CDC 1c873 Raws UREs Quiz: Vol.1 Questions

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1. Which Air Force (AF) form is used to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal?

Explanation

AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal, is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal in the Air Force. It is the appropriate form to use when suggesting modifications to existing systems and equipment within the Air Force. The other forms listed are not relevant to this specific purpose.

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Dive into the world of CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs with our Vol. 1 Quiz! Test your knowledge on Critical Design Configuration (CDC) 1C873, Reactor Assembly Worksheets (RAWs), and Unreviewed Safety Question Evaluations (UREs). Ideal for nuclear industry professionals, students, and enthusiasts, this quiz covers essential aspects of reactor design and... see moresafety evaluations. Challenge yourself with questions designed to assess your understanding of critical configurations, safety assessments, and nuclear reactor components. Whether you're studying nuclear engineering or seeking to enhance your knowledge, our quiz provides an informative and engaging experience. Explore the intricacies of CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs—take the quiz and deepen your understanding of nuclear reactor safety today! see less

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2. Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed

Explanation

The correct answer is "at all times." This means that Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed continuously, regardless of the circumstances or location. It emphasizes the importance of adhering to safety protocols and regulations consistently to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals in the Air Force.

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3. Who is responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area?

Explanation

The supervisor and workers are responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the work area is clean, organized, and free from any hazards or clutter that could potentially cause accidents or hinder productivity. They are responsible for regularly cleaning and tidying up the work area, as well as enforcing any housekeeping rules or guidelines that may be in place. This is important for creating a safe and efficient work environment.

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4. Which form is used to identify and report hazardous conditions?

Explanation

AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report is used to identify and report hazardous conditions in the Air Force. This form allows individuals to report any potential hazards they encounter in order to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. By using this form, the Air Force can gather important information about hazardous conditions and take appropriate action to mitigate risks and prevent future incidents.

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5. What does the Air Force (AF) consider as the primary indicator of experience and/or effectiveness required for assigning personnel?

Explanation

The Air Force considers the enlisted skill level as the primary indicator of experience and/or effectiveness required for assigning personnel. This means that the level of training and expertise in a specific skill set is the most important factor in determining where individuals are assigned within the Air Force. This ensures that personnel are placed in positions that align with their abilities and qualifications, leading to increased effectiveness and efficiency in their roles.

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6. Which percentage of work center tasks must be reflected in the master training plan (MTP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is 100 because the master training plan (MTP) should include all the work center tasks. This ensures that all the necessary tasks are accounted for and properly planned for in the training program. Including 100% of the work center tasks in the MTP helps to ensure that the training program is comprehensive and effective in preparing individuals for their roles and responsibilities in the work center.

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7. System and equipment modification documents are maintained for which length of time?

Explanation

System and equipment modification documents are maintained throughout the modified assets life cycle. This means that the documents are kept for the entire duration of the modified assets' existence, from the time the modification is implemented until the assets are no longer in use or are decommissioned. This ensures that the necessary documentation is available for reference and future maintenance or modifications if needed.

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8. What kind of squadron is a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and trains personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air traffic control (ATC). Air traffic control squadrons are a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and their main purpose is to train personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies. They play a crucial role in managing and directing the movement of aircraft to ensure safe and efficient operations in the airspace.

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9. Which equipment status should you assign if your equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is fully capable of supporting all missions?

Explanation

The equipment status of "Amber" should be assigned if the equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is still fully capable of supporting all missions. This indicates that while the equipment may not be operating at its optimal capacity, it is still functional and can fulfill its intended purpose.

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10. What is the key to preventing injuries at work?

Explanation

Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them is the key to preventing injuries at work. This involves being aware of potential dangers and knowing the appropriate safety measures to take in order to mitigate those risks. By having a comprehensive understanding of workplace hazards and the necessary precautions, employees can effectively prevent injuries and maintain a safe working environment.

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11. As a result of which process are electrical charges developed?

Explanation

Friction is the process that leads to the development of electrical charges. When two objects rub against each other, electrons can be transferred from one object to another, resulting in an imbalance of charges. This transfer of electrons creates an electric charge on the objects involved in the friction process. Therefore, friction is responsible for the development of electrical charges.

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12. Which electrostatic discharge (ESD) preventive measure can be used without actually making contact with an item?

