Patho Quiz 1

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  • 1/44 Questions

    Prolonged exposure of cells to adverse or exaggerated normal stimuli which evokes various changes at the level of individual cells, tissues or whole organs is known as what?

    • Altered cells
    • Cell alteration
    • Cell adaptation
    • Cell variation
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Pathology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Patho Quiz 1 explores cellular responses to stimuli, covering concepts like cell adaptation, atrophy, and hypertrophy. It assesses understanding of both physiological and pathological changes in cells, vital for students in medical and health-related fields.

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  • 2. 

    True or False?  Once the cause or stimulus has been removed, most cells that have adapted to chronic stimulation are able to revert back to normal.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Most cells that have adapted to chronic stimulation are able to revert back to normal once the cause or stimulus has been removed. This is because cells have the ability to undergo cellular remodeling and restore their normal functioning when the external factors that caused the adaptation are no longer present. This process is known as cellular plasticity and allows cells to maintain homeostasis and adapt to different environmental conditions.

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  • 3. 

    The loss of cells, decrease in the size of a tissue, organ or the entire body is known as what?

    • Atrophy

    • Hypertrophy

    • Hyperplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrophy
    Explanation
    Atrophy refers to the loss of cells and a decrease in the size of a tissue, organ, or the entire body. It is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of stimulation or use, inadequate nutrition, or hormonal changes. This leads to a decrease in the size and function of the affected area. Atrophy can occur in various parts of the body and can be reversible or irreversible depending on the underlying cause. Hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia are all different conditions and do not involve the loss of cells or decrease in size.

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  • 4. 

    Thymus undergoing involution, bones and muscles becoming thin in the elderly are just two examples of what?

    • Pathologic atrophy

    • Physiologic atrophy

    • Pathologic hypertrophy

    • Physiologic hypertrophy

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiologic atrophy
    Explanation
    Physiologic atrophy refers to the natural, age-related decrease in size or function of certain organs or tissues. The thymus undergoing involution and the thinning of bones and muscles in the elderly are both examples of this normal process. Pathologic atrophy, on the other hand, refers to abnormal, disease-related tissue shrinkage. Pathologic hypertrophy is an abnormal increase in tissue size, while physiologic hypertrophy is a normal increase in tissue size in response to a specific stimulus.

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  • 5. 

    Alzheimer's Disease is an example of what?

    • Physiologic atrophy

    • Pathologic atrophy

    • Physiologic hypertrophy

    • Pathologic hypertrophy

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathologic atrophy
    Explanation
    Alzheimer's Disease is characterized by the progressive degeneration and loss of brain cells, leading to a decrease in brain mass and function. This degeneration is considered pathologic because it is abnormal and not a normal part of the aging process. Atrophy refers to the shrinkage or wasting away of an organ or tissue, which is exactly what happens in Alzheimer's Disease. Therefore, pathologic atrophy is the correct term to describe the condition.

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  • 6. 

    Enlargement, an increase in the size of tissues or organs due to enlargement of individual cells is known as what?

    • Atrophy

    • Hypertrophy

    • Hyperplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Hypertrophy refers to the increase in the size of tissues or organs due to the enlargement of individual cells. This can occur in response to various factors such as increased workload or hormonal stimulation. Atrophy refers to the opposite process, where there is a decrease in the size of tissues or organs. Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells, while metaplasia and dysplasia refer to abnormal changes in cell type and organization, respectively.

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  • 7. 

    Enlargement of muscles in body builders is an example of _____________ while enlargement of the heart due to increased workload is an example of _____________.

    • Physiologic atrophy, pathologic atrophy

    • Pathologic atrophy, physiologic atrophy

    • Pathologic hypertrophy, physiologic hypertrophy

    • Physiologic hypertrophy, pathologic hypertrophy

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiologic hypertrophy, pathologic hypertrophy
    Explanation
    Enlargement of muscles in body builders is an example of physiologic hypertrophy because it is a normal response to exercise and training. The muscles increase in size to meet the increased demands placed on them. On the other hand, enlargement of the heart due to increased workload is an example of pathologic hypertrophy because it is a response to a pathological condition, such as high blood pressure or heart disease. The heart muscle becomes thicker and larger, but this is not a healthy adaptation and can lead to further complications.

