UGC NET Exam Questions: Quiz!

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UGC NET Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

    • A.

      Socio-economic Status

    • B.

      Marital Status

    • C.

      Numerical Aptitude

    • D.

      Professional Attitude

    Correct Answer
    D. Professional Attitude
    Explanation
    Professional Attitude cannot be expressed in quantitative terms because it is a subjective characteristic that cannot be measured or quantified. Socio-economic status can be expressed in terms of income, education level, and occupation. Marital status can be expressed as single, married, divorced, etc. Numerical aptitude can be expressed through scores or percentages in numerical tests. However, professional attitude is a qualitative aspect that pertains to an individual's behavior, work ethic, and approach towards their profession, which cannot be easily quantified.

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  • 2. 

    A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs for dengue fever. His research would  be classified as:

    • A.

      Descriptive Survey

    • B.

      Experimental Research

    • C.

      Case Study

    • D.

      Ethnography

    Correct Answer
    B. Experimental Research
    Explanation
    The doctor's research would be classified as experimental research because he is studying the relative effectiveness of two drugs for dengue fever. In experimental research, the researcher manipulates an independent variable (in this case, the drugs) to observe its effect on a dependent variable (the effectiveness of the drugs). The researcher would typically use random assignment to assign participants to different groups receiving different treatments and would carefully control other variables to ensure that any observed effects can be attributed to the independent variable.

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  • 3. 

    The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of?

    • A.

      Qualitative Research

    • B.

      Analysis of Variance

    • C.

      Correlational Study

    • D.

      Probability Sampling

    Correct Answer
    A. Qualitative Research
    Explanation
    Phenomenology is a research approach that focuses on understanding the lived experiences of individuals and the meanings they attribute to those experiences. It aims to explore and describe the essence of a phenomenon as it is experienced by individuals. This approach is commonly used in qualitative research, where researchers aim to gain an in-depth understanding of a particular phenomenon by studying it in its natural setting and collecting rich, descriptive data. Therefore, the term "phenomenology" is associated with qualitative research rather than the other options provided.

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  • 4. 

    The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study:

    • A.

      Vocational Interest

    • B.

      Professional Competence

    • C.

      Human Relations

    • D.

      Achievement Motivation

    Correct Answer
    C. Human Relations
    Explanation
    The sociogram technique is used to study human relations. This technique involves mapping out social relationships within a group or organization to understand the patterns of interactions, social dynamics, and interpersonal connections. It helps in analyzing the quality of relationships, identifying key influencers, and assessing the overall social structure. By using sociograms, researchers can gain insights into the social behavior, communication patterns, and group dynamics, which are crucial for understanding human relations in various contexts such as schools, workplaces, and communities.

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  • 5. 

    Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as:

    • A.

      Networked media

    • B.

      Connective media

    • C.

      Nodal media

    • D.

      Multimedia

    Correct Answer
    A. Networked media
    Explanation
    Networked media refers to media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points. This means that the media is connected through a network, allowing for communication and interaction between different points or nodes. The term "networked" emphasizes the interconnected nature of the media, highlighting the ability to share and exchange information across various communication points. Therefore, networked media is the correct term to describe this concept.

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  • 6. 

    The information function of mass communication is described as:

    • A.

      Diffusion

    • B.

      Publicity

    • C.

      surveillance

    • D.

      Diversion

    Correct Answer
    C. surveillance
    Explanation
    The information function of mass communication is described as "surveillance" because it refers to the role of mass media in gathering and disseminating information about events happening in society. Surveillance involves monitoring and reporting on various aspects of society, including news, politics, economics, and social issues. This function helps to keep the public informed and aware of what is happening in their surroundings, allowing them to make informed decisions and participate in civic life.

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  • 7. 

    An example of asynchronous medium is:

    • A.

      Radio

    • B.

      T.V.

    • C.

      Film

    • D.

      Newspaper

    Correct Answer
    D. Newspaper
    Explanation
    Newspaper is an example of an asynchronous medium because it does not require immediate response or interaction from the audience. Readers can access and read the newspaper at their own convenience, without any real-time communication or feedback. Unlike radio, TV, or film, which are synchronous mediums that require viewers to tune in or watch at specific times, newspaper reading can be done asynchronously, allowing individuals to consume the content at their own pace.

