CDC 1c873 Raws UREs Quiz: Vol.1 Questions

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 376

| Attempts: 376

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1/79 Questions

What does the Air Force (AF) consider as the primary indicator of experience and/or effectiveness required for assigning personnel?
- Grade.
- Position title.
- Position number.
- Enlisted skill level.

About This Quiz

Dive into the world of CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs with our Vol. 1 Quiz! Test your knowledge on Critical Design Configuration (CDC) 1C873, Reactor Assembly Worksheets (RAWs), and Unreviewed Safety Question Evaluations (UREs). Ideal for nuclear industry professionals, students, and enthusiasts, this quiz covers essential aspects of reactor design and safety evaluations. Challenge yourself with questions designed to assess your understanding of critical configurations, safety assessments, and nuclear reactor components. Whether you're studying nuclear engineering or seeking to enhance your knowledge, our quiz provides an informative and engaging experience. Explore the intricacies of CDC 1C873 RAWs UREs—take the quiz and deepen your understanding of nuclear reactor safety today!

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2.

Which Air Force (AF) form is used to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal?
- AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
- AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal.
- AF Form 1087, Cash Meal Log (Storage Safeguard).
- AF Form 2096, Classification/On-The-Training Action.
Correct Answer

A. AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal.

Explanation

AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal, is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to initiate a system and equipment modification proposal in the Air Force. It is the appropriate form to use when suggesting modifications to existing systems and equipment within the Air Force. The other forms listed are not relevant to this specific purpose.

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3.

Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed
- At all times.
- When performing work indoors.
- When required by technical order (TO).
- When environmental impacts are a concern.
Correct Answer

A. At all times.

Explanation

The correct answer is "at all times." This means that Air Force Occupational Safety & Health (AFOSH) guidance must be followed continuously, regardless of the circumstances or location. It emphasizes the importance of adhering to safety protocols and regulations consistently to ensure the well-being and protection of individuals in the Air Force.

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4.

Who is responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area?
- Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- Contracted cleaning service.
- Supervisor and workers.
- Commander (CC).
Correct Answer

A. Supervisor and workers.

Explanation

The supervisor and workers are responsible for maintaining good housekeeping in the work area. This means that it is their duty to ensure that the work area is clean, organized, and free from any hazards or clutter that could potentially cause accidents or hinder productivity. They are responsible for regularly cleaning and tidying up the work area, as well as enforcing any housekeeping rules or guidelines that may be in place. This is important for creating a safe and efficient work environment.

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5.

Which form is used to identify and report hazardous conditions?
- Air Force (AF) Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
- AF Form 465, Bench Stock Inventory (NOT LRA).
- AF Form 469, Duty Limiting Condition Report.
- AF Form 475, Education/Training Report.
Correct Answer

A. Air Force (AF) Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.

Explanation

AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report is used to identify and report hazardous conditions in the Air Force. This form allows individuals to report any potential hazards they encounter in order to prevent accidents and ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. By using this form, the Air Force can gather important information about hazardous conditions and take appropriate action to mitigate risks and prevent future incidents.

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6.

Which percentage of work center tasks must be reflected in the master training plan (MTP)?
- 70.
- 80.
- 90.
- 100.
Correct Answer

A. 100.

Explanation

The correct answer is 100 because the master training plan (MTP) should include all the work center tasks. This ensures that all the necessary tasks are accounted for and properly planned for in the training program. Including 100% of the work center tasks in the MTP helps to ensure that the training program is comprehensive and effective in preparing individuals for their roles and responsibilities in the work center.

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7.

System and equipment modification documents are maintained for which length of time?
- Only while the modification is in place.
- Throughout the modified assets life cycle.
- For 120 days after the modification is removed.
- Until the program manager determines they are no longer needed.
Correct Answer

A. Throughout the modified assets life cycle.

Explanation

System and equipment modification documents are maintained throughout the modified assets life cycle. This means that the documents are kept for the entire duration of the modified assets' existence, from the time the modification is implemented until the assets are no longer in use or are decommissioned. This ensures that the necessary documentation is available for reference and future maintenance or modifications if needed.

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8.

As a result of which process are electrical charges developed?
- Friction.
- Clothing.
- Ionizing blower.
- Packaging materials.
Correct Answer

A. Friction.

Explanation

Friction is the process that leads to the development of electrical charges. When two objects rub against each other, electrons can be transferred from one object to another, resulting in an imbalance of charges. This transfer of electrons creates an electric charge on the objects involved in the friction process. Therefore, friction is responsible for the development of electrical charges.