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  • 8. 

    An adaptive increase in the number of cells that can cause enlargement of tissuews or organs is known as what?

    • Atrophy

    • Hypertrophy

    • Hyperplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperplasia
    Explanation
    Hyperplasia refers to the adaptive increase in the number of cells, leading to the enlargement of tissues or organs. It is a physiological response to certain stimuli, such as hormonal changes or increased functional demand. Atrophy, on the other hand, refers to the shrinkage or decrease in the size of tissues or organs. Hypertrophy refers to the increase in the size of cells, leading to the enlargement of tissues or organs. Metaplasia refers to the reversible change of one cell type to another, while dysplasia refers to the abnormal growth and development of cells.

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  • 9. 

    True or False?  Hyperplasia can be seen along with hypertrophy?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hyperplasia and hypertrophy are two different types of cellular growth. Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells, while hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells. Both hyperplasia and hypertrophy can occur simultaneously in certain situations, such as during tissue repair or in response to hormonal stimulation. Therefore, it is true that hyperplasia can be seen along with hypertrophy.

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  • 10. 

    The change of one cell to another cell type is known as what?

    • Atrophy

    • Hypertrophy

    • Hyperplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Metaplasia
    Explanation
    Metaplasia refers to the transformation of one type of cell into another type of cell. This change occurs in response to chronic irritation or inflammation in order to better withstand the new environment. Atrophy refers to the shrinkage or decrease in size of cells, hypertrophy refers to the increase in size of cells, hyperplasia refers to the increase in the number of cells, and dysplasia refers to the abnormal growth or development of cells. Therefore, metaplasia is the most appropriate term to describe the change of one cell type to another.

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  • 11. 

    True or false?  Metaplasia is reversible but it can also progress to dysplasia

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Metaplasia is a reversible process where one type of mature cell is replaced by another type of mature cell. It occurs in response to chronic irritation or inflammation. Dysplasia, on the other hand, is the abnormal growth or development of cells. While metaplasia can progress to dysplasia, it is not always the case. Therefore, the statement that metaplasia is reversible but can also progress to dysplasia is true.

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  • 12. 

    What are two examples of Metaplasia?

    • Polyps on the colon and BPH

    • Bronchial epithelium due to smoking and the GE junction in Barrett Esophagus

    • Testicular atrophy and Alzheimer's disease

    • Endometrial hyperlasia and squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchial epithelium due to smoking and the GE junction in Barrett Esophagus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is bronchial epithelium due to smoking and the GE junction in Barrett Esophagus. Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one mature cell type is replaced by another mature cell type. In the case of bronchial epithelium due to smoking, the normal ciliated columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium. In Barrett Esophagus, the normal squamous epithelium of the GE junction is replaced by intestinal-type columnar epithelium. Both examples demonstrate the adaptive response of the body to chronic irritation or inflammation.

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  • 13. 

    Disordered growth of tissues resulting from chronic irritation or infection is known as what?

    • Hypertrophy

    • Hyperplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysplasia
    Explanation
    Dysplasia refers to the abnormal growth of cells or tissues due to chronic irritation or infection. It is characterized by the disordered arrangement, shape, and size of cells, which can lead to the formation of abnormal tissue structures. Unlike hypertrophy (increase in cell size), hyperplasia (increase in cell number), or metaplasia (transformation of one type of tissue into another), dysplasia specifically indicates the presence of abnormal cellular changes resulting from chronic irritation or infection.

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  • 14. 

    True or false?  There is no association between dysplasia and cancer.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    False. Dysplasia is a condition characterized by abnormal cell growth and can be a precursor to cancer. It is considered a pre-cancerous condition because if left untreated, dysplasia can progress to cancer. Regular monitoring and appropriate treatment are necessary to prevent the development of cancer in individuals with dysplasia.

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  • 15. 

    Based on pap smears, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is the best example of what condition?

