Cpsgt/Rpsgt Practice Test
Settings
A good practice test that goes over the general knowledge needed for the CPSGT and RPSGT exam.
- 1.What cardiac arrhythmia would require immediate intervention?
- A.
Asystole
- B.
Bigeminy
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
PAC
- 2.
- A.
4cm H20
- B.
5cm H20
- C.
3cm H20
- D.
6cm H20
- 3.What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for the EOG and EEG channels?
- A.
LFF 0.3 / HFF 35
- B.
LFF 0.5 / HFF 25
- C.
LFF 1 / HFF 15
- D.
LFF 1 / HFF 35
- 4.What is the RECOMMENDED LFF/HFF for an EMG channel?
- A.
LFF 10 / HFF 100
- B.
LFF 0.3 / HFF 35
- C.
LFF 0.3 / HFF 70
- D.
LFF 35 / HFF 100
- 5.What is the purpose of the low frequency filter?
- A.
Eliminating undesired slow frequencies
- B.
Eliminating undesired fast frequencies
- C.
Adjusting signal amplitude
- D.
Calibrating DC amplifiers
- 6.What should the technician do first to make sure the proper test is being performed?
- A.
Review the chart for the physician's order
- B.
Contact the physician
- C.
Perform physiological calibrations
- D.
Ask the patient for a chief complaint
- 7.What is the RECOMMENDED number of observed hypopneas needed in an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?
- A.
3
- B.
2
- C.
1
- D.
4
- 8.What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a hypopnea?
- A.
3%
- B.
4%
- C.
2%
- D.
5%
- 9.What is the RECOMMENDED decrease in SpO2 needed for an event to be scored as a central apnea?
- A.
There is no required decrease in SpO2
- B.
2%
- C.
3%
- D.
4%
- 10.The purpose of physiologic calibrations is to
- A.
All the above
- B.
Establish certain scoring references for the sleep study
- C.
Verify signal derivations for each channel
- D.
Confirm the integrity of the signals
- 11.Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED impedance level for EEG electrodes?
- A.
Less than 5k ohms
- B.
Less than 5 ohms
- C.
Less than 10k ohms
- D.
At least 10k ohms
- 12.The measured distance from the nasion to the inion is 32cm. What is the distance from the inion to OZ?
- A.
3.2cm
- B.
1.6cm
- C.
6.4cm
- D.
2.8cm
- 13.The circumference of the patient's head is 56cm. What is the distance from Oz to O1?
- A.
2.8cm
- B.
5.6cm
- C.
3.8cm
- D.
10cm
- 14.Which EEG electrode is half the distance from F8 to Fz?
- A.
F4
- B.
Fp2
- C.
F6
- D.
C4
- 15.Which EEG electrode is half the distance from O1 to T3?
- A.
T5
- B.
C3
- C.
P3
- D.
Oz
- 16.The distance from Fpz to T4 is 14cm. What is the distance from Fpz to F8?
- A.
7cm
- B.
3cm
- C.
10cm
- D.
4cm
- 17.The rate at which a wave repeats itself or oscillates is called the ________
- A.
Frequency
- B.
Amplitute
- C.
Sensitivity
- D.
Filter
- 18.What occurs during hypoventilation?
- A.
Increased PCO2
- B.
Decreased PCO2
- C.
Increased PO2
- D.
CPOD
- 19.What is a pattern of recurrent central apneas alternating with a crescendo-decrescendo of tidal volume?
- A.
Cheyne-Stokes respiration
- B.
Hypoventilation
- C.
Pickwickian syndrome
- D.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- 20.During which sleep stage is the arousal threshold highest?
- A.
N3
- B.
REM
- C.
N1
- D.
N2
- 21.What BEST describes an Obstructive Apnea?
- A.
At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea
- B.
At least a 90% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort ABSENT for the duration of the apnea
- C.
At least a 30% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with at least a 3% oxygen desaturation
- D.
At least a 70% reduction in airflow signal for at least 10 seconds, with effort throughout the apnea
- 22.What is the frequency of Alpha waves?
- A.
8-13Hz
- B.
7-14Hz
- C.
4-7Hz
- D.
>13Hz
- 23.What is the frequency of Delta waves?
- A.
0.5-2Hz
- B.
4-7Hz
- C.
>13
- D.
8-13Hz
- 24.What is the frequency of Beta waves?
- A.
>13Hz
- B.
0.5-2Hz
- C.
8-13Hz
- D.
4-7Hz
- 25.What is the frequency of Theta waves?
- A.
4-7Hz
- B.
8-13Hz
- C.