Explanation

An ionizing blower is an electrostatic discharge (ESD) preventive measure that can be used without making contact with an item. It works by emitting ions that neutralize static charges in the surrounding area, reducing the risk of ESD damage to electronic components. This is particularly useful when working with sensitive equipment or materials that cannot be directly touched or grounded. The other options, such as a protected workbench, conductive wrist strap, and grounded soldering iron, all require some form of contact or grounding to prevent ESD.

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13. Which Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program?

Explanation

AFI 90-201, The Air Force Inspection System, governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program.

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14. What is the principal automated technical order (TO) management application?

Explanation

The principal automated technical order (TO) management application is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). This system is responsible for managing and distributing technical orders within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for storing, accessing, and updating technical information, ensuring that the most current and accurate instructions are available to personnel. ETIMS streamlines the TO management process, improving efficiency and effectiveness in maintaining and distributing technical orders.

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15. Which reporting system would you use to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that would be used to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct. IMDS is specifically designed for maintenance management and provides comprehensive data on maintenance activities, including open incidents and work center assignments. The other options, Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), and Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), are not specifically tailored for maintenance management and may not have the necessary features to review and ensure the accuracy of the OIL.

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16. Which reporting system provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training?

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training. This system is specifically designed to manage and maintain equipment and ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations. The other options, Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), and Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), do not have the same capabilities as IMDS in terms of equipment tracking, job scheduling, and maintenance documentation.

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17. Which item is not a source of static electricity?

Explanation

A grounded work bench is not a source of static electricity because it is connected to the ground, which allows any static charges to be safely discharged. Silk, finished wood, and plastic covered tools can all generate static electricity due to their insulating properties.

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18. Which flight inspection determines the suitability of a proposed site for the permanent installation of an air navigation facility?

Explanation

Site evaluation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of assessing the suitability of a proposed site for the permanent installation of an air navigation facility. This inspection involves evaluating various factors such as terrain, obstructions, accessibility, and environmental considerations to ensure that the chosen site meets the necessary requirements for the installation of the facility. Special, periodic, and surveillance inspections do not specifically focus on determining the suitability of a site for permanent installation, making them incorrect answers for this question.

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19. At which intervals before maintaining the established schedule are newly commissioned precision facilities initially inspected?

Explanation

Newly commissioned precision facilities are initially inspected at intervals of 90, 180, and 270 days before maintaining the established schedule. This means that inspections are conducted 90 days after the facility is commissioned, then again at 180 days, and finally at 270 days. This regular inspection schedule helps ensure that the facilities are functioning properly and any issues or maintenance needs are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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20. Who has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards?

Explanation

The Department of Labor (DOL) has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards. OSHA is a part of the DOL and is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations. Therefore, the DOL, as the overseeing agency, has the power to grant exemptions to these standards if deemed necessary.

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21. Who performs health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities?

Explanation

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) is responsible for performing health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities. They assess the potential health risks associated with exposure to electromagnetic fields and ensure that the facilities comply with safety regulations. This involves evaluating the levels of EMF emissions, conducting measurements, and analyzing the potential health effects on individuals working in or living near these facilities. BE plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in relation to EMF exposure.

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22. What are the three main functions of grounding?

Explanation

Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. By providing a path for electrical current to flow into the ground, grounding helps prevent electric shock to individuals who come into contact with electrical equipment. It also protects equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and reducing the risk of damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding helps reduce noise interference in electrical systems, improving the overall performance and reliability of equipment.

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23. The type of terrain Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) should be sited on is flat

Explanation

RAWS systems, such as radar, airfield, and weather systems, should be sited away from obstructions. This is because obstructions such as buildings, hills, or trees can interfere with the signal propagation and accuracy of these systems. By placing them away from obstructions, the systems can have a clear and unobstructed line of sight, allowing for optimal performance and minimizing any potential signal interference.

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24. The manpower document reflects what experience level needed to accomplish a required workload?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Minimum essential level." The manpower document reflects the experience level needed to accomplish a required workload. The minimum essential level refers to the basic level of experience and skills required to successfully complete the workload. This level represents the minimum requirement for the job, ensuring that individuals possess the necessary qualifications to perform the tasks effectively.

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25. Which type of equipment does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package?

