Cpsgt/Rpsgt Practice Test

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 4579

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Cpsgt/Rpsgt Practice Test

A good practice test that goes over the general knowledge needed for the CPSGT and RPSGT exam.


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What cardiac arrhythmia would require immediate intervention?
    • A. 

      Asystole

    • B. 

      Bigeminy

    • C. 

      Bradycardia

    • D. 

      PAC

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      4cm H20

    • B. 

      5cm H20

    • C. 

      3cm H20

    • D. 

      6cm H20

  • 3. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for the EOG and EEG channels?
    • A. 

      LFF 0.3 / HFF 35

    • B. 

      LFF 0.5 / HFF 25

    • C. 

      LFF 1 / HFF 15

    • D. 

      LFF 1 / HFF 35

  • 4. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for an EMG channel?
    • A. 

      LFF 10 / HFF 100

    • B. 

      LFF 0.3 / HFF 35

    • C. 

      LFF 0.3 / HFF 70

    • D. 

      LFF 35 / HFF 100

  • 5. 
    What is the purpose of the low frequency filter?
    • A. 

      Eliminating undesired slow frequencies

    • B. 

      Eliminating undesired fast frequencies

    • C. 

      Adjusting signal amplitude

    • D. 

      Calibrating DC amplifiers

  • 6. 
    What  should the technician do first to make sure the proper test is being performed?
    • A. 

      Review the chart for the physician's order

    • B. 

      Contact the physician

    • C. 

      Perform physiological calibrations

    • D. 

      Ask the patient for a chief complaint

  • 7. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      1

    • D. 

      4

  • 8. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a hypopnea?
    • A. 

      3%

    • B. 

      4%

    • C. 

      2%

    • D. 

      5%

  • 9. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a central apnea?
    • A. 

      There is no required decrease in SpO2

    • B. 

      2%

    • C. 

      3%

    • D. 

      4%

  • 10. 
    The purpose of physiologic calibrations is to
    • A. 

      All the above

    • B. 

      Establish certain scoring references for the sleep study

    • C. 

      Verify signal derivations for each channel

    • D. 

      Confirm the integrity of the signals

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED impedance level for EEG electrodes?
    • A. 

      Less than 5k ohms

    • B. 

      Less than 5 ohms

    • C. 

      Less than 10k ohms

    • D. 

      At least 10k ohms

  • 12. 
    The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to OZ?
    • A. 

      3.2cm

    • B. 

      1.6cm

    • C. 

      6.4cm

    • D. 

      2.8cm

  • 13. 
    The circumference of the patient's head is 56cm. What is the distance from Oz to O1?
    • A. 

      2.8cm

    • B. 

      5.6cm

    • C. 

      3.8cm

    • D. 

      10cm

  • 14. 
    Which EEG electrode is half the distance from F8 to Fz?
    • A. 

      F4

    • B. 

      Fp2

    • C. 

      F6

    • D. 

      C4

  • 15. 
    Which EEG electrode is half the distance from O1 to T3?
    • A. 

      T5

    • B. 

      C3

    • C. 

      P3

    • D. 

      Oz

  • 16. 
    The distance from Fpz to T4 is 14cm. What is the distance from Fpz to F8?
    • A. 

      7cm

    • B. 

      3cm

    • C. 

      10cm

    • D. 

      4cm

  • 17. 
    The rate at which a wave repeats itself or oscillates is called the ________
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Amplitute

    • C. 

      Sensitivity

    • D. 

      Filter

  • 18. 
    What occurs during hypoventilation?
    • A. 

      Increased PCO2

    • B. 

      Decreased PCO2

    • C. 

      Increased PO2

    • D. 

      CPOD

  • 19. 
    What is a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume?
    • A. 

      Cheyne-Stokes respiration

    • B. 

      Hypoventilation

    • C. 

      Pickwickian syndrome

    • D. 

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

  • 20. 
    During which sleep stage is the arousal threshold highest?
    • A. 

      N3

    • B. 

      REM

    • C. 

      N1

    • D. 

      N2

  • 21. 
    What BEST describes an Obstructive Apnea?
    • A. 

      At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea

    • B. 

      At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort ABSENT for the duration of the apnea

    • C. 

      At least a 30% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with at least a 3% oxygen desaturation

    • D. 

      At least a 70% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea

  • 22. 
    What is the frequency of Alpha waves?
    • A. 

      8-13Hz

    • B. 

      7-14Hz

    • C. 

      4-7Hz

    • D. 

      >13Hz

  • 23. 
    What is the frequency of Delta waves?
    • A. 

      0.5-2Hz

    • B. 

      4-7Hz

    • C. 

      >13

    • D. 

      8-13Hz

  • 24. 
    What is the frequency of Beta waves?
    • A. 

      >13Hz

    • B. 

      0.5-2Hz

    • C. 

      8-13Hz

    • D. 

      4-7Hz

  • 25. 
    What is the frequency of Theta waves?
    • A. 

      4-7Hz

    • B. 

      8-13Hz

    • C. 

      0.5-2Hz

    • D. 

      >13Hz

  • 26. 
    What is the RECOMMENDED minimum required length for an arousal?
    • A. 

      3 seconds

    • B. 