0.5-2Hz
- D.
>13Hz
- 26.What is the RECOMMENDED minimum required length for an arousal?
- A.
3 seconds
- B.
1 second
- C.
5 seconds
- D.
10 seconds
- 27.
- A.
Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration
- B.
0.5Hz-2Hz with an amplitude of at least 75mcV
- C.
Positive wave followed by a negative wave, at least 0.5 seconds duration
- D.
Negative wave followed by a positive wave, at least 1 seconds in duration
- 28.Good sleep hygiene includes:
- A.
Regular daily activities
- B.
Daytime napping
- C.
OTC sleep aids
- D.
Positional therapy
- 29.What is the frequency at which eye blinking occurs?
- A.
0.5-2Hz
- B.
2-4Hz
- C.
1-3Hz
- D.
3-4Hz
- 30.Bob Smith completes a diagnostic PSG. Using the following information what is the patient's AHI?
- TST: 300 minutes
- Obstructive Apneas: 14
- Central Apneas: 8
- Mixed Apneas: 0
- Hypopneas: 38
- RERAs: 10
- A.
12
- B.
14
- C.
10
- D.
24
- 31.What is the normal percentage of TST spent in REM?
- A.
20-25%
- B.
35%
- C.
50%
- D.
5-10%
- 32.For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the first third of the night?
- A.
N3
- B.
N1
- C.
REM
- D.
N2
- 33.What is the normal NREM to REM cycle?
- A.
90-120 minutes
- B.
60-80 minutes
- C.
180 minutes
- D.
60 minutes
- 34.For an average adult, what stage of sleep is predominately found in the last third of the night?
- A.
REM
- B.
N1
- C.
N2
- D.
N3
- 35.What sleep stage is this?
- A.
Wake
- B.
N1
- C.
REM
- D.
N2
- 36.
- A.
N1
- B.
Wake
- C.
N2
- D.
N3
- 37.DECREASING the sensitivity would result in what change in the EEG waveform?
- A.
Increase the height of the waveform
- B.
Decrease the height of the waveform
- C.
Attenuate the lower frequencies
- D.
Eliminate EKG artifact
- 38.
- A.
Increase the height of the waveform
- B.
Decrease the height of the waveform
- C.
Attenuate the high frequencies
- D.
Eliminate slow wave artifact
- 39.Which medication would MOST likely be used for the treatment of RLS?
- A.
Ropinirole
- B.
Gabapentin
- C.
Metoprolol
- D.
Zolpidem
- 40.G1 = 60µV, G2 = 10µV. What is the output signal voltage?
- A.
50µV
- B.
-50µV
- C.
70µV
- D.
-70µV
- 41.What is the recommended number of observed apneas needed for an adult patient before increasing the pressure during a titration?
- A.
2
- B.
1
- C.
3
- D.
5
- 42.
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 43.Which of the following would be a contraindication of PAP therapy?
- A.
Tracheostomy
- B.
GERD
- C.
Rhinitis
- D.
COPD
- 44.What is the RECOMMENDED minimum and maximum IPAP-EPAP differential?
- A.
4 min / 10 max
- B.
5 min / 10 max
- C.
0 min / 10 max
- D.
4 min / 12 max
- 45.According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, portable monitoring is an appropriate choice for:
- A.
Monitoring a patient's response to oral appliance therapy.
- B.
Diagnosing Hypoventilation Syndrome.
- C.
Screening patients with a low probability of OSA.
- D.
Assessing patients with low baseline oxygen saturation.
- 46.What would increase the resolution of EEG spikes and improve the definition of high frequency activity?
- A.
Recording with a high sampling rate
- B.
Using a 100 µv input voltage
- C.
Applying 50/60 Hz filter
- D.
Decreasing the sensitivity
- 47.A patient with unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis would be MOST at risk for:
- A.
Sleep disordered breathing during REM.
- B.
Hypoventilation.
- C.
Cheyne stokes breathing.
- D.
Gastroesophageal reflux.
- 48.The ability of a differential amplifier to minimize signals similar to both inputs in known as:
- A.
Common mode rejection.
- B.
Impedance.
- C.
Signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Analog-to-digital converter.
- 49.
- A.
Paradoxical insomnia.
- B.
Behavioral insomnia.
- C.
Circadian rhythm disorder.
- D.
Idiopathic hypersomnia.
- 50.What category of sleep disorders does sleepwalking belong to?
- A.
Parasomnias
- B.
Insomnias
- C.
Circadian Rhythm Disorders
- D.
Hypersomnolence Disorders
Back to top