CPSGT And RPSGT Quiz: Exam!

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  • 1/50 Questions

    What cardiac arrhythmia would require immediate intervention?

    • Asystole
    • Bigeminy
    • Bradycardia
    • PAC
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About This Quiz

Are you ready for the CPSGT and RPSGT exams? The CPSGT certificated was established for entry-level technicians in the sleep field. Those who obtain a CPSGT certificate will be eligible to earn a Registered Polysomnographic Technologist credential, or RPSGT credential, which is a process that must be completed within three years of earning CPSGT certification. This quiz is a must See moreand will prepare you for the exam. You can do it.

CPSGT And RPSGT Quiz: Exam! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED starting pressure for CPAP?

    • 4cm H20

    • 5cm H20

    • 3cm H20

    • 6cm H20

    Correct Answer
    A. 4cm H20
    Explanation
    The recommended starting pressure for CPAP is 4cm H20. This pressure setting is commonly used as a starting point for patients using CPAP therapy. It helps to keep the airway open and prevent collapse during sleep, effectively treating sleep apnea.

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  • 3. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for the EOG and EEG channels?

    • LFF 0.3 / HFF 35

    • LFF 0.5 / HFF 25

    • LFF 1 / HFF 15

    • LFF 1 / HFF 35

    Correct Answer
    A. LFF 0.3 / HFF 35
    Explanation
    The recommended LFF/HFF for the EOG and EEG channels is LFF 0.3 / HFF 35. This means that the low-frequency filter (LFF) should be set to 0.3 Hz, and the high-frequency filter (HFF) should be set to 35 Hz. These settings are recommended to ensure that the EOG and EEG channels capture the desired frequency range of signals accurately, filtering out any unwanted noise or interference.

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  • 4. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for an EMG channel?

    • LFF 10 / HFF 100

    • LFF 0.3 / HFF 35

    • LFF 0.3 / HFF 70

    • LFF 35 / HFF 100

    Correct Answer
    A. LFF 10 / HFF 100
    Explanation
    The recommended LFF/HFF for an EMG channel is LFF 10 / HFF 100. This means that the low-frequency filter (LFF) should be set to 10 Hz and the high-frequency filter (HFF) should be set to 100 Hz. These filter settings are chosen to ensure that the EMG signal is captured accurately while filtering out any unwanted noise or interference.

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  • 5. 

    What is the purpose of the low frequency filter?

    • Eliminating undesired slow frequencies

    • Eliminating undesired fast frequencies

    • Adjusting signal amplitude

    • Calibrating DC amplifiers

    Correct Answer
    A. Eliminating undesired slow frequencies
    Explanation
    The purpose of the low frequency filter is to eliminate undesired slow frequencies. This means that it filters out any signals or noise that have a low frequency, allowing only higher frequency signals to pass through. This can be useful in various applications, such as audio processing or data analysis, where it is important to remove or reduce any unwanted low frequency components in order to focus on the higher frequency information of interest.

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  • 6. 

    What  should the technician do first to make sure the proper test is being performed?

    • Review the chart for the physician's order

    • Contact the physician

    • Perform physiological calibrations

    • Ask the patient for a chief complaint

    Correct Answer
    A. Review the chart for the physician's order
    Explanation
    To ensure that the proper test is being performed, the technician should review the chart for the physician's order. This is important because the physician's order will specify the specific test that needs to be conducted. By reviewing the chart, the technician can verify that they are performing the correct test as requested by the physician. Contacting the physician or performing physiological calibrations may be necessary steps, but they should be done after reviewing the chart to confirm the test that needs to be performed. Asking the patient for a chief complaint may provide additional information but it is not the first step in ensuring the proper test is being performed.

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  • 7. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The recommended number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration is 3. This means that the patient should experience at least 3 instances of hypopnea, which is a partial blockage of the airway resulting in reduced airflow, before the pressure is adjusted. This ensures that the patient's breathing is adequately supported and that the pressure is adjusted appropriately to maintain optimal airflow.

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  • 8. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a hypopnea?

    • 3%

    • 4%

    • 2%

    • 5%

    Correct Answer
    A. 3%
    Explanation
    The recommended decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a hypopnea is 3%. This means that if a person's SpO2 level drops by 3% or more during an event, it would be classified as a hypopnea. This measurement is important in diagnosing and monitoring sleep disorders, as hypopneas are partial blockages of the airway that can disrupt breathing and affect oxygen levels.

