CDC 1c873 Raws UREs Quiz: Vol.1 Questions

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following positions does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield &Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels?

    • A.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • B.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
    Explanation
    The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels. The UDM is responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment of personnel and equipment, ensuring that all necessary resources are available for deployments. However, they do not have direct involvement in the management of RAWS systems or the coordination between Radar, Airfield, and Weather Systems. This role is typically fulfilled by the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and Base Functional Manager (BFM).

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  • 2. 

    Which position is typically a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) position, assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields?

    • A.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • B.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • C.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • D.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). This position is typically held by a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) and is assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF). The AFCFM is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields within the Air Force.

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  • 3. 

    Which position serves as the liaison between organizations on their installation and the respective major command functional manager (MFM)?

    • A.

      Command chief.

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Command functional manager (CFM).

    • D.

      Career progression group (CPG) advisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The base functional manager (BFM) serves as the liaison between organizations on their installation and the respective major command functional manager (MFM). The BFM is responsible for coordinating and communicating with the MFM to ensure that the needs and requirements of the organizations on the installation are met. They act as a bridge between the organizations and the MFM, facilitating communication and collaboration to ensure effective operations and support.

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  • 4. 

    What is used to assign personnel to units in order to accomplish their mission?

    • A.

      Manpower

    • B.

      Occupational analysis division (OAD).

    • C.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    • D.

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Manpower
    Explanation
    Manpower is used to assign personnel to units in order to accomplish their mission. Manpower refers to the number of people available and their skills and abilities. By properly allocating manpower, units can ensure that they have the right personnel with the necessary expertise to carry out their mission effectively. Manpower planning involves analyzing the needs of the unit and matching them with the available personnel, taking into account factors such as workload, job requirements, and individual capabilities. This helps to optimize the use of manpower and ensure that units have the right personnel in the right positions to accomplish their mission successfully.

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  • 5. 

    A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is called

    • A.

      A unit personnel management roster (UPMR).

    • B.

      A manpower authorization.

    • C.

      A program element code (PEC).

    • D.

      A manpower study.

    Correct Answer
    B. A manpower authorization.
    Explanation
    A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is referred to as a manpower authorization. This term implies that the position has been officially approved and allocated resources for personnel. It signifies that the position has the necessary funding and support to be filled and maintained within the unit. The other options, such as a unit personnel management roster (UPMR), a program element code (PEC), and a manpower study, do not specifically indicate the funded status of the position.

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  • 6. 

    The manpower document reflects what experience level needed to accomplish a required workload?

    • A.

      5-skill level.

    • B.

      7-skill level.

    • C.

      Minimum essential level.

    • D.

      Maximum essential level.

    Correct Answer
    C. Minimum essential level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Minimum essential level." The manpower document reflects the experience level needed to accomplish a required workload. The minimum essential level refers to the basic level of experience and skills required to successfully complete the workload. This level represents the minimum requirement for the job, ensuring that individuals possess the necessary qualifications to perform the tasks effectively.

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  • 7. 

    What does the Air Force (AF) consider as the primary indicator of experience and/or effectiveness required for assigning personnel?

    • A.

      Grade.

    • B.

      Position title.

    • C.

      Position number.

    • D.

      Enlisted skill level.

    Correct Answer
    D. Enlisted skill level.
    Explanation
    The Air Force considers the enlisted skill level as the primary indicator of experience and/or effectiveness required for assigning personnel. This means that the level of training and expertise in a specific skill set is the most important factor in determining where individuals are assigned within the Air Force. This ensures that personnel are placed in positions that align with their abilities and qualifications, leading to increased effectiveness and efficiency in their roles.

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  • 8. 

    Which entity has a role to conduct studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data, and provide actionable Air Force specialty code (AFSC) information?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      Occupational analysis division (OAD).

    • C.

      Air Force specialty code (AFSC) program.

    • D.

      Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Occupational analysis division (OAD).
    Explanation
    The Occupational Analysis Division (OAD) has the role to conduct studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data, and provide actionable Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) information. This division is responsible for gathering and analyzing data related to different AFSCs, which helps in understanding the requirements and qualifications for each specialty. The OAD's work is crucial in ensuring that the Air Force has accurate and up-to-date information about its specialties, which in turn helps in making informed decisions regarding personnel assignments and promotions.

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  • 9. 

    What kind of squadron is a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and trains personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies?

    • A.

      Joint.

    • B.

      Air traffic.