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9.

What kind of squadron is a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and trains personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies?
- Joint.
- Air traffic.
- Air control.
- Air traffic control (ATC).
Correct Answer

A. Air traffic control (ATC).

Explanation

The correct answer is Air traffic control (ATC). Air traffic control squadrons are a component of the Air National Guard (ANG) and their main purpose is to train personnel to deploy and provide air traffic services for worldwide contingencies. They play a crucial role in managing and directing the movement of aircraft to ensure safe and efficient operations in the airspace.

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10.

Which equipment status should you assign if your equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is fully capable of supporting all missions?
- Full-mission capable (FMC).
- Non-mission capable (NMC).
- Green.
- Amber.
Correct Answer

A. Amber.

Explanation

The equipment status of "Amber" should be assigned if the equipment has lost redundant capabilities but is still fully capable of supporting all missions. This indicates that while the equipment may not be operating at its optimal capacity, it is still functional and can fulfill its intended purpose.

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11.

What is the key to preventing injuries at work?
- Completing required safety training.
- Following technical order (TO) procedures.
- Having a safety observer when performing maintenance.
- Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them.
Correct Answer

A. Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them.

Explanation

Understanding what the hazards are and how to deal with them is the key to preventing injuries at work. This involves being aware of potential dangers and knowing the appropriate safety measures to take in order to mitigate those risks. By having a comprehensive understanding of workplace hazards and the necessary precautions, employees can effectively prevent injuries and maintain a safe working environment.

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12.

Which Air Force instruction (AFI) governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program?
- AFI 10–206, Air Force Continuity of Operations Program.
- AFI 38–401, Continuous Process Improvement (CPI).
- AFI 90–201, The Air Force Inspection System.
- AFI 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 90–201, The Air Force Inspection System.

Explanation

AFI 90-201, The Air Force Inspection System, governs the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) self-assessment program.

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13.

What is the principal automated technical order (TO) management application?
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Global Combats Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF).
- Technical order distribution account (TODA).
- Air Force e-publishing.
Correct Answer

A. Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).

Explanation

The principal automated technical order (TO) management application is the Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS). This system is responsible for managing and distributing technical orders within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for storing, accessing, and updating technical information, ensuring that the most current and accurate instructions are available to personnel. ETIMS streamlines the TO management process, improving efficiency and effectiveness in maintaining and distributing technical orders.

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14.

Which reporting system would you use to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct?
- Aeronautical data exchange (ADX).
- Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).
Correct Answer

A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that would be used to review the open incidents list (OIL) and ensure each job against the work center is current and correct. IMDS is specifically designed for maintenance management and provides comprehensive data on maintenance activities, including open incidents and work center assignments. The other options, Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), and Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), are not specifically tailored for maintenance management and may not have the necessary features to review and ensure the accuracy of the OIL.

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15.

Which reporting system provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training?
- Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS).
- Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).
- Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
- Aeronautical data exchange (ADX).
Correct Answer

A. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

Explanation

The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the reporting system that provides the work center with the ability to track equipment inventories, open and close jobs, schedule and document maintenance, and document ancillary training. This system is specifically designed to manage and maintain equipment and ensure efficient and effective maintenance operations. The other options, Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS), Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS), and Aeronautical data exchange (ADX), do not have the same capabilities as IMDS in terms of equipment tracking, job scheduling, and maintenance documentation.

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16.

Which item is not a source of static electricity?
- Silk.
- Finished wood.
- Plastic covered tools.
- Grounded work bench.
Correct Answer

A. Grounded work bench.

Explanation

A grounded work bench is not a source of static electricity because it is connected to the ground, which allows any static charges to be safely discharged. Silk, finished wood, and plastic covered tools can all generate static electricity due to their insulating properties.

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17.

Which electrostatic discharge (ESD) preventive measure can be used without actually making contact with an item?
- Ionizing blower.
- Protected workbench.
- Conductive wrist strap.
- Grounded soldering iron.
Correct Answer

A. Ionizing blower.

Explanation

An ionizing blower is an electrostatic discharge (ESD) preventive measure that can be used without making contact with an item. It works by emitting ions that neutralize static charges in the surrounding area, reducing the risk of ESD damage to electronic components. This is particularly useful when working with sensitive equipment or materials that cannot be directly touched or grounded. The other options, such as a protected workbench, conductive wrist strap, and grounded soldering iron, all require some form of contact or grounding to prevent ESD.