    • Atrophy

    • Hypertrophy

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysplasia
    Explanation
    Based on pap smears, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) is the best example of dysplasia. Dysplasia refers to the abnormal growth or development of cells or tissues, which can be detected through pap smears. CIN specifically refers to the abnormal growth of cells in the cervix, which can progress to cervical cancer if left untreated. Therefore, dysplasia accurately describes the condition observed in CIN.

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  • 16. 

    True or false, in the normal pap smear, there should be only one large dark purple nucleus in each cell? 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    In the normal pap smear, there should not be only one large dark purple nucleus in each cell. This statement is false. In a normal pap smear, the cells should have a range of sizes and shapes, and the nuclei should vary in size, shape, and color. The presence of only one large dark purple nucleus in each cell could indicate an abnormality or a potential sign of disease.

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  • 17. 

    True or false?  Any women with HPV is automatically put in CIN-I (mild dysplasia)?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection does not automatically place a woman in the CIN-I (mild dysplasia) category. CIN-I (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade I) refers to mild dysplasia, which is a specific diagnosis made from cervical biopsy results. While HPV infection can lead to cervical dysplasia, not all women with HPV will develop CIN-I. The progression depends on various factors, including the type of HPV and the individual's immune response.

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  • 18. 

    Undifferentiated and uncontrolled growth of cells is known as what?

    • Anaplasia

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    • Hyperplasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaplasia
    Explanation
    Anaplasia refers to the undifferentiated and uncontrolled growth of cells. It is a characteristic feature of cancerous cells, where they lose their specialized functions and acquire abnormal characteristics. This uncontrolled growth can lead to the formation of tumors and the spread of cancer to other parts of the body. Metaplasia, dysplasia, and hyperplasia are also abnormal cell growth conditions but are not specifically associated with the uncontrolled growth seen in anaplasia.

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  • 19. 

    Malignancy, carcinoma, cancer, and neoplasm are synonyms for what?

    • Metaplasia

    • Dysplasia

    • Anaplasia

    • Bastard

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaplasia
    Explanation
    Malignancy, carcinoma, cancer, and neoplasm are all terms used to describe abnormal and uncontrolled growth of cells in the body, which is characteristic of anaplasia. Anaplasia refers to the loss of normal cellular characteristics and organization, leading to a more aggressive and undifferentiated form of cancer. Therefore, anaplasia is the most appropriate synonym for these terms.

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  • 20. 

    What is one of the microscopic hallmarks of anaplasia?

    • Low N/C ratio, 1:4

    • High N/C ratio, 1:1

    • Small nucleoli

    • Cells similar in size and shape

    Correct Answer
    A. High N/C ratio, 1:1
    Explanation
    One of the microscopic hallmarks of anaplasia is a high N/C ratio, 1:1. Anaplasia refers to the loss of normal cellular differentiation, resulting in cells that are undifferentiated and exhibit abnormal features. The N/C ratio refers to the ratio of the size of the nucleus to the size of the cytoplasm in a cell. In anaplastic cells, the nucleus becomes larger and the cytoplasm becomes smaller, leading to a high N/C ratio. This abnormal ratio is indicative of the loss of normal cellular function and is a characteristic feature of anaplastic cells.

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  • 21. 

    True or false?  If the nucleus dies, the cell dies?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If the nucleus dies, the cell dies because the nucleus is the control center of the cell. It contains the cell's DNA and is responsible for regulating all cellular activities, including protein synthesis and cell division. Without a functioning nucleus, the cell cannot carry out essential functions and will eventually die.

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  • 22. 

    What is an example of reversible cell injury?

    • Changes in the nucleus

    • Hypoxia

    • Rupture of the cell membrane

    • Loss of cell integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxia
    Explanation
    Hypoxia is an example of reversible cell injury because it refers to a condition where there is a decrease in oxygen supply to the cells. This can occur due to various reasons such as reduced blood flow or inadequate oxygenation. When cells are deprived of oxygen, they undergo metabolic changes and can become injured. However, if the oxygen supply is restored in a timely manner, the cells have the potential to recover and return to their normal state, making hypoxia a reversible form of cell injury.

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  • 23. 

    Pyknosis, Karyorrhexis, and Karyolysis are all forms of what?