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  • 9. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a central apnea?

    • There is no required decrease in SpO2

    • 2%

    • 3%

    • 4%

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no required decrease in SpO2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "There is no required decrease in SpO2." This means that there is no specific or recommended decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a central apnea. Central apnea is characterized by the absence of respiratory effort, and it is not defined by a specific decrease in SpO2 levels. Therefore, the decrease in SpO2 is not a determining factor for scoring central apnea.

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  • 10. 

    The purpose of physiologic calibrations is to

    • All the above

    • Establish certain scoring references for the sleep study

    • Verify signal derivations for each channel

    • Confirm the integrity of the signals

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Physiologic calibrations serve multiple purposes. They help establish scoring references for the sleep study, ensuring that accurate measurements are obtained. They also verify signal derivations for each channel, ensuring that the data collected is reliable. Additionally, physiologic calibrations confirm the integrity of the signals, ensuring that there are no technical issues or interference that may affect the accuracy of the results. Therefore, all of the given options - establishing scoring references, verifying signal derivations, and confirming signal integrity - are correct explanations for the purpose of physiologic calibrations.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED impedance level for EEG electrodes?

    • Less than 5k ohms

    • Less than 5 ohms

    • Less than 10k ohms

    • At least 10k ohms

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 5k ohms
    Explanation
    The recommended impedance level for EEG electrodes is less than 5k ohms. This is because low impedance ensures optimal signal quality and reduces the chances of noise interference. If the impedance level is too high, it can result in poor signal quality, leading to inaccurate or unreliable EEG readings. Therefore, it is important to keep the impedance level below 5k ohms to ensure accurate and reliable EEG measurements.

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  • 12. 

    The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to OZ?

    • 3.2cm

    • 1.6cm

    • 6.4cm

    • 2.8cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.2cm
    Explanation
    The distance from the nasion to the inion is given as 32cm. The inion is located at the back of the skull, and we are asked to find the distance from the inion to OZ. Since the question does not provide any additional information or measurements, we can assume that the distance from the inion to OZ is the same as the distance from the nasion to the inion, which is 32cm. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.2cm.

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  • 13. 

    The circumference of the patient's head is 56cm. What is the distance from Oz to O1?

    • 2.8cm

    • 5.6cm

    • 3.8cm

    • 10cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.8cm
    Explanation
    The distance from Oz to O1 is 2.8cm because it is half of the circumference of the patient's head. Since the circumference is 56cm, dividing it by 2 gives us 28cm. Therefore, the distance from Oz to O1 is 2.8cm.

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  • 14. 

    Which EEG electrode is half the distance from F8 to Fz?

    • F4

    • Fp2

    • F6

    • C4

    Correct Answer
    A. F4
    Explanation
    F4 is the correct answer because it is located halfway between F8 and Fz. EEG electrodes are labeled based on their position on the scalp, and the F4 electrode is positioned on the right side of the forehead. It is important to note that F8 is on the right side and Fz is in the midline of the forehead. Therefore, F4 is the electrode that is halfway between these two positions.

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  • 15. 

    Which EEG electrode is half the distance from O1 to T3?

    • T5

    • C3

    • P3

    • Oz

    Correct Answer
    A. T5
    Explanation
    T5 is the correct answer because it is located halfway between O1 and T3. EEG electrodes are placed on the scalp to measure electrical activity in the brain. The positioning of electrodes follows a standardized system, and T5 is specifically positioned between O1 (located on the left side of the occipital lobe) and T3 (located on the left side of the temporal lobe). Therefore, T5 is the electrode that is halfway between these two points.

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  • 16. 

    The distance from Fpz to T4 is 14cm. What is the distance from Fpz to F8?

    • 7cm

    • 3cm

    • 10cm

    • 4cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 7cm
    Explanation
    Since the distance from Fpz to T4 is 14cm, and the distance from Fpz to F8 is half of the distance from Fpz to T4, the distance from Fpz to F8 would be 7cm.

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  • 17. 

    The rate at which a wave repeats itself or oscillates is called the ________

    • Frequency

    • Amplitute

    • Sensitivity

    • Filter

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency
    Explanation
    The rate at which a wave repeats itself or oscillates is called frequency. It is a measure of how many complete cycles of the wave occur in a given time period. Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz) and is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the wave. Higher frequencies correspond to shorter wavelengths and vice versa.