Explanation

The AN/TPN-26 Airport Surveillance Central does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package.

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26. Which type of radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating?

Explanation

Non-ionizing radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating. This type of radiation includes radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause damage to cells and DNA, non-ionizing radiation has lower energy levels and does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules. Therefore, it primarily causes thermal effects, such as heating of body tissues, without causing significant harm or discomfort.

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27. What are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage?

Explanation

Slips and falls are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage. These accidents can occur due to various reasons such as wet or slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, poor lighting, or obstacles in the walking path. Slipping or tripping can lead to injuries ranging from minor bruises to severe fractures or head trauma. Additionally, falls can also cause damage to surrounding property or objects. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a safe environment, address potential hazards, and promote awareness to prevent slips and falls.

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28. Which resistance should an earth electrode subsystem bond not exceed?

Explanation

The resistance of an earth electrode subsystem should not exceed 1 milliohm (mΩ). This is because a low resistance ensures effective grounding and minimizes the risk of electrical shock or damage to equipment. A resistance of 0 ohm would be ideal, but in practice, achieving a complete absence of resistance is not possible. Therefore, the maximum allowable resistance is set at 1 milliohm to ensure safe and efficient grounding.

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29. Which of the following positions does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield &Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels?

Explanation

The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels. The UDM is responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment of personnel and equipment, ensuring that all necessary resources are available for deployments. However, they do not have direct involvement in the management of RAWS systems or the coordination between Radar, Airfield, and Weather Systems. This role is typically fulfilled by the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and Base Functional Manager (BFM).

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30. A contract index is a list

Explanation

The correct answer is "or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each." This option accurately describes a contract index as a tool that includes a comprehensive list of contracts along with important details about each contract. It implies that the index serves as a centralized source of information for contract management.

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31. Which technical order (TO) dictates Air Force (AF) technical order life cycle management procedures?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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32. Why is evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations difficult?

Explanation

Evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations is difficult because there are so many of them. This means that there are numerous potential pathways through which compromising emanations can leak, making it challenging to identify and mitigate all of them.

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33. What is the best method for controlling electrostatic discharges (ESD)?

Explanation

The best method for controlling electrostatic discharges (ESD) is to prevent them from building up. This means implementing measures such as grounding equipment, using anti-static mats or flooring, and wearing appropriate clothing to minimize the generation and accumulation of static electricity. Ionizing the work center furniture, using a mobile electrostatic discharge kit, or using plastic covered tools may help in reducing ESD, but they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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34. Where will facility records be kept for equipment maintained by the regional maintenance center (RMC)?

Explanation

Facility records for equipment maintained by the regional maintenance center (RMC) will be kept at the RMC itself. This means that all the necessary documentation and records related to the equipment will be stored and maintained at the RMC facility. Keeping the records at the RMC ensures easy access and centralized management of the information, allowing for efficient maintenance and tracking of the equipment's history and maintenance activities.

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35. A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is called

Explanation

A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is referred to as a manpower authorization. This term implies that the position has been officially approved and allocated resources for personnel. It signifies that the position has the necessary funding and support to be filled and maintained within the unit. The other options, such as a unit personnel management roster (UPMR), a program element code (PEC), and a manpower study, do not specifically indicate the funded status of the position.

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36. What is the name of the wing that maximizes America's power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere?

Explanation

The correct answer is 557th Weather Wing. This wing maximizes America's power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere.

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37. What is the purpose of a change clause in a contract?

Explanation

The purpose of a change clause in a contract is to authorize the government to make modifications to the contract. This clause allows the government to make changes to the terms, conditions, scope, or specifications of the contract if necessary. It gives the government the authority to adapt the contract to meet evolving needs or unforeseen circumstances.

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38. Your primary mission as a 7-skill level technician is to

Explanation

As a 7-skill level technician, your primary mission is to ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected. This means that you are responsible for maintaining and troubleshooting the equipment to ensure that it is in proper working order. By doing so, you are able to contribute to the overall mission success by ensuring that the equipment is available and operational when needed.

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39. Which of the following is not a factor that determines the severity of electrical shock?

Explanation

The severity of an electrical shock is determined by the amount of current flowing through the body, the body's physical condition, and the time of exposure. The amount of voltage flowing through the body is not a factor that determines the severity of the shock. Voltage is the force that pushes the current through the body, but the actual harm is caused by the current.