    • Phagocytosis

    • Pinocytosis

    • Autolysis

    • Damage to the nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Damage to the nucleus
    Explanation
    Pyknosis, Karyorrhexis, and Karyolysis are all forms of damage to the nucleus. These terms are used to describe different stages of nuclear damage that can occur in cells. Pyknosis refers to the condensation and shrinkage of the nucleus, Karyorrhexis is the fragmentation of the nucleus, and Karyolysis is the dissolution or lysis of the nucleus. These processes can be caused by various factors such as injury, infection, or cell death.

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  • 24. 

    True or false?  Can irreversible cellular changes by diagnosed?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Irreversible cellular changes can be diagnosed. This means that certain changes in cells, such as damage or mutations, can be identified and diagnosed by medical professionals. These changes may be indicative of diseases or conditions and can be detected through various diagnostic techniques such as biopsies, imaging tests, or genetic testing. Identifying irreversible cellular changes is crucial for determining appropriate treatment plans and monitoring the progression of diseases.

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  • 25. 

    High levels of what enzymes are typically found in pts with MI's or viral hepatitis?

    • AST or ALT

    • AST or LDH

    • LDH or BLT

    • ALST or LDL

    Correct Answer
    A. AST or LDH
    Explanation
    High levels of AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) enzymes are typically found in patients with myocardial infarctions (MI's) or viral hepatitis. AST is found in high concentrations in the liver, heart, and skeletal muscles, and its levels increase when there is damage to these organs. LDH is an enzyme found in many tissues, including the liver, heart, and red blood cells, and its levels rise when there is tissue damage or inflammation. Therefore, elevated levels of AST and LDH can indicate liver damage or heart muscle damage, which are commonly seen in MI's or viral hepatitis.

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  • 26. 

    What are among the most important and most common causes of cell injury?

    • Lack of nutrients

    • Chemical injury

    • Infection

    • Hypoxia/anoxia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxia/anoxia
    Explanation
    Hypoxia/anoxia refers to a lack of oxygen supply to the cells, which can lead to cell injury. Oxygen is essential for cellular metabolism and energy production. Without sufficient oxygen, cells cannot generate enough ATP, leading to cellular dysfunction and injury. Hypoxia/anoxia can be caused by various factors such as reduced blood flow, respiratory disorders, or high altitudes. It is considered one of the most important and common causes of cell injury because it affects various organs and tissues throughout the body.

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  • 27. 

    When deprived of O2, brain cells die within __________, heart muscle dies within__________ and kidney cells die within ____________.

    • 1 min, 5 mins, 1 hour

    • 4-5 mins, 30 mins, several hours

    • 3 mins, 25 mins, 2 hours

    • 20 mins, 1 hour, 1 day

    Correct Answer
    A. 4-5 mins, 30 mins, several hours
    Explanation
    When deprived of oxygen, brain cells start to die within 4-5 minutes. Heart muscle cells, on the other hand, can survive without oxygen for approximately 30 minutes before they begin to die. Kidney cells have a longer survival time without oxygen and can last several hours before they start to die.

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  • 28. 

    The death of cells or tissues within a living organism is known as what?

    • Hyperplasia

    • Anaplasia

    • Necrosis

    • Autolysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Necrosis
    Explanation
    Necrosis refers to the death of cells or tissues within a living organism. It is a pathological process that occurs due to various factors such as injury, infection, or lack of blood supply. During necrosis, the affected cells lose their structural integrity and release their contents into the surrounding tissue, causing inflammation and further damage. Unlike apoptosis, which is a programmed cell death, necrosis is a passive and uncontrolled process.

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  • 29. 

    True or false?  Autolysis is seen in living tissues?

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Autolysis refers to the process of self-digestion that occurs in dead tissues, not in living tissues. In living tissues, various metabolic processes and cellular functions are actively maintained, preventing autolysis from occurring. Therefore, the statement that autolysis is seen in living tissues is false.

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  • 30. 

    What is the most common form of necrosis?

    • Coagulative

    • Liquefactive

    • Caseous

    • Fat

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulative
    Explanation
    Coagulative necrosis is the most common form of necrosis. It is characterized by the preservation of tissue architecture due to the denaturation of proteins, resulting in a firm and pale appearance. This type of necrosis is commonly seen in ischemic injury, where blood flow is compromised, leading to tissue death. The affected tissue retains its shape and structure, allowing for potential regeneration.