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18.

Which flight inspection determines the suitability of a proposed site for the permanent installation of an air navigation facility?
- Special.
- Periodic.
- Surveillance.
- Site evaluation.
Correct Answer

A. Site evaluation.

Explanation

Site evaluation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of assessing the suitability of a proposed site for the permanent installation of an air navigation facility. This inspection involves evaluating various factors such as terrain, obstructions, accessibility, and environmental considerations to ensure that the chosen site meets the necessary requirements for the installation of the facility. Special, periodic, and surveillance inspections do not specifically focus on determining the suitability of a site for permanent installation, making them incorrect answers for this question.

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19.

At which intervals before maintaining the established schedule are newly commissioned precision facilities initially inspected?
- 180 days only.
- 270 days only.
- 90, 180, and 270 days.
- 180, 270, and 540 days.
Correct Answer

A. 90, 180, and 270 days.

Explanation

Newly commissioned precision facilities are initially inspected at intervals of 90, 180, and 270 days before maintaining the established schedule. This means that inspections are conducted 90 days after the facility is commissioned, then again at 180 days, and finally at 270 days. This regular inspection schedule helps ensure that the facilities are functioning properly and any issues or maintenance needs are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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20.

The manpower document reflects what experience level needed to accomplish a required workload?
- 5-skill level.
- 7-skill level.
- Minimum essential level.
- Maximum essential level.
Correct Answer

A. Minimum essential level.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Minimum essential level." The manpower document reflects the experience level needed to accomplish a required workload. The minimum essential level refers to the basic level of experience and skills required to successfully complete the workload. This level represents the minimum requirement for the job, ensuring that individuals possess the necessary qualifications to perform the tasks effectively.

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21.

Who has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards?
- Commander.
- Wing safety office.
- Department of Labor (DOL).
- Work center noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
Correct Answer

A. Department of Labor (DOL).

Explanation

The Department of Labor (DOL) has the authority to grant exemptions to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards. OSHA is a part of the DOL and is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations. Therefore, the DOL, as the overseeing agency, has the power to grant exemptions to these standards if deemed necessary.

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22.

Who performs health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities?
- Special inspection team (SIT).
- Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).
- Special communications team (SCT).
- Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA).
Correct Answer

A. Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

Explanation

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) is responsible for performing health risk assessments for all electromagnetic field (EMF) transmitters owned and operated by communications facilities. They assess the potential health risks associated with exposure to electromagnetic fields and ensure that the facilities comply with safety regulations. This involves evaluating the levels of EMF emissions, conducting measurements, and analyzing the potential health effects on individuals working in or living near these facilities. BE plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in relation to EMF exposure.

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23.

What are the three main functions of grounding?
- Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- Work center safety, equipment protection, and noise suppression.
- Facility ground, earth electrode subsystem, and lightning protection.
- Earth electrode subsystem, lightning protection subsystem, and fault protection subsystem.
Correct Answer

A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

Explanation

Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. By providing a path for electrical current to flow into the ground, grounding helps prevent electric shock to individuals who come into contact with electrical equipment. It also protects equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and reducing the risk of damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding helps reduce noise interference in electrical systems, improving the overall performance and reliability of equipment.

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24.

Which of the following positions does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield &Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels?
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Base functional manager (BFM).
Correct Answer

A. Unit deployment manager (UDM).

Explanation

The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) does not act as a liaison between Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) management levels. The UDM is responsible for coordinating and managing the deployment of personnel and equipment, ensuring that all necessary resources are available for deployments. However, they do not have direct involvement in the management of RAWS systems or the coordination between Radar, Airfield, and Weather Systems. This role is typically fulfilled by the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and Base Functional Manager (BFM).

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25.

Which type of equipment does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package?
- AN/MSN–7 Communication Central.
- AN/TPN–19 Landing Control Central.
- AN/TPN–26 Airport Surveillance Central.
- AN/TRN–41 Tactical Air Navigation System.
Correct Answer

A. AN/TPN–26 Airport Surveillance Central.

Explanation

The AN/TPN-26 Airport Surveillance Central does not make up part of a complete deployable air traffic control and landing systems (DATCALS) airfield package.

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26.