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  • 8. 

    In communication, connotative words are:

    • A.

      Explicit

    • B.

      Abstract

    • C.

      Simple

    • D.

      cultural

    Correct Answer
    D. cultural
    Explanation
    Connotative words in communication refer to words that carry an additional meaning or emotional association beyond their literal definition. These words have cultural significance and can evoke different emotions or reactions based on the cultural background of the individual. Therefore, the word "cultural" is the correct answer as it accurately describes connotative words in communication.

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  • 9. 

    A message beneath a message is labelled as:

    • A.

      Embedded text

    • B.

      Internal text

    • C.

      Inter-text

    • D.

      sub-text

    Correct Answer
    D. sub-text
    Explanation
    The term "sub-text" refers to a message that is hidden or implied beneath another message. It suggests that there is an underlying meaning or context that may not be immediately apparent. "Embedded text" refers to text that is inserted or integrated into something else, such as an image or document. "Internal text" does not accurately describe the concept of a message beneath a message. "Inter-text" refers to the relationship between different texts or the way they influence each other, but it does not specifically refer to a message beneath another message. Therefore, "sub-text" is the most appropriate label for a message beneath a message.

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  • 10. 

    In analog mass communication, stories are:

    • A.

      Static

    • B.

      Dynamic

    • C.

      interactive

    • D.

      exploratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Static
    Explanation
    In analog mass communication, stories are static. This means that they are fixed and unchanging. In this form of communication, stories are typically presented in a one-way manner, with little or no interaction or engagement from the audience. The information is transmitted without any opportunity for the audience to provide feedback or participate in the storytelling process.

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  • 11. 

    Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS: NEVER and then select from the following pair of words that have a similar relationship.

    • A.

      Often : rarely

    • B.

      Frequently : occasionally

    • C.

      Constantly : frequently

    • D.

      Intermittently : casually

    Correct Answer
    A. Often : rarely
    Explanation
    The relationship between the pair of words "ALWAYS: NEVER" is that they are opposite in meaning, with "ALWAYS" indicating something that happens all the time and "NEVER" indicating something that does not happen at all. Similarly, the pair of words "often : rarely" also have an opposite relationship in meaning, with "often" indicating something that happens frequently and "rarely" indicating something that happens infrequently.

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  • 12. 

    Find the wrong number in the sequence: 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

    • A.

      27

    • B.

      34

    • C.

      43

    • D.

      48

    Correct Answer
    B. 34
    Explanation
    The given sequence follows a pattern where each number is subtracted by a decreasing value. Starting from 52, 1 is subtracted to get 51, then 3 is subtracted to get 48, and so on. However, in the sequence, the number 34 does not follow this pattern as it is not subtracted by the expected value of 5. Therefore, 34 is the wrong number in the sequence.

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  • 13. 

    In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as:

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      37

    • C.

      39

    • D.

      41

    Correct Answer
    B. 37
    Explanation
    The code seems to be based on assigning a numerical value to each letter. By comparing the codes for PAN and PAR, we can see that the difference between the two codes is 4. Applying the same logic, the code for PAT would be 35 + 2 = 37.

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  • 14. 

    The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set AF: IK: : LQ:?

    • A.

      MO

    • B.

      NP

    • C.

      OR

    • D.

      TV

    Correct Answer
    D. TV
    Explanation
    The letters in the first set are each shifted by 5 positions in the alphabet to get the corresponding letters in the second set. Applying the same logic, the letter "L" in the first set would be shifted by 5 positions to get the letter "Q" in the second set. Therefore, the correct choice for the second set is "OR".

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  • 15. 

    If 5472 == 9, 6342  6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    In this pattern, the first digit of each number represents the number of letters in the word for that digit. For example, "five" has four letters, so the first digit of the number 5472 is 4. The second digit of each number represents the number of vowels in the word for that digit. For example, "four" has one vowel, so the second digit of the number 5472 is 1. Applying this pattern to the number 9236, the word for 9 is "nine" which has four letters, and the word for 2 is "two" which has one vowel. Therefore, the answer is 2.

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  • 16. 

    In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English, and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is:

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The question states that 35% of the students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English, and 20% failed in both subjects. To find the percentage of students who passed in both subjects, we need to subtract the percentage of students who failed in both subjects from 100%. Since 20% failed in both subjects, the percentage of students who passed in both subjects is 100% - 20% = 80%. Therefore, the correct answer is 80.

