Project Management Executive Exam

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Project Management Executive Exam - Quiz

Answer the questions below and then click "submit" to send your answers. Answer the questions below and then click "submit" to send your answers. You should receive a copy of your Exam Results upon completing and submitting this online test. If you pass the exam with a 70 percent or higher and have an accredited college degree & 1 or more years of Project Management Experience, you will be able to apply for the Project Manager Board Certification and Designation. Sincerely and Kindest Regards, AAPM Board of Standards Worldwide. AAPM does not guarantee the results of this Read moretest will be provided to you.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Master Project Managers can contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management most effectively by:

    • A.

      Creating and graphing the body of knowledge vortex under rule 66.

    • B.

      Having a global team meeting to conjure the essence of the data.

    • C.

      Developing and facilitating a project analysis review and lessons learned process

    Correct Answer
    C. Developing and facilitating a project analysis review and lessons learned process
    Explanation
    Developing and facilitating a project analysis review and lessons learned process allows Master Project Managers to contribute to their organization's knowledge base and to the profession of project management effectively. This process involves systematically analyzing completed projects, identifying successes and failures, and extracting valuable lessons from them. By doing so, Master Project Managers can help their organization learn from past experiences, improve project performance, and make informed decisions in future projects. Additionally, sharing these lessons learned with the broader project management community can contribute to the overall advancement and enhancement of project management practices.

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  • 2. 

    To balance the needs of stakeholders involved in your project the most desirable method for resolution of conflicts is:

    • A.

      Scheduling a Bio-Meeting for the stakeholders

    • B.

      Confrontation

    • C.

      Member brainstorming.

    Correct Answer
    B. Confrontation
    Explanation
    Confrontation is the most desirable method for resolution of conflicts among stakeholders in a project because it involves directly addressing the issues and concerns. By openly discussing and confronting the conflicts, stakeholders can express their opinions, concerns, and suggestions, leading to a better understanding of each other's perspectives. This method allows for a more efficient and effective resolution of conflicts, as it encourages open communication, collaboration, and finding mutually agreeable solutions. It helps in preventing conflicts from escalating and promotes a healthy project environment.

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  • 3. 

    Which one of the following examples violates the MPM Master Project Manager Global Ethics and Conduct Suggested Rules.

    • A.

      Disclosing the project to the proper governmental authorities.

    • B.

      Informing a clients family about the risks of a project.

    • C.

      Discussing the project with the clients lawyer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Informing a clients family about the risks of a project.
    Explanation
    The MPM Master Project Manager Global Ethics and Conduct Suggested Rules likely prohibit disclosing project information to individuals who are not directly involved or authorized to know the details. Informing a client's family about the risks of a project may violate this rule as it involves sharing sensitive information with individuals who may not have a legitimate need to know.

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  • 4. 

    One of your employees is up for promotion. If the promotion is granted, the employee will be reassigned elsewhere which will cause a problem for you on your present project. You can delay the employee promotion until your project is completed. You should:

    • A.

      Force the employee to work on the project.

    • B.

      Support the promotion and develop a good transition plan with your employee.

    • C.

      Keep the employee without supporting the promotion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Support the promotion and develop a good transition plan with your employee.
    Explanation
    Supporting the promotion and developing a good transition plan with the employee is the best course of action in this scenario. It is important to prioritize the growth and development of employees, and denying a well-deserved promotion can lead to demotivation and dissatisfaction. By supporting the promotion, the employee can have new opportunities and challenges, which can ultimately benefit their career and the organization. Additionally, developing a transition plan ensures a smooth handover of responsibilities, minimizing any negative impact on the present project.

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  • 5. 

    Regarding Delphi Technique all of the following statements are correct except

    • A.

      Experts are identified but participate anonymously while a facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas.

    • B.

      The responses are submitted and are then circulated to the experts for further comment.

    • C.

      The facilitator may use the P-55 technique at any time

    Correct Answer
    C. The facilitator may use the P-55 technique at any time
    Explanation
    The Delphi Technique is a method used to gather opinions and reach a consensus among a group of experts. It involves anonymous participation, where experts provide their ideas and opinions through a questionnaire. The responses are then circulated to the experts for further comments and revisions. However, there is no mention of the facilitator using the P-55 technique in the context of the Delphi Technique. Therefore, the statement "The facilitator may use the P-55 technique at any time" is incorrect.