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  • 18. 

    What occurs during hypoventilation?

    • Increased PCO2

    • Decreased PCO2

    • Increased PO2

    • CPOD

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased PCO2
    Explanation
    During hypoventilation, there is a decrease in the rate and depth of breathing, leading to inadequate removal of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the lungs. As a result, the concentration of CO2 in the blood increases, causing an increase in PCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide). This can lead to respiratory acidosis, a condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH. Hypoventilation can occur due to various factors such as lung diseases, respiratory muscle weakness, or drug overdose.

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  • 19. 

    What is a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume?

    • Cheyne-Stokes respiration

    • Hypoventilation

    • Pickwickian syndrome

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
    Explanation
    Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a pattern of breathing characterized by periods of central apneas (pauses in breathing) followed by a crescendo-decrescendo pattern of tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath). This pattern is often seen in patients with heart failure and neurological disorders. Hypoventilation refers to inadequate breathing, Pickwickian syndrome is a term used to describe a combination of obesity and sleep apnea, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a chronic lung condition characterized by airflow limitation.

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  • 20. 

    During which sleep stage is the arousal threshold highest?

    • N3

    • REM

    • N1

    • N2

    Correct Answer
    A. N3
    Explanation
    During N3 sleep stage, also known as deep sleep or slow-wave sleep, the arousal threshold is highest. This means that it is more difficult to wake someone up from this stage compared to other sleep stages. N3 sleep is characterized by slow brain waves, decreased muscle activity, and deep relaxation. It is considered to be the most restorative stage of sleep, where the body repairs and regenerates tissues, strengthens the immune system, and consolidates memories.

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  • 21. 

    What BEST describes an Obstructive Apnea?

    • At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea

    • At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort ABSENT for the duration of the apnea

    • At least a 30% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with at least a 3% oxygen desaturation

    • At least a 70% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea

    Correct Answer
    A. At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea
    Explanation
    Obstructive apnea occurs when the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, causing breathing to stop temporarily. Effort is made to breathe during these episodes, but airflow is either absent or severely reduced due to the obstruction in the airway. This type of apnea is one of the major types of sleep apnea and can result in symptoms such as snoring, gasping for air during sleep, and daytime sleepiness.

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  • 22. 

    What is the frequency of Alpha waves?

    • 8-13Hz

    • 7-14Hz

    • 4-7Hz

    • >13Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 8-13Hz
    Explanation
    Alpha waves are a type of brain wave that occur in the frequency range of 8-13Hz. This frequency range is associated with a relaxed yet alert state of mind, often seen during meditation or when a person is in a calm and peaceful state. The other options provided, 7-14Hz, 4-7Hz, and >13Hz, do not accurately represent the frequency range of Alpha waves.

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  • 23. 

    What is the frequency of Delta waves?

    • 0.5-2Hz

    • 4-7Hz

    • >13

    • 8-13Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5-2Hz
    Explanation
    Delta waves are low-frequency brain waves that are typically observed during deep sleep. They have a frequency range of 0.5-2Hz, which means they oscillate at a rate of 0.5 to 2 cycles per second. These slow waves are associated with restorative and regenerative processes in the brain, as well as with unconsciousness and the absence of dreaming. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5-2Hz.

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  • 24. 

    What is the frequency of Beta waves?

    • >13Hz

    • 0.5-2Hz

    • 8-13Hz

    • 4-7Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. >13Hz
    Explanation
    Beta waves are a type of brainwave that are associated with wakefulness, concentration, and active thinking. They have a frequency range of 13Hz or higher. This means that the correct answer is ">13Hz" because it falls within the frequency range of beta waves.

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  • 25. 

    What is the frequency of Theta waves?

    • 4-7Hz

    • 8-13Hz

    • 0.5-2Hz

    • >13Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 4-7Hz
    Explanation
    Theta waves are a type of brainwave that occur during periods of deep relaxation, meditation, and light sleep. These waves have a frequency range of 4-7Hz, which means they cycle 4 to 7 times per second. This frequency range is associated with a calm and relaxed state of mind, as well as increased creativity and intuition. Theta waves are commonly observed during hypnosis and can be beneficial for reducing stress and improving overall well-being.

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  • 26. 

    What is the RECOMMENDED minimum required length for an arousal?