Which type of radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating?
- Non-ionizing.
- Chemical.
- Ionizing.
- Nuclear.
Correct Answer

A. Non-ionizing.

Explanation

Non-ionizing radiation produces heat in body tissues with little or no sensation of skin heating. This type of radiation includes radio waves, microwaves, and infrared radiation. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause damage to cells and DNA, non-ionizing radiation has lower energy levels and does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules. Therefore, it primarily causes thermal effects, such as heating of body tissues, without causing significant harm or discomfort.

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27.

What are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage?
- Fires.
- Explosions.
- Slips and falls.
- Electrical shocks.
Correct Answer

A. Slips and falls.

Explanation

Slips and falls are the most common mishaps resulting in injury and property damage. These accidents can occur due to various reasons such as wet or slippery surfaces, uneven flooring, poor lighting, or obstacles in the walking path. Slipping or tripping can lead to injuries ranging from minor bruises to severe fractures or head trauma. Additionally, falls can also cause damage to surrounding property or objects. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a safe environment, address potential hazards, and promote awareness to prevent slips and falls.

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28.

Which resistance should an earth electrode subsystem bond not exceed?
- 0 ohm (Ω.)
- 1 milliohm (mΩ).
- 10 mΩ.
- 12 mΩ.
Correct Answer

A. 1 milliohm (mΩ).

Explanation

The resistance of an earth electrode subsystem should not exceed 1 milliohm (mΩ). This is because a low resistance ensures effective grounding and minimizes the risk of electrical shock or damage to equipment. A resistance of 0 ohm would be ideal, but in practice, achieving a complete absence of resistance is not possible. Therefore, the maximum allowable resistance is set at 1 milliohm to ensure safe and efficient grounding.

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29.

What is the best method for controlling electrostatic discharges (ESD)?
- Ionize the work center furniture.
- Mobile electrostatic discharge kit.
- Prevent them from building up.
- Plastic covered tools.
Correct Answer

A. Prevent them from building up.

Explanation

The best method for controlling electrostatic discharges (ESD) is to prevent them from building up. This means implementing measures such as grounding equipment, using anti-static mats or flooring, and wearing appropriate clothing to minimize the generation and accumulation of static electricity. Ionizing the work center furniture, using a mobile electrostatic discharge kit, or using plastic covered tools may help in reducing ESD, but they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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30.

The type of terrain Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) should be sited on is flat
- With trees for cover from enemy attacks.
- With fences to protect the systems.
- To minimize signal propagation.
- Away from obstructions.
Correct Answer

A. Away from obstructions.

Explanation

RAWS systems, such as radar, airfield, and weather systems, should be sited away from obstructions. This is because obstructions such as buildings, hills, or trees can interfere with the signal propagation and accuracy of these systems. By placing them away from obstructions, the systems can have a clear and unobstructed line of sight, allowing for optimal performance and minimizing any potential signal interference.

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31.

Where will facility records be kept for equipment maintained by the regional maintenance center (RMC)?
- At the RMC.
- At the local site.
- In Tab 1, Reference Data.
- In Tab 2, Preventive Maintenance Inspection (PMI).
Correct Answer

A. At the RMC.

Explanation

Facility records for equipment maintained by the regional maintenance center (RMC) will be kept at the RMC itself. This means that all the necessary documentation and records related to the equipment will be stored and maintained at the RMC facility. Keeping the records at the RMC ensures easy access and centralized management of the information, allowing for efficient maintenance and tracking of the equipment's history and maintenance activities.

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32.

A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is called
- A unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
- A manpower authorization.
- A program element code (PEC).
- A manpower study.
Correct Answer

A. A manpower authorization.

Explanation

A funded position on the unit manpower document (UMD) is referred to as a manpower authorization. This term implies that the position has been officially approved and allocated resources for personnel. It signifies that the position has the necessary funding and support to be filled and maintained within the unit. The other options, such as a unit personnel management roster (UPMR), a program element code (PEC), and a manpower study, do not specifically indicate the funded status of the position.

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33.

A contract index is a list
- Of all the contracts approved on your base.
- Of regulations that cover contract management.
- Of all the products or services that are available to your base.
- Or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each.
Correct Answer

A. Or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each.

Explanation

The correct answer is "or spreadsheet that contains all your contracts and important information of each." This option accurately describes a contract index as a tool that includes a comprehensive list of contracts along with important details about each contract. It implies that the index serves as a centralized source of information for contract management.

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34.