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  • 31. 

    Which type of necrosis occurs in solid internal organs and is most often cause by Anoxia (ie MI)?

    • Coagulative

    • Liquefactive

    • Caseous

    • Fat

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulative
    Explanation
    Coagulative necrosis occurs in solid internal organs and is most often caused by anoxia, such as in a myocardial infarction (MI). In coagulative necrosis, the architecture of the tissue is preserved, but the cells undergo protein denaturation, resulting in a firm and pale appearance. This type of necrosis is commonly seen in ischemic injuries, where the blood supply to the organ is compromised, leading to tissue damage.

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  • 32. 

    Where does liquefactive necrosis occur most often?

    • Heart and lung

    • Spleen and brain

    • Heart and kidney

    • Brain and lung

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain and lung
    Explanation
    Liquefactive necrosis is a type of cell death characterized by the formation of liquid-filled cavities in the affected tissue. It occurs most often in tissues with high water content, such as the brain and lung. In the brain, liquefactive necrosis can result from ischemic stroke or infections like abscesses. In the lung, it can occur due to pneumonia or infarction. The spleen and kidney are less commonly affected by liquefactive necrosis. Therefore, the correct answer is brain and lung.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of necrosis typically has a thick, yellowish, cheesy substance form?

    • Liquefactive

    • Coagulative

    • Caseous

    • Fat

    Correct Answer
    A. Caseous
    Explanation
    Caseous necrosis typically has a thick, yellowish, cheesy substance form. This type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis infections, where the necrotic tissue appears soft and resembles cottage cheese. The necrotic tissue is often surrounded by a granulomatous inflammatory response.

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  • 34. 

    True or False?  Caseous Necrosis is typically found in Tuberculosis.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Caseous necrosis is a form of cell death that is typically found in tuberculosis. It is characterized by a cheese-like appearance of the affected tissue. In tuberculosis, caseous necrosis occurs as a result of the immune system's response to the infection, leading to the formation of granulomas. These granulomas consist of a central area of caseous necrosis surrounded by immune cells. Therefore, it is correct to say that caseous necrosis is typically found in tuberculosis.

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  • 35. 

    What cell necrosis is caused by the action of lipolytic enzymes?

    • Caseous

    • Liquefactive

    • Fat

    • Coagulative

    Correct Answer
    A. Fat
    Explanation
    Fat necrosis is caused by the action of lipolytic enzymes. Lipolytic enzymes break down the triglycerides in adipose tissue, leading to the release of free fatty acids. These free fatty acids then combine with calcium ions to form calcium soaps, which appear as chalky white areas. This type of necrosis is commonly seen in adipose tissue surrounding the pancreas, breast, and other areas rich in adipose tissue.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of cell necrosis is limited to fat tissue and usually associated with the pancreas?

    • Liquefactive

    • Fat

    • Coagulative

    • Caseous

    Correct Answer
    A. Fat
    Explanation
    Fat necrosis is a type of cell necrosis that is limited to fat tissue and is commonly associated with the pancreas. This occurs when there is damage to the adipose (fat) tissue, leading to the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas. These enzymes break down the fat cells, resulting in the formation of fatty acids and calcium deposits. This process can cause inflammation and the formation of nodules or lumps in the affected area. Therefore, the correct answer is "fat".

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  • 37. 

    ________  calcifications refers to the macroscopic deposition of Ca2+ in injured or dead tissues, visible to the naked eye and range from gritty, sand-like grains to rock hard material.

    • Metastatic

    • Nectrotic

    • Dystrophic

    • Diastatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Dystrophic
    Explanation
    Dystrophic calcifications refer to the deposition of calcium in injured or dead tissues, which can be seen with the naked eye. These calcifications can vary in texture, ranging from gritty, sand-like grains to hard material.

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  • 38. 