    • 3 seconds

    • 1 second

    • 5 seconds

    • 10 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 seconds
    Explanation
    The recommended minimum required length for an arousal is 3 seconds. This suggests that a minimum duration of 3 seconds is considered ideal for an arousal to be effective. A shorter duration may not provide enough time for the desired response or experience, while a longer duration may lead to overstimulation or discomfort. Therefore, 3 seconds is the recommended minimum length for an arousal.

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  • 27. 

    What is the definition of a K complex?

    • Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration

    • 0.5Hz-2Hz with an amplitude of at least 75mcV

    • Positive wave followed by a negative wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration

    • Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 1 seconds in duration

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration
    Explanation
    A K complex is a characteristic waveform observed in electroencephalography (EEG) during stage 2 sleep. It consists of a sharp negative component followed by a slower positive component, with a duration of at least 0.5 seconds.

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  • 28. 

    Good sleep hygiene includes:

    • Regular daily activities

    • Daytime napping

    • OTC sleep aids

    • Positional therapy

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular daily activities
    Explanation
    Regular daily activities are considered a part of good sleep hygiene because they help establish a consistent sleep schedule. Engaging in regular activities during the day, such as exercise, work, and socializing, can help regulate the body's internal clock and promote better sleep at night. By maintaining a consistent daily routine, the body becomes accustomed to a regular sleep-wake cycle, making it easier to fall asleep and wake up at the desired times. This can contribute to improved sleep quality and overall sleep hygiene.

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  • 29. 

    What is the frequency at which eye blinking occurs?

    • 0.5-2Hz

    • 2-4Hz

    • 1-3Hz

    • 3-4Hz

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.5-2Hz
    Explanation
    The frequency at which eye blinking occurs is typically between 0.5 and 2Hz. This means that on average, a person blinks their eyes 0.5 to 2 times per second. Blinking is a natural reflex that helps to keep the eyes lubricated and protected.

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  • 30. 

    Bob Smith completes a diagnostic PSG. Using the following information what is the patient's AHI?
    • TST: 300 minutes
    • Obstructive Apneas: 14
    • Central Apneas: 8
    • Mixed Apneas: 0
    • Hypopneas: 38
    • RERAs: 10 ​

      • 12

      • 14

      • 10

      • 24

      Correct Answer
      A. 12
    1. 31. 

      What is the normal percentage of TST spent in REM?

      • 20-25%

      • 35%

      • 50%

      • 5-10%

      Correct Answer
      A. 20-25%
      Explanation
      The normal percentage of TST (Total Sleep Time) spent in REM (Rapid Eye Movement) is 20-25%. During REM sleep, our brain is highly active, and this is the stage where most dreaming occurs. It is an important phase for memory consolidation and emotional processing. The other stages of sleep, such as NREM (Non-Rapid Eye Movement), also play crucial roles in restorative functions, but REM sleep is specifically associated with cognitive and emotional functions. Therefore, it is expected that around 20-25% of our total sleep time is spent in REM sleep.

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    2. 32. 

      For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the first third of the night?

      • N3

      • N1

      • REM

      • N2

      Correct Answer
      A. N3
      Explanation
      N3 is the correct answer because it represents the stage of deep sleep, also known as slow-wave sleep. This stage is typically found in the first third of the night and is characterized by slow brain waves, relaxed muscles, and the body's restoration and repair processes. During N3, the body experiences the most restorative sleep, including the release of growth hormones, tissue repair, and memory consolidation.

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    3. 33. 

      What is the normal NREM to REM cycle?

      • 90-120 minutes

      • 60-80 minutes

      • 180 minutes

      • 60 minutes

      Correct Answer
      A. 90-120 minutes
      Explanation
      The normal NREM to REM cycle lasts for 90-120 minutes. This refers to the cycle of sleep stages that a person goes through during a typical night of sleep. NREM (Non-Rapid Eye Movement) sleep consists of three stages, while REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep is the stage where most dreaming occurs. The cycle starts with NREM sleep and progresses through the stages before entering REM sleep. This cycle repeats multiple times throughout the night, with each cycle lasting approximately 90-120 minutes.

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    4. 34. 

      For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the last third of the night?

      • REM

      • N1

      • N2

      • N3

      Correct Answer
      A. REM
      Explanation
      REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep is predominately found in the last third of the night for an average adult. During REM sleep, the brain is highly active and the eyes move rapidly. This is the stage of sleep where most dreaming occurs. It is also associated with increased brain activity, rapid and irregular breathing, and muscle paralysis. REM sleep is important for memory consolidation, emotional regulation, and overall cognitive function.