Which technical order (TO) dictates Air Force (AF) technical order life cycle management procedures?
- 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
- 00–5–3, AF Technical Order Life Cycle Management.
- 00–5–15, Security Assistance Technical Order Program.
- 00–5–18, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.
Correct Answer

A. 00–5–3, AF Technical Order Life Cycle Management.
35.

Your primary mission as a 7-skill level technician is to
- Ensure that 5-skill level Airmen are trained according to the maintenance training plan.
- Ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected.
- Develop your Airmen to assume leadership and supervisory roles.
- Direct maintenance when an equipment item is out of service.
Correct Answer

A. Ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected.

Explanation

As a 7-skill level technician, your primary mission is to ensure that your equipment is able to perform as expected. This means that you are responsible for maintaining and troubleshooting the equipment to ensure that it is in proper working order. By doing so, you are able to contribute to the overall mission success by ensuring that the equipment is available and operational when needed.

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36.

Why is evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations difficult?
- The signals are too small to measure.
- The signals are too large to measure.
- There are so many of them.
- There are so few of them.
Correct Answer

A. There are so many of them.

Explanation

Evaluating all conductive paths for the escape of compromising emanations is difficult because there are so many of them. This means that there are numerous potential pathways through which compromising emanations can leak, making it challenging to identify and mitigate all of them.

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37.

How many feet must vehicular traffic be in front of glideslope equipment?
- 100.
- 500.
- 1,000.
- 1,500.
Correct Answer

A. 500.

Explanation

Vehicular traffic must be at least 500 feet in front of glideslope equipment. This distance is necessary to ensure that the equipment is not affected by any interference caused by the traffic. Being 500 feet away helps to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the glideslope equipment, which is crucial for the safe landing of aircraft.

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38.

As good practice, what general items should be inspected in Radar, Airfield & Weather Systems (RAWS) facilities and on remote equipment during normally scheduled preventive maintenance inspections (PMI)?
- Ground checks, antenna line length, ensure correct torque on tower hardware, and facility power checks.
- Ground checks, antenna line loss, transmit signal bandwidth, corrosion, and facility power phase checks.
- Equipment racks, ground plane topography, external power fluctuations, and compromising emanations.
- Corrosion, equipment racks, animals and insects, environmental considerations.
Correct Answer

A. Corrosion, equipment racks, animals and insects, environmental considerations.

Explanation

The correct answer is corrosion, equipment racks, animals and insects, and environmental considerations. During preventive maintenance inspections, it is important to inspect for corrosion as it can damage equipment and affect its performance. Equipment racks should also be inspected to ensure they are functioning properly and securely holding the equipment. Animals and insects can cause damage to the equipment and should be checked for. Lastly, environmental considerations such as temperature, humidity, and exposure to elements should be taken into account as they can impact the performance of the radar, airfield, and weather systems.

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39.

Which position is typically a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) position, assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields?
- Base functional manager (BFM).
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
- Major command functional manager (MFM).
Correct Answer

A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). This position is typically held by a chief master sergeant (CMSgt) and is assigned to Headquarters Air Force (HAF). The AFCFM is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields within the Air Force.

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40.

What is the name of the wing that maximizes America’s power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere?
- 575th Reconnaissance Weather Wing.
- 577th Reconnaissance Weather Wing.
- 575th Weather Wing.
- 557^th Weather Wing.
Correct Answer

A. 557^th Weather Wing.

Explanation

The correct answer is 557th Weather Wing. This wing maximizes America's power through the exploitation of timely, accurate, and relevant weather information anytime and everywhere.

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41.

What is the purpose of a change clause in a contract?
- Authorizes the contractor to make modifications to the contract.
- Authorizes the government to make modifications to the contract.
- Gives the contractor the right to refuse changes made by the government.
- Gives the government the right to refuse changes made by the contractor.
Correct Answer

A. Authorizes the government to make modifications to the contract.

Explanation

The purpose of a change clause in a contract is to authorize the government to make modifications to the contract. This clause allows the government to make changes to the terms, conditions, scope, or specifications of the contract if necessary. It gives the government the authority to adapt the contract to meet evolving needs or unforeseen circumstances.

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42.

Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) manuals are used instead of developing new Air Force (AF) technical orders (TO) when
- The creation time is too long.
- The equipment is purchased from a commercial vendor.
- The cost of the COTS manuals are cheaper than creating AF TOs.
- No degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result.
Correct Answer

A. No degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result.

Explanation

COTS manuals are used instead of developing new AF TOs when no degradation in system operation, safety, support or reliability will result. This means that if using COTS manuals does not compromise the functioning, safety, support, or reliability of the system, it is more efficient and cost-effective to use them instead of creating new AF TOs. This option highlights the importance of maintaining the system's performance and integrity while considering time and cost factors.