    • C.

      Air control.

    • D.

      Air traffic control (ATC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air traffic control (ATC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air traffic control (ATC). Air traffic control squadrons are a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and their main purpose is to train personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies. They play a crucial role in managing and directing the movement of aircraft to ensure safe and efficient operations in the airspace.

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  • 10. 

    What is the name of the wing that maximizes America’s power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere?

    • A.

      575th Reconnaissance Weather Wing.

    • B.

      577th Reconnaissance Weather Wing.

    • C.

      575th Weather Wing.

    • D.

      557th Weather Wing.

    Correct Answer
    D. 557th Weather Wing.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 557th Weather Wing. This wing maximizes America's power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of equipment provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft, as well as provides final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?

    • A.

      Deployable Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS).

    • B.

      Tactical air navigation (TACAN) system.

    • C.

      Precision approach radar (PAR).

    • D.

      Radar approach control (RAPCON).

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployable Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS).
    Explanation
    Deployable Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft, as well as provides final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather. This equipment is specifically designed to be portable and can be set up in different locations as needed. It combines radar technology with airfield and weather systems to ensure safe and efficient operations in challenging environments.

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  • 12. 

    Which type of equipment does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package?

    • A.

      AN/MSN–7 Communication Central.

    • B.

      AN/TPN–19 Landing Control Central.

    • C.

      AN/TPN–26 Airport Surveillance Central.

    • D.

      AN/TRN–41 Tactical Air Navigation System.

    Correct Answer
    C. AN/TPN–26 Airport Surveillance Central.
    Explanation
    The AN/TPN-26 Airport Surveillance Central does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package.

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  • 13. 

    Ground-based elements of which type of equipment provide the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with means to plan, direct, control and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces?

    • A.

      AN/TPN–19 Landing Control Central.

    • B.

      AN/MSN–7 Communication Central

    • C.

      Ground theater air control system.

    • D.

      Combat air forces.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ground theater air control system.
    Explanation
    The ground theater air control system provides the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with the means to plan, direct, control, and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces. This system allows for effective communication and coordination between different branches and units, ensuring efficient and synchronized air operations in a joint military environment. The other options, such as the AN/TPN-19 Landing Control Central and AN/MSN-7 Communication Central, do not specifically refer to the equipment that provides these capabilities. Similarly, combat air forces do not encompass the full range of planning, directing, controlling, and coordinating air operations with other forces.

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  • 14. 

    Which percentage of work center tasks must be reflected in the master training plan (MTP)?

    • A.

      70.

    • B.

      80.

    • C.

      90.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    D. 100.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100 because the master training plan (MTP) should include all the work center tasks. This ensures that all the necessary tasks are accounted for and properly planned for in the training program. Including 100% of the work center tasks in the MTP helps to ensure that the training program is comprehensive and effective in preparing individuals for their roles and responsibilities in the work center.

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  • 15. 

    What does the work center master task list (MTL) identify?

    • A.

      All 5-skill level core tasks.

    • B.

      Training tasks required by master sergeants.

    • C.

      All day-to-day mission (duty position) requirements.

    • D.

      All training tasks for all the equipment in the career field.

    Correct Answer
    C. All day-to-day mission (duty position) requirements.
    Explanation
    The work center master task list (MTL) identifies all the day-to-day mission (duty position) requirements. This means that it includes all the tasks that need to be performed on a regular basis in order to fulfill the duties of a specific position within the work center. It does not include training tasks required by master sergeants or all the training tasks for all the equipment in the career field. The MTL focuses specifically on the tasks necessary for the day-to-day operations of the work center.

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  • 16. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program?

    • A.

      AFI 10–206, Air Force Continuity of Operations Program.

    • B.

      AFI 38–401, Continuous Process Improvement (CPI).

    • C.

      AFI 90–201, The Air Force Inspection System.

    • D.

      AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 90–201, The Air Force Inspection System.
    Explanation
    AFI 90-201, The Air Force Inspection System, governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program.

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  • 17. 

    A contract index is a list

    • A.

      Of all the contracts approved on your base.

    • B.

      Of regulations that cover contract management.

    • C.

      Of all the products or services that are available to your base.

    • D.

      Or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each.

    Correct Answer
    D. Or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each." This option accurately describes a contract index as a tool that includes a comprehensive list of contracts along with important details about each contract. It implies that the index serves as a centralized source of information for contract management.

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  • 18. 

    What is the purpose of a change clause in a contract?