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40. How many feet must vehicular traffic be in front of glideslope equipment?

Explanation

Vehicular traffic must be at least 500 feet in front of glideslope equipment. This distance is necessary to ensure that the equipment is not affected by any interference caused by the traffic. Being 500 feet away helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the glideslope equipment, which is crucial for the safe landing of aircraft.

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41. As good practice, what general items should be inspected in Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) facilities and on remote equipment during normally scheduled preventive maintenance inspections (PMI)?

Explanation

The correct answer is corrosion, equipment racks, animals and insects, and environmental considerations. During preventive maintenance inspections, it is important to inspect for corrosion as it can damage equipment and affect its performance. Equipment racks should also be inspected to ensure they are functioning properly and securely holding the equipment. Animals and insects can cause damage to the equipment and should be checked for. Lastly, environmental considerations such as temperature, humidity, and exposure to elements should be taken into account as they can impact the performance of the radar, airfield, and weather systems.

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42. Which position is typically a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) position, assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). This position is typically held by a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) and is assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF). The AFCFM is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields within the Air Force.

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43. Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) manuals are used instead of developing new Air Force (AF) technical orders (TO) when

Explanation

COTS manuals are used instead of developing new AF TOs when no degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result. This means that if using COTS manuals does not compromise the functioning, safety, support, or reliability of the system, it is more efficient and cost-effective to use them instead of creating new AF TOs. This option highlights the importance of maintaining the system's performance and integrity while considering time and cost factors.

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44. In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct?

Explanation

AFI 21-103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting, is the most appropriate instruction to find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct. This instruction specifically deals with the reporting and management of equipment inventory, status, and utilization, which would include the process of reviewing the OIL to ensure accuracy and currency of jobs. AFI 21-115, AFI 23-101, and AFI 23-120 are not directly related to the topic of reviewing the OIL for job correctness.

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45. What is the maximum distance in feet between the AN/TPS–75 antenna pallet and the equipment shelter?

Explanation

The maximum distance in feet between the AN/TPS-75 antenna pallet and the equipment shelter is 21.

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46. The action aircrews perform when a navigation system's identification is not received or the identification code is set to "T E S T" is

Explanation

When a navigation system's identification is not received or the identification code is set to "T E S T," the action aircrews perform is to consider the signal unreliable. This means that they do not trust the accuracy or reliability of the signal and will not rely on it for navigation purposes. They will need to use alternative methods or systems to determine their position and navigate safely.

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47. Ground-based elements of which type of equipment provide the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with means to plan, direct, control and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces?

Explanation

The ground theater air control system provides the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with the means to plan, direct, control, and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces. This system allows for effective communication and coordination between different branches and units, ensuring efficient and synchronized air operations in a joint military environment. The other options, such as the AN/TPN-19 Landing Control Central and AN/MSN-7 Communication Central, do not specifically refer to the equipment that provides these capabilities. Similarly, combat air forces do not encompass the full range of planning, directing, controlling, and coordinating air operations with other forces.

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48. What is the only bond that can be made with soft solder?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Signal reference bond." Soft solder is a low-temperature solder that is commonly used for electrical and electronic applications. It is not suitable for making strong or durable bonds, but it is effective for creating signal reference bonds. Signal reference bonds are used to establish a common ground or reference point for electrical signals in a circuit. Soft solder can create a reliable electrical connection for this purpose without requiring high temperatures that could damage sensitive components.

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49. What is the maximum surface roughness for area "A" of the localizer?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Must not exceed +/-.5 feet." This means that the maximum surface roughness for area "A" of the localizer should not exceed a tolerance of +/-0.5 feet. This ensures that the surface roughness of the area does not deviate more than half a foot from the desired level, providing a relatively smooth and even surface for the localizer.

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50. Which air and space expeditionary force (AEF) key element is considered low supply/high demand (LS/HD)?

Explanation

Demand force teams are considered low supply/high demand (LS/HD) because they are specifically trained and equipped to meet the immediate and urgent needs of combatant commanders. These teams are deployed to fill critical skill gaps or provide specialized support in high-demand areas. Their availability is limited, and they are in high demand due to their expertise and ability to quickly respond to emerging requirements.