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  • 6. 

    Projects are typically authorized as a result of one of the following except:

    • A.

      Lead Manager has decided to do extra work outside of the scope of the agreement.

    • B.

      Contractual agrement for the project completion.

    • C.

      Customer has requested and given permission for the work to be done.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lead Manager has decided to do extra work outside of the scope of the agreement.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Lead Manager has decided to do extra work outside of the scope of the agreement." This option is not a typical reason for authorizing a project. Projects are usually authorized based on a contractual agreement for project completion, customer request and permission, or other valid reasons. The lead manager deciding to do extra work outside of the scope of the agreement would require a separate authorization process.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following does not form subset of the project charter?

    • A.

      Project optimization sequencing

    • B.

      Project title and description

    • C.

      Project goals and objectives

    Correct Answer
    A. Project optimization sequencing
    Explanation
    Project optimization sequencing is not typically included in a project charter. A project charter typically includes the project title and description, as well as the project goals and objectives. Project optimization sequencing refers to the process of determining the most efficient sequence for completing project activities, which is not typically included in the project charter.

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  • 8. 

    Some of the processes of Project Time Management are:

    • A.

      Atomic clock proliferation and utilization.

    • B.

      Activity definition, Schedule development, Activity sequencing

    • C.

      Contolling, Modeling, Evaluation, and Barnstroming.

    Correct Answer
    B. Activity definition, Schedule development, Activity sequencing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Activity definition, Schedule development, Activity sequencing. These processes are part of the Project Time Management knowledge area. Activity definition involves identifying and documenting the specific activities that need to be performed to accomplish the project objectives. Schedule development involves analyzing the activity sequences, durations, and resource requirements to create the project schedule. Activity sequencing involves determining the order in which activities should be performed based on their dependencies and relationships. These processes are essential for effective time management in a project.

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  • 9. 

    What is not handled as a constraint in a project management role?

    • A.

      Choice of the team member.

    • B.

      Limits of authorization

    • C.

      Laws and regulations

    Correct Answer
    A. Choice of the team member.
    Explanation
    In a project management role, the choice of team members is not typically handled as a constraint. Constraints in project management refer to factors that limit the project's execution or scope. The choice of team members is usually considered a decision made by the project manager or stakeholders based on the skills, experience, and availability of potential team members. However, once the team is formed, managing and coordinating their work becomes a crucial responsibility of the project manager.

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  • 10. 

    The product description:

    • A.

      Clarifies the characteristics of the product or service that the project was to create

    • B.

      Is a flexible document that is enhanced by team collaboration

    • C.

      Is only relevant if the time frame is abundant.

    Correct Answer
    A. Clarifies the characteristics of the product or service that the project was to create
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Clarifies the characteristics of the product or service that the project was to create." This answer is supported by the first statement in the product description which states that it clarifies the characteristics of the product or service that the project was to create. The other statements in the description do not align with the purpose of a product description, making them incorrect explanations.

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  • 11. 

    What is slack or float?

    • A.

      The portion of the project budget that can be flexible.

    • B.

      The ceiling of time in which a project can be facilitated.

    • C.

      Amount of time a task can be delayed without missing the deadline to complete the project.

    Correct Answer
    C. Amount of time a task can be delayed without missing the deadline to complete the project.
    Explanation
    Slack or float refers to the amount of time that a task within a project can be delayed without causing any delay in the overall project completion deadline. It represents the flexibility in the project schedule and allows for adjustments and delays in individual tasks without impacting the final delivery date. This concept is important in project management as it helps in identifying critical tasks and allows for effective time management and allocation of resources.

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  • 12. 

    Which is the best formula to estimate duration using PERT?

    • A.

      (X-5)/3.18 PI

    • B.

      (4M/6)XP+32

    • C.

      (P+4M+O)/6

    Correct Answer
    C. (P+4M+O)/6
    Explanation
    The best formula to estimate duration using PERT is (P+4M+O)/6. This formula takes into account the optimistic (O), most likely (M), and pessimistic (P) estimates of the duration and calculates the weighted average. By dividing the sum of these estimates by 6, it provides a more accurate estimate of the duration, taking into consideration the range of possible outcomes.

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  • 13. 

    Management approach in which the project manager solicits information and shares decision-making authority with the project team.

    • A.