    • A.

      Authorizes the contractor to make modifications to the contract.

    • B.

      Authorizes the government to make modifications to the contract.

    • C.

      Gives the contractor the right to refuse changes made by the government.

    • D.

      Gives the government the right to refuse changes made by the contractor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Authorizes the government to make modifications to the contract.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a change clause in a contract is to authorize the government to make modifications to the contract. This clause allows the government to make changes to the terms, conditions, scope, or specifications of the contract if necessary. It gives the government the authority to adapt the contract to meet evolving needs or unforeseen circumstances.

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  • 19. 

    Who has management authority and is assigned all system and equipment modification activities for equipment and systems maintained?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Commander.

    • C.

      Program manager.

    • D.

      Contract manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Program manager.
    Explanation
    A program manager is responsible for managing the overall program, including all system and equipment modification activities. They have the authority to make decisions and oversee the implementation of changes to equipment and systems. A supervisor may have authority over a specific team or department, but not necessarily the entire program. A commander typically has authority over military operations, not equipment and systems maintenance. A contract manager is responsible for managing contracts and agreements, not equipment and systems modification activities.

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  • 20. 

    Which Air Force (AF) form is used to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal?

    • A.

      AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • B.

      AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal.

    • C.

      AF Form 1087, Cash Meal Log (Storage Safeguard).

    • D.

      AF Form 2096, Classification/On-The-Training Action.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal.
    Explanation
    AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal, is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal in the Air Force. It is the appropriate form to use when suggesting modifications to existing systems and equipment within the Air Force. The other forms listed are not relevant to this specific purpose.

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  • 21. 

    System and equipment modification documents are maintained for which length of time?

    • A.

      Only while the modification is in place.

    • B.

      Throughout the modified assets life cycle.

    • C.

      For 120 days after the modification is removed.

    • D.

      Until the program manager determines they are no longer needed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Throughout the modified assets life cycle.
    Explanation
    System and equipment modification documents are maintained throughout the modified assets life cycle. This means that the documents are kept for the entire duration of the modified assets' existence, from the time the modification is implemented until the assets are no longer in use or are decommissioned. This ensures that the necessary documentation is available for reference and future maintenance or modifications if needed.

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  • 22. 

    What is the principal automated technical order (TO) management application?

    • A.

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • B.

      Global Combats Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF).

    • C.

      Technical order distribution account (TODA).

    • D.

      Air Force e-publishing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
    Explanation
    The principal automated technical order (TO) management application is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). This system is responsible for managing and distributing technical orders within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for storing, accessing, and updating technical information, ensuring that the most current and accurate instructions are available to personnel. ETIMS streamlines the TO management process, improving efficiency and effectiveness in maintaining and distributing technical orders.

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  • 23. 

    Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) manuals are used instead of developing new Air Force (AF) technical orders (TO) when

    • A.

      The creation time is too long.

    • B.

      The equipment is purchased from a commercial vendor.

    • C.

      The cost of the COTS manuals are cheaper than creating AF TOs.

    • D.

      No degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result.

    Correct Answer
    D. No degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result.
    Explanation
    COTS manuals are used instead of developing new AF TOs when no degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result. This means that if using COTS manuals does not compromise the functioning, safety, support, or reliability of the system, it is more efficient and cost-effective to use them instead of creating new AF TOs. This option highlights the importance of maintaining the system's performance and integrity while considering time and cost factors.

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  • 24. 

    Which technical order (TO) dictates Air Force (AF) technical order life cycle management procedures?

    • A.

      00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.

    • B.

      00–5–3, AF Technical Order Life Cycle Management.

    • C.

      00–5–15, Security Assistance Technical Order Program.

    • D.

      00–5–18, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.

    Correct Answer
    B. 00–5–3, AF Technical Order Life Cycle Management.
  • 25. 

    Your primary mission as a 7-skill level technician is to

    • A.

      Ensure that 5-skill level Airmen are trained according to the maintenance training plan.

    • B.

      Ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected.

    • C.

      Develop your Airmen to assume leadership and supervisory roles.

    • D.

      Direct maintenance when an equipment item is out of service.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected.
    Explanation
    As a 7-skill level technician, your primary mission is to ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected. This means that you are responsible for maintaining and troubleshooting the equipment to ensure that it is in proper working order. By doing so, you are able to contribute to the overall mission success by ensuring that the equipment is available and operational when needed.

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  • 26. 