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43.

Which of the following is not a factor that determines the severity of electrical shock?
- Amount of voltage flowing through the body.
- Amount of current flowing through the body.
- Body’s physical condition.
- Time of exposure.
Correct Answer

A. Amount of voltage flowing through the body.

Explanation

The severity of an electrical shock is determined by the amount of current flowing through the body, the body's physical condition, and the time of exposure. The amount of voltage flowing through the body is not a factor that determines the severity of the shock. Voltage is the force that pushes the current through the body, but the actual harm is caused by the current.

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44.

The action aircrews perform when a navigation system’s identification is not received or the identification code is set to “T E S T” is
- Contact the wing commander.
- Consider the signal unreliable.
- Consider the signal reliable.
- Issue a notice to Airmen.
Correct Answer

A. Consider the signal unreliable.

Explanation

When a navigation system's identification is not received or the identification code is set to "T E S T," the action aircrews perform is to consider the signal unreliable. This means that they do not trust the accuracy or reliability of the signal and will not rely on it for navigation purposes. They will need to use alternative methods or systems to determine their position and navigate safely.

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45.

Ground-based elements of which type of equipment provide the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with means to plan, direct, control and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces?
- AN/TPN–19 Landing Control Central.
- AN/MSN–7 Communication Central
- Ground theater air control system.
- Combat air forces.
Correct Answer

A. Ground theater air control system.

Explanation

The ground theater air control system provides the joint forces air component commander (JFACC) with the means to plan, direct, control, and coordinate air operations with ground, naval, and coalition forces. This system allows for effective communication and coordination between different branches and units, ensuring efficient and synchronized air operations in a joint military environment. The other options, such as the AN/TPN-19 Landing Control Central and AN/MSN-7 Communication Central, do not specifically refer to the equipment that provides these capabilities. Similarly, combat air forces do not encompass the full range of planning, directing, controlling, and coordinating air operations with other forces.

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46.

In which Air Force instruction (AFI) would you find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct?
- AFI 21–103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting.
- AFI 21–115, Product Quality Deficiency Report Program.
- AFI 23–101, Air Force Materiel Management.
- AFI 23–120, Air Force Spares Requirements Review Board.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 21–103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting.

Explanation

AFI 21-103, Equipment Inventory, Status and Utilization Reporting, is the most appropriate instruction to find detailed information about how a work center reviews the open incident list (OIL) to ensure each job is current and correct. This instruction specifically deals with the reporting and management of equipment inventory, status, and utilization, which would include the process of reviewing the OIL to ensure accuracy and currency of jobs. AFI 21-115, AFI 23-101, and AFI 23-120 are not directly related to the topic of reviewing the OIL for job correctness.

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47.

What is the only bond that can be made with soft solder?
- Exothermic welds.
- Signal reference bond.
- Earth electrode subsystem bond.
- Fault protection subsystem bond.
Correct Answer

A. Signal reference bond.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Signal reference bond." Soft solder is a low-temperature solder that is commonly used for electrical and electronic applications. It is not suitable for making strong or durable bonds, but it is effective for creating signal reference bonds. Signal reference bonds are used to establish a common ground or reference point for electrical signals in a circuit. Soft solder can create a reliable electrical connection for this purpose without requiring high temperatures that could damage sensitive components.

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48.

What is the maximum surface roughness for area “A” of the localizer?
- Must not exceed +/-2 feet.
- Must not exceed +/-.5 feet.
- No isolated surface roughness exceeding +/-2feet.
- No isolated surface roughness exceeding +/-5 feet.
Correct Answer

A. Must not exceed +/-.5 feet.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Must not exceed +/-.5 feet." This means that the maximum surface roughness for area "A" of the localizer should not exceed a tolerance of +/-0.5 feet. This ensures that the surface roughness of the area does not deviate more than half a foot from the desired level, providing a relatively smooth and even surface for the localizer.

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49.

What is the maximum distance in feet between the AN/TPS–75 antenna pallet and the equipment shelter?
- 21.
- 20.
- 15.
- 7.
Correct Answer

A. 21.

Explanation

The maximum distance in feet between the AN/TPS-75 antenna pallet and the equipment shelter is 21.

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