      Participative Management Style

    • B.

      Promotional Management Style

    • C.

      Conciliatory Management Style

    Correct Answer
    A. Participative Management Style
    Explanation
    Participative management style is an approach where the project manager actively seeks input and feedback from the project team members. This style encourages collaboration and empowers team members to be involved in decision-making processes. It fosters a sense of ownership and engagement among team members, leading to increased motivation and productivity. This management style promotes open communication, builds trust, and values the expertise and contributions of each team member. It allows for a more democratic and inclusive approach to project management, resulting in better problem-solving, innovation, and overall project success.

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  • 14. 

    The construction of a small building will cost a certain amount per square foot of space. This is an example of what type of estimating?

    • A.

      Parametric modeling

    • B.

      Weighted average modeling

    • C.

      Scatter chart analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Parametric modeling
    Explanation
    Parametric modeling is a type of estimating that involves using mathematical formulas or algorithms to calculate costs based on specific parameters or variables. In this case, the cost of constructing a small building is estimated by considering the cost per square foot of space. The cost is determined by multiplying the cost per square foot by the total square footage of the building. This approach allows for a more accurate and efficient estimation of costs compared to other methods such as weighted average modeling or scatter chart analysis.

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  • 15. 

    Which technique is used to estimate project costs?

    • A.

      Breakdown Fortification Analysis of the Net Profit.

    • B.

      Parametric estimating

    • C.

      Parabolic charting of the PE

    Correct Answer
    B. Parametric estimating
    Explanation
    Parametric estimating is a technique used to estimate project costs. It involves using historical data and statistical relationships to estimate costs based on specific project parameters or variables. This technique is often used when there is limited detailed information available about the project, as it allows for a quick and high-level estimation of costs. By analyzing past projects with similar characteristics, parametric estimating can provide a reliable estimate of project costs without the need for extensive analysis or calculations.

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  • 16. 

    Which element is not in the "triple constraint"

    • A.

      Time Frame

    • B.

      Quality

    • C.

      Scope

    Correct Answer
    C. Scope
    Explanation
    The "triple constraint" refers to the three key elements in project management: time, cost, and scope. These elements are interconnected, and any changes in one element will impact the others. In this case, the correct answer is "Scope" because it is one of the elements in the triple constraint. Time frame and quality are the other two elements that are part of the triple constraint.

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  • 17. 

    For which of the following project benefit measures is a lower value a greater value?

    • A.

      Quick Ration

    • B.

      Payback period

    • C.

      IRR

    Correct Answer
    B. Payback period
    Explanation
    The payback period is the amount of time it takes for a project to recoup its initial investment. In this case, a lower value for the payback period would indicate that the project is able to recover its investment in a shorter amount of time, which is considered a greater value. This means that the project is more financially viable and has a quicker return on investment.

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  • 18. 

    Organizations and institutions commonly hire leaders with

    • A.

      The person with the capacity for Greenspan logic

    • B.

      Integrity, Skill, and expertise.

    • C.

      The candidate who can use fusion histograms.

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrity, Skill, and expertise.
    Explanation
    Organizations and institutions commonly hire leaders with integrity, skill, and expertise because these qualities are essential for effective leadership. Integrity ensures that leaders act ethically and with honesty, gaining the trust and respect of their team members. Skill refers to the ability to perform tasks competently, while expertise indicates a deep knowledge and understanding of the field or industry. Leaders with these qualities are more likely to make informed decisions, inspire and motivate their teams, and drive the organization towards success. The mention of "fusion histograms" in the question does not provide any relevant information to explain the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    Before responding to a contractual dispute with facts and figures, a Master Project Manager would:

    • A.

      Notify the CEO or other high level figures.

    • B.

      Consult with the team and in-house counsel or a lawyer and try to put together the facts and legal postion.

    • C.

      Consult with the CPA or Controller in the Organization

    Correct Answer
    B. Consult with the team and in-house counsel or a lawyer and try to put together the facts and legal postion.
    Explanation
    A Master Project Manager would consult with the team and in-house counsel or a lawyer and try to put together the facts and legal position before responding to a contractual dispute. This is because the team has firsthand knowledge of the project and can provide valuable insights, while in-house counsel or a lawyer can provide legal expertise and guidance. By gathering all the necessary information and understanding the legal implications, the Master Project Manager can make an informed decision on how to address the dispute effectively.