    Which equipment status should you assign if your equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is fully capable of supporting all missions?

    • A.

      Full-mission capable (FMC).

    • B.

      Non-mission capable (NMC).

    • C.

      Green.

    • D.

      Amber.

    Correct Answer
    D. Amber.
    Explanation
    The equipment status of "Amber" should be assigned if the equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is still fully capable of supporting all missions. This indicates that while the equipment may not be operating at its optimal capacity, it is still functional and can fulfill its intended purpose.

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  • 27. 

    Which reporting system would you use to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct?

    • A.

      Aeronautical data exchange (ADX).

    • B.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • C.

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • D.

      Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that would be used to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct. IMDS is specifically designed for maintenance management and provides comprehensive data on maintenance activities, including open incidents and work center assignments. The other options, Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), and Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), are not specifically tailored for maintenance management and may not have the necessary features to review and ensure the accuracy of the OIL.

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  • 28. 

    Which reporting system provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training?

    • A.

      Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

    • B.

      Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).

    • C.

      Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

    • D.

      Aeronautical data exchange (ADX).

    Correct Answer
    C. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training. This system is specifically designed to manage and maintain equipment and ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations. The other options, Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), and Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), do not have the same capabilities as IMDS in terms of equipment tracking, job scheduling, and maintenance documentation.

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  • 29. 

    Which organizational area is responsible for external reporting of equipment and personnel status within your unit?

    • A.

      Job control.

    • B.

      Quality assurance (QA).

    • C.

      Maintenance work center.

    • D.

      Communications focal point.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance work center.
    Explanation
    The maintenance work center is responsible for external reporting of equipment and personnel status within the unit. This area is in charge of maintaining and repairing equipment, as well as keeping track of its status and availability. They are also responsible for reporting any personnel changes or updates within the unit.

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  • 30. 

    In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct?

    • A.

      AFI 21–103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting.

    • B.

      AFI 21–115, Product Quality Deficiency Report Program.

    • C.

      AFI 23–101, Air Force Materiel Management.

    • D.

      AFI 23–120, Air Force Spares Requirements Review Board.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 21–103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting.
    Explanation
    AFI 21-103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting, is the most appropriate instruction to find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct. This instruction specifically deals with the reporting and management of equipment inventory, status, and utilization, which would include the process of reviewing the OIL to ensure accuracy and currency of jobs. AFI 21-115, AFI 23-101, and AFI 23-120 are not directly related to the topic of reviewing the OIL for job correctness.

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  • 31. 

    Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed

    • A.

      At all times.

    • B.

      When performing work indoors.

    • C.

      When required by technical order (TO).

    • D.

      When environmental impacts are a concern.

    Correct Answer
    A. At all times.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at all times." This means that Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed continuously, regardless of the circumstances or location. It emphasizes the importance of adhering to safety protocols and regulations consistently to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals in the Air Force.

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  • 32. 

    Who has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards?

    • A.

      Commander.

    • B.

      Wing safety office.

    • C.

      Department of Labor (DOL).

    • D.

      Work center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    Correct Answer
    C. Department of Labor (DOL).
    Explanation
    The Department of Labor (DOL) has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards. OSHA is a part of the DOL and is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations. Therefore, the DOL, as the overseeing agency, has the power to grant exemptions to these standards if deemed necessary.

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  • 33. 

    What is the key to preventing injuries at work?

    • A.

      Completing required safety training.

    • B.

      Following technical order (TO) procedures.

    • C.

      Having a safety observer when performing maintenance.

    • D.

      Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them.

    Correct Answer
    D. Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them.
    Explanation
    Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them is the key to preventing injuries at work. This involves being aware of potential dangers and knowing the appropriate safety measures to take in order to mitigate those risks. By having a comprehensive understanding of workplace hazards and the necessary precautions, employees can effectively prevent injuries and maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is not a factor that determines the severity of electrical shock?

    • A.

      Amount of voltage flowing through the body.

    • B.

      Amount of current flowing through the body.

    • C.

      Body’s physical condition.

    • D.

      Time of exposure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount of voltage flowing through the body.
    Explanation
    The severity of an electrical shock is determined by the amount of current flowing through the body, the body's physical condition, and the time of exposure. The amount of voltage flowing through the body is not a factor that determines the severity of the shock. Voltage is the force that pushes the current through the body, but the actual harm is caused by the current.

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  • 35. 

    Which type of radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Non-ionizing.

    • B.