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51. Which flight inspection is designed to obtain complete information on a facility performance and establishes that the facility supports its operational requirements?

Explanation

Commissioning flight inspection is designed to obtain complete information on a facility's performance and ensure that it meets the operational requirements. This type of inspection is typically conducted when a new facility is being introduced or when significant changes are made to an existing facility. It involves thorough testing and evaluation to ensure that the facility is safe, reliable, and capable of supporting its intended operations. Periodic flight inspections, on the other hand, are conducted at regular intervals to monitor the ongoing performance and compliance of the facility. Surveillance flight inspections focus on monitoring and detecting any deviations or issues with the facility, while site evaluation flight inspections assess the suitability and capabilities of a specific location for a facility.

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52. The four areas resource readiness measures and reports across are

Explanation

The correct answer is "personnel, equipment and supplies on hand, equipment condition, and training." This answer is correct because it includes all the necessary factors that need to be measured and reported across the four areas of resource readiness. It mentions personnel, which refers to the availability and readiness of the personnel in the unit. It also includes equipment and supplies on hand, which indicates the availability of necessary equipment and supplies for operations. Additionally, it considers equipment condition, which is important to ensure that the equipment is in proper working order. Lastly, it mentions training, which is crucial for the readiness of the unit.

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53. Which position serves as the liaison between organizations on their installation and the respective major command functional manager (MFM)?

Explanation

The base functional manager (BFM) serves as the liaison between organizations on their installation and the respective major command functional manager (MFM). The BFM is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the MFM to ensure that the needs and requirements of the organizations on the installation are met. They act as a bridge between the organizations and the MFM, facilitating communication and collaboration to ensure effective operations and support.

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54. The distance around the localizer that must be free of reflecting objects, such as buildings, power lines, wire-mesh fences, trees, or parked aircraft is a

Explanation

The correct answer is 500-foot radius from the center of the course array. This means that any reflecting objects, such as buildings, power lines, wire-mesh fences, trees, or parked aircraft, must be clear within a distance of 500 feet from the center of the course array. This ensures that there are no obstructions that could interfere with the localizer's signals and accuracy.

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55. Which type of equipment provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft, as well as provides final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

Explanation

Deployable Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft, as well as provides final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather. This equipment is specifically designed to be portable and can be set up in different locations as needed. It combines radar technology with airfield and weather systems to ensure safe and efficient operations in challenging environments.

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56. What does the work center master task list (MTL) identify?

Explanation

The work center master task list (MTL) identifies all the day-to-day mission (duty position) requirements. This means that it includes all the tasks that need to be performed on a regular basis in order to fulfill the duties of a specific position within the work center. It does not include training tasks required by master sergeants or all the training tasks for all the equipment in the career field. The MTL focuses specifically on the tasks necessary for the day-to-day operations of the work center.

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57. When siting for the AN/TPN–19, what is the maximum separation distance in miles between the operations and radar shelters?

Explanation

The maximum separation distance in miles between the operations and radar shelters when sitting for the AN/TPN-19 is 10.

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58. The personnel unit type code (UTC) is built to accommodate how many days of sustained manning coverage, with members working six 12-hour shifts per week?

Explanation

The personnel unit type code (UTC) is designed to provide sustained manning coverage for a period of 30 days. This means that members will be working six 12-hour shifts per week for a month. This allows for efficient scheduling and ensures that there is sufficient coverage for the required duration.

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59. Which entity has a role to conduct studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data, and provide actionable Air Force specialty code (AFSC) information?

Explanation

The Occupational Analysis Division (OAD) has the role to conduct studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data, and provide actionable Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) information. This division is responsible for gathering and analyzing data related to different AFSCs, which helps in understanding the requirements and qualifications for each specialty. The OAD's work is crucial in ensuring that the Air Force has accurate and up-to-date information about its specialties, which in turn helps in making informed decisions regarding personnel assignments and promotions.

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60. Which organizational area is responsible for external reporting of equipment and personnel status within your unit?

Explanation

The maintenance work center is responsible for external reporting of equipment and personnel status within the unit. This area is in charge of maintaining and repairing equipment, as well as keeping track of its status and availability. They are also responsible for reporting any personnel changes or updates within the unit.