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  • 20. 

    When putting together the project agreement, a MPM or CIPM Certified or  Master Project Manager would consider adding this language to the agreement.

    • A.

      Language to accomodate for fluctuating costs with regard to the project such as commodities.

    • B.

      Choice of law, forum and jurisdiction, and dispute clauses.

    • C.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    A MPM or CIPM Certified or Master Project Manager would consider adding all of the mentioned language to the agreement because they are all important in ensuring that the project agreement is comprehensive and covers all necessary aspects. The language to accommodate for fluctuating costs is important as it allows for flexibility in dealing with changes in commodity prices which can impact the project budget. Choice of law, forum and jurisdiction clauses are necessary to determine the legal framework within which any disputes or legal issues related to the project will be resolved. Dispute clauses are important to outline the procedures and methods for resolving any disagreements or conflicts that may arise during the project.

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  • 21. 

    An instruction manual for users of a product of service should contain?

    • A.

      Diagrams of the products engineering.

    • B.

      The P-55 legal stipulations as required by law.

    • C.

      A troubleshooting guide and operating instructions.

    Correct Answer
    C. A troubleshooting guide and operating instructions.
    Explanation
    An instruction manual for users of a product or service should contain a troubleshooting guide and operating instructions. This is important because it helps users understand how to operate the product correctly and troubleshoot any issues that may arise. The manual should provide step-by-step instructions on how to use the product, including any safety precautions that need to be taken. Additionally, a troubleshooting guide is essential for users to identify and resolve common problems they may encounter while using the product. Diagrams of the product's engineering and legal stipulations are not necessary for the users' understanding and usage of the product.

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  • 22. 

    A review of management processes and the associated documentation is commonly called

    • A.

      The portfolio review process

    • B.

      The Compliance screening process

    • C.

      The Audit

    Correct Answer
    C. The Audit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The Audit" because it is a common practice to review management processes and associated documentation to ensure compliance and identify any areas of improvement. This process involves examining various aspects of the organization's operations, such as financial records, internal controls, and adherence to policies and regulations. The purpose of the audit is to provide an independent assessment of the effectiveness and efficiency of management processes and to identify any potential risks or weaknesses that need to be addressed.

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  • 23. 

    A financial institution has decided to systematically upgrade all of its cash vending machines or ATMs over the next 11 months, starting in June 2005. What type of conversion methodology is this?

    • A.

      Phased

    • B.

      Beta 3 - Conversion

    • C.

      Co-Axel Conversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Phased
    Explanation
    The financial institution has decided to upgrade its cash vending machines or ATMs systematically over the next 11 months, starting in June 2005. This means that the conversion will be done in phases, where each phase will involve upgrading a certain number of ATMs over a specific period of time. This approach allows for a systematic and organized upgrade process, ensuring that all ATMs are upgraded within the specified timeframe.

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  • 24. 

    An organization has software to calculate the total cost of wages for a seven-month building project. What type of decision would mandate the use of this information?

    • A.

      Focus Group Decision

    • B.

      Cross Analysis Decision

    • C.

      Tactical Decision

    Correct Answer
    C. Tactical Decision
    Explanation
    A tactical decision is a type of decision that requires the use of information such as the total cost of wages for a building project. In this scenario, the organization needs to make decisions related to the project's budget, resource allocation, and cost management. By having the software to calculate the total cost of wages, the organization can make informed decisions regarding the project's financial aspects and plan accordingly. This information is crucial for making tactical decisions that will impact the project's overall success and profitability.

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  • 25. 

    Which is correct regarding projects?

    • A.

      A project is the collection of information so as to facilitate a task.

    • B.

      A project is a long term strategy used to implement the critical mission.

    • C.

      A project is a temporary endeavor engaged to create a unique product or service.

    Correct Answer
    C. A project is a temporary endeavor engaged to create a unique product or service.
    Explanation
    This is the correct answer because it accurately defines what a project is. A project is a temporary endeavor, meaning it has a defined start and end date, and it is engaged to create a unique product or service. This definition highlights the key characteristics of a project, including its temporary nature and the goal of creating something unique.

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  • 26. 

    An effective method for improving an organization's project management knowledge base is through:

    • A.

      Integrated IT - Z55 emancipation techniques.

    • B.