      Chemical.

    • C.

      Ionizing.

    • D.

      Nuclear.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-ionizing.
    Explanation
    Non-ionizing radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating. This type of radiation includes radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause damage to cells and DNA, non-ionizing radiation has lower energy levels and does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules. Therefore, it primarily causes thermal effects, such as heating of body tissues, without causing significant harm or discomfort.

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  • 36. 

    In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find information on safety precautions?

    • A.

      AFI 10–201, Force Readiness Reporting.

    • B.

      AFI 36–2903, Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel.

    • C.

      AFI 91–202, The US Air Force Mishap Prevention Program.

    • D.

      AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction.

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction.
    Explanation
    AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction, would contain information on safety precautions as it specifically pertains to the Air Force's occupational safety program. This instruction would outline the guidelines and procedures that Air Force personnel must follow to ensure their safety in the workplace. It would cover topics such as hazard identification, risk assessment, accident prevention, and emergency response. This AFI would be a comprehensive resource for individuals looking for information on safety precautions within the Air Force.

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  • 37. 

    Who performs health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities?

    • A.

      Special inspection team (SIT).

    • B.

      Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

    • C.

      Special communications team (SCT).

    • D.

      Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA).

    Correct Answer
    B. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).
    Explanation
    Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) is responsible for performing health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities. They assess the potential health risks associated with exposure to electromagnetic fields and ensure that the facilities comply with safety regulations. This involves evaluating the levels of EMF emissions, conducting measurements, and analyzing the potential health effects on individuals working in or living near these facilities. BE plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in relation to EMF exposure.

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  • 38. 

    Who establishes the electromagnetic field (EMF) safety program when required by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–109, Electromagnetic Field Radiation (EMFR) Occupational and Environmental Health Program?

    • A.

      Work center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B.

      Unit commander.

    • C.

      Wing safety.

    • D.

      Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit commander.
    Explanation
    The unit commander is responsible for establishing the electromagnetic field (EMF) safety program when required by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48-109. This means that the unit commander is in charge of ensuring that the necessary safety measures are in place to protect personnel from electromagnetic field radiation (EMFR) in the occupational and environmental setting. They have the authority to implement and enforce the program within their unit, making them the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    What are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage?

    • A.

      Fires.

    • B.

      Explosions.

    • C.

      Slips and falls.

    • D.

      Electrical shocks.

    Correct Answer
    C. Slips and falls.
    Explanation
    Slips and falls are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage. These accidents can occur due to various reasons such as wet or slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, poor lighting, or obstacles in the walking path. Slipping or tripping can lead to injuries ranging from minor bruises to severe fractures or head trauma. Additionally, falls can also cause damage to surrounding property or objects. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a safe environment, address potential hazards, and promote awareness to prevent slips and falls.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area?

    • A.

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B.

      Contracted cleaning service.

    • C.

      Supervisor and workers.

    • D.

      Commander (CC).

    Correct Answer
    C. Supervisor and workers.
    Explanation
    The supervisor and workers are responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the work area is clean, organized, and free from any hazards or clutter that could potentially cause accidents or hinder productivity. They are responsible for regularly cleaning and tidying up the work area, as well as enforcing any housekeeping rules or guidelines that may be in place. This is important for creating a safe and efficient work environment.

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  • 41. 

    Who directs implementation and provides resources for the mishap prevention program within the framework of the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS)?

    • A.

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B.

      Work center supervisors.

    • C.

      Wing safety office.

    • D.

      Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Work center supervisors.
    Explanation
    Work center supervisors direct implementation and provide resources for the mishap prevention program within the framework of the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS). They are responsible for ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed in their respective work centers to prevent accidents and mishaps. As supervisors, they have the authority and knowledge to enforce safety measures and allocate resources to support the program effectively.

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  • 42. 

    Which age group is the pre-departure safety briefing especially targeted?

    • A.

      21 and under.

    • B.

      Under 21.

    • C.

      26 and under.

    • D.

      Under 26.

    Correct Answer
    D. Under 26.
    Explanation
    The pre-departure safety briefing is especially targeted towards individuals who are under the age of 26. This suggests that the briefing is designed to cater to the needs and concerns of younger travelers, who may require additional guidance and information regarding safety protocols and procedures before embarking on their journey.

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  • 43. 

    Which form is used to identify and report hazardous conditions?

    • A.

      Air Force (AF) Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

    • B.

      AF Form 465, Bench Stock Inventory (NOT LRA).