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61. Who has management authority and is assigned all system and equipment modification activities for equipment and systems maintained?

Explanation

A program manager is responsible for managing the overall program, including all system and equipment modification activities. They have the authority to make decisions and oversee the implementation of changes to equipment and systems. A supervisor may have authority over a specific team or department, but not necessarily the entire program. A commander typically has authority over military operations, not equipment and systems maintenance. A contract manager is responsible for managing contracts and agreements, not equipment and systems modification activities.

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62. Which system is not a subsystem of the facility ground system?

Explanation

The fault distribution system is not a subsystem of the facility ground system because it is responsible for detecting and isolating faults in electrical circuits, ensuring the safe operation of the system. On the other hand, the facility ground system consists of components like earth electrodes, signal references, and lightning protection, which are primarily designed to provide grounding and protect against electrical surges and lightning strikes. Therefore, fault distribution does not fall under the category of subsystems related to grounding and protection in the facility ground system.

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63. Which process ensures the systematic deployment, employment, sustainment and redeployment of US forces meet commander requirements across the range of military operations?

Explanation

Deployment planning is the process that ensures the systematic deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of US forces meet commander requirements across the range of military operations. It involves the careful coordination and organization of resources, personnel, and logistics to ensure that forces are effectively deployed and utilized in accordance with the commander's objectives and strategies. This process includes determining the timing, sequencing, and allocation of forces, as well as the necessary support and sustainment activities to ensure mission success. The other options, such as the strategic capabilities plan, national security strategy, and time-phased force and deployment data, do not specifically address the comprehensive planning and coordination of deployment operations.

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64. Which age group is the pre-departure safety briefing especially targeted?

Explanation

The pre-departure safety briefing is especially targeted towards individuals who are under the age of 26. This suggests that the briefing is designed to cater to the needs and concerns of younger travelers, who may require additional guidance and information regarding safety protocols and procedures before embarking on their journey.

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65. The deployment method the Air Force (AF) has transitioned to is

Explanation

The correct answer is AEF teaming. AEF teaming refers to the method of deploying Air Force personnel and assets in teams or groups, rather than individually. This approach allows for better coordination and efficiency in deployments, as well as enhanced support and protection for deployed personnel. It also promotes teamwork and collaboration among the deployed units, leading to improved mission effectiveness.

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66. Which option is not a main principle that provides the foundation for how the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is structured and executed?

Explanation

The main principles that provide the foundation for how the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is structured and executed are equitability, predictability, and transparency. These principles ensure fairness in the distribution of resources and opportunities, consistency in planning and execution, and openness in communication and decision-making processes. Vulnerability, on the other hand, is not a main principle in the AEF structure and execution. It does not directly contribute to the fairness, consistency, and openness that the other principles promote.

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67. What air and space expeditionary force (AEF) principle provides a logically organized structure during periods of surge, supplying near seamless combatant commander support?

Explanation

Predictability is the correct answer because it refers to the principle that provides a logically organized structure during periods of surge, supplying near seamless combatant commander support. This means that during times when there is a sudden increase in demand or need for support, the AEF principle of predictability ensures that resources and support can be provided in a planned and organized manner, without disruptions or delays. This principle allows for a smooth and efficient response to surge requirements, ensuring that combatant commanders receive the necessary support without any major disruptions or issues.

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68. Which air and space expeditionary force (AEF) principle is the "when, why, and how" visibility for every Airman?

Explanation

Transparency is the correct answer because it refers to the principle of providing visibility for every Airman regarding the "when, why, and how" of an air and space expeditionary force (AEF). Transparency ensures that Airmen have access to information about the timing, purpose, and methods of their deployment, allowing them to understand and prepare for their roles and responsibilities. This principle promotes open communication, trust, and accountability within the AEF, enabling Airmen to effectively contribute to the mission.

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69. Which type of planning is conducted in the absence of an active crisis in response to scenarios and threats identified by combatant commanders and in national guidance?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is conducted in the absence of an active crisis and involves developing detailed plans and courses of action based on scenarios and threats identified by combatant commanders and national guidance. It is a proactive approach that allows for thorough analysis and consideration of various factors to ensure effective and efficient execution of missions. Force rotational planning focuses on the rotation and deployment of forces, crisis action planning is conducted in response to an active crisis, and functional planning involves planning for specific functions or activities within an organization.