      Coaching and mentoring

    • C.

      The cooperation of body of knowledge using a balanced scorecard.

    Correct Answer
    B. Coaching and mentoring
    Explanation
    Coaching and mentoring are effective methods for improving an organization's project management knowledge base. These practices involve experienced individuals guiding and supporting less experienced team members to enhance their skills and knowledge in project management. Through coaching and mentoring, team members can learn from the expertise and experience of others, gaining valuable insights and best practices. This helps to build a strong foundation of project management knowledge within the organization, leading to improved project outcomes and overall organizational success.

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  • 27. 

    A surgery practice has changed procedures and equipment within its information system in order to increase the efficiency of processing patients’ health records. Which criteria would be used to evaluate the modified IT information system?

    • A.

      Augmentation of the patient experience

    • B.

      Feedback scoring methods.

    • C.

      Decrease in the time taken to retrieve patients’ files

    Correct Answer
    C. Decrease in the time taken to retrieve patients’ files
    Explanation
    The modified IT information system would be evaluated based on the decrease in the time taken to retrieve patients' files. This criterion is relevant because the goal of the changes in procedures and equipment is to increase the efficiency of processing patients' health records. By reducing the time needed to retrieve files, the system would be achieving this goal and improving the overall efficiency of the surgery practice.

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  • 28. 

    Identify two formats for drawing a network diagram?

    • A.

      Activity in a box and activity on the arrow.

    • B.

      Activity in equation and activity on the alignment.

    • C.

      Activity in a circle and activity on the point.

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity in a box and activity on the arrow.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Activity in a box and activity on the arrow." In network diagramming, activity in a box refers to the use of rectangular boxes to represent activities or tasks, while activity on the arrow refers to the use of arrows to represent the flow and sequence of activities. These two formats are commonly used in project management to visually depict the activities and their relationships in a project schedule.

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  • 29. 

    What is an RFP?

    • A.

      A Revision of Focus to the Project.

    • B.

      States comprehensively and in detail from a customer point of view what is required to address an identified need.

    • C.

      Clarifies the project using the lead managers scope and authority.

    Correct Answer
    B. States comprehensively and in detail from a customer point of view what is required to address an identified need.
    Explanation
    An RFP, or Request for Proposal, is a document that outlines the specific requirements and needs of a customer in order to address a certain problem or fulfill a particular need. It provides a comprehensive and detailed description from the customer's perspective, specifying what is expected from the project. The purpose of an RFP is to solicit proposals from potential vendors or contractors who can offer solutions that meet the stated requirements.

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  • 30. 

    What are some attributes of a project?

    • A.

      A well defined objective

    • B.

      Degree of uncerainty

    • C.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above options are attributes of a project. A well-defined objective is important for a project as it provides clarity and direction to the team. Degree of uncertainty is another attribute as projects often involve unknowns and risks that need to be managed. Therefore, all the given options are valid attributes of a project.

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  • 31. 

    The lowest level work item for any given branch of the work breakdown structure is called?

    • A.

      Access Package

    • B.

      Constructive Portfolio

    • C.

      Work Package

    Correct Answer
    C. Work Package
    Explanation
    A work package is the lowest level work item in a branch of the work breakdown structure. It represents a specific deliverable or task that needs to be completed within a project. Work packages are typically assigned to a specific team or individual and contain detailed information about the work to be done, including objectives, resources required, and timelines. They serve as a basis for estimating costs, tracking progress, and assigning responsibilities.

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  • 32. 

    The equation for calculating an activity's earliest finish time is?

    • A.

      Duration Estimate = ES-EF/ES Approx

    • B.

      EF = ES + Duration Estimate

    • C.

      ES+EF/Time = Estimate

    Correct Answer
    B. EF = ES + Duration Estimate
    Explanation
    The equation for calculating an activity's earliest finish time is EF = ES + Duration Estimate. This equation adds the estimated duration of the activity to the earliest start time (ES) to determine the earliest finish time (EF). By adding the duration estimate to the earliest start time, we can determine the point at which the activity is expected to be completed.

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  • 33. 

    What are the 3 ways in which a project maanger communicates?

    • A.

      Face to face, negotiations, and team meetings.

    • B.

      Meetings, written reports, and Informal Conversations

    • C.