      1 second

    • C. 

      5 seconds

    • D. 

      10 seconds

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration

    • B. 

      0.5Hz-2Hz with an amplitude of at least 75mcV

    • C. 

      Positive wave followed by a negative wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration

    • D. 

      Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 1 seconds in duration

  • 28. 
    Good sleep hygiene includes:
    • A. 

      Regular daily activities

    • B. 

      Daytime napping

    • C. 

      OTC sleep aids

    • D. 

      Positional therapy

  • 29. 
    What is the frequency at which eye blinking occurs?
    • A. 

      0.5-2Hz

    • B. 

      2-4Hz

    • C. 

      1-3Hz

    • D. 

      3-4Hz

  • 30. 
    Bob Smith completes a diagnostic PSG. Using the following information what is the patient's AHI?
    • TST: 300 minutes
    • Obstructive Apneas: 14
    • Central Apneas: 8
    • Mixed Apneas: 0
    • Hypopneas: 38
    • RERAs: 10 ​
      • A. 

        12

      • B. 

        14

      • C. 

        10

      • D. 

        24

    1. 31. 
      What is the normal percentage of TST spent in REM?
      • A. 

        20-25%

      • B. 

        35%

      • C. 

        50%

      • D. 

        5-10%

    2. 32. 
      For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the first third of the night?
      • A. 

        N3

      • B. 

        N1

      • C. 

        REM

      • D. 

        N2

    3. 33. 
      What is the normal NREM to REM cycle?
      • A. 

        90-120 minutes

      • B. 

        60-80 minutes

      • C. 

        180 minutes

      • D. 

        60 minutes

    4. 34. 
      For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the last third of the night?
      • A. 

        REM

      • B. 

        N1

      • C. 

        N2

      • D. 

        N3

    5. 35. 
      What sleep stage is this?
      • A. 

        Wake

      • B. 

        N1

      • C. 

        REM

      • D. 

        N2

    6. 36. 
      • A. 

        N1

      • B. 

        Wake

      • C. 

        N2

      • D. 

        N3

    7. 37. 
      DECREASING the sensitivity would result in what change in the EEG waveform?
      • A. 

        Increase the height of the waveform

      • B. 

        Decrease the height of the waveform

      • C. 

        Attenuate the lower frequencies

      • D. 

        Eliminate EKG artifact

    8. 38. 
      • A. 

        Increase the height of the waveform

      • B. 

        Decrease the height of the waveform

      • C. 

        Attenuate the high frequencies

      • D. 

        Eliminate slow wave artifact

    9. 39. 
      Which medication would MOST likely be used for the treatment of RLS?
      • A. 

        Ropinirole

      • B. 

        Gabapentin

      • C. 

        Metoprolol

      • D. 

        Zolpidem

    10. 40. 
      G1 = 60µV, G2 = 10µV. What is the output signal voltage?
      • A. 

        50µV

      • B. 

        -50µV

      • C. 

        70µV

      • D. 

        -70µV

    11. 41. 
      What is the recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?
      • A. 

        2

      • B. 

        1

      • C. 

        3

      • D. 

        5

    12. 42. 
      • A. 

        1

      • B. 

        2

      • C. 

        3

      • D. 

        4

    13. 43. 
      Which of the following would be a contraindication of PAP therapy?
      • A. 

        Tracheostomy

      • B. 

        GERD

      • C. 

        Rhinitis

      • D. 

        COPD

    14. 44. 
      What is the RECOMMENDED minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential?
      • A. 

        4 min / 10 max

      • B. 

        5 min / 10 max

      • C. 

        0 min / 10 max

      • D. 

        4 min / 12 max

    15. 45. 
      According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, portable monitoring is an appropriate choice for:
      • A. 

        Monitoring a patient's response to oral appliance therapy.

      • B. 

        Diagnosing Hypoventilation Syndrome.

      • C. 

        Screening patients with a low probability of OSA.

      • D. 

        Assessing patients with low baseline oxygen saturation.

    16. 46. 
      What would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve the definition of high frequency activity?
      • A. 

        Recording with a high sampling rate

      • B. 

        Using a 100 µv input voltage

      • C. 

        Applying 50/60 Hz filter

      • D. 

        Decreasing the sensitivity

    17. 47. 
       A patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis would be MOST at risk for:
      • A. 

        Sleep disordered breathing during REM.

      • B. 

        Hypoventilation.

      • C. 

        Cheyne stokes breathing.

      • D. 

        Gastroesophageal reflux.

    18. 48. 
      The ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals similar to both inputs in known as:
      • A. 

        Common mode rejection.

      • B. 

        Impedance.

      • C. 

        Signal-to-noise ratio.

      • D. 

        Analog-to-digital converter.

    19. 49. 
      • A. 

        Paradoxical insomnia.

      • B. 

        Behavioral insomnia.

      • C. 

        Circadian rhythm disorder.

      • D. 

        Idiopathic hypersomnia.

    20. 50. 
      What category of sleep disorders does sleepwalking belong to?
      • A. 

        Parasomnias

      • B. 

        Insomnias

      • C. 

        Circadian Rhythm Disorders

      • D. 

        Hypersomnolence Disorders