    True or False?  Metastatic calcifications are associated with increased serum calcium levels.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Metastatic calcifications are indeed associated with increased serum calcium levels. Metastatic calcification refers to the deposition of calcium in normal tissues due to hypercalcemia, which is an elevated level of calcium in the blood. This can occur in various conditions such as hyperparathyroidism, renal failure, or excessive vitamin D intake. The increased serum calcium levels lead to the deposition of calcium in tissues such as the kidneys, lungs, or blood vessels, causing metastatic calcifications. Therefore, the statement "Metastatic calcifications are associated with increased serum calcium levels" is true.

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  • 39. 

    Calcifications in Atherosclerotic coronary arteries is an example of what?

    • Myotropic calcification

    • Metastatic calcification

    • Dystrophic calcification

    • Anaplastic calcification

    Correct Answer
    A. Dystrophic calcification
    Explanation
    Dystrophic calcification refers to the deposition of calcium in damaged or dead tissues, such as atherosclerotic coronary arteries. In this condition, calcium is deposited in areas of inflammation or injury, leading to the formation of calcifications. This is different from metastatic calcification, which occurs in normal tissues due to abnormal calcium metabolism, and myotropic calcification, which is the deposition of calcium in smooth muscle cells. Anaplastic calcification is not a recognized term in the context of calcification.

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  • 40. 

    True or False? Mitral or Aortic stenosis are examples of Metastatic calcifications.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Mitral or Aortic stenosis are not examples of Metastatic calcifications. Metastatic calcifications refer to the abnormal deposition of calcium in normal tissues due to an underlying systemic calcium imbalance. Mitral and Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, are conditions that involve the narrowing of the valves in the heart. They are not directly related to calcium deposition in tissues. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 41. 

    True or False?  Calcifications seen around breast cancers are examples of Dystrophic calcifications

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Calcifications seen around breast cancers are examples of dystrophic calcifications. Dystrophic calcifications occur when there is necrosis or cell death in the tissue, leading to the deposition of calcium. In the case of breast cancer, the cancer cells can cause necrosis in the surrounding tissue, resulting in the formation of calcifications. These calcifications can be detected on imaging tests like mammograms and can be an important diagnostic clue for the presence of breast cancer. Therefore, the statement that calcifications seen around breast cancers are examples of dystrophic calcifications is true.

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  • 42. 

    Infant periventricular calcifications seen in congenital Toxoplasmosis is an example of what?

    • Dystrophic Calcification

    • Metastatic Calcification

    Correct Answer
    A. Dystrophic Calcification
    Explanation
    Infant periventricular calcifications seen in congenital Toxoplasmosis are an example of dystrophic calcification. Dystrophic calcification occurs in damaged or dead tissue, where calcium deposits accumulate as a result of inflammation or cell death. In this case, the periventricular calcifications in infants with congenital Toxoplasmosis indicate the presence of damaged tissue in the brain due to the infection, leading to the deposition of calcium. This is different from metastatic calcification, which occurs in otherwise normal tissue as a result of abnormal calcium metabolism.

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  • 43. 

    Hyperparathyroidism, Vit D toxicity, and chronic renal failure are examples of what?

    • Dystrophic calcifications

    • Metastatic calcification

    Correct Answer
    A. Metastatic calcification
    Explanation
    Hyperparathyroidism, Vit D toxicity, and chronic renal failure are conditions that can lead to an abnormal deposition of calcium in various tissues throughout the body, known as metastatic calcification. In these conditions, there is an imbalance in calcium metabolism, leading to increased levels of calcium in the bloodstream. This excess calcium can then be deposited in organs and tissues, causing calcifications. Dystrophic calcifications, on the other hand, occur in areas of tissue damage or inflammation and are not associated with systemic disorders like the ones mentioned in the question.

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  • 44. 

    True or False?  Metastatic calcifications reflect deranged calcium metabolism leading to increased serum calcium levels and deposition of calcium in other locations.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Metastatic calcifications occur when there is an abnormality in calcium metabolism, resulting in elevated levels of calcium in the bloodstream. This excess calcium then gets deposited in various tissues and organs throughout the body. Therefore, the statement that metastatic calcifications reflect deranged calcium metabolism leading to increased serum calcium levels and deposition of calcium in other locations is true.

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  • Current Version
  • May 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 24, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Tburger

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