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    5. 35. 
      What sleep stage is this? - ProProfs

      What sleep stage is this?

      • Wake

      • N1

      • REM

      • N2

      Correct Answer
      A. Wake
      Explanation
      The given options represent different stages of sleep. Wake refers to the state of being fully awake and alert, characterized by conscious awareness and engagement with the surroundings. It is not a sleep stage but rather the absence of sleep.

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    6. 36. 
      What sleep stage is this? - ProProfs

      What sleep stage is this?

      • N1

      • Wake

      • N2

      • N3

      Correct Answer
      A. N1
      Explanation
      N1 refers to the first stage of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep. During this stage, individuals are in a light sleep and can be easily awakened. It is characterized by the presence of theta waves in the brain, as well as slow eye movements. This stage typically lasts for a few minutes and serves as a transition between wakefulness and deeper sleep stages.

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    7. 37. 

      DECREASING the sensitivity would result in what change in the EEG waveform?

      • Increase the height of the waveform

      • Decrease the height of the waveform

      • Attenuate the lower frequencies

      • Eliminate EKG artifact

      Correct Answer
      A. Decrease the height of the waveform
      Explanation
      In EEG (electroencephalography), sensitivity refers to the ratio of the input signal to the output signal displayed on the screen. Sensitivity is typically measured in microvolts per millimeter (µV/mm). Decreasing the sensitivity means that a given voltage input will produce a smaller deflection on the display, thereby decreasing the height of the waveform. This adjustment does not affect the frequency components or eliminate artifacts such as EKG noise.

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    8. 38. 

      INCREASING the gain would result in what change in the EEG waveform?

      • Increase the height of the waveform

      • Decrease the height of the waveform

      • Attenuate the high frequencies

      • Eliminate slow wave artifact

      Correct Answer
      A. Increase the height of the waveform
      Explanation
      INCREASING the gain from 1 to 2 will double the height of the EEG wave form while DECREASING the gain from 2 to 1 will half the height of the EEG waveform

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    9. 39. 

      Which medication would MOST likely be used for the treatment of RLS?

      • Ropinirole

      • Gabapentin

      • Metoprolol

      • Zolpidem

      Correct Answer
      A. Ropinirole
      Explanation
      Ropinirole is the most likely medication to be used for the treatment of RLS. RLS, or Restless Leg Syndrome, is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs due to uncomfortable sensations. Ropinirole is a dopamine agonist that helps to reduce these sensations and improve symptoms of RLS. Gabapentin is also sometimes used for RLS, but it is not the most likely choice. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for high blood pressure and Zolpidem is a sedative used for sleep disorders, neither of which are indicated for RLS treatment.

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    10. 40. 

      G1 = 60µV, G2 = 10µV. What is the output signal voltage?

      • 50µV

      • -50µV

      • 70µV

      • -70µV

      Correct Answer
      A. 50µV
      Explanation
      Output voltage is determined by subtracting G2 from G1: 60 -10 = 50

      See http://www.mathsisfun.com/positive-negative-integers for more info on adding and subtracting positive and negative numbers.

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    11. 41. 

      What is the recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?

      • 2

      • 1

      • 3

      • 5

      Correct Answer
      A. 2
      Explanation
      The recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration is 2. This means that if the patient experiences 2 apneas, which are periods of complete or partial airway obstruction during sleep, it is recommended to increase the pressure settings on the continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machine. This adjustment helps to ensure that the patient's airway remains open and prevents further apneas from occurring, promoting better sleep and oxygenation.

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    12. 42. 

      What is the recommended number of observed hypopneas needed for a pediatric patient before increasing pressure during a titration?

      • 1

      • 2

      • 3

      • 4

      Correct Answer
      A. 1
      Explanation
      The recommended number of observed hypopneas needed for a pediatric patient before increasing pressure during a titration is 1. This means that if a pediatric patient experiences just one hypopnea event, it is recommended to increase the pressure during the titration. This is important because hypopneas can lead to inadequate oxygen levels and disrupted sleep patterns, so adjusting the pressure can help alleviate these issues and improve the patient's sleep quality.

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    13. 43. 

      Which of the following would be a contraindication of PAP therapy?