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  • 17. 

    Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow? Statements : I. Some flowers are red. II. Some flowers are blue. Conclusions : (a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue. (b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

    • A.

      Only (a) follows

    • B.

      Only (b) follows

    • C.

      Both (a) and (b) follow

    • D.

      Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

    Correct Answer
    D. Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
    Explanation
    The given statements state that there are flowers that are red and flowers that are blue. However, there is no information provided about flowers that are neither red nor blue or flowers that are both red and blue. Therefore, neither conclusion (a) nor conclusion (b) can logically follow from the given statements.

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  • 18. 

     A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called:

    • A.

      Deductive Reasoning

    • B.

      Inductive Reasoning

    • C.

      Abnormal Reasoning

    • D.

      Transcendental Reasoning

    Correct Answer
    D. Transcendental Reasoning
  • 19. 

    What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck, and a duck between two ducks?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      3

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    The smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation is 5. This is because there needs to be two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck, and a duck between two ducks. To satisfy these conditions, we can arrange the ducks in the following order: duck, duck, duck, duck, duck. This arrangement meets all the requirements stated in the question.

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  • 20. 

    Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C, and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades. (i) Mr. A sits opposite the cook. (ii) Miss B sits right to the barber. (iii) The washerman sits right to the barber. (iv) Miss D sits opposite Mr. C. What are the trades of A and B?

    • A.

      Tailor and barber

    • B.

      Barber and cook

    • C.

      Tailor and cook

    • D.

      Tailor and washerman

    Correct Answer
    D. Tailor and washerman
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, we can deduce that Mr. A sits opposite the cook, and Miss B sits right to the barber. Additionally, the washerman sits right to the barber. Since Miss D sits opposite Mr. C, and we already know that Mr. A is the tailor, the only remaining option for Miss B is to be the washerman. Therefore, the trades of A and B are tailor and washerman.

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  • 21. 

    Which one of the following methods serves to measure the correlation between two variables?

    • A.

      Scatter Diagram

    • B.

      Frequency Distribution

    • C.

      Two-way table

    • D.

      Coefficient of Rank Correlation

    Correct Answer
    D. Coefficient of Rank Correlation
    Explanation
    The coefficient of rank correlation serves to measure the correlation between two variables. This coefficient is used when the variables are ranked or ordered rather than measured on a continuous scale. It calculates the strength and direction of the relationship between the variables based on their ranks. It ranges from -1 to +1, where -1 represents a perfect negative correlation, +1 represents a perfect positive correlation, and 0 represents no correlation.

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  • 22. 

    Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?

    • A.

      MTNL

    • B.

      BSNL

    • C.

      ERNET India

    • D.

      Infotech India Ltd.

    Correct Answer
    D. Infotech India Ltd.
    Explanation
    Infotech India Ltd. is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) because it is an information technology company that provides software development, consulting, and other IT services. It does not offer internet connectivity or access to customers. On the other hand, MTNL, BSNL, and ERNET India are all well-known ISPs in India that provide internet services to individuals and businesses.

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  • 23. 

    The hexadecimal number system consists of symbols.

    • A.

      0 – 7

    • B.

      0 – 9 , A – F

    • C.

      0 – 7, A – F

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. 0 – 9 , A – F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "0 – 9 , A – F" because the hexadecimal number system uses a base of 16, which means it requires 16 different symbols to represent numbers. These symbols are 0-9 for the values 0-9 and A-F for the values 10-15. Therefore, the hexadecimal number system consists of symbols ranging from 0 to 9 and A to F.

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  • 24. 

    The binary equivalent of (–15) 10 is (2’s complement system is used)

    • A.

      11110001

    • B.

      11110000

    • C.

      10001111

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. None of these
  • 25. 

    1 GB is equal to:

    • A.

      230 bits

    • B.

      230 bytes

    • C.

      2 20 bits

    • D.

      2 20 bytes

    Correct Answer
    B. 230 bytes
    Explanation
    1 GB is equal to 2^30 bytes. In computer science, memory and storage are typically measured in bytes. The prefix "G" in GB stands for gigabyte, which is a unit of digital information storage. 1 gigabyte is equal to 1,073,741,824 bytes. Therefore, the correct answer is 230 bytes.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of the Government of India?