    • C.

      AF Form 469, Duty Limiting Condition Report.

    • D.

      AF Form 475, Education/Training Report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force (AF) Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
    Explanation
    AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report is used to identify and report hazardous conditions in the Air Force. This form allows individuals to report any potential hazards they encounter in order to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. By using this form, the Air Force can gather important information about hazardous conditions and take appropriate action to mitigate risks and prevent future incidents.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three main functions of grounding?

    • A.

      Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

    • B.

      Work center safety, equipment protection, and noise suppression.

    • C.

      Facility ground, earth electrode subsystem, and lightning protection.

    • D.

      Earth electrode subsystem, lightning protection subsystem, and fault protection subsystem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
    Explanation
    Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. By providing a path for electrical current to flow into the ground, grounding helps prevent electric shock to individuals who come into contact with electrical equipment. It also protects equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and reducing the risk of damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding helps reduce noise interference in electrical systems, improving the overall performance and reliability of equipment.

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  • 45. 

    Which system is not a subsystem of the facility ground system?

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Signal reference.

    • C.

      Fault distribution.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fault distribution.
    Explanation
    The fault distribution system is not a subsystem of the facility ground system because it is responsible for detecting and isolating faults in electrical circuits, ensuring the safe operation of the system. On the other hand, the facility ground system consists of components like earth electrodes, signal references, and lightning protection, which are primarily designed to provide grounding and protect against electrical surges and lightning strikes. Therefore, fault distribution does not fall under the category of subsystems related to grounding and protection in the facility ground system.

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  • 46. 

    Which resistance should an earth electrode subsystem bond not exceed?

    • A.

      0 ohm (Ω.)

    • B.

      1 milliohm (mΩ).

    • C.

      10 mΩ.

    • D.

      12 mΩ.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 milliohm (mΩ).
    Explanation
    The resistance of an earth electrode subsystem should not exceed 1 milliohm (mΩ). This is because a low resistance ensures effective grounding and minimizes the risk of electrical shock or damage to equipment. A resistance of 0 ohm would be ideal, but in practice, achieving a complete absence of resistance is not possible. Therefore, the maximum allowable resistance is set at 1 milliohm to ensure safe and efficient grounding.

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  • 47. 

    What is the only bond that can be made with soft solder?

    • A.

      Exothermic welds.

    • B.

      Signal reference bond.

    • C.

      Earth electrode subsystem bond.

    • D.

      Fault protection subsystem bond.

    Correct Answer
    B. Signal reference bond.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Signal reference bond." Soft solder is a low-temperature solder that is commonly used for electrical and electronic applications. It is not suitable for making strong or durable bonds, but it is effective for creating signal reference bonds. Signal reference bonds are used to establish a common ground or reference point for electrical signals in a circuit. Soft solder can create a reliable electrical connection for this purpose without requiring high temperatures that could damage sensitive components.

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  • 48. 

    Although power leaked by a cable may be a very small percentage of transmitted power, it could still cause

    • A.

      Compromising emanations to sensitive circuits.

    • B.

      Significant interference to sensitive circuits.

    • C.

      Triggering of fire suppression alarms.

    • D.

      Increased power line transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. Compromising emanations to sensitive circuits.
    Explanation
    Power leaked by a cable can cause compromising emanations to sensitive circuits. This means that even though the percentage of transmitted power leaked may be small, it can still result in the emission of signals or information that can be intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals, potentially compromising the security and privacy of sensitive circuits.

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  • 49. 

    Why is evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations difficult?

    • A.

      The signals are too small to measure.

    • B.

      The signals are too large to measure.

    • C.

      There are so many of them.

    • D.

      There are so few of them.

    Correct Answer
    C. There are so many of them.
    Explanation
    Evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations is difficult because there are so many of them. This means that there are numerous potential pathways through which compromising emanations can leak, making it challenging to identify and mitigate all of them.

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  • 50. 

    As a result of which process are electrical charges developed?

    • A.

      Friction.

    • B.

      Clothing.

    • C.

      Ionizing blower.

    • D.

      Packaging materials.

    Correct Answer
    A. Friction.
    Explanation
    Friction is the process that leads to the development of electrical charges. When two objects rub against each other, electrons can be transferred from one object to another, resulting in an imbalance of charges. This transfer of electrons creates an electric charge on the objects involved in the friction process. Therefore, friction is responsible for the development of electrical charges.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Ken Plank
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