      • Tracheostomy

      • GERD

      • Rhinitis

      • COPD

      Correct Answer
      A. Tracheostomy
      Explanation
      A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure that creates an opening in the neck to the trachea. This allows for direct access to the airway and bypasses the upper airway. Therefore, using positive airway pressure (PAP) therapy, which relies on the upper airway to deliver air pressure, would not be effective or appropriate for someone with a tracheostomy.

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    14. 44. 

      What is the RECOMMENDED minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential?

      • 4 min / 10 max

      • 5 min / 10 max

      • 0 min / 10 max

      • 4 min / 12 max

      Correct Answer
      A. 4 min / 10 max
      Explanation
      The recommended minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential is 4 min / 10 max. This means that the inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) should be set at a minimum of 4 and a maximum of 10 units higher than the expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP). This range allows for adequate pressure support during inhalation while still maintaining a safe and comfortable level of pressure during exhalation.

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    15. 45. 

      According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, portable monitoring is an appropriate choice for:

      • Monitoring a patient's response to oral appliance therapy.

      • Diagnosing Hypoventilation Syndrome.

      • Screening patients with a low probability of OSA.

      • Assessing patients with low baseline oxygen saturation.

      Correct Answer
      A. Monitoring a patient's response to oral appliance therapy.
      Explanation
      Portable monitoring is a suitable choice for monitoring a patient's response to oral appliance therapy. This is because oral appliance therapy is a treatment option for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), and portable monitoring can be used to assess the effectiveness of this therapy in managing OSA. Portable monitoring devices are convenient and can be used outside of the sleep laboratory, allowing for continuous monitoring of the patient's sleep patterns and respiratory parameters while wearing the oral appliance. This helps to evaluate the patient's progress and make any necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.

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    16. 46. 

      What would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve the definition of high frequency activity?

      • Recording with a high sampling rate

      • Using a 100 µv input voltage

      • Applying 50/60 Hz filter

      • Decreasing the sensitivity

      Correct Answer
      A. Recording with a high sampling rate
      Explanation
      Recording with a high sampling rate would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve the definition of high frequency activity. A higher sampling rate means that more data points are recorded per unit of time, allowing for a more accurate representation of the signal. This increased resolution can capture the fast fluctuations and details of the EEG spikes and high frequency activity, providing a clearer and more precise picture of the brain's electrical activity.

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    17. 47. 

       A patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis would be MOST at risk for:

      • Sleep disordered breathing during REM.

      • Hypoventilation.

      • Cheyne stokes breathing.

      • Gastroesophageal reflux.

      Correct Answer
      A. Sleep disordered breathing during REM.
      Explanation
      Unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis refers to the paralysis of one side of the diaphragm, which is the main muscle responsible for breathing. During REM (rapid eye movement) sleep, the muscles in the body, including the diaphragm, may become more relaxed. In a patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis, this relaxation may cause further impairment of the diaphragm's ability to function properly, leading to sleep disordered breathing. This can manifest as abnormal breathing patterns, such as shallow breathing or pauses in breathing, during REM sleep. Therefore, the patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis would be most at risk for sleep disordered breathing during REM.

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    18. 48. 

      The ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals similar to both inputs in known as:

      • Common mode rejection.

      • Impedance.

      • Signal-to-noise ratio.

      • Analog-to-digital converter.

      Correct Answer
      A. Common mode rejection.
      Explanation
      Common mode rejection is the ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals that are present in both inputs. This means that if there is a common noise or interference signal that is present in both the positive and negative inputs of the amplifier, it will be rejected or canceled out. Common mode rejection is an important characteristic of a differential amplifier as it helps to eliminate unwanted noise and interference from the desired signal, resulting in a cleaner and more accurate output. Impedance, signal-to-noise ratio, and analog-to-digital converter are not relevant to the given question.

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    19. 49. 

      Sleep state misperception is also known as:

      • Paradoxical insomnia.

      • Behavioral insomnia.

      • Circadian rhythm disorder.

      • Idiopathic hypersomnia.

      Correct Answer
      A. Paradoxical insomnia.
      Explanation
      Sleep state misperception refers to a condition where individuals perceive their sleep as being more disrupted or shorter than it actually is. This is also known as paradoxical insomnia. It is characterized by a persistent complaint of poor sleep despite objective evidence of adequate sleep duration and quality. People with paradoxical insomnia often underestimate their sleep duration and overestimate the time it takes them to fall asleep. This condition can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.

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    • Aug 02, 2024
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