    • A.

      Solar power

    • B.

      Waste to energy conversion

    • C.

      Afforestation

    • D.

      Nuclear energy

    Correct Answer
    D. Nuclear energy
    Explanation
    Nuclear energy is not covered in the 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of the Government of India. This means that the government's plan does not include any specific initiatives or targets related to the development or utilization of nuclear energy as a means to address climate change. The other options listed in the question (solar power, waste to energy conversion, afforestation) are all included in the Climate Action Plan and are likely to be areas where the government is focusing its efforts to mitigate climate change.

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  • 27. 

    ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by:

    • A.

      Arundhati Roy

    • B.

      Medha Patkar

    • C.

      Ila Bhatt

    • D.

      Sunderlal Bahuguna

    Correct Answer
    D. Sunderlal Bahuguna
    Explanation
    The Chipko movement was first started by Sunderlal Bahuguna. The movement originated in the 1970s in the Uttarakhand region of India and aimed to protect forests from deforestation and commercial logging. Sunderlal Bahuguna, an environmentalist and social activist, led the movement and popularized the practice of hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down. The movement gained widespread attention and successfully raised awareness about the importance of conserving forests and the rights of local communities.

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  • 28. 

    The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are:

    • A.

      SO2 and O3

    • B.

      SO2 and NO2

    • C.

      HCHO and PAN

    • D.

      SO2 and SPM

    Correct Answer
    B. SO2 and NO2
    Explanation
    SO2 (sulfur dioxide) and NO2 (nitrogen dioxide) are the constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation. When sunlight reacts with pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted from vehicles, power plants, and industrial processes, photochemical smog is formed. The reaction between NO2 and sunlight produces ozone (O3), which is a major component of photochemical smog. SO2, on the other hand, is a common air pollutant emitted from burning fossil fuels. Both SO2 and NO2 can cause eye irritation when present in high concentrations in the atmosphere.

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  • 29. 

    India’s first Defence University is in the State of:

    • A.

      Haryana

    • B.

      ) Andhra Pradesh

    • C.

      ) Uttar Pradesh

    • D.

      ) Punjab

    Correct Answer
    A. Haryana
    Explanation
    India's first Defence University is located in Haryana. This means that Haryana is the state where the university is established.

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  • 30. 

    Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

    • A.

      Election Commission

    • B.

      Finance Commission

    • C.

      Union Public Service Commission

    • D.

      Planning Commission

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning Commission
    Explanation
    The Planning Commission is not a Constitutional Body because it was an extra-constitutional body that was created by a resolution of the Government of India. It was responsible for formulating Five-Year Plans and guiding the country's economic and social development. However, it was replaced by the NITI Aayog in 2015, which is a policy think tank and does not have the same constitutional status as the other bodies listed.

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  • 31. 

    Which one of the following statements is not correct?

    • A.

      Indian Parliament is supreme.

    • B.

      The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

    • C.

      There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States

    • D.

      There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

    Correct Answer
    B. The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review." This statement is not correct because the Supreme Court of India does have the power of judicial review. Judicial review is the power of the court to review and invalidate laws or actions that are found to be unconstitutional. The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial body in the country and has the authority to exercise judicial review.

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  • 32. 

    Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?

    • A.

      Written Constitution

    • B.

      No State religion

    • C.

      Devolution of power to local Government institutions

    • D.

      Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

    Correct Answer
    D. Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
    Explanation
    The statement "Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament" reflects the republic character of Indian democracy because it highlights the fact that India has an elected head of state (President) and a legislature (Parliament) that is elected by the people. This indicates that the power in the country is derived from the citizens through a democratic process, which is a key characteristic of a republic.

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  • 33. 

    Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?

    • A.

      Chief Minister of a State

    • B.

      A member of the State Public Service Commission

    • C.

      Advocate-General

    • D.

      Vice-Chancellor of a State University

    Correct Answer
    B. A member of the State Public Service Commission
    Explanation
    A member of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by only the President of India because they are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Union Public Service Commission and hold office until they reach the age of 65 or until they are removed by the President. The President has the power to remove them on grounds of misbehavior or incapacity, following an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court.

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  • 34. 

    Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because of such children.

    • A.

      Are gifted

    • B.

