    • B.

      AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record.

    • C.

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation

    • D.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation. This form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation. It serves as a record of the evaluation and contains important information such as the date of the evaluation, the evaluator's remarks, and the member's signature. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to document and track evaluations of aircrew members.

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  • 28. 

    What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?

    • A.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    • B.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew Mission/Flight Data Document

    • D.

      AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay. This form is specifically designed to calculate and record flight pay entitlements for individual aircrew members. It allows for accurate tracking of flight hours and ensures that aircrew members receive the appropriate compensation for their flying duties. The other forms mentioned, DD Form 114 and AFTO Form 781, are not specifically designed for tracking flight hours and pay entitlements.

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  • 29. 

    The goal of establishing work center procedures is to

    • A.

      Improve work processes.

    • B.

      Create shortcuts and save cost.

    • C.

      Ensure continuity in the work place.

    • D.

      Standardize processes across all bases.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure continuity in the work place.
    Explanation
    Establishing work center procedures is important to ensure continuity in the workplace. By having standardized procedures in place, employees can follow consistent processes, which helps to maintain productivity and efficiency. This also ensures that work can continue smoothly even if there are changes in personnel or shifts. Standardized procedures also help to minimize errors and ensure that tasks are performed in a consistent and reliable manner. Overall, the goal of establishing work center procedures is to create a stable and consistent work environment, ensuring that work can be carried out effectively and without interruption.

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  • 30. 

    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called

    • A.

      An application suite.

    • B.

      A program bundle

    • C.

      A software family.

    • D.

      A data bank

    Correct Answer
    A. An application suite.
    Explanation
    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are referred to as an application suite. This term is commonly used in the software industry to describe a collection of related applications that are designed to work together and provide a comprehensive set of features and functionalities. An application suite typically includes multiple software programs that are integrated and share common resources, such as user interfaces, data storage, and communication protocols. This allows users to access and use multiple applications seamlessly within a single package, enhancing productivity and efficiency.

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  • 31. 

    A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a

    • A.

      Computer web.

    • B.

      Computer network.

    • C.

      System architecture.

    • D.

      Client-server model.

    Correct Answer
    B. Computer network.
    Explanation
    A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a computer network. In a computer network, multiple computers are connected together to share resources, exchange information, and communicate with each other. This allows users to access data and services from different computers within the network. A computer network can be either a local area network (LAN) within a limited geographic area, or a wide area network (WAN) that spans across larger distances.

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  • 32. 

    What do you call a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C.

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • D.

      Defense mega network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
    Explanation
    A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a larger geographical area than a local area network (LAN) but smaller than a wide area network (WAN). It can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city, making it the most appropriate option for this scenario. A MAN provides high-speed connectivity and is typically used by organizations or institutions within a specific metropolitan area to connect their local networks and share resources. A defense mega network is not a recognized term in networking and is not relevant to the question.

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  • 33. 

    Which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      Jump Management

    • B.

      Deferred Management.

    • C.

      Aircrew Management.

    • D.

      Personnel Management.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deferred Management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deferred Management. This menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). The other options, Jump Management, Aircrew Management, and Personnel Management, are all included in the Resource module.

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  • 34. 

    Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) module is used to establish system management parameters?

    • A.

      Flight.

    • B.

      System.

    • C.

      Training.

    • D.

      Resource.

    Correct Answer
    B. System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "System." The System module in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) is used to establish system management parameters. This module allows users to configure and customize the ARMS system according to their organization's specific requirements and needs. It includes features such as user management, access control, data backup, and system settings. By using the System module, administrators can effectively manage and control the overall functioning of the ARMS system.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?

    • A.

      Database administrator.

    • B.

      Unit security manager.

    • C.

      Knowledge owner

    • D.

      System analyst.

    Correct Answer
    A. Database administrator.
    Explanation
    The database administrator is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database. They are in charge of maintaining the database, ensuring its security measures are in place, and guaranteeing the accuracy of the information stored within it. The database administrator plays a crucial role in overseeing the proper functioning and integrity of the ARMS database.

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  • 36. 

    The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on

    • A.

      User’s rank.

    • B.

      User’s duties.

    • C.

      User’s request.

    • D.

      Commander’s request.

    Correct Answer
    B. User’s duties.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "user's duties." The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on the user's duties. This means that the level of access granted to an individual is determined by their specific responsibilities and tasks within the aviation resource management system. It ensures that users only have access to the information and functions that are relevant to their job roles, promoting efficiency and security within the system.

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  • 37. 

    Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) governing body’s purpose is to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification?

    • A.

      Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG).

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG).

    • D.

      Database administrative group

    Correct Answer
    B. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG). The AWG's purpose is to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification. This group is responsible for providing guidance and recommendations on the best practices for managing and maintaining the ARMS system. They work closely with stakeholders to address any challenges or concerns and ensure the smooth functioning of the system.

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  • 38. 

    What Air Force form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.

    • B.

      847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.

    • C.

      4332, Accountable Communications Receipt Authorization

    • D.

      3525, CCB Modification Requirements and Approval Document

    Correct Answer
    A. 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document. This form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). It is specifically designed for IT/NSS (Information Technology/Network and Space Systems) requirements and serves as a formal document to initiate and track changes to the system.

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  • 39. 

    Which individuals may submit an AF Form 3215?

    • A.

      Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG) members ONLY.

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG) members ONLY.

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG) members ONLY.

    • D.

      All primary system users

    Correct Answer
    D. All primary system users
    Explanation
    All primary system users may submit an AF Form 3215. This means that any individual who is a primary user of the Aviation Resource Management System can submit this form. The form is not limited to specific groups or committees within the system, but is open to all users who have the necessary access and authority.

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  • 40. 

    A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other

    • A.

      A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other

    • B.

      By a need to solve common problems.

    • C.

      By a need to belong to a social club

    • D.

      According to social status.

    Correct Answer
    B. By a need to solve common problems.
    Explanation
    A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other by a need to solve common problems. This means that the individuals in the community come together because they share a common interest or goal and collaborate to find solutions to challenges they face. The focus is on problem-solving and learning from each other's experiences and expertise. This explanation aligns with the concept of a community of practice as a collective learning and knowledge-sharing network.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 03, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    1Chuck
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