      Web, Phone and Mail

    Correct Answer
    B. Meetings, written reports, and Informal Conversations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is meetings, written reports, and informal conversations. These three ways of communication are commonly used by project managers to effectively convey information and updates to their team members and stakeholders. Meetings provide a platform for face-to-face interaction and discussion, allowing for real-time feedback and problem-solving. Written reports are useful for documenting project progress, milestones, and any important information that needs to be shared. Informal conversations, on the other hand, allow for more casual and spontaneous communication, fostering relationships and building rapport within the team. Overall, these three communication methods help ensure clear and efficient communication throughout the project.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following definitions describes the project management lifecycle?

    • A.

      What your team and you would need to do to manage the project

    • B.

      IZO 9000 C Protocol

    • C.

      The globalization principle.

    Correct Answer
    A. What your team and you would need to do to manage the project
    Explanation
    The correct answer describes the project management lifecycle as the actions and tasks that need to be carried out by the team and project manager in order to effectively manage the project. It implies that the project management lifecycle involves planning, executing, monitoring, and controlling various aspects of the project to ensure its successful completion.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is not a AAPM International Project Management Commission ethical body of protocols and conduct ?

    • A.

      Overtime for any outside consulting

    • B.

      Confidentiality of projects

    • C.

      Abstain from a conflicts of interest

    Correct Answer
    C. Abstain from a conflicts of interest
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Abstain from a conflicts of interest", is not a AAPM International Project Management Commission ethical body of protocols and conduct. This means that the AAPM International Project Management Commission does not have a specific protocol or guideline regarding abstaining from conflicts of interest.

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  • 36. 

    A main disadvantage of this type of organization could be conflicts over staff members.

    • A.

      A Vertical Team Plan

    • B.

      A Horizontal Organizational Chart

    • C.

      Matrix Organization

    Correct Answer
    C. Matrix Organization
    Explanation
    A matrix organization is a type of organizational structure where employees report to both a functional manager and a project manager. This can lead to conflicts over staff members as they may receive conflicting instructions or have divided loyalties. In a matrix organization, employees may have to balance the demands of multiple projects or teams, which can create tension and disagreements among staff members.

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  • 37. 

    In a functional organization

    • A.

      The organization can use the flexible matrix.

    • B.

      Functional Manager takes the project under his/her department.

    • C.

      A Lead Manager always holds the Alpha Authority

    Correct Answer
    C. A Lead Manager always holds the Alpha Authority
    Explanation
    In a functional organization, a lead manager always holds the alpha authority. This means that the lead manager has the ultimate decision-making power and control over the project. They have the authority to make important decisions and allocate resources within their department. This ensures that there is clear leadership and accountability within the organization, as the lead manager is responsible for the success of the project under their department. The use of the flexible matrix allows for efficient coordination and communication between different departments, enabling the lead manager to effectively manage the project.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following statements is correct about Dr. Deming?

    • A.

      Believed managers didn’t traditionally react the correct way when they detected variation

    • B.

      He thought that team fear was good for morale

    • C.

      Dr. Deming thought that standard deviation was nonsense.

    Correct Answer
    A. Believed managers didn’t traditionally react the correct way when they detected variation
    Explanation
    Dr. Deming believed that managers didn't traditionally react the correct way when they detected variation. This implies that he recognized the importance of understanding and addressing variation in processes. He likely advocated for a more proactive and systematic approach to managing variation, rather than simply reacting to it. By doing so, he aimed to improve the quality and efficiency of processes and ultimately achieve better outcomes.

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  • 39. 

    Describe the Pros and Cons of a GERT Chart

    • A.

      Allows for cross analysis but the Gamma part of the GERT can take up to 2 days.

    • B.

      GERT: can loop back to the task and it shows probability. Disadvantage: too complex to draw and too complex for others to interpret

    • C.

      Simple for others to interpret but makes ratio analysis difficult

    Correct Answer
    B. GERT: can loop back to the task and it shows probability. Disadvantage: too complex to draw and too complex for others to interpret
    Explanation
    A GERT chart allows for cross analysis and provides the ability to loop back to a task, which is beneficial for complex projects. It also incorporates probability, which helps in assessing the likelihood of different outcomes. However, the GERT chart can be challenging to draw due to its complexity, and it may be difficult for others to interpret, making collaboration and communication more challenging. Additionally, the complexity of the chart can make ratio analysis more difficult.

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