      Come from rich families

    • C.

      Show artificial behaviour

    • D.

      Create indiscipline in the class

    Correct Answer
    A. Are gifted
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that the students who exhibit great curiosity for learning may be gifted. This implies that their curiosity and eagerness to learn could be a result of their exceptional abilities or talents in certain areas. Being gifted often means having a higher intellectual capacity or talent in specific domains, which can contribute to a greater curiosity and interest in learning. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that the students mentioned in the statement are gifted.

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  • 35. 

    The most important quality of a good teacher is:

    • A.

      Sound knowledge of subject matter

    • B.

      Good communication skills

    • C.

      Concern for students’ welfare

    • D.

      Effective leadership qualities

    Correct Answer
    B. Good communication skills
    Explanation
    Good communication skills are considered the most important quality of a good teacher because they enable effective transmission of knowledge and information to students. A teacher with good communication skills can explain complex concepts in a clear and concise manner, engage students in meaningful discussions, and address their questions and concerns effectively. This helps in creating a positive and conducive learning environment, fostering better understanding and retention of the subject matter. Additionally, good communication skills also facilitate effective collaboration with colleagues, parents, and other stakeholders, enhancing overall teaching effectiveness.

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  • 36. 

    Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of the teacher-student relationship?

    • A.

      Very informal and intimate

    • B.

      Limited to classroom only (

    • C.

      Cordial and respectful

    • D.

      Indifferent

    Correct Answer
    C. Cordial and respectful
    Explanation
    A teacher-student relationship should be cordial and respectful in order to maintain a positive and conducive learning environment. This means that both the teacher and student should treat each other with politeness, kindness, and respect. It is important for teachers to create a friendly and supportive atmosphere where students feel comfortable asking questions and seeking help. Likewise, students should show respect towards their teachers by listening attentively, following instructions, and treating them with courtesy. This type of relationship fosters effective communication, trust, and mutual understanding, which are essential for a successful educational experience.

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  • 37. 

    The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to:

    • A.

      Supervise the work of their wards

    • B.

      arrange for extra tuition

    • C.

      Remain unconcerned about it

    • D.

      interact with teachers frequently

    Correct Answer
    D. interact with teachers frequently
    Explanation
    Interacting with teachers frequently can improve the academic performance of students because it allows parents to stay updated on their child's progress, understand their strengths and weaknesses, and address any issues or concerns promptly. Regular communication with teachers also helps parents to actively participate in their child's education, provide necessary support, and collaborate with teachers to create a conducive learning environment. This involvement fosters a sense of accountability and motivation in students, ultimately leading to improved academic performance.

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  • 38. 

    In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be:

    • A.

      occasional roars of laughter

    • B.

      Complete silence

    • C.

      Frequent teacher-student dialogue

    • D.

      loud discussion among students

    Correct Answer
    A. occasional roars of laughter
    Explanation
    In a lively classroom situation, occasional roars of laughter are likely to occur because laughter is a natural response to humor and engaging activities. Laughter indicates that students are enjoying the learning process and are actively participating in the class. It creates a positive and energetic atmosphere, fostering a sense of camaraderie among students. Additionally, laughter can help relieve stress and enhance the overall learning experience by making the content more memorable and enjoyable.

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  • 39. 

    If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favor to his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should:

    • A.

      try to help him

    • B.

      ask him not to talk in those terms

    • C.

      Refuse politely and firmly

    • D.

      ask him rudely to go away

    Correct Answer
    A. try to help him
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "try to help him". In this situation, the teacher should try to understand the parent's concerns and find a solution that is fair and beneficial for all students. The teacher should maintain professionalism and ensure that the favor does not compromise the integrity of the examination process. By attempting to help the parent, the teacher can address their concerns while upholding the principles of fairness and equality in education.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process?

    • A.

      Systematic Activity

    • B.

      Objective Observation

    • C.

      Trial and Error

    • D.

      Problem Solving

    Correct Answer
    B. Objective Observation
    Explanation
    Objective Observation is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process because research is not solely based on observation. While observation is an important aspect of research, it is not the only method used. Research also involves systematic activity, trial and error, and problem-solving to gather data, analyze information, and draw conclusions. Therefore, objective observation alone does not encompass the entire process of research.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 31, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Dewanganlib
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