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70. What is used to assign personnel to units in order to accomplish their mission?

Explanation

Manpower is used to assign personnel to units in order to accomplish their mission. Manpower refers to the number of people available and their skills and abilities. By properly allocating manpower, units can ensure that they have the right personnel with the necessary expertise to carry out their mission effectively. Manpower planning involves analyzing the needs of the unit and matching them with the available personnel, taking into account factors such as workload, job requirements, and individual capabilities. This helps to optimize the use of manpower and ensure that units have the right personnel in the right positions to accomplish their mission successfully.

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71. In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find information on safety precautions?

Explanation

AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction, would contain information on safety precautions as it specifically pertains to the Air Force's occupational safety program. This instruction would outline the guidelines and procedures that Air Force personnel must follow to ensure their safety in the workplace. It would cover topics such as hazard identification, risk assessment, accident prevention, and emergency response. This AFI would be a comprehensive resource for individuals looking for information on safety precautions within the Air Force.

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72. What should a joint force provider request when a standard unit type code (UTC) requirement is unobtainable or determined insufficient?

Explanation

When a standard unit type code (UTC) requirement is unobtainable or determined insufficient, a joint force provider should request for joint expeditionary tasking. This means that they would ask for a specific task or mission to be assigned to a joint force, which could include multiple branches or units working together. This would allow for a more coordinated and effective response to the situation at hand.

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73. Combatant commanders in need of forces to support a requirement will initiate a request for forces or a request for capabilities during which deployment sourcing phase?

Explanation

During the development phase, combatant commanders will initiate a request for forces or a request for capabilities when they require additional support. This phase involves the planning and preparation for the deployment of forces, including identifying the specific requirements and capabilities needed. It is during this phase that the combatant commanders will assess their needs and determine the resources required to fulfill them.

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74. Who establishes the electromagnetic field (EMF) safety program when required by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–109, Electromagnetic Field Radiation (EMFR) Occupational and Environmental Health Program?

Explanation

The unit commander is responsible for establishing the electromagnetic field (EMF) safety program when required by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48-109. This means that the unit commander is in charge of ensuring that the necessary safety measures are in place to protect personnel from electromagnetic field radiation (EMFR) in the occupational and environmental setting. They have the authority to implement and enforce the program within their unit, making them the correct answer.

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75. Who is responsible for informing bioenvironmental engineering (BE) and requesting a hazard assessment survey for each new electromagnetic field (EMF) system prior to operations?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for informing bioenvironmental engineering (BE) and requesting a hazard assessment survey for each new electromagnetic field (EMF) system prior to operations. This is because the supervisor is in charge of overseeing the operations and ensuring the safety of the workplace. They have the authority to request the necessary assessments and communicate with the relevant departments to ensure the proper procedures are followed.

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76. Who directs implementation and provides resources for the mishap prevention program within the framework of the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS)?

Explanation

Work center supervisors direct implementation and provide resources for the mishap prevention program within the framework of the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS). They are responsible for ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed in their respective work centers to prevent accidents and mishaps. As supervisors, they have the authority and knowledge to enforce safety measures and allocate resources to support the program effectively.

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77. Although power leaked by a cable may be a very small percentage of transmitted power, it could still cause

Explanation

Power leaked by a cable can cause compromising emanations to sensitive circuits. This means that even though the percentage of transmitted power leaked may be small, it can still result in the emission of signals or information that can be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals, potentially compromising the security and privacy of sensitive circuits.

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78. Which unit type code (UTC) management document provides the capability to create and maintain the standard supplies and equipment for each UTC in the Air Force (AF)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Logistics detail (LOGDET). LOGDET is a unit type code (UTC) management document that allows for the creation and maintenance of standard supplies and equipment for each UTC in the Air Force. It provides the capability to ensure that all necessary resources are available for a specific UTC, helping to streamline logistics and ensure operational readiness.

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79. A summary of a unit's mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, or equipped describes

Explanation

The correct answer is designed operational capability (DOC) statement. This is because a DOC statement provides a summary of a unit's mission and the resources it has been organized, designed, or equipped with. It outlines the capabilities and objectives of the unit and serves as a guide for planning and decision-making in logistics operations.

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Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be...
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